Professional Documents
Culture Documents
5
CHAPTER
Risk, Return,
and the Historical
PART II
Record
1
Black swans are a metaphor for highly improbable—but highly impactful—events. Until the discovery of Australia, Europeans, having
observed only white swans, believed that a black swan was outside the realm of reasonable possibility or, in statistical jargon, an extreme
“outlier” relative to their “sample” of observations. See Nassim N. Taleb, The Black Swan: The Impact of the Highly Improbable
(New York: Random House, 2010).
117
More precisely, we find the proportional increase in purchasing power by dividing the
growth of invested funds by the growth of prices. If we call rnom the nominal interest rate,
rreal the real rate, and i the inflation rate, then we conclude
1 + rnom ____
1.10
1 + rreal = _______ = = 1.038 (5.1)
1 + i 1.06
A common approximation to this relation is
rreal ≈ rnom − i (5.2)
In words, the real rate of interest is the nominal rate reduced by the loss of purchasing
power resulting from inflation.
The exact relationship in Equation 5.1 can be rearranged to
rnom − i
rreal = _______ (5.3)
1 + i
which shows that the approximation rule (Equation 5.2) overstates the real rate by the
factor 1 + i.
If the nominal interest rate on a 1-year CD is 8%, and you expect inflation to be 5% over
the coming year, then using the approximation formula, you expect the real rate of interest
.08 − .05
to be rreal = 8% − 5% = 3%. Using the exact formula, the real rate is rreal = _________ =
1 + .05
.0286, or 2.86%. Therefore, the approximation rule overstates the expected real rate by
.14% (14 basis points). The approximation rule is more exact for small inflation rates and
is perfectly exact for continuously compounded rates. We discuss further details in the
next section.
2
You can lock in the real rate for a desired maturity from inflation-indexed bonds issued by the U.S. Treasury,
called TIPS. (See Chapter 14 for a fuller discussion.) The difference between TIPS yields and yields on compa-
rable nominal Treasury bonds provides an estimate of the market’s expectation of future inflation.
rnom = rreal + E(i) (5.4)
The Fisher hypothesis implies that when real rates are stable, changes in nominal
rates ought to predict changes in inflation rates. This prediction has been debated and
empirically investigated with mixed results. It is difficult to definitively test the hypothesis
because the equilibrium real rate also changes unpredictably over time. Although the data
do not strongly support the Fisher equation, nominal interest rates seem to predict inflation
as well as alternative methods, in part because we are unable to forecast inflation well with
any method.
3
The U.S. Treasury issues T-bills, which are pure discount (or zero-coupon) securities with maturities of up to
1 year. However, financial institutions create zero-coupon Treasury bonds called Treasury strips with maturities
up to 30 years by buying coupon-paying T-bonds, “stripping” off the coupon payments, and selling claims to the
coupon payments and final payment of face value separately. See Chapter 14 for further details.
and maturity of T years, we calculate the total risk-free return available for a horizon of
T years as the percentage increase in the value of the investment.
100
rf (T ) = _____ − 1 (5.6)
P(T )
For T = 1, Equation 5.6 provides the risk-free rate for an investment horizon of 1 year.
Suppose prices of zero-coupon Treasuries with $100 face value and various maturities are
as follows. We find the total return of each security by using Equation 5.6:
Not surprisingly, longer horizons in Example 5.2 provide greater total returns. How
should we compare returns on investments with differing horizons? This requires that we
express each total return as a rate of return for a common period. We typically express all
investment returns as an effective annual rate (EAR), defined as the percentage increase
in funds invested over a 1-year horizon.
For a 1-year investment, the EAR equals the total return, rf (1), and the gross return,
(1 + EAR), is the terminal value of a $1 investment. For investments that last less than
1 year, we compound the per-period return for a full year. For the 6-month bill in
Example 5.2, we compound 2.71% half-year returns over two semiannual periods to obtain
a terminal value of 1 + EAR = (1.0271)2 = 1.0549, implying that EAR = 5.49%.
For investments longer than a year, the convention is to express the EAR as the annual
rate that would compound to the same value as the actual investment. For example, the
investment in the 25-year bond in Example 5.2 grows by its maturity by a factor of 4.2918
(i.e., 1 + 3.2918), so its EAR is found by solving
(1 + EAR)25 = 4.2918
1 + EAR = 4.29181/25 = 1.0600
In general, we can relate EAR to the total return, rf (T ), over a holding period of length T
by using the following equation:
1 + EAR = [1 + rf (T )]1/ T (5.7)
We illustrate with an example.
In Table 5.1 we use Equation 5.8 to find the APR corresponding to an EAR of 5.8% with
various compounding periods. Conversely, we find values of EAR implied by an APR of 5.8%.
Continuous Compounding
It is evident from Table 5.1 (and Equation 5.8) that the difference between APR and
EAR grows with the frequency of compounding. This raises the question: How far will
these two rates diverge as the compounding frequency continues to grow? Put differ-
ently, what is the limit of [1 + T × APR]1/ T, as T gets ever smaller? As T approaches zero,
we effectively approach continuous compounding (CC), and the relation of EAR to the
Table 5.1
Annual percentage rates (APR) and effective annual rates (EAR). In the first set of columns, we eXcel
hold the equivalent annual rate (EAR) fixed at 5.8% and find APR for each holding period. In Please visit us at
the second set of columns, we hold APR fixed at 5.8% and solve for EAR. www.mhhe.com/Bodie11e
annual percentage rate, denoted by rcc for the continuously compounded case, is given
by the exponential function
1 + EAR = exp (rcc) = e rcc (5.9)
where e is approximately 2.71828.
To find rcc from the effective annual rate, we solve Equation 5.9 for rcc as follows:
ln(1 + EAR) = rcc
where ln(•) is the natural logarithm function, the inverse of exp(•). Both the exponen-
tial and logarithmic functions are available in Excel and are called EXP(•) and LN(•),
respectively.
The continuously compounded annual percentage rate, rcc, that provides an EAR of 5.8%
is 5.638% (see Table 5.1). This is virtually the same as the APR for daily compounding.
But for less frequent compounding, for example, semiannually, the APR necessary to provide
the same EAR is noticeably higher, 5.718%. With less frequent compounding, a higher APR is
necessary to provide an equivalent effective return.
( 1 + inflation )
1 + r (nominal)
⇒ ln[1 + r (real)] = ln _____________ = ln[1 + r (nominal)]− ln(1 + inflation)
Table 5.2
Average Annual Rates Standard Deviation
Statistics for T-bill rates,
T-Bills Inflation Real T-Bill T-Bills Inflation Real T-Bill inflation rates, and real
rates, 1926–2015
All months 3.46 3.00 0.56 3.12 4.07 3.81
First half 1.04 1.68 −0.29 1.29 5.95 6.27
Recent half 4.45 3.53 0.90 3.11 2.89 2.13
Sources: Annual rates of return from rolling over 1-month T-bills: Kenneth French; annual inflation rates: Bureau
of Labor Statistics.
Table 5.2 summarizes the history of returns on 1-month U.S. Treasury bills, the inflation
rate, and the resultant real rate. You can find the entire post-1926 history of the monthly
rates of these series in Connect (link to the material for Chapter 5).
The first set of columns of Table 5.2 lists average annual rates for three periods. The
average interest rate over the more recent portion of our history, 1952–2015 (essentially the
post-war period), 4.45%, was noticeably higher than in the earlier portion, 1.04%. The rea-
son is inflation, the main driver of T-bill rates, which also had a noticeably higher average
value, 3.53%, in the later portion of the sample than in the earlier period, 1.68%. Neverthe-
less, nominal interest rates in the recent period were still high enough to leave a higher aver-
age real rate, .90%, compared with a negative 29 basis points (–.29%) for the earlier period.
Figure 5.2 shows why we divide the sample period at 1952. After that year, inflation
is far less volatile, and, probably as a result, the nominal interest rate tracks the inflation
rate with far greater precision, resulting in a far more stable real interest rate. This shows
up as the dramatic reduction in the standard deviation of the real rate documented in the
last column of Table 5.2. Whereas the standard deviation is 6.27% in the early part of the
20
T-Bills
15 Inflation
10
Percentage Points
–5
–10
–15
1926
1936
1946
1956
1966
1976
1986
1996
2006
2016
sample, it is only 2.13% in the later portion. The lower standard deviation of the real rate
in the post-1952 period reflects a similar decline in the standard deviation of the inflation
rate. We conclude that the Fisher relation appears to work far better when inflation is itself
more predictable and investors can more accurately gauge the nominal interest rate they
require to provide an acceptable real rate of return.
Ending price of a share − Beginning price + Cash dividend
HPR = ________________________________________________ (5.10)
Beginning price
Here we have
$110 − $100 + $4
HPR = _______________ = .14, or 14%
$100
This definition of the HPR treats the dividend as paid at the end of the holding period.
When dividends are received earlier, the HPR should account for reinvestment income
between the receipt of the payment and the end of the holding period. The percent return
from dividends is called the dividend yield, and so dividend yield plus the rate of capital
gains equals HPR.
Applying this formula to the data in Spreadsheet 5.1, the expected rate of return on the
index fund is
E(r) = (.25 × .31) + (.45 × .14) + [.25 × (− .0675)] + [.05 × (− .52)] = .0976
A B C D E F G H I
1
2
3 Purchase Price = $100 T-Bill Rate = 0.04
4
5 Squared Squared
6 State of the Year-End Cash Deviations Deviations Excess Deviations
7 Market Probability Price Dividends HPR from Mean from Mean Returns from Mean
8 Excellent 0.25 126.50 4.50 0.3100 0.2124 0.0451 0.2700 0.0451
9 Good 0.45 110.00 4.00 0.1400 0.0424 0.0018 0.1000 0.0018
10 Poor 0.25 89.75 3.50 –0.0675 –0.1651 0.0273 –0.1075 0.0273
11 Crash 0.05 46.00 2.00 –0.5200 –0.6176 0.3815 –0.5600 0.3815
12 Expected Value (mean) SUMPRODUCT(B8:B11, E8:E11) = 0.0976
13 Variance of HPR SUMPRODUCT(B8:B11, G8:G11) = 0.0380
14 Standard Deviation of HPR SQRT(G13) = 0.1949
15 Risk Premium SUMPRODUCT(B8:B11, H8:H11) = 0.0576
16 Standard Deviation of Excess Return SQRT(SUMPRODUCT(B8:B11, I8:I11)) = 0.1949
Spreadsheet 5.1
Scenario analysis of holding-period return of the stock-index fund
Spreadsheet 5.1 shows that this sum can be evaluated easily in Excel, using the
SUMPRODUCT function, which first calculates the products of a series of number pairs,
and then sums the products. Here, the number pair is the probability of each scenario and
the rate of return.
The variance of the rate of return (σ2 ) is a measure of volatility. It measures the disper-
sion of possible outcomes around the expected value. Volatility is reflected in deviations
of actual returns from the mean return. In order to prevent positive deviations from cancel-
ing out with negative deviations, we calculate the expected value of the squared devia-
tions from the expected return. The higher the dispersion of outcomes, the higher will be
the average value of these squared deviations. Therefore, variance is a natural measure of
uncertainty. Symbolically,
σ2 = ∑ p(s)[r (s) − E(r)]2 (5.12)
s
To illustrate, Spreadsheet 5.2 presents a (very short) time series of hypothetical holding-
period returns for the S&P 500 index over a 5-year period. We treat each HPR of the n = 5
observations in the time series as an equally likely annual outcome during the sample years
and assign it an equal probability of 1/5, or .2. Column B in Spreadsheet 5.2 therefore uses .2
as probabilities, and Column C shows the annual HPRs. Applying Equation 5.13 (using Excel’s
SUMPRODUCT function) to the time series in Spreadsheet 5.2 demonstrates that adding up
the products of probability times HPR amounts to taking the arithmetic average of the HPRs
(compare cells C7 and C8).
Example 5.6 illustrates the logic for the wide use of the arithmetic average in invest-
ments. If the time series of historical returns fairly represents the true underlying prob-
ability distribution, then the arithmetic average return from a historical period provides a
forecast of the investment’s expected future HPR.
A B C D E F
Implicit Squared Gross Return Wealth
1 Year Probability HPR (decimal) Deviation = 1 + HPR Index*
2 1 0.20 –0.1189 0.0196 0.8811 0.8811
3 2 0.20 –0.2210 0.0586 0.7790 0.6864
4 3 0.20 0.2869 0.0707 1.2869 0.8833
5 4 0.20 0.1088 0.0077 1.1088 0.9794
6 5 0.20 0.0491 0.0008 1.0491 1.0275
7 Arithmetic average = AVERAGE(C2:C6) 0.0210
8 Expected HPR SUMPRODUCT(B2:B6, C2:C6) 0.0210
9 Variance SUMPRODUCT(B2:B6, D2:D6) 0.0315
10 Standard deviation SQRT(D9) 0.1774
11 Standard deviation STDEV.P(C2:C6) 0.1774
12 Std dev (df = 4) SQRT(D9*5/4) 0.1983
13 Std dev (df = 4) STDEV.S(C2:C6) 0.1983
14 Geometric avg return F6^(1/5)- 1 0.0054
15
16 * The wealth index is the cumulative value of $1 invested at the beginning of the sample period.
Spreadsheet 5.2
Time series of holding-period returns
Column F in Spreadsheet 5.2 shows the investor’s “wealth index” from investing
$1 in an S&P 500 index fund at the beginning of the first year. Wealth in each year
increases by the “gross return,” that is, by the multiple (1 + HPR), shown in column
E. The wealth index is the cumulative value of $1 invested at the beginning of the
sample period. The value of the wealth index at the end of the fifth year, $1.0275, is
the terminal value of the $1 investment, which implies a 5-year holding-period return
of 2.75%.
An intuitive measure of performance over the sample period is the (fixed) annual
HPR that would compound over the period to the same terminal value obtained from the
sequence of actual returns in the time series. Denote this rate by g, so that
Terminal value = (1 + r1) × (1 + r2) × . . . × (1 + r5) = 1.0275
(1 + g)n = Terminal value = 1.0275 (cell F6 in Spreadsheet 5.2) (5.14)
1/n 1/5
g = Terminal value − 1 = 1.0275 − 1 = .0054 = .54% (cell F14)
E[Geometric average] = E[Arithmetic average] − 1⁄ 2 σ2 (5.15)
(A warning: To use Equation 5.15, you must express returns as decimals, not per-
centages.) When returns are approximately normal, Equation 5.15 will be a good
approximation.6
The discrepancy between the geometric and arithmetic average arises from the asym-
metric effect of positive and negative rates of returns on the terminal value of the portfolio.
Example 5.7 illustrates this effect.
Suppose you have a rate of return of −20% in year 1 and 20% in year 2. The arithmetic
average is 0. Yet each dollar invested for two years will grow to only .80 × 1.20 = $.96, less
than the dollar you started with, implying a negative geometric average return. Your posi-
tive HPR in year 2 is applied to a smaller investment base than the negative HPR incurred
in year 1. To break even after losing 20% in year 1, you would have needed a rate of return
of 25% in year 2.
Now suppose that the order of the rates of return were switched, so that your HPRs were
20% in year 1 and −20% in year 2. Again, your arithmetic average return is zero, but you still
end up with only $.96 (= 1.20 × .80). In this case, the loss in year 2 is applied to a bigger
investment base than the gain in year 1, resulting in a larger dollar loss. In either case, the
geometric average is less than the arithmetic one.
6
We measure historical performance over a particular sample period by the geometric average but estimate
expected future performance from that same sample using the arithmetic average. The question naturally arises:
If the same sample were to recur in the future, performance would be measured by the geometric average, so
isn’t that the best estimator of expected return? Surprisingly, the answer is no. Future results will always con-
tain both positive and negative surprises compared to prior expectations. When compounded, a run of positive
surprises has greater impact on final wealth than a run of equal-sized negative ones. Because of this asymmetry,
the sample geometric average is actually a downward-biased estimate of the future average return drawn from
the same distribution. The bias turns out to be half the variance, and thus using the arithmetic average corrects
for this bias.
Take another look at Spreadsheet 5.2. Column D shows the squared deviation from the arith-
metic average, and cell D9 gives the variance as .0315. This is the sum of the product of the
probability of each outcome across our five observations (because these are historical esti-
mates, we take each outcome as equally likely) times the squared deviation of that outcome.
Finally, the standard deviation given in cell D10, .1774, is the square root of the variance.
The variance estimate from Equation 5.16 is biased downward, however. The rea-
son is that we have taken deviations from the sample arithmetic average, ¯ r , instead of
the unknown, true expected value, E(r), and so have introduced an estimation error. Its
effect on the estimated variance is sometimes called a degrees of freedom bias. We can
eliminate the bias by multiplying the arithmetic average of squared deviations by the factor
n /(n − 1). The variance and standard deviation then become
( n − 1 ) n s = 1
n 1 n 1 n
σ^ 2 = _____ × __ ∑ [r (s) − ¯
r ]2 = _____ ∑ [r (s) − ¯
r ]2
n − 1 s = 1
_________________ (5.17)
√ n − 1
1
_____
n
σ^ = ∑ [r (s) − ¯
r ]2
s=1
Cell D13 shows the unbiased estimate of standard deviation, .1983, which is higher than
the .1774 value obtained in cell D11. In Excel, the function STDEV.P calculates standard
deviation without any correction for degrees of freedom (consistent with Equation 5.16)
while the function STDEV.S applies the correction (consistent with Equation 5.17).
For large samples, the distinction is usually not important: n/(n − 1) is close to 1, and the
adjustment for degrees of freedom becomes trivially small.
relevant to estimating expected returns in the 21st century? Quite possibly not, implying
that we face severe limits to the accuracy of our estimates of mean returns.
In contrast to the mean, the accuracy of estimates of the standard deviation can be
made more precise by increasing the number of observations. This is because the more
frequent observations give us more information about the distribution of deviations from
the average. Thus, we can improve the accuracy of estimates of SD by using more frequent
observations.
Estimates of standard deviation begin with the variance. When monthly returns are
uncorrelated from one month to another, monthly variances simply add up. Thus, when the
variance is the same every month, the variance of annual returns is 12 times the variance
of monthly returns:7 σ 2A = 12 σ 2M . In general, the T-month variance__ is T times the 1-month
variance. Consequently, standard deviation grows at the rate of √T ; for example, the stan-
dard deviation
___ of annual returns is related to the standard deviation of monthly returns by
σ A = √12 σ M. While the mean and variance grow in direct proportion to time, SD grows
at the rate of square root of time.
Take another look at Spreadsheet 5.1. The scenario analysis for the proposed invest-
ment in the stock-index fund resulted in a risk premium of 5.76% and standard devia-
tion of excess returns of 19.49%. This implies a Sharpe ratio of .30, a value roughly
in line with the historical performance of stock-index funds. We will see that while the
Sharpe ratio is an adequate measure of the risk–return trade-off for diversified portfo-
lios (the subject of this chapter), it is inadequate when applied to individual assets such
as shares of stock.
7
When returns are uncorrelated, we do not have to worry about covariances among them. Therefore, the variance
of the sum of 12 monthly returns (i.e., the variance of the annual return) is the sum of the 12 monthly variances.
If returns are correlated across months, annualizing is more involved and requires adjusting for the structure of
serial correlation.
Notice that 2 days can produce three different outcomes and, in general, n days can
produce n + 1 possible outcomes. The most likely 2-day outcome is “one good and one bad
day,” which can happen in two ways (first a good day, or first a bad day). The probability of
this outcome is .5. Less likely are the two extreme outcomes (both good days or both bad
days) with probability .25 each.
What is the distribution of profits at the end of 200 days? There are 201 possible
outcomes and, again, the midrange outcomes are the most likely because there are more
sequences that lead to them. While only one sequence can result in 200 consecutive
bad days, an enormous number of sequences of good and bad days result in 100 good
days and 100 bad days. Therefore, midrange outcomes are far more likely than are
either extremely good or extremely bad outcomes, just as described by the familiar
bell-shaped curve.
Figure 5.3 shows a graph of the normal curve with mean of 10% and standard devia-
tion of 20%. A smaller SD means that possible outcomes cluster more tightly around
the mean, while a higher SD implies more diffuse distributions. The likelihood of real-
izing any particular outcome when sampling from a normal distribution is fully deter-
mined by the number of standard deviations that separate that outcome from the mean.
Put differently, the normal distribution is completely characterized by two parameters,
the mean and SD.
Investment management is far more tractable when rates of return can be well approxi-
mated by the normal distribution. First, the normal distribution is symmetric, that is, the
probability of any positive deviation above the mean is equal to that of a negative deviation
of the same magnitude. Absent symmetry, the standard deviation is an incomplete mea-
sure of risk. Second, the normal distribution belongs to a special family of distributions
characterized as “stable” because of the following property: When assets with normally
distributed returns are mixed to construct a portfolio, the portfolio return also is normally
distributed. Third, scenario analysis is greatly simplified when only two parameters (mean
and SD) need to be estimated to obtain the probabilities of future scenarios. Fourth, when
constructing portfolios of securities, we must account for the statistical dependence of
returns across securities. Generally, such dependence is a complex, multilayered relation-
ship. But when securities are normally distributed, the statistical relation between returns
can be summarized with a single correlation coefficient.
How closely must actual return distributions fit the normal curve to justify its use in
investment management? Clearly, the normal curve cannot be a perfect description of real-
ity. For example, actual returns cannot be less than −100%, which the normal distribution
would not rule out. But this does not mean that the normal curve cannot still be useful.
A similar issue arises in many other contexts. For example, birth weight is typically evalu-
ated in comparison to a normal curve of newborn weights, although no baby is born with a
negative weight. The normal distribution still is useful here because the SD of the weight
68.26%
95.44%
99.74%
Figure 5.3 The normal distribution with mean 10% and standard deviation 20%.
is small relative to its mean, and the predicted likelihood of a negative weight would be too
trivial to matter.8 In a similar spirit, we must identify criteria to determine the adequacy of
the normality assumption for rates of return.
Suppose the monthly rate of return on the S&P 500 is approximately normally distributed
with a mean of 1% and standard deviation of 6%. What is the probability that the return on the
index in any month will be negative? We can use Excel’s built-in functions to quickly answer
this question. The probability of observing an outcome less than some cutoff according to
the normal distribution function is given as NORM.DIST(cutoff, mean, standard deviation,
TRUE).9 In this case, we want to know the probability of an outcome below zero, when the
mean is 1% and the standard deviation is 6%, so we compute NORM.DIST(0, 1, 6, TRUE) =
.4338. We could also use Excel’s built-in standard normal function, NORM.S.DIST, which uses
a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1, and ask for the probability of an outcome 1/6 of a
standard deviation below the mean: NORM.S.DIST(−1/6, TRUE) = .4338.
8
In fact, the standard deviation is 511 grams while the mean is 3,958 grams. A negative weight would therefore
be 7.74 standard deviations below the mean, and according to the normal distribution would have probability of
only 4.97 × 10−15. The issue of negative birth weight clearly isn’t a practical concern.
9
In older versions of Excel, this function is NORMDIST(cutoff, mean, standard deviation).
10
For distributions that are symmetric about the average, as is the case for the normal distribution, all odd
moments (n = 1, 3, 5, . . .) have expectations of zero. For the normal distribution, the expectations of all higher
even moments (n = 4, 6, . . .) are functions only of the standard deviation, σ. For example, the expected fourth
moment (n = 4) is 3σ4, and for n = 6, it is 15σ6. Thus, for normally distributed returns the standard deviation, σ,
provides a complete measure of risk, and portfolio performance may be measured by the Sharpe ratio. For other
distributions, however, asymmetry may be measured by the higher odd moments. Larger even moments (in excess
of those consistent with the normal distribution), combined with large, negative odd moments, indicate higher
probabilities of extreme negative outcomes.
A measure of asymmetry called skew is the ratio of the average cubed deviations from
the sample average, called the third moment, to the cubed standard deviation:
[ σ^ 3 ]
(R − ¯
R )3
Skew = Average ________ (5.19)
Cubing deviations maintains their sign (the cube of a negative number is negative).
When a distribution is “skewed to the right,” as is the dark curve in Figure 5.4A, the
extreme positive values, when
cubed, dominate the third moment,
resulting in a positive skew. When
0.030 Positively Skewed
a distribution is “skewed to the
Negatively Skewed
left,” the cubed extreme negative 0.025 Normal
values dominate, and skew will be
negative. 0.020
Probability
When the distribution is posi-
tively skewed (skewed to the right), 0.015
Skew = 0.75
the standard deviation overesti- 0.010 Skew = -0.75
mates risk, because extreme posi-
tive surprises (which do not concern 0.005
investors) nevertheless increase the
estimate of volatility. Conversely, and 0
0 0.20 0.40 0.60
more important, when the distribu-
-0.60 -0.40 -0.20
Rate of Return
tion is negatively skewed, the SD will
underestimate risk.
Another potentially important
deviation from normality, kurtosis, Figure 5.4A Normal and skewed distributions
concerns the likelihood of extreme (mean = 6%, SD = 17%)
values on either side of the mean at
the expense of a smaller likelihood
of moderate deviations. Graphi-
cally speaking, when the tails of a
0.60
distribution are “fat,” there is more
Normal
probability mass in the tails of the 0.50 Fat-Tailed
distribution than predicted by the
Probability Density
average raised to the fourth power (the fourth moment of the distribution), scaled by the
fourth power of the SD,
[ σ^ 4 ]
(R − ¯
R )4
Kurtosis = Average ________ − 3 (5.20)
We subtract 3 in Equation 5.20 because the expected value of the ratio for a normal distri-
bution is 3. Thus, this formula for kurtosis uses the normal distribution as a benchmark:
The kurtosis for the normal distribution is, in effect, defined as zero, so kurtosis above zero
is a sign of fatter tails. The kurtosis of the distribution in Figure 5.4B, which has visible
fat tails, is .35.
Notice that both skew and kurtosis are pure numbers. They do not change when annual-
ized from higher frequency observations.
Higher frequency of extreme negative returns may result from negative skew and/or
kurtosis (fat tails). Therefore, we would like a risk measure that indicates vulnerability
to extreme negative returns. We discuss four such measures that are most frequently used
in practice: value at risk, expected shortfall, lower partial standard deviation, and the
frequency of extreme (3-sigma) returns.
Value at Risk
The value at risk (denoted VaR to distinguish it from Var, the abbreviation for variance) is
the loss corresponding to a very low percentile of the entire return distribution, for exam-
ple, the 5th or 1st percentile return. VaR is actually written into regulation of banks and
closely watched by risk managers. It is another name for the quantile of a distribution. The
quantile, q, of a distribution is the value below which lie q% of the possible values. Thus
the median is q = 50th quantile. Practitioners commonly estimate the 1% VaR, meaning
that 99% of returns will exceed the VaR, and 1% of returns will be worse. Therefore, the
1% VaR may be viewed as the cut-off separating the 1% worst-case future scenarios from
the rest of the distribution.
When portfolio returns are normally distributed, the VaR is fully determined by the
mean and SD of the distribution. Recalling that −2.33 is the first percentile of the standard
normal distribution (with mean = 0 and SD = 1), the VaR for a normal distribution is
VaR(1%, normal) = Mean − 2.33SD
To obtain a sample estimate of VaR, we sort the observations from high to low. The VaR is
the return at the 1st percentile of the sample distribution.11
Expected Shortfall
When we assess tail risk by looking at the 1% worst-case scenarios, the VaR is the most
optimistic measure of bad-case outcomes as it takes the highest return (smallest loss) of
all these cases. In other words, it tells you the investment loss at the first percentile of the
11
Almost always, 1% of the number of observations will not be an integer; in this case we must interpolate
between the observation just above the first percentile and the observation just below.
return distribution, but it ignores the magnitudes of potential losses even further out in the
tail. A more informative view of downside exposure would focus instead on the expected
loss given that we find ourselves in one of the worst-case scenarios. This value, unfortu-
nately, has two names: either expected shortfall (ES) or conditional tail expectation
(CTE); the latter emphasizes that this expectation is conditioned on being in the left tail of
the distribution. ES is the more commonly used terminology. Using a sample of historical
returns, we would estimate the 1% expected shortfall by identifying the worst 1% of all
observations and taking their average.12
12
A formula for the ES in the case of normally distributed returns is given in Jonathan Treussard, “The
Non-monotonicity of Value-at-Risk and the Validity of Risk Measures over Different Horizons,” IFCAI Journal
of Financial Risk Management, March 2007. The formula is
1
ES = ___ exp(μ)N[−σ − F (.95)] − 1
.05
where μ is the mean of the continuously compounded returns, σ is the SD, N(•) is the cumulative standard normal,
and F is its inverse. It should be noted, however, that estimates of VaR and ES from historical samples, while
unbiased, are subject to large estimation errors because they are estimated from a small number of extreme returns.
A: Treasury Bills
70
60
Percent of Observations (%)
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 to 5
15 to 20
20 to 25
25 to 30
30 to 35
35 to 40
40 to 45
45 to 50
50 to 55
55 to 60
–45 to –40
–40 to –35
–35 to –30
–30 to –25
–25 to –20
–20 to –15
–15 to –10
–10 to –5
–5 to 0
5 to 10
10 to 15
Figure 5.5 Frequency distribution of annual returns on U.S. Treasury bills, Treasury bonds, and common stocks
B: Treasury Bonds
30
25
Percent of Observations (%)
20
15
10
0 to 5
15 to 20
20 to 25
25 to 30
30 to 35
35 to 40
40 to 45
45 to 50
50 to 55
55 to 60
–45 to –40
–40 to –35
–35 to –30
–30 to –25
–25 to –20
–20 to –15
–15 to –10
–10 to –5
–5 to 0
5 to 10
10 to 15
Annual return (%)
15
10
0
0 to 5
15 to 20
20 to 25
25 to 30
30 to 35
35 to 40
40 to 45
45 to 50
50 to 55
55 to 60
–45 to –40
–40 to –35
–35 to –30
–30 to –25
–25 to –20
–20 to –15
–15 to –10
–10 to –5
–5 to 0
5 to 10
10 to 15
reflect risk but rather changes in the risk-free rate over time.13 Anyone buying a T-bill
knows exactly what the (nominal) return will be when the bill matures, so variation in the
return is not a reflection of risk over that short holding period.
13
You might wonder about the negative T-bill rates that show up in the frequency distribution in Figure 5.5.
T-bills did not make their debut until the 1940s. For earlier dates, commercial paper is used as the closest approxi-
mation to short-term risk-free rates. In a few instances they were issued slightly above par and thus yielded
slightly negative rates.
Table 5.3
T-Bills T-Bonds Stocks
Risk and return
of investments in Average 3.47% 6.00% 11.77%
major asset classes, Risk premium N/A 2.53 8.30
1926–2015 Standard deviation 3.13 10.02 20.28
Max 14.71 40.36 57.53
Min −0.02 −14.90 −44.04
80
Annualized Standard Deviation of
70
Monthly Excess Returns
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
1927
1932
1937
1942
1947
1952
1957
1962
1967
1972
1977
1982
1987
1992
1997
2002
2007
2012
2017
Figure 5.6 Annualized standard deviation of the monthly excess return on the market
index portfolio
Source: Authors’ calculations using data from Prof. Kenneth French’s Web site: http://mba.tuck.dartmouth.edu/
pages/faculty/ken.french/data_library.html.
“tail risk,” that is, our exposure to unlikely but very large outcomes in the left tail of the
probability distributions. Figure 5.7 provides some evidence of this exposure. It shows a fre-
quency distribution of monthly excess returns on the market index since 1926. The first bar
in each set shows the historical frequency of excess returns falling within each range, while
50
45
35
30
Percent (%)
25
20
15
10
0
–35 to –30
–30 to –25
–25 to –20
–20 to –15
–15 to –10
–10 to –5
10 to 15
–5 to 0
0 to 5
5 to 10
15 to 20
20 to 25
25 to 30
30 to 35
Figure 5.7 Frequency distribution of monthly excess returns on the market index (the first bar in each set)
versus predicted frequency from a normal distribution with matched mean and standard deviation (the second
bar in each set)
Source: This frequency distribution is for monthly excess returns on the market index, obtained from Prof. Kenneth French’s Web site,
http://mba.tuck.dartmouth.edu/pages/faculty/ken.french/data_library.html. The returns are expressed as continuously compounded rates,
as these are most appropriate for comparison with the normal distribution.
the second bar shows the frequencies that we would observe if these returns followed a nor-
mal distribution with the same mean and variance as the actual empirical distribution. You
can see here some evidence of a fat-tailed distribution: The actual frequencies of extreme
returns, both high and low, are higher than would be predicted by the normal distribution.
Further evidence on the distribution of excess equity returns is given in Table 5.4.
Here, we use monthly data on both the market index and, for comparison, several “style”
portfolios. You may remember from Chapter 4, Figure 4.5, that the performance of
mutual funds is commonly evaluated relative to other funds with similar investment
“styles.” (See the Morningstar style box in Figure 4.5.) Style is defined along two
dimensions: size (do the funds invest in large cap or small cap firms?) and value vs.
growth. Firms with high ratios of market value to book value are viewed as “growth
firms” because, to justify their high prices relative to current book values, the market
must anticipate rapid growth.
The use of style portfolios as a benchmark for performance evaluation traces back to
influential papers by Eugene Fama and Kenneth French, who extensively documented
A. 1926−June 2016
Mean excess return (annualized) 08.30 7.98 11.67 8.79 15.56
Standard deviation (annualized) 18.64 18.50 24.62 26.21 28.36
Sharpe ratio 0.45 0.43 0.47 0.34 0.55
Lower partial SD (annualized) 19.49 18.57 22.78 25.92 25.98
Skew 0.20 −0.10 1.70 0.70 2.19
Kurtosis 7.77 5.55 19.05 7.83 22.21
VaR (1%) actual (monthly) returns −13.95 −14.68 −19.53 −20.59 −20.47
VaR (1%) normal distribution −11.87 −11.80 −15.63 −16.92 −17.87
% of monthly returns more than 3 0.94% 0.75% 0.94% 0.75% 0.57%
SD below mean
Expected shortfall (monthly) −20.14 −20.33 −24.30 −25.02 −25.76
B. 1952−June 2016
Mean excess return (annualized) 7.52 7.18 9.92 7.05 13.34
Standard deviation (annualized) 14.89 15.54 15.95 22.33 18.42
Sharpe ratio 0.50 0.46 0.62 0.32 0.72
Lower partial SD (annualized) 16.51 15.67 16.01 23.79 19.36
Skew −0.52 −0.36 −0.29 −0.36 −0.35
Kurtosis 1.90 1.81 2.26 2.17 3.48
VaR (1%) actual (monthly) returns −10.80 −10.90 −11.94 −16.93 −15.21
VaR (1%) normal distribution −9.37 −9.84 −9.89 −14.41 −11.26
% of monthly returns more than 3 0.66% 0.66% 0.80% 0.93% 1.19%
SD below mean
Expected shortfall (monthly) −18.85 −17.99 −21.30 −24.66 −28.33
Table 5.4
Statistics for monthly excess returns on the market index and four “style” portfolios
Sources: Authors’ calculations using data from Prof. Kenneth French’s Web site: http://mba.tuck.dartmouth.edu/pages/faculty/ken.french/
data_library.html.
that firm size and the book value-to-market value ratio predict average returns; these
patterns have since been corroborated in stock exchanges around the world.14 A high
book-to-market (B/M) ratio is interpreted as an indication that the value of the firm
is driven primarily by assets already in place, rather than the prospect of high future
growth. These are called “value” firms. In contrast, a low book-to-market ratio is typical
of firms whose market value derives mostly from ample growth opportunities. Realized
average returns, other things equal, historically have been higher for value firms than
for growth firms and for small firms than for large ones. The Fama-French database
includes returns on portfolios of U.S. stocks sorted by size (Big; Small) and by B/M
ratios (High; Medium; Low).15
Following the Fama-French classifications, we drop the medium B/M portfolios and
identify firms ranked in the top 30% of B/M ratio as “value firms” and firms ranked in the
bottom 30% as “growth firms.” We split firms into above and below median levels of mar-
ket capitalization to establish subsamples of small versus large firms. We thus obtain four
comparison portfolios: Big/Growth, Big/Value, Small/Growth, and Small/Value.
Table 5.4, Panel A, presents results using monthly data for the full sample period, July
1926–June 2016. The top two lines show the annualized average excess return and stan-
dard deviation of each portfolio. The broad market index outperformed T-bills by an aver-
age of 8.30% per year, with a standard deviation of 18.64%, resulting in a Sharpe ratio
(third line) of 8.30/18.64 = .45. In line with the Fama-French analysis, small/value firms
had the highest average excess return and the best risk–return trade-off with a Sharpe ratio
of .55. However, Figure 5.5 warns us that actual returns may have fatter tails than the nor-
mal distribution, so we need to consider risk measures beyond just the standard deviation.
The table therefore also presents several measures of risk that are suited for non-normal
distributions.
Several of these other measures actually do not show meaningful departures from the
symmetric normal distribution. Skew is generally near zero; if downside risk were substan-
tially grater than upside potential, we would expect skew to be generally negative, which
it is not. Along the same lines, the lower partial standard deviation is generally quite close
to the conventional standard deviation. Finally, while the actual 1% VaR of these portfolios
are uniformly higher than the 1% VaR that would be predicted from normal distributions
with matched means and standard deviations, the differences between the empirical and
predicted VaR statistics are not large. By this metric as well, the normal appears to be a
decent approximation to the actual return distribution.
However, there is other evidence suggesting fat tails in the return distributions of these
portfolios. To begin, note that kurtosis (the measure of the “fatness” of both tails of the
distribution) is uniformly high. Investors are, of course, concerned with the lower (left)
tail of the distribution; they do not lose sleep over their exposure to extreme good returns!
Unfortunately, these portfolios suggest that the left tail of the return distribution is over-
represented compared to the normal. If excess returns were normally distributed, then only
.13% of them would fall more than 3 standard deviations below the mean. In fact, the
actual incidence of excess returns below that cutoff are at least a few multiples of .13% for
each portfolio.
The expected shortfall (ES) estimates show why VaR is only an incomplete measure of
downside risk. ES in Table 5.4 is the average excess return of those observations that fall
14
This literature began in earnest with their 1992 publication: “The Cross Section of Expected Stock Returns,”
Journal of Finance 47, 427–465.
15
We use the Fama-French data to construct Figures 5.4 and 5.5 and Tables 5.3 and 5.4. The database is available
at: http://mba.tuck.dartmouth.edu/pages/faculty/ken.french/data_library.html.
in the extreme left tail, specifically, those that fall below the 1% VaR. By definition, this
value must be worse than the VaR, as it averages among all the returns that are below the
1% cutoff. Because it uses the actual returns of the “worst-case outcomes,” ES is by far a
better indicator of exposure to extreme events.
Figure 5.2 showed us that the post-war years (more accurately, the years after 1951)
have been far more predictable, at least with respect to interest rates. This suggests that it
may be instructive to examine stock returns in the post-1951 period as well to see if risk
and return characteristics for equity investments have changed meaningfully in the more
recent period. The relevant statistics are given in Panel B of Table 5.4. Perhaps not surpris-
ingly in light of the history of inflation and interest rates, the more recent period is in fact
less risky. Standard deviation for all five portfolios is noticeably lower in recent years, and
kurtosis, our measure of fat tails, drops dramatically. VaR also falls. While the number of
excess returns that are more than 3 SD below the mean changes inconsistently, because
SD is lower in this period, those negative returns are also less dramatic: Expected shortfall
generally is lower in the latter period.
The frequency distribution in Figure 5.5 and the statistics in Table 5.4 for the market
index as well as the style portfolios tell a reasonably consistent story. There is some, admit-
tedly inconsistent, evidence of fat tails, so investors should not take normality for granted.
On the other hand, extreme returns are in fact quite uncommon, especially in more recent
years. The incidence of returns on the market index in the post-1951 period that are worse
than 3 SD below the mean is .66%, compared to a prediction of .13% for the normal dis-
tribution. The “excess” rate of extreme bad outcomes is thus only .53%, or about once in
187 months (151⁄ 2 years). So it is not unreasonable to accept the simplification offered by
normality as an acceptable approximation as we think about constructing and evaluating
our portfolios.
12
10
8
Risk Premium (%)
0
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nd
Be in
ay
Sw d
Ze n
S.
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an
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rla
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al
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or
er
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Ca
Fi
Au
N
De
itz
19
ut
Sw
et
ew
x.
N
(e
N
y
an
m
er
G
Figure 5.8 Average excess returns in 20 countries, 1900–2015
Note: The data for Germany omit the hyperinflation years 1922 and 1923.
Source: Authors’ calculations using data from E. Dimson, P. R. Marsh, and M. Staunton, Triumph of the Optimists: 101 Years of Global Investment
Returns (Princeton, NJ: Princeton University Press, 2002), with updates kindly provided by Triumph’s authors.
*The material in this section addresses important and ongoing debates about risk and return, but it is more chal-
lenging. It may be skipped in shorter courses without impairing the ability to understand later chapters.
After 6 months (Panel A), the distribution of possible values is beginning to take on
the shape of the familiar bell-shaped curve. As we observed earlier, mid-range values are
more likely because there are more paths that take us to these outcomes. After 20 months
(Panel B), the bell-shaped distribution is even more obvious, but there is already a hint
that extremely good cumulative returns (with possible stock prices extending to $180 for a
cumulative gain of 80%) are more prevalent than extremely poor ones (notice that the worst
possible outcome is $82, implying a total loss of only 18%). After 40 months (Panel C), the
asymmetry in the distribution is pronounced.
This pattern emerges because of compounding. The upside potential of the investment
is unlimited. But no matter how many months in a row you lose 1%, your funds cannot
drop below zero, so there is a floor on worst-possible performance: you can’t lose more
than 100% of your investment. After 40 months, the best possible stock value is $100 ×
1.0340 = $326, for a total gain of 226%, but the worst possible outcome is $100 × .9940 =
$66.90, for a cumulative loss of 33.1%.
While the probability distribution in Figure 5.9 is bell-shaped, it is a distinctly “asym-
metric bell” with a positive skew, and the distribution is clearly not normal. In fact, the
actual distribution approaches the lognormal distribution. “Lognormal” means that the
log of the final portfolio value, ln(WT) is normally distributed.
Does this result invalidate the simplifying assumption of normally distributed returns?
Fortunately, there is a simple fix to this conundrum. Instead of using effective annual
returns, we can use continuously compounded returns.
If the continuously compounded returns in two months are rcc(1) and rcc(2), then
invested funds grow by a factor of exp[rcc(1)] in the first month and exp[rcc(2)] in the sec-
ond month, where exp( ) is the exponential function. The total growth in the investment is
thus exp[rcc(1)] × exp[rcc(2)] = exp[rcc(1) + rcc(2)]. In other words, the total two-month
return expressed as a continuously compounded rate is the sum of the one-month returns.
Therefore, if the monthly returns are normal, then the multi-month returns will also be
normal.16 Thus, by using continuously compounded rates, even long-term returns can be
described by the normal distribution. Moreover, if returns have the same distribution in
each month, then the expected two-month return is just twice the expected one-month
return, and if returns over time are uncorrelated, then the variance of the two-month return
is also twice that of the one-month return.17
We can generalize from this example to arbitrary investment horizons, which we will
call T. If the expected per-period continuously compounded return is called E(rcc), then the
expected cumulative return after an investment of T periods is E(rcc)T, and the expected
final value of the portfolio is E(WT) = W0 exp[E(rcc)T ]. The variance of the cumula-
tive return is also proportional to the time horizon: Var(rccT ) = TVar(rcc). Therefore, the
standard deviation grows in proportion to the square root of the time horizon:
_________ __
SD (rcc T ) = √T Var(rcc) = σ√T
0.40
0.35
0.30
0.25
Probability
0.20
0.15
0.10
0.05
0
50 70 90 110 130 150 170 190
Final Portfolio Value
0.20
0.18
0.16
0.14
Probability
0.12
0.10
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
50 70 90 110 130 150 170 190
Final Portfolio Value
0.14
0.12
0.10
Probability
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 50 100 150 200 250 300 350
Final Portfolio Value
Figure 5.9 Frequency distribution of final portfolio value after different number of
months. Initial investment = $100. In any month, portfolio value will increase by 3% or
fall by 1% with equal probability.
with horizon at a faster rate than standard deviation, the expected return of a long-term
risky investment becomes ever larger relative to its standard deviation. Does this mean that
investments are less risky when horizons are longer? To see why many people believe so,
consider the following example.
Example 5.11 Investment Risk in the Short Run and the Long Run
Suppose that investment returns are independent from year to year with an expected con-
tinuously compounded rate of return of .05, and a standard deviation of σ = .30. Let’s look
at the properties of the investment at horizons of 1, 10, and 30 years. These are laid out in
Table 5.5. The mean average annual return is 5% regardless of the horizon, but the mean
cumulative return rises in direct proportion to T. The standard deviation of the cumulative
return rises in proportion to the square root of T.
Next, we look at the probability that the cumulative return will be negative, in other words,
that the investor will suffer a loss. For the 1-year investor to suffer a loss, the actual return
must be .05 below the mean. This implies a return that is .05/.3 = .167 standard devia-
tions below the mean return. Assuming normality, the probability of such an outcome is .434.
(See Example 5.10 for an example of how to compute this probability.) For the 10-year inves-
tor, the mean cumulative continuously compounded return is .500 and the standard deviation
is .949. Therefore, the investor will suffer losses only if the actual 10-year return is .500/.949 =
.527 standard deviations below the expected value. The probability of this outcome is only
.299. The probability of a loss after 30 years is even lower, .181. As the horizon expands,
mean return increases faster than standard deviation and therefore the probability of a loss
steadily shrinks.
Table 5.5
Investment Horizon
Investment risk at
different horizons 1 10 30 Comment
A better way to quantify the risk of a long-term investment would be to calculate the
market price of insuring it against a loss. An insurance premium must take into account
both the probability of possible losses and the magnitude of these losses. We show in later
chapters how the fair market price of this sort of portfolio insurance can be estimated from
option-pricing models. Contrary to any intuition that a longer horizon reduces risk, the
value of portfolio insurance increases dramatically with the investment horizon. And these
policies would not come cheap: For example, for reasonable parameters, a 25-year policy
would cost about 30% of the initial portfolio value.
Despite this, many observers hold on to the view that investment risk is less pertinent
to long-term investors. A typical demonstration relies on the fact that the standard devia-
tion (or range of likely outcomes) of annualized returns is lower for longer-term horizons.
But the demonstration is silent on the range of total returns.
18
Eric Jacquier, Alex Kane, and Alan J. Marcus, “Geometric or Arithmetic Means: A Reconsideration,” Financial
Analysts Journal, November/December 2003.
1. The economy’s equilibrium level of real interest rates depends on the willingness of households SUMMARY
to save, as reflected in the supply curve of funds, and on the expected profitability of business
investment in plant, equipment, and inventories, as reflected in the demand curve for funds.
It depends also on government fiscal and monetary policy.
2. The nominal rate of interest is the equilibrium real rate plus the expected rate of inflation. In
general, we can directly observe only nominal interest rates; from them, we must infer expected
real rates, using inflation forecasts. Assets with guaranteed nominal interest rates are risky in real
terms because the future inflation rate is uncertain.
3. The equilibrium expected rate of return on any security is the sum of the equilibrium real rate of
interest, the expected rate of inflation, and a security-specific risk premium.
4. Investors face a trade-off between risk and expected return. Historical data confirm our intuition that
assets with low degrees of risk should provide lower returns on average than do those of higher risk.
5. Historical rates of return over the last century in other countries suggest the U.S. history of stock
returns is not an outlier compared to other countries.
6. Historical returns on stocks exhibit somewhat more frequent large negative deviations from the
mean than would be predicted from a normal distribution. The lower partial standard deviation
(LPSD), skew, and kurtosis of the actual distribution quantify the deviation from normality.
7. Widely used measures of tail risk are value at risk (VaR) and expected shortfall or, equivalently,
conditional tail expectations. VaR measures the loss that will be exceeded with a specified prob-
ability such as 1% or 5%. Expected shortfall (ES) measures the expected rate of return conditional
on the portfolio falling below a certain value. Thus, 1% ES is the expected value of the outcomes
that lie in the bottom 1% of the distribution.
8. Investments in risky portfolios do not become safer in the long run. On the contrary, the longer
a risky investment is held, the greater the risk. The basis of the argument that stocks are safe in
the long run is the fact that the probability of an investment shortfall becomes smaller. However,
probability of shortfall is a poor measure of the safety of an investment. It ignores the magnitude
of possible losses.
KEY TERMS nominal interest rate excess return expected shortfall (ES)
real interest rate risk aversion conditional tail expectation
effective annual rate (EAR) normal distribution (CTE)
annual percentage rate (APR) event tree lower partial standard
dividend yield skew deviation (LPSD)
risk-free rate kurtosis Sortino ratio
risk premium value at risk (VaR) lognormal distribution
PROBLEM SETS 1. The Fisher equation tells us that the real interest rate approximately equals the nominal rate minus
the inflation rate. Suppose the inflation rate increases from 3% to 5%. Does the Fisher equation
imply that this increase will result in a fall in the real rate of interest? Explain.
2. You’ve just stumbled on a new dataset that enables you to compute historical rates of return on
U.S. stocks all the way back to 1880. What are the advantages and disadvantages in using these
data to help estimate the expected rate of return on U.S. stocks over the coming year?
3. You are considering two alternative two-year investments: You can invest in a risky asset with a
positive risk premium and returns in each of the two years that will be identically distributed and
uncorrelated, or you can invest in the risky asset for only one year and then invest the proceeds
in a risk-free asset. Which of the following statements about the first investment alternative
(compared with the second) are true?
a. Its two-year risk premium is the same as the second alternative.
b. The standard deviation of its two-year return is the same.
c. Its annualized standard deviation is lower.
d. Its Sharpe ratio is higher.
e. It is relatively more attractive to investors who have lower degrees of risk aversion.
4. You have $5,000 to invest for the next year and are considering three alternatives:
a. A money market fund with an average maturity of 30 days offering a current yield of 6% per year.
b. A 1-year savings deposit at a bank offering an interest rate of 7.5%.
c. A 20-year U.S. Treasury bond offering a yield to maturity of 9% per year.
What role does your forecast of future interest rates play in your decisions?
5. Use Figure 5.1 in the text to analyze the effect of the following on the level of real interest rates:
a. Businesses become more pessimistic about future demand for their products and decide to
reduce their capital spending.
b. Households are induced to save more because of increased uncertainty about their future
Social Security benefits.
c. The Federal Reserve Board undertakes open-market purchases of U.S. Treasury securities in
order to increase the supply of money.
6. You are considering the choice between investing $50,000 in a conventional 1-year bank CD
offering an interest rate of 5% and a 1-year “Inflation-Plus” CD offering 1.5% per year plus the
rate of inflation.
a. Which is the safer investment?
b. Can you tell which offers the higher expected return?
c. If you expect the rate of inflation to be 3% over the next year, which is the better investment? Why?
d. If we observe a risk-free nominal interest rate of 5% per year and a risk-free real rate of 1.5% on
inflation-indexed bonds, can we infer that the market’s expected rate of inflation is 3.5% per year?
7. Suppose your expectations regarding the stock price are as follows:
State of the Market Probability Ending Price HPR (including dividends)
0 0.25
1 0.25
2 0.50
10. The continuously compounded annual return on a stock is normally distributed with a mean of
20% and standard deviation of 30%. With 95.44% confidence, we should expect its actual return
in any particular year to be between which pair of values? (Hint: Look again at Figure 5.4.)
a. −40.0% and 80.0%
b. −30.0% and 80.0%
c. −20.6% and 60.6%
d. −10.4% and 50.4%
11. Using historical risk premiums from Table 5.4 over the 1926–2016 period as your guide, what
would be your estimate of the expected annual HPR on the Big/Value portfolio if the current
risk-free interest rate is 3%?
12. Visit Professor Kenneth French’s data library website: http://mba.tuck.dartmouth.edu/pages/
faculty/ken.french/data_library.html and download the monthly returns of “6 portfolios
formed on size and book-to-market (2 × 3).” Choose the value-weighted series for the period
from January 1930–December 2016 (1,020 months). Split the sample in half and compute the
average, SD, skew, and kurtosis for each of the six portfolios for the two halves. Do the six split-
halves statistics suggest to you that returns come from the same distribution over the entire period?
13. During a period of severe inflation, a bond offered a nominal HPR of 80% per year. The
inflation rate was 70% per year.
a. What was the real HPR on the bond over the year?
b. Compare this real HPR to the approximation rreal ≈ rnom − i.
14. Suppose that the inflation rate is expected to be 3% in the near future. Using the historical data
provided in this chapter, what would be your predictions for:
a. The T-bill rate?
b. The expected rate of return on the Big/Value portfolio?
c. The risk premium on the stock market?
15. An economy is making a rapid recovery from steep recession, and businesses foresee a need for
large amounts of capital investment. Why would this development affect real interest rates?
16. You are faced with the probability distribution of the HPR on the stock market index fund given
in Spreadsheet 5.1 of the text. Suppose the price of a put option on a share of the index fund
with exercise price of $110 and time to expiration of 1 year is $12.
a. What is the probability distribution of the HPR on the put option?
b. What is the probability distribution of the HPR on a portfolio consisting of one share of the
index fund and a put option?
c. In what sense does buying the put option constitute a purchase of insurance in this case?
17. Take as given the conditions described in the previous problem, and suppose the risk-free
interest rate is 6% per year. You are contemplating investing $107.55 in a 1-year CD and
simultaneously buying a call option on the stock market index fund with an exercise price of
$110 and expiration of 1 year. What is the probability distribution of your dollar return at the
end of the year?
18. Consider these long-term investment data:
∙ The price of a 10-year $100 par value zero-coupon inflation-indexed bond is $84.49.
∙ A real-estate property is expected to yield 2% per quarter (nominal) with a SD of the
(effective) quarterly rate of 10%.
a. Compute the annual rate of return on the real (i.e., inflation-indexed) bond.
b. Compute the continuously compounded annual risk premium on the real-estate
investment.
c. Use the formula in footnote 17 and Excel’s Solver or Goal Seek to find the standard devi-
ation of the continuously compounded annual excess return on the real-estate investment.
d. What is the probability of loss or shortfall after 10 years?
1. Given $100,000 to invest, what is the expected risk premium in dollars of investing in equities
versus risk-free T-bills (U.S. Treasury bills) based on the following table?
Action Probability Expected Return
Use the following scenario analysis for Stocks X and Y to answer CFA Problems 3 through 6
(round to the nearest percent).
Bear Market Normal Market Bull Market
E-INVESTMENTS EXERCISES
The Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis has information available on interest rates and economic
conditions. Its Monetary Trends page (https://research.stlouisfed.org/datatrends/mt/) contains
graphs and tables with information about current conditions in the capital markets. Find the most
recent issue of Monetary Trends and answer these questions.
1. What is the professionals’ consensus forecast for inflation for the next two years? (Use the
Federal Reserve Bank of Philadelphia line on the graph for Measures of Expected Inflation to
answer this.)
2. What do consumers expect to happen to inflation over the next two years? (Use the University
of Michigan line on the graph to answer this.)
3. Have real interest rates increased, decreased, or remained the same over the last two years?
4. What has happened to short-term nominal interest rates over the last two years? What about
long-term nominal interest rates?
5. How do recent U.S. inflation and long-term interest rates compare with those of the other
countries listed?
6. What are the most recently available levels of 3-month and 10-year yields on Treasury securities?