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Explanation of Electrical Engg. Objective Paper-II (ESE - 2016)
SET - A
1. Compared to the salient-pole Hydroelectric 3. A 2000 V/200 V, 20 kVA, two winding, single
generators, the steam and the gas-turbine have phase transformer is reconnected as a step up
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cylindrical rotors for auto-transformer having 200 V/2200 V ratings.
(a) Better air-circulation in the machine Then the power rating for the auto transformer
will be
(b) Reducing the eddy-current losses in the rotor
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(c) Accommodating larger number of turns in (a) 160 kVA (b) 180 kVA
the field winding (c) 200 kVA (d) 220 kVA
(d) Providing higher mechanical strength against
the centrifugal stress Sol. (none)
Sol. (d)
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Steam and Gas turbine generator has high
10 A
speed of rotation. For high speed cylinderical
rotor provides greater mechanical strength 2000V 2200V
and have more accurate dynamic balancing. Additive
110 A
Polarity
2. Consider the following losses for short circuit 100 A
test on a transformer:
M
200V
1. Copper loss
2. Copper and iron losses
3. Eddy current and hysteresis losses For single phase transformer
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(a) 3.8% (b) 4.8% 6. Consider the following advantages of a
(c) 5.2% (d) 5.8% distributed winding in a rotating machine:
1. Better utilization of core as a number of
Sol. (a)
evenly placed small slots are used
% Voltage regulation = (r cos x sin ) 100 2. Improved waveform as harmonic emf’s are
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reduced
cos = Power factor
3. Diminished armature reaction and efficient
r = Per unit equivalent resistance or
cooling
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ohmic losses
Which of the above advantages are correct?
x = Per unit reactance drop
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
r = 0.01 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
x = 0.05
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Sol. (a)
cos = 0.8 sin = 0.6 Advantage of distributed winding is slots are:
% Voltage regulation = [(0.01) (0.8) + (0.05) 1. Reduction of harmonics in generated
(0.8)] × 100 = 3.8 % voltage to make it approching to sine wave
5. In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W 2. Full utilisation of armature iron and copper
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36 stator slots is
Sol. (b)
(a) 0.47 (b) 0.53
Pc
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n – nth harmonic 9. A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque
q = Number of Slots per pole per of 150 N-m in a certain operating condition.
phase From this operating condition, a 10% reduction
in field flux and 50% increase in armature
180 current is made. What will be new value of
=
slotsper pole electromagnetic torque?
(electrical degrees) (a) 225 N-m (b) 202.5 N-m
(c) 22.5 N-m (d) 20.25 N-m
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36
n = 3, q = = 3
3 4
Sol. (b)
180
Torque in D.C. machine T Ia
TE
= 36 = 20°
4 field flux
Ia Armature current
(3)(3)(20)
sin So T1 1 Ia
2 sin90
So Kd = (3)(20) = 2 = 0.9 1 ; Ia2 = 1.5 Ia1
3 sin 3 sin30
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2
T2 (0.9) 1 (1.5) Ia1
2
= = 0.67 T2
3
So T1 = 1.35
8. Consider the following factors for a dc machine:
T2 = 1.35 T1 = (1.35) (150)
1. Interpole
T2 = 202.5 N – m
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2. Armature resistance
10. A dc machine, having a symmetrical closed-
3. Reduction in field current circuit armature winding and a sinusoidal air-
Which of the above factors are responsible for gap flux-density distribution, will have a
decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt sinusoidal voltage induced in the individual
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(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Unidirectional and constant without any
ripples
Sol. (c)
(c) Unidirectional and constant with ripples
Armature resistance does’t have any impact superimposed
on terminal voltage (d) Sinusoidal positive-half and zero negative-
Reduction in field current reduces the half, in each cycle
terminal voltage
Sol. (c)
Interpoles reduces the f lux density in
commutating zone which reduces the Brush to Brush voltage is resultant of voltage
terminal voltage. induced in all coils. So output will be a
Vt = Ea – Iara unidirectional voltage with ripples
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Consider a generator Rotation
Brush Rotor
Stator
voltage
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t
11. A 3-phase, induction motor operating at a slip
of 5% develops 20 kW rotor power output.
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What is the corresponding rotor copper loss in
with negative , the electromagnetic torque is
this operating condition?
developed in the direction opposite to rotor
(a) 750 W (b) 900 W rotation and must be balanced by an external
(c) 1050 W (d) 1200 W mechanical torque for the rotor to run at
synchronous speed.
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Sol. (c)
13. In an alternator, the armature winding is kept
Rotor power output = mechanical power stationary while the field winding is kept roating
developed in rotor for the following reasons:
Pm = 20 × 103 Slip s = 0.05
1. Armature handles very large current and
2 (1 s) 2 high voltage
Pm = I2 r2 I2 r2 = Rotor Copper Losses
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s
2. Armature fabrication, involving deep slots
2 (1 0.5) to accommodated large coils, is easy if
20 × 103 = I2 r2 armature is kept stationary
0.5
3 3 3. It is easier to cool the stator than the rotor
(20 10 )(0.5) 10 10
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2
I2 r2 = = 1050 W
0.95 0.95 Which of the above reasons are correct?
So Rotor copper losses = 1050 W. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
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12. W hat are the signs of load angle in an (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
alt ernator during generat or and motor
operations, respectively? Sol. (d)
Advantage of stationary armature winding
(a) Negative, negative
It is economical and efficient
(b) Positive, negative
As armature handles large voltage so
(c) Negative, positive
insulation is easy for stationary winding
(d) Positive, positive
Can be cooled easily
Sol. (c) Rotor is lighter and low centrifugal forces.
Load angle or Torque angle is negative when Fabrication is easy from mechanical
rotor field leads the resultant field and positive
stability point of view.
when rotor field lags the resultant field.
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14. Increasing the air-gap of a squirrel-cage Sol. (c)
induction motor would result in
If switch fails to open then capacitor will remain
(a) Increase in no-load speed in circuit and high voltage will appear in
capacitor which will damage the capacitor.
(b) Increase in full-load power-factor
17. For a 3-phase induction motor, what fraction/
(c) Increase in magnetizing current
multiple of supply voltage is required for a
(d) Maximum available torque direct-on-line starting method such that starting
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Sol. (c) current is limited to 5 times the full-load current
and motor develops 1-5 times full-load torque
mmf at starting time?
Flux =
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Reluc tance (a) 1.632 (b) 1.226
for constant flux, if reluctance is high we require (c) 0.816 (d) 0.456
high mmf which implies higher current as mmf
= (N) (I) Sol. (b)
So Ist = x Isc
(c) Increases (d) Decreases
Isc Direct on line current
Sol. (c)
Isc = 5 Ifl (Given)
For a cumulative compound motor
Assume sfl = 0.04
S
sc
se flux due to series winding = 0 So = 1.5 = x I s f l
T fl fl
So m will increase as clear from above
equation. = x2 (5)2 (0.4)
1.5 = x2
16. If the capacitor of a capacitor-start single-phase
motor fails to open when the motor picks up x = 1.226
speed,
18. What is the material of slip-rings in an induction
(a) The motor will stop
machine?
(b) The auxiliary winding will be damaged
(a) Carbon (b) Nickel
(c) The capacitor will be damaged
(c) Phosphor bronze (d) Manganese
(d) The winding will be damaged
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Sol. (c) Sol. (d)
Slip ring are made up of phosphor Bronze. Electrostatic precipitator is used to collect the
Slip rings are tapped by means of copper - dust particles from the flue gases.
carbon brushes.
22. The load curve is useful in deciding
19. The stator loss of a 3-phase induction motor is
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1. The operating schedule of generating units
2 kW. If the motor is running with a slip of 4%
and power input of 90 kW, then what is the 2. The total installed capacity
rotor mechanical power developed? Which of the above statement is/are correct?
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(a) 84.48 kW (b) 86.35 kW (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 89.72 kW (d) 90.52 kW (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. (a) Sol. (c)
Air Gap Power Pg = Power Input-stator losses The load curve indicates average (KW h)
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Pg = 90 × 103 – 2× 103 = 88 × 103 W energy consumption during a given period and
hence it is useful in deciding both the operating
Pm = (1 – s) Pg s = 0.04
schedule of generating units and the total
Pm = (1 – 0.04) (88 × 103) installed capacity.
Pm = 84.48 kW 23. The maximum demand on a steam power
station is 480 MW. If the annual load factor is
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A = D = 0.9 0° B = 200 90° (b) Inversely proportional to back emf and
directly proportional to flux
The impedance so connected would be
(c) Directly proportional to back emf as well as
(a) 1000 0° (b) 1000 90° to flux
(c) 2000 90° (d) 200 0° (d) Inversely proportional to back emf as well
as to flux
Sol. (c)
Sol. (a)
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Using the equation,
Back Emf Eb = Kam
Vs = AVR + BIR
Now, to equalize the sending and receiving end Eb
m =
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voltages Vs = VR. Ka
VR = AVR BIR Eb Back emf
Flux.
VR 1 A = BIR
27. When the sending end voltage and current are
VR B 200 90 numerically equal to the receiving end voltage
= 1 A 1 0.90
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IR and current respectively, then the line is called
VR 20090 (a) A tuned line (b) A transposed line
= 200090
IR 0.1
(c) A long line (d) A short line
25. The maximum efficiency in the transmission of Sol. (a)
bulk ac power will be achieved when the power
factor of the load is
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= j LC
(d) Considerably less than unity
cosh l cosh jl LC cos l LC
Sol. (b)
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sending-end waves. Such line is called a tuned Sol. (d)
line.
Change in energy stored in generator
28. If Vm is the peak value of an applied voltage in
a half wave rectifier with a large capacitor 2f
dW = Wo
across the load, then the peak inverse voltage fo
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will be W o initial energy stored = (H) (Rated MVA)
(a) 0.5 Vm (b) Vm H = 5, (Rated MVA) = 100
(c) 1.5 Vm (d) 2.0 Vm So W o = 500 MJ
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Sol. (d)
dW = (H) (Change in power) = H P
Peak inverse voltage is the maximum voltage
which appears across a diode when it is P = 50 MW (Assume power factor = 1)
under reverse bias. So dW = (5) (50) = 250 MJ
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f 0 = 50 Hz.
RL
Vi = Vmsint
C 2 f
250 = 500
50
During the positive half cycle of V i , the
f = 12.5 Hz
capacitor C is charged to V m volts. During
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the negative half cycle of V i , the circuit will So frequency at 0.4 sec. is nearly 62 Hz
be as below: (Diode will be reverse biased
Note: Actual equation is
and acts as open circuit).
Q P 2W0
dW = 2
(f f ) f
f0
S
– +
Vm RL
Vm
–
+ We had simplified it by neglecting ( f )2 .
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Voltage across diode during reverse bias V PQ 30. A 25 MVA, 33 kV transformer has a pu
= Vm + Vm = 2 Vm impedance of 0.9. The pu impedance at a new
base 50 MVA at 11 kV would be
PIV = 2Vm
(a) 10.4 (b) 12.2
29. A 100 MVA generator operates on full-load of
50 Hz frequency. The load is suddenly reduced (c) 14.4 (d) 16.2
to 50 MW. The steam valve begins to close Sol. (d)
only after 0.4s and if the value of the inertia
2
constant H is 5s, then the frequency at 0.4s is Zpu2 = Zpu1. (MVA)2 (KV1 )
nearly (MVA)1 (KV2 )2
(a) 38 Hz (b) 44 Hz
(MVA)1 = 25, KV1 = 33 ZPU1 = 0.9
(c) 51 Hz (d) 62 Hz
(MVA)2 = 50, KV2 = 11
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2 (c) Regulation of transmission line
50 33
Zpu2 = (0.9) (d) Power factor improvement of the system
25 11
Sol. (a)
= (0.9) (2) (9)
The maximum allowable value of the clearing
ZPU2 = 16.2 time and angle for the system to remain stable
31. Symmetrical components are used in power are known respectively as critical clearing time
system for the analysis of and angle.
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(a) Balanced 3-phases fault 34. A 2-pole, 50 Hz, 11 kV, 100MW alternator has
a moment of inertia of 10,000 kg.m2. The value
(b) Unbalanced 3-phase fault of inertia constant, H is
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(c) Normal power system under steady (a) 3.9 s (b) 4.3 s
conditons
(c) 4.6 s (d) 4.9 s
(d) Stability of system under disturbance
Sol. (d)
Sol. (b)
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Symmetrically components are used in power G
H =
system for the analysis of unbalanced 3-phase M
fault.
32. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph 1 2
G = I I Moment of Inertia
is drawn between 2
(a) Terminal voltage and load factor I = 10,000 kg. m 2 G Energy stored in
M
(c) Field current and armature current M = Rated Power = 100 MVA
4 2
(10 )(2 50)
Sol. (c) H = 2 6
= 4.93 s
100 10
X – axis Field Current
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33. Critical clearing angle is related to Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) Power flow study of power system (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2
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Sol. (d) (iv) No reactive compensation is required.
Stability of a power system can be improved (v) Higher operating voltage is possible
by (vi) No stability problem.
(i) higher system voltage Disadvantages of HVDC systems.
(ii) use of parallel lines to reduce the series
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reactance. (i) Installation of converters and switch gear
makes it expensive.
(iii) Use of high speed circuit breakers and auto-
reclosing breakers. (ii) Harmonic are generated which require filters
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(iv) Reducing the series reactance there by (iii) Voltage transformation is not easy.
increasing Pm and therefore increases the 38. The three sequence voltages at the point of
transient stability limit of a system. fault in a power system are found to be equal.
36. Equal-Area Criterion is employed to determine The nature of the fault is
(a) The steady state stability
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(a) L–G (b) L–L–L
(b) The transient stability (c) L–L (d) L–L–G
(c) The reactive power limit
Sol. (d)
(d) The rating of a circuit breaker
For double line to ground fault
Sol. (b)
Va
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property is known as
2. Low cost of transmission (a) Buchholtz relay
3. Higher efficiency
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3. Vacuum room temperature, some of the e– in V.B. gains
enough energy to overcome the energy gap
Which of the above circuit breakers can be
and move into C.B. leaving behind an empty
used in an indoor substation?
space in V.B which is called as Hole. An e– in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only the V.B. may fill the hole, leaving another hole
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only in its place. In this way, a hole appears to
move.
Sol. (a)
In the presence of electric field e– move in one
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• Air break circuit breaker : This type of circuit direction and holes appear to move in the
breaker is employed in both a.c. and d.c. opposite direction and both contribute to
type of circuits upto 12 KV. These are conductivity of the material.
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normally indoor type and installed on vertical
Hence, e– moves in ordinary path in C.B. and
panels.
holes move in extra-ordinary path in V.B.
• Vacuum and SF6 gas circuit breakers are
suitable for primary and secondary power 42. Which of the following circuits is used for
distribution networks upto 40.5KV, 3150A, converting a sine wave into a square wave?
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63KA. In particular, SF6 circuit breakers do (a) Monostable multivibrator
not generate operating over voltages and
are suitable for retrofitting, upgrading. Indoor (b) Bistable multivibrator
circuit breakers for secondary distribution (c) Schmitt trigger circuit
are suitable for use in unmanned MV/LV (d) Darlington complementary pair
transformer substations without auxiliary
Sol. (c)
M
power supply.
41. A semiconductor differs from a conductor in Schmitt Trigger is used as a wave shaping
that it has circuit. It is used to convert a sine wave into
a square wave by fixing the output voltage at
(a) Only one path for the free electrons in the two distinct voltage levels.
valence band
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region. Under a very high reverse voltage, the
Vm
high electric field break some of the covalent and Vdc = , Ripple frequency = f.
bonds of semiconductor atoms leading to large
number of minority carriers which suddenly Hence, the d.c voltage and ripple frequency
increase the reverse current. This is zener will be lower than the expected value.
effect.
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Surge current is the brief and large current
Avalanche breakdown occurs in lightly doped that exists when the power is first turned on.
junctions which has wide depletion layers. It is large because the filter capacitor must
Hence, Avalanche breakdown will occur for charge to peak voltage during the first few
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reverse voltage greater than zener voltage. For cycles. When one on the diode is defective
a zener diode having breakdown of 6V, in bridge rectifier, surge current increases.
breakdown below 6V is due to zener effect
Hence, 1, 2 & 3 are correct.
and breakdown above 6V is due to Avalanche
effect. 45. The lowest frequency of ac components in the
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outputs of half-wave and full-wave rectifiers are,
44. Consider the following statements:
respectively, (where is the input frequency)
A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a
capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is (a) 0.5 and (b) and 2
defective, then
(c) 2 and (d) and 3
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its
expected value Sol. (b)
M
t
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
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(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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VFW 47. For a BJT, IC = 5 mA, IB = 50 A and ICBO =
Frequency = 2
0.5 A, then the value of is
(a) 99 (b) 91
T t
2 (c) 79 (d) 61
Sol. (a)
The time period of the output of full wave The collector current in a BJT is given by:
R
Rectifier is half the period of input wave. Hence,
the lowest frequency in the output is twice the IC = IB 1 ICBO
input frequency i.e. 2
IC = IB ICBO ICBO
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46. A half-wave rectifier circuit using ideal diode
has an input voltage of 20 sin t Volt. Then
IC ICBO
= I I
average and rms values of output voltage B CBO
respectively, are
5 103 0.5 10 6
=
10 20 50 106 0.5 106
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(a) V and 5 V (b) V and10 V
4999.5
=
20 10 50.5
(c) V and 5 V (d) V and10 V
= 99
Sol. (b) 48. Which of the following conditions must be
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reverse bias
3. Its emitter to base junction should be under
V0
reverse bias
20V
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2.Collector to Base junction is forward biased 50. Consider the following circuits:
1. Oscillator
Statement 1 & 4 are correct.
2. Emitter follower
49. In an amplifier with a gain of 1000 without 3. Power amplifier
feedback and cut-off frequencies at 2 kHz and
Which of the above circuits employ are
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20 kHz, negative feedback of 1% is employed.
feedback?
The cut-off frequencies with feedback would
be (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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(a) 220 Hz and 22 kHz
Sol. (d)
(b) 182 Hz and 220 kHz
1. W ith the use of positive feedback or
(c) 220 kHz and 220 kHz regenerativ e f eedback in a circuit,
(d) 20 Hz and 22 kHz oscillations will take place and circuit works
as oscillator.
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Sol. (b)
For the given amplifier: 2. For the emitter follower circuit shown below,
the feedback signal is the voltage Vf across
Gain (A) = 1000 emitter resistor Re and the sampled signal
Lower cut-off frequency f L = 2kHz Vs is the output voltage across Re. It is a
Higher cut-off frequency f H = 20 kHz case of voltage series feedback.
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–Vcc
Feedback factor = 0.01
Rc
In case of negative feedback, the gain of the
amplifier reduces and Bandwidth increases. Rs C
S
3
fL 2 10 –
fL =
1 A 1 1000 0.01
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51. Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage The operational amplifier circuit shown in figure
gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage having a voltage gain of unity has
gain of the combined amplifier is (a) High input impedance and high output
(a) 71 dB (b) 82 dB impedance
(c) 91 dB (d) 102 dB (b) High input impedance and low output
Sol. (d) impedance
(c) Low input impedance and low output
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A1 A2 A3 A 1 A 2A 3 impedance
(d) Low input impedance and high output
Over all voltage gain: AV = A1A2A3 impedance
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AV = 50 × 50 × 50 Sol. (b)
Rout
M
A clamper circuit can add or subtract the DC 54. Consider the following statements:
voltage to or from a waveform. The frequency 1. Race-around condition occurs in a JK flip-
of the waveform remains unaffected. Moreover, flop when the inputs are 1, 1
the shape remains unaltered with the addition 2. A flip-flop is used to store one bit of
of DC-voltage. Hence, shape of waveform information
remains same before and after clamping. 3. A transparent latch consists of D-type flip-
flops
+
4. Master-slave configuration is used in a flip-
– flop to store two bits of information
vi vo
53. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
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(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 which cannot modify input signal.
Sol. (a)
Master slave configuration is used to avoid
race around condition. It doesnot store two –
bits of information. Rest statements are correct. Vout
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Vin +
55. An operational amplifier has slew rate of 2V/
sec. If the peak output is 12 V, what will be the
power bandwidth?
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(a) 36.5 kHz (b) 26.5 kHz 57. If a, b, c are 3-input variables, then Boolean
function y = ab + bc + ca represents
(c) 22.5 kHz (d) 12.5 kHz
Sol. (b) 1. A 3-input majority gate
Sol. (c)
Power Bandwidth; BwP = f max
A majority gate returns true if and only if more
BwP = 26.5 kHz. than 50% inputs are true
56. A voltage follower is used as Y = ab + bc + ca is a 3 input majority gate
S
Which of the above statements is/are correct? floating i.e. connected neither ground nor to a
signal. What will be the state of that input?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. (c) (b) 0
(c) Same as that of the other input
An isolation amplifier is an op-amp circuit
which provides isolation of one part of the (d) Indeterminate (neither 1 nor 0)
circuit from another so that power is not
Sol. (d)
used in a part of the circuit hence it is a
voltage amplifier. A floating input for a CMOS gate may be
considered as either of the logic levels.
A voltage amplifier is also a buffer amplifier
since a buffer is nothing but a storing device 59. The expression for MOD number for a ripple
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counter with N flip-flops is and ROM. If data is stored in a hard drive, it
will remain on that drive regardless if the power
(a) N (b) 2N is interupted, which is why it is the best place
(c) 2N–1 (d) 2N–1 to store data and documents.
Sol. (b) 62. Consider the following instructions:
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3. HLT
60. Why a ROM does not have data inputs?
4. CLI
(a) It does not have a WRITE operation W hich of the above are machine control
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instructions?
(b) Data inputs are integrated with data outputs
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Data inputs are integrated with address
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
inputs
Sol. (b)
(d) ROM is sequentially accessed
Flag Manipulation instruction in 8086
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Sol. (a)
CLI
Data cannot be written on ROM chip.
= CLC
Hence it only has data output pins ROM - Read CMC
only memory. STC
61. Consider the following statements: STD
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STI
1. RAM is a non-volatile memory whereas
CLD
ROM is a volatile memory
Machine control instruction in 8086
2. RAM is a volatile memory whereas ROM is
WAIT
a non-volatile memory
S
HLT
3. Both RAM and ROM are volatile memories NOP
but in ROM data is not when power is
ESC
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switched off
LOCK
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct option is ‘b’
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 63. What is the assemble directive statement used
(c) 3 only (d) None of the above to reserve an array of 100 words in memory
and initialize all 100 words with 0000 and give
Sol. (b)
it a name STORAGE?
Non-volatile is a term used to describe any
(a) STORAGE DW 100
memory or storage that is saved regradless if
the power to the computer is on or off. The (b) STORAGE DW 100 DUP (0)
best example of non-volatile memory and (c) STORAGE DW 100 DUP (?)
storage is a computer hard drive, flash memory (d) STORAGE DB 100
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Sol. (b) Speed of stator field winding = Ns
STORAGE DW 100 DUP (0) Reserve an Cause of field in stator rotor field
array of 100 words of memory and initialise all So rotor should be rotated such that emf
words with 0000 and giv es it name as induced in stator is reduced. Rotor rotates in
STORAGE. direction opposite to that of rotating magnetic
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DW This directive is used to define a variable field. so speed of rotating magnetic field w.r.t
of type word or to reserve storage location of stator = Ns – Nr = s Ns
type word in memory. frequency of stator field
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DB This directive is used to declare a byte
f 2 = sf1, s slip
type variable or to store a byte in memory
location. Option (a) is correct.
66. The reversing of a 3 induction motor is
64. Consider the following statements:
achieved by
1. Auxiliary carry flag is used only by the DAA
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(a) Y– starter
and DAS instructions
(b) DOL starter
2. Zero flag is set to 1 if the two operands
compared are equal (c) Auto transformer
(d) Interchanging any two of the supply line
3. All conditional jumps are long-type jumps
Sol. (d)
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a non-vectored interrupt. There are 8 numbers Given symbol is,
of CALL-locations for INTR interrupt ie. upto 8
number of I/o devices can be connected to
INTR through an external hardware.
68. The instruction JNC 16 bit refers to Jump to 16
bit address if
(a) Sign flag is set
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(b) CY flag is reset
(c) Zero flag is set
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(d) Parity flag is reset
In a program flow chart, above symbol is
Sol. (b) used to show complex processing steps
JNC (16 bit address) : which may be detailed in a seperate flow-
The program jumps to the instruction which chart. So, it is used for predefined process
is specified by the address if there is no or for subroutine.
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carry (ie. if CY = 0) or if CY flag is reset
70. Which one of the followng statements is correct
No flags will be affected
regarding the instruction CMP A
Immediate addressing mode
(a) Compare accumulator with register A
It takes 2 or 3 machine cycles
(b) Compare accumulator with memory
69. Consider the symbol shown below:
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Accumulator.
In this instruction, the content of register A is
subtracted from the content of the accumulator.
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Sol. (c) microprocessor in input/output mode, the data
transfer takes place between. Accumulator and
RET :
I/o device. IN and OUT instructions are used
– Return to main program unconditionally. for data transfer.
– Register indirect addressing mode In port address : The data available on the
– 1 Byte instruction port is moved to the accumulator.
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– No flag is affected Out port address : The content of the
accumulator is moved to the port specified by
– Three machine cycles (Fetch + Read + Read)
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its address.
When RET instruction is excuted, it takes three
machine cycles. In f irst machine cycle, 74. While execution of IN/OUT instruction takes
microprocessor fetches the opcode, during place, the 8-bit address of the port is placed
second and third machine cycles, it reads the on
contents of top of stack. (a) Lower address bus
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72. Consider the following circuits : (b) Higher address bus
1. Full adder (c) Data bus
2. Half adder (d) Lower as well as higher order address bus
3. JK flip-flop Sol. (b)
4. Counter
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Full adder and Half adder are combination (a) mode 0, mode 1, mode 2 and BSR
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circuits, whereas JK Flip Flop and counter are (b) mode 0, mode 1 and mode 2
sequential logic circuit.
(c) mode 2 and BSR
73. W hen a peripheral is connected to the
microprocessor in Input Output mode, the data (d) BSR mode only
transfer takes place between. Sol. (a)
(a) Any register and I/O device The intel 8255 can function brodly in two
(b) Memory and I/O device modes : The Bit Set/Reset (BSR) mode and
the I/o mode. The BSR mode is used to set or
(c) Accumulator and I/O device reset the bits in port C. The I/o mode is further
(d) HL register and I/O device function in three modes : Mode 0, Mode 1 and
Mode 2. Port C can be configured in all three
Sol. (c) modes. Port A can also configured in all three
W hen a peripheral is connected to the modes but Port B can configured in only Mode
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- 0 and Mode - 1 lighting over several years.
76. Consider the following statements : 78. A 2400/240 V, 200 kVA, single phase
transformer has a core loss of 1.8 kW at rated
1. Semiconductor memories are organized as
voltage. Its equivalent resistance is 1.1%. Then
linear array of memory locations
the transfer efficiency at 0.9 power factor and
2. To address a memory location out of N on full load is
memory locations, at least log N bits of
(a) 95.60% (b) 96.71%
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address are required
(c) 97.82% (d) 98.93%
3. 8086 can address 1,048,576 addresses
4. Memory for an 8086 is set up as two banks Sol. (c)
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to make it possible to read or write a word
output
with one machine cycle = 100
Input
Which of the above statements are correct?
(KVA)cos
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only = (KVA)cos P P 100
c o
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(b) 1, 2 and 4 only Pc Core losses = 1.8 × 103 w
(c) 3 and 4 only cos = 0.9
Po ohmic losses 1.1% equivalent
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 resistance
Sol. (c) It implies ohmic losses are 1.1% of full (KVA)
equivalent resistance
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3
180 10
So = 3 3 3
100 = 97.82%
(b) UV light from fluorescent lights and sunlight 180 10 2.2 10 1.8 10
(c) Magnetic field 79. The 8259A Programmable Interrupt Controller
(d) Electrostatic field in cascade mode can handle interrupts of
Sol. (b) (a) 8 priority levels
The sticker over the EPROM window protects (b) 16 priority levels
the chip from UV light from fluorescent lights
and sunlight. UV light erases the content of (c) 32 priority levels
EPROM in several minutes; sunlight would
erase EPROM in weeks and indoor fluorscent (d) 64 priority levels
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Sol. (d) D1 = 0
One 8259 A can handle 8 I/o devices to transfer 81. The induced emf in the armature conductor of
data using interrupt technique. If there are more a D.C. machine is
than 8 I/o devices to transfer data using (a) Sinusoidal
interrupt, two 8259 A ICs can be connected in
(b) Trapezoidal
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series or cascading. Hence, upto 64 I/o devices
or priority levels can be connected employing (c) Rectangular unidirectional
two 8259A. ICs. (d) Triangular
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80. 8259A Programmable Interrupt Controller uses Sol. (a)
the following initialization comands :
Induced emf is sinusoidal but output is rectified
1. ICW 1 by commutation action.
2. ICW 2 82. If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is
suppressed before transmission, the power
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3. ICW 3
saving is nearly
4. ICW 4
(a) 50% (b) 67%
If 8259A is to be used in cascaded and fully
nested mode, the ICW 1 bits D0 and D1 are (c) 100% (d) 125%
(c) 0 and 1 m2
Total Power with carrier PT = Pc 1
(d) 1 and 1 2
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2
first two are essential and other two are
optional based on the modes being used. Power saved PT P1
These word must be issued in a giv en Power saving = Total Power P
T
sequence.
The specific EOI Command Format for ICW 1, m2 m2
PC Pc PC
2 2 2 2
D7 D6 D5 D4 D3 D2 D1 D0
= m2 2 m2 2 1
PC 1
2
1 = ICW4 needed
0 = No ICW4 needed 2
= 0.67 67%
1 = Single 3
0 = Cascade Mode
83. An FM Signal is represented by v = 12 sin(6 ×
Hence, D0 = 0
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108 t + 5 sin 1250t). The carrier frequency f c Where, Kf = Frequency sensitivity,
and frequency deviation , respectively, are
Am = Modulating Voltage
(a) 191 MHz and 665 Hz
When fm = 2fm
(b) 95.5 MHz and 995 Hz
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(d) 95.5 MHz and 665 Hz
Sol. (b) Hence, the system is FM.
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V 12 sin 6 10 8 t 5 sin1250t Also, modulation index of PM does not depend
upon modulating frequency.
Comparing with standard equation of FM signal,
85. v = A sin ( ct + m sin m t) is the expression
s t A C sin c t sin m t for
F re q u e n c y D e v ia tio n
M e s s a g e F re q u e n c y f For a given equation of angle modulated wave,
m it is not possible to determine whether it is FM
fm or PM signal. However, if both the carrier wave
and message signal are sinusoidal function,
5 199 995Hz we can determine the nature of modulated
S
t
Modulation Index in FM is given by :
= A sin c t K f A m sin m t
Frequency Deviation K f .A m 0
= Message Frequency f
m
k f Am
SFM(t)= A sin c t – cos m t
m
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Where, Kf = Frequency sensitivity of FM which
= A sin c t mcos m t
is constant.
where m = Modulation index of FM
4.8 3
The expression for PM signal will be: Kf = A 2.4 10 Hz V
m
SPM(t) = A sin c t kpm(t)
= 2 103 Hz V
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= A sin c t kp A m sin m t Now, Am = 7.2 V
= K f A m 2 10 3 7.2 Hz
SPM(t) = A sin c t m sin m t
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= 14.4 KHz
Among the given options and assuming both
carrier & message signal to be sine wave, the 88. Modulation is used to
expression is of a phase modulated signal. 1. Separate different transmissions
86. The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, 2. Reduce the badwidth requirement
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loop amplifier, VCO and
3. Allow the use of practicable antennas
(a) Up converter
4. Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted
(b) Down converter over long distances
(c) Phase detector Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) Frequency multiplier
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2. Loop Amplifier
Sol. (b)
3. Voltage controlled oscillator (VCO)
4. Phase Detector The advantages of modulation are :
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89. Carson’s rule is (with symbols having their
2. B.W. required in FM is 2 1 fm . Maximum
standard meaning)
B.W. required in AM is = 2f m.
(a) B = 2 DW Hence, more bandwidth is required in case
(b) B = 2 (D + 1)W of FM.
(c) B = 3. In FM, the total power of carrier before
2 (D + 1)W
modulation is same as the total power of
(d) B = 2 DW frequency modulated signal. The power in
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the sideband frequencies appears at the
Sol. (b)
expense of power originally in the carrier.
Carson’s Rul e states t he Bandiwdth Hence, transmitted power is better utilized.
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requirement in wide Band FM is given by 4. Power transmitted in AM is given by :
B = 2(D + 1) W m2
PT PC 1 . As modulation index ‘m’
Where : 2
B = Bandwidth increases power in AM increases. In FM,
power transmitted is always equal to the
D = Deviation ratio / modulation index
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total power of carrier before modulation.
W = Maximum Modulating Frequency Hence, FM requires lesspower than AM.
Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
90. Consider the following features of FM vis-a-vis
AM : 91. The ideal characteristic of a stabilizer is
1. Better noise immunity is provided (a) Constant output voltage with low internal
resistance
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Ideally the internal resistance (RZ) must be zero Sol. (c)
for a better output voltage. Hence, internal
Pul se code Modul ated signal (PCM
resistance must be low.
Modulation) is generated by carrying out three
92. For a d.c. shunt generator to self excite, the basic operations : sampling, quantizing and
conditions to be satisfied are that there must encoding.
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be some residual magnetism in the field Comparator is not used in PCM Modulation.
magnet, it must be in the proper direction and
the shunt field resistant must be 95. The reverse recovery time of a diode is 3 s and
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(a) Above the critical field resistance di
rate of fall is 30 A/ s .
(b) Equal to the critical field resistance dt
(c) Less than the armature resistance The store charge of the diode is
(d) Less than the critical field resistance (a) 45 C (b) 135 C
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Sol. (d) (c) 270 C (d) 540 C
Voltage will built up when shunt field resistance
Sol. (b)
is less than critical field resistance.
1 2 di
93. In an IGBT cell the collector and emittter are Stored charge of diode Q R = t rr
respectively 2 dt
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(a) n and p 1 30 A
QR = × (3s)2 ×
(b) n+ and p+ 2 s
(d) p+ and n+
96. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘Universal’
Sol. (d) gates primarily because
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In IGBT collector is P + and emitter is n+. (a) They are available everywhere
94. The main units in a pulse code modulator are: (b) They are widely used in I.C. packages
1. Sampler (c) They can be combined to produce AND,
OR and NOR gate
2. Quantiser
(d) They can be manufactured easily
3. Encoder
Sol. (c)
4. Comparator
Universal gates are those gates which can
(a) 1 and 2 only
perform the function of AND, OR and NOT
(b) 2 and 3 only gate. NAND and NOR gate can do this, hence
they are called universal gates.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only 97. If a medium transmission line is represented
by nominal T, the value of B of ABCD constant
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is Sol. (b)
Time-ratio control (TRC):- In TRC method
1
(a) Z (b) Y 1 YZ the on period of the switch (T on) is varied
4 keeping the time period (T) constant.
1 1 frequency = 2 kHz
(c) Z 1 YZ (d) 1 YZ
4 2 1
1
T = = = 0.5 ms
2KHz
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Sol. (c) f
For nominal T Vo = 170 V, Vin = 230 v
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Yz Vo Ton
B = z 1
4 Vin = T = Duty ratio.
Yz 170 Ton
A = D = 1 =
2 230 0.5ms
C = Y.
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Ton = 0.369 ms
98. To turn-off a GTO what is required at the gate? T off = 0.131 ms
(a) A high amplitude (but low energy) negative 100. A switched-capacitor network is/are
current
1. Time variant sample data network
(b) A low amplitde negative current
2. Non linear network
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(b) 0.369 ms and 0.131 ms 101. A transformer may have negative voltage
regulation if the load power factor (p.f.) is
(c) 0.390 ms and 0.110 ms
(a) Leading for some values of p.f.
(d) 0.131 ms and 0.369 ms
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(b) Unity p.f. (a) 1 (b) 2
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mode at any time 3 switches will be ON and
Voltage regulation negative implies voltage in 120° conduction mode, 2 switches will be
output is more than input. It can occur when ON.
capacitive load is connected to transformer
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105. In the sinusoidal pulse–width modulation
which has leading power factor.
scheme, if the zero of the triangular wave
Mathematically also coincides with the zero of the reference
V.R. = r cos + x sin 0 sinusoidal, then the number of pulses per half
cycle is
r
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tan fc fc
x (a) (b) 1
2f 2f
Negative values indicates a leading power
factor. 2fc fc
(c) (d) 1
102. Current source inverters are suitable for f 2f
supplying power to
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(a) Reactive power compensation
when triangular carrier wave has its peak
(b) D.C. motor drive coi nci dent wit h zero of t he ref erence
(c) Synchronous Buck-converter fc
sinusoid, there will be pulses per half
(d) Voltage regulator 2f
cycle.
Sol. (a)
Directions:
Multilevel converter connected parallelly will
hav e rea ct i v e power com p ensat i on Each of the next Fifteen (15) items consists of
application. two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine
104. In a 3–phase inverter with 180º conduction
these two statements carefully and select the
mode the number of switches that is on at any
answers to these items using the codes given
instant of time is
below:
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Codes: Sol. (c)
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Electro-mechanical energy principles are used
individually true and Statement (II) is the for both steady state as well as transient state
correct explanation of Statement (I) of all electromechanical converters.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 108. Statement (I) : A Direct-On-Line (DOL) starter
individually true but Statement (II) is not the for starting dc motor is used
correct explanation of Statement (I) for reasons of economy
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(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is Statement (II) : DOL starter limits the starting
false current to a safe limit.
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(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is Sol. (c)
true
DOL starting causes armature current to be
106. Statement (I) : The armature structures of all several times of rated values.
rotating machines are
It is generally adopted due to
laminated in order to reduce
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the eddy-current losses. 1. Economic reason
Statement (II): The armature windings of both 2. Motor starts quickly, Joule input per start
the D.C. and A.C. machines much lesses vis-a-vis resistance start.
have to deal with alternating
109. Statement (I) : For constant applied voltage to
currents only.
its terminals, the effect of
Sol. (a) armature resistance in the
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(commutator) is converted into direct Statement (II) : The eff ect or armat ure
current with ripples. dem agnetizat ion with the
decreasing load is to reduce
107. Statement (I) : The electro-mechanical energy
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m synchronous machine would
operate as a capacitor.
m0
Sol. (a)
Power factor can be improved by supply
reactiv e power to load. An over-excited
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synchronous machine acts as capacitor which
provides reactive power.
Ia
112. Statement (I) : Stability of a power system can
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Vt Iara Vt Ir be improved by using parallel
m = = – aa transmission lines.
Ka Ka K a
Statement (II): Two transmission li nes in
I r parallel will increase the
m = m0 – a a
Ka impedance between sending
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end and recei v ing end
So, effect of ra (Armature resistance) is to
compred to single line.
reduce the overall speed or produce droop.
However with reduction in Ia (load current), Sol. (c)
the factor Iara will reduce which will produce Parallel transmission line are used to enhance
lesser droop. For Ia = 0, m = m0 . So at no stability as it reduces the series reactance and
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110. Statement (I) : Synchronous motor i s a 113. Statement (I) : When all inputs of a NAND
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Y = AA microprocessor. After receiving the HOLD
request, the microprocessor sends out HLDA
signal to the device.
Y= A NOT operation
Hence, statement (I) is wrong but statement
Hence statement ‘I’ is correct and as result (II) is correct.
statement ‘II’ is false.
116. Statement (I) : The direct memory access or
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114. Statement (I) : XOR gate is not a universal DMA mode of data transfer is
gate the f astest among all the
modes of data transfer.
Statement (II): It is not possible to realize all
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Boolean functions using XOR Statement (II) : In DMA mode the dev ice
gates only. directly transfers data to/form
memory without interference
Sol. (a)
from CPU.
Statement I is correct and statement II is correct
Sol. (a)
explanation of I
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The direct memory access (DMA) mode of data
115. Statement (I) : READY is an output signal
transfer is the fastest among all the modes of
used to synchronize slower
data transfer. Because in this mode of data
peripheral.
transfer, data to/from I/o device or memory is
Statement (II): HOLD is acti v ated by an directly occurs between them only without
external signal inference of CPU.
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Sol. (d)
Hence, statement (I) and statement (II) both
Ready is an input signal sent by an input or are correct and statement (II) is correct reason
output device to the microprocessor. This signal for statement (I)
indicates that the input or output device is
117. Statement (I) : Modulation index of AM is
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less than 1. Both statements are individually Statement (II): The rms value of output voltage
correct but statement II is not the correct can be varied by varying the
explanation for statement I. modulation index.
118. Statement (I) : The main f unct ion of a Sol. (b)
freewheeling diode in Rectifier Both statements are true, but statement (II)
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circuits is t o prev ent the is not the explanation for statement (I). The
reversal of load voltage. width of output pulse in sinusoidal pulse width
Statement (II) : The f reewheeling diode is modulation is proportional to the magnitude
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never connected across the of sine wave. The output voltage is varied
load. by varying modulation index (MI) which is
the ratio of V r /Vc .
Sol. (c)
120. Statement (I) : Equal-area criterion can be
Statement (II) is wrong. A freewheeling diode
used to determine the stability
is connected across the load. The main
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of single machine infinite bus
function of a freewheeling diode are
system.
(1) It prevents the output voltage from becoming
Statement (II): An infinite bus system has
negative
infinite inertia and constant
(2) The load current is transferred from the main voltage.
thyristors to freewheeling diode, thereby
Sol. (a)
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amplitude of a sine-wav e
The property of infinite bus are the very basis
evaluated at the centre of the
of determining stability using equal area criteria.
same pulse.
So, statement (II) explains statement (I)
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