Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Hindi
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3
180720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer
is harmful.
1
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
TOPIC : Kinematics upto Projectile motion, Thermodynamics + Conduction + Thermal expansion + Calorimetry,
Wave optics, Elasticity + Surface tension.
3 3
(1) 10 sec. (2) sec. (1) 10 sec. (2) sec.
20 20
(3) 100 sec. (4) 3 × 50 sec. (3) 100 sec. (4) 3 × 50 sec.
4. A man is moving due east at speed 5 m/s, a train 4.
5 m/s,
appears him to move towards north at speed
5 3 m/s.
5 3 m/s. The actual speed of the train is :-
:-
(1) 5( 3 +1) m/s (2) 5( 3 –1) m/s (1) 5( 3 +1) m/s (2) 5( 3 –1) m/s
1001CM305616016 H-1/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
6. The equation of motion of a projectile are given 6. x = 36 t
by x = 36 t metre and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 metre. 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2
The angle of projection is
1 4 1 3 1 4 1 3
(1) sin (2) sin (1) sin (2) sin
5 5 5 5
1 4 1 3 1 4 1 3
(3) sin (4) sin (3) sin (4) sin
3 4 3 4
7. A car is moving horizontally along a straight line 7. 25
with a uniform velocity of 25 ms–1. A projectile
is to be fired from this car in a such way that it
100
will return to it after it has moved 100 m. The
speed of the projectile must be :- (with the respect
to car)
(1) 9.8 ms–1 (2) 19.6 ms–1 (1) 9.8 (2) 19.6
(3) 15.6 ms –1 (4) 24.6 ms–1 (3) 15.6 (4) 24.6
8. The accompanying graph shows the variation 8. kg
(T) (Q)
temperature (T) of one kilogram material with the
O
heat (Q) supplied to it. At O the substance is in L v
=
the solid state. (In that L v = latent heat of
, Lf = , Ss =
vapourisation,L f = latent heat of fusion,
Ss = specific heat of solid, S = specific heat of
, S =
liquid). If CD = 2AB, then :- CD = 2AB :-
T-Temperature
T-Temperature
C(Q3T2) C(Q3T2)
D(Q4T2) D(Q4T2)
A(Q1T1) A(Q1T1)
B(Q2T1 ) B(Q2T1 )
O O Q-Heat Added
Q-Heat Added
1 1
B B
P 2 P 2
3 3
A A
V V
Q ( Q W) Q ( Q W)
(1) C (2) C (1) C (2) CV
V
V V
( Q W) ( Q W)
(3) (4) CV(Q – W) (3) CP (4) CV(Q – W)
CP
18. If amount of heat given to a system be 10 Cal and work 18. 10 Cal
done on the system be 12J, then change in internal 12J
energy of the system is
:–
(1) –2 Joule (2) 30 Joule (1) –2 Joule (2) 30 Joule
(3) 54 Joule (4) 22 Joule (3) 54 Joule (4) 22 Joule
19. For a gas undergoing an adiabatic process, the 19.
relation between temperature and volume is found
TV0.4 =
to be TV0.4 = const. This gas must be :–
:–
(1) Hydrogen (2) Argon (1) (2)
(3) Carbondioxide (4) Helium (3) (4)
20. Four graphs are shown in the figure :– 20.
A A
T V T V
A B A B
(a) (b) (a) (b)
B B
P T P T
A A
V T A B V T A B
(c) (d) (c) (d)
B B
T S (entropy) T S (entropy)
(1) Curve (a), (b), (c), (d) represent isobaric, (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
isomatric, isothermal and adiabatic respectively.
(2) Curve (a) and (b) respresent isomatric, (2) (a) (b) (c)
(c) isothermal and (d) adiabatic change (d)
(3) Curve (a), (b), (c) represent isothermal and (3) (a), (b), (c) (d)
(d) adiabatic process (4)
(a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) All the four curves represent isothermal change
H-4/33 1001CM305616016
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21. The end of a rod AB of length 1m is maintained 21. AB A80°C
at 80°C and the end B at 0°C. The temperature
B 0°C
A
at a distance of 60 cm. from the end A is :- 60 cm
:-
(1) 16°C (2) 32°C (3) 48°C (4) 64°C (1) 16°C (2) 32°C (3) 48°C (4) 64°C
22. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel 22.
I
glass-slab at a point A as shown in fig. It
A
undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At
each reflection 25% of incident energy is 25%
reflected. T he rays AB and A'B' undergo
AB A'B'
inteference. The ratio Imax/Imin is :- Imax/Imin
:-
I B B' I B B'
A A' A A'
C C
1001CM305616016 H-5/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
26. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 6 26.
6
polaroids, which are arranged in succesion such
that each polaroid is turned through 30° with
respect to the preceding one. The percentage of 30°
incident intensity that passes through the system
will be :-
:-
(1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 30% (4) 12% (1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 30% (4) 12%
27. If I0 is the intensity of the principal maximum in 27.
the single slit diffraction pattern, then what will
I0
be its intensity when the slit width is doubled:-
:-
I0 I0
(1) I0 (2) (3) 2I0 (4) 4I0 (1) I0 (2) (3) 2I0 (4) 4I0
2 2
28. The ratio of intensities of consecutive maxima in 28.
the diffraction pattern due to a single slit is :-
:-
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 (1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
4 4 1 9 4 4 1 9
(3) 1: : (4) 1: : (3) 1: : (4) 1: :
9 25 2
2
2 2 9 25 2
2
2 2
29. Refractive index of material is equal to tangent 29.
of polarising angle. If is called :-
:-
(1) Brewster's law (2) Lambert's law (1) (2)
(3) Malus's law (4) Bragg's law (3) (4)
30. In case of linearly polarized light, the magnitude 30.
of the electric field vector :- :-
(1) Does not change with time (1)
(2) Varies periodically with time (2)
(3) Increases and decreases linearly with time (3)
(4) Is parallel to the direction of propagation (4)
31. A steel wire of cross-sectional area 3 × 10–6 m2 31.
3 × 10–6 2
can withstand a maximum strain of 10–3. Young's 10–3
modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2. The maximum
2 × 1011
/2
mass the wire can hold is (Take g = 10 m/s2) (g = 10 /2)
(1) 40 kg (2) 60 kg (1) 40 (2) 60
(3) 80 kg (4) 100 kg (3) 80 (4) 100
32. The length of a metal wire is l1, when the tension 32.
l1 T1
in it is T1 and is l2 when the tension is T2. The
l2 T2
unstretched length of the wire is
1 2 1 2
(1) 1 2 (2) (1) 1 2 (2)
2 2
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33. One end of a horizontal thick copper wire of 33.
2L
2R
length 2L and radius 2R is welded to an end of
L
R
another horizontal thin copper wire of length L
and radius R. When the arrangement is stretched
by applying same forces at two ends, the ratio of
the elongation in the thin wire to that in the thick
wire is
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 2.00 (4) 4.00 (1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 2.00 (4) 4.00
34. When a mass of 4 kg is suspended from a string 34. 4 kg
its length is L1. If a mass of 6 kg is suspended L1
6 kg
its length is L2. What will be its length when a
L2
10 kg
mass of 10 kg is suspended from it ? ?
(1) 3L2 – 2L1 (2) 2L2 – 3L1 (1) 3L2 – 2L1 (2) 2L2 – 3L1
(3) L1 + L2 (4) 2(L1 + L2) (3) L1 + L2 (4) 2(L1 + L2)
35. A wire of initial length L and radius r is stretched 35.
L
r
l
by a length l. Another wire of same material but
with initial length 2L and radius 2r is stretched
2L
2r
2l
by a length 2l. The ratio of the stored elastic
energy per unit volume in the first and second
wire is :
:
(1) 1:4 (2) 1:2 (3) 2:1 (4) 1:1 (1) 1:4 (2) 1:2 (3) 2:1 (4) 1:1
36. The Bulk Modulus for an incompressible liquid 36.
(incompressible)
is
(1) zero (2) unity (1) (2)
(3) infinity (4) between 0 and 1 (3) (4)
1
37. The breaking stress of a material is 106 N/m2. If the 37.
106
/
2
density of the material is 3×103 kg/m3, what should
3×10
3
/
3
Film Film
W W
–1
(1) 0.0125 Nm –1
(2) 0.1 Nm –1
(1) 0.0125 Nm (2) 0.1 Nm–1
(3) 0.05 Nm –1
(4) 0.025 Nm–1 (3) 0.05 Nm–1 (4) 0.025 Nm–1
43. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble 43.
3
5
from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly :(Surface
(
tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm–1) = 0.03
)
(1) 4 mJ (2) 0.2 mJ (1) 4 (2) 0.2
(3) 2 mJ (4) 0.4 mJ (3) 2 (4) 0.4
44. The rubber cord of a cataput has cross-section area 44.
1mm2
1mm2 and total unstretched length 10cm. it is
10cm
12cm
stretched length 10cm. it is stretched to 12cm and 5
then relased a project a particle of mass 5 gram.
20 ms–1
if velocity of partical is 20 ms–1 then stress in
rubber cord is
(1) 5 × 107 N/m2 (2) 5 × 108 N/m2 (1) 5 × 107 N/m2 (2) 5 × 108 N/m2
(3) 107 N/m2 (4) 108 N/m2 (3) 107 N/m2 (4) 108 N/m2
45. In above Que. No. 44 young's modulus of rubber 45. Que. No. 44
is :
:
(1) 5 × 107 N/m2 (2) 108 N/m2 (1) 5 × 107 N/m2 (2) 108 N/m2
(3) 5 × 108 N/m2 (4) 107 N/m2 (3) 5 × 108 N/m2 (4) 107 N/m2
H-8/33 1001CM305616016
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/27-11-2016
TOPIC : Chemical bonding, p-block, Solution (From van’t Hoff factor), Mole concept, O.I., I-Effect, Resonance
46. Choose the incorrect order of the given properties :- 46. ?
(1) BeCl2 < LiCl : electrical conductivity (aq.) (1) BeCl2 < LiCl : (aq.)
(2) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 : Covalent character order (2) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 :
(3) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 : Thermal stability (3) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 :
(4) HgCl2 < HgBr2 < HgI2 : Solubility in water (4) HgCl2 < HgBr2 < HgI2 :
47. Which of the following species show the same 47.
type of bonding as found in salicaldehyde ?
?
(1) Crystalline KHCO3 (1) KHCO3
(2) Formic acid (2) Formic acid
(3) Monovalent anion of H2SO5 (3) H2SO5
(4) H2SO4 (4) H2SO4
48. Dipole moment of HCl is 1.03 D, HI is 0.38D 48. HCl HI
1.03 D
bond length of HCl = 1.30 Å and HI = 1.6Å the 0.38D
HCl
HI
1.30 Å
ratio of an electric charge on each atom in HCl 1.6Å
HCl
HI
and HI is :-
:-
(1) 1.2 : 1 (2) 2.7 : 1 (1) 1.2 : 1 (2) 2.7 : 1
(3) 3.3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3.3 (3) 3.3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3.3
49. Which of the following does not give NH3 gas on 49.
NH3
?
heating ?
(1) Mg(NH4)PO4 (2) (NH4)2CO3
(1) Mg(NH4)PO4 (2) (NH4)2CO3
(3) (NH4)2SO4 (4) None of these (3) (NH4)2SO4 (4)
50. PClxF5–x molecule will be polar and non-polar for 50. PClxF 5–x
what values of 'x' respectively ? 'x'
?
Polar Non-polar Polar Non-polar
(1) 2,3,5 and 0,4,1 (1) 2,3,5 and 0,4,1
(2) 0,2,5 and 3,1,4 (2) 0,2,5 and 3,1,4
(3) 4,3,0 and 2,0,4 (3) 4,3,0 and 2,0,4
(4) 2,1,4 and 3,0,5 (4) 2,1,4 and 3,0,5
51. Consider the following four monoatomic ions 51. M , N , X
+ + –
Y
–
M+, N+, X – and Y– . If lattic energy order in MX > NX
NY > NX
MX > NX and hydration energy order is
NY > NX , which of the following must be false?
?
(1) Covalent character order is : MX > MY (1) : MX > MY
(2) Thermal stability order is : MY > NY (2)
: MY > NY
(3) Hydration energy order is : MX > NX (3) : MX > NX
(4) Hydration energy order is : MX < NX (4) : MX < NX
52. The correct thermal stability order is :- 52.
:-
(1) PH4Br > PH4Cl > PH4I (1) PH4Br > PH4Cl > PH4I
(2) PH4I > PH4Br > PH4Cl (2) PH4I > PH4Br > PH4Cl
(3) PH4Cl > PH4Br > PH4I (3) PH4Cl > PH4Br > PH4I
(4) PH4I > PH4Cl > PH4Br (4) PH4I > PH4Cl > PH4Br
1001CM305616016 H-9/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
53. Determine the incorrect order of bond order ? 53.
?
(1) CO CO 2 CO 2
3 C O bond (1) CO CO 2 CO32 C O bond
(2) CN CN 2 R – C NH 2 C N bond
Θ
(2) CN CN 2 R – C NH 2 C N bond
2 Θ 2
|| ||
O O
(4) ClO ClO2 ClO3 ClO4 [Cl–O Bond] (4) ClO ClO2 ClO3 ClO4 [Cl–O Bond]
54. Which of the following pair of compounds gives 54.
ppt. when their aq. sol. are mixed with each other?
?
(1) AlCl3 , ZnSO4 (2) FeSO4 , BaCl2 (1) AlCl3 , ZnSO4 (2) FeSO4 , BaCl2
(3) Cu(NO3)2 , NH4Cl (4) NaF, (NH4)2S (3) Cu(NO3)2 , NH4Cl (4) NaF, (NH4)2S
55. Which of the following statement is true for the 55.
given species N2, CO, CNΘ NO+
N2, CO, CNΘ and NO+
(1)
(1) All species has linear shape
(2)
(2) All species has a same dipole moment
(3) All species has a same bond energy (3)
(4) None of these (4)
56. Which of the following statement is correct :- 56.
:-
(1) The crystal structure of NaHCO3 and KHCO3 (1) NaHCO 3 KHCO 3
is same due to inter mol. H-Bonding. inter mol. H-Bonding
(2) D2O(s) sinks in H2O() but floats on D2O() (2) D2O(s) ,H2O()
D2O()
(3) Acetylene is highly soluble in H2O but not (3)
soluble in acetone
(4) In C22 there is 2 bonds (4) C22 2
57. If the voilation of Hund's rule is possible then the 57.
O2 B2
magnetic nature of O2 and B2 molecule will be
:-
(Accr to MOT) :- (1)
,
(1) Diamagnetic, paramagnetic
(2)
,
(2) Paramagnetic, diamagnetic
(3) Both are diamagnetic (3)
(4) Both are paramagnetic (4)
58. Which of the following molecule has maxm dipole 58.
?
moment ?
(1) CCl4 (2) CH2Cl2
(1) CCl4 (2) CH2Cl2
(3) C2Cl2 (4) C2Cl4 (3) C2Cl2 (4) C2Cl4
59. WOF combination of orbitals is correct ? 59. ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
H-10/33 1001CM305616016
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/27-11-2016
60. The type of molecular force of attraction present 60.
in the following compound is :-
:-
(1) Intermol. H-bonding (2) Intramol. H-bonding (1) H- (2)
H-
(3) Vwf (4) All (3) Vwf (4) All
61. Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two 61. SO3
reactions :-
:-
S8(s) + 8 O2(g) —8 SO2(g) S8(s) + 8 O2(g) —8 SO2(g)
2SO2(g) + O2(g) —2 SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) —2 SO3(g)
How many grams of SO3 are produced from 1
1
S8 SO3
mole S 8 ?
(1) 320 gm (2) 640 gm
(1) 320 gm (2) 640 gm
(3) 960 gm (4) None of these (3) 960 gm (4)
62. Which of the following has the highest mass ? 62.
(1) 20 gm of phosphorus (1) 20
(2) 5 mole of water (2) 5
(3) 2 equivalents of Na2CO3 (3) Na2CO3 2
(4) 12 × 1024 atoms of hydrogen (4)
12 × 1024
63. In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3, what 63. 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3
will be the number of moles of product formed,
1
A, 0.6
B 0.72
C
starting from 1 mole of A, 0.6 mole of B and 0.72
mole of C? (1) 0.30 (2) 0.24
(1) 0.30 (2) 0.24 (3) 0.72 (4) 0.50 (3) 0.72 (4) 0.50
64. If 20% by mass Nitrogen is present in a 64.
20%
compound. Its minimum molecular weight will
be:- (1) 144 (2) 28
(1) 144 (2) 28 (3) 100 (4) 70 (3) 100 (4) 70
65. w gram of the metal [Eq.wt. = 28] displaces 0.7 litre 65. w
[
28]
0.7
hydrogen gas at S.T.P. The value of w would be :-
(S.T.P.)
w
(1) 1.2 gm (2) 1.75 gm (1) 1.2 gm (2) 1.75 gm
(3) 10.2 gm (4) 2.8 gm (3) 10.2 gm (4) 2.8 gm
66. In a closed vessel 50 ml of A2B3 completely reacts 66. A2B3 50 C2 200
with 200 ml of C2 according to the following
equation 2A2B3(g) + 5C2(g) 3C3B2(g) + CA4(g)
2A2B3(g) + 5C2(g) 3C3B2(g) + CA4(g)
The composition of gaseous mixture in the system
will be :- (1) 100 ml C2, 50 ml C3B2, 50 ml CA4
(1) 100 ml C2, 50 ml C3B2, 50 ml CA4
(2) 25 ml C2, 75 ml C3B2, 25 ml CA4
(2) 25 ml C2, 75 ml C3B2, 25 ml CA4
(3) 75 ml C2, 75 ml C3B2, 25 ml CA4
(3) 75 ml C2, 75 ml C3B2, 25 ml CA4
(4) 10 ml C2, 25 ml C3B2, 100 ml CA4
(4) 10 ml C2, 25 ml C3B2, 100 ml CA4
1001CM305616016 H-11/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
67. 10 gm of a piece of marble (CaCO3) was put into 67. 10
(CaCO3)
HCl
excess of dilute HCl acid. When the reaction was
complete, 1120 ml of CO2 was obtained at STP. STP 1120 ml CO2
The percentage of pure CaCO3 in the marble is:- CaCO3
:-
(1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75% (1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%
68. 300 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in 68.
300 mlO 2
excess of O2 gave 2.4 lit. of CO2 and 2.7 lit. of 2.4
water vapour under same condition. The CO2 2.7
molecular formula of hydrocarbon is :–
(1) C4H8 (2) C8H18 (3) C6H14 (4) C8H16 (1) C4H8 (2) C8H18 (3) C6H14 (4) C8H16
69. Calculate the volume of H2S gas (in millilitre) 69. 0.75 CuCl2
CuS
at S.T.P. needed to precipitate cupric sulphide S.T.P. H2S (ml.
)
completely from 0.75g of CuCl2 ?
[At. wt. of Cu = 63.5, At. wt. of Cl = 35.5] [Cu
= 63.5, Cl
= 35.5]
Reaction: CuCl2 + H2S CuS + 2HCl
: CuCl2 + H2S CuS + 2HCl
(1) 21.4 ml (2) 14.2 ml (1) 21.4 ml (2) 14.2 ml
(3) 41.2 ml (4) 124.9 ml (3) 41.2 ml (4) 124.9 ml
70. 17.4 % (mass / volume) K2SO4 solution at 27°C 70. 27°C 17.4 % w/v K2SO4 5.85% w/v
is isotonic to 5.85% (mass / volume) NaCl NaCl
NaCl 100%
solution at 27°C. If NaCl is 100% ionised, what K2SO4 %
?
is % ionisation of K2SO4 in aq. solution ? [K
= 39 Na = 23 ] :-
[At wt. of K = 39, Na = 23 ] :-
(1) 25% (2) 75%
(1) 25% (2) 75%
(3) 50% (4) None of these (3) 50% (4)
71. 0.2 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A3B 71.
A3B 0.2
is 90% ionised. The boiling point of the solution 90%
1 atm
at 1 atm is.
?
(K b for H 2 O = 0.52 K Kg mol–1 & B.pt. of (H2O Kb = 0.52 K Kg mol–1 H2O
H2O = 373 kelvin ) :- = 373 K) :-
(1) 273.19 K (2) 374.92 K (1) 273.19 K (2) 374.92 K
(3) 376.4 K (4) 373.38 K (3) 376.4 K (4) 373.38 K
72. Column-I (various solutions) Column-II (Their 72. LrEHk
-I (fofHkUu foy;u
) LrEHk
-II (muds fgekad
)
freezing point )
a 0.1M BaCl2 p 271 K
a 0.1M BaCl2 solution p 271 K
d 0.1M Al2 (SO4)3 solution s 269 K d 0.1M Al2 (SO4)3 s 269 K
A A
0.5 M 0.01M 0.5 M 0.01M
P3Q2 M2N3 P3Q2 M2N3
SideX SideY SideX SideY
B B
SPM SPM
1001CM305616016 H-13/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
77. Find the relation between following compounds:- 77.
:-
CH3 OH CH3 OH
F Cl H CH3 F Cl H CH3
H OH F CH3 H OH F CH3
CH3 Cl CH3 Cl
[P] [Q] [P] [Q]
80. Which of the following order is correct for stability? 80.
+ + + + + +
(1) CH3 < CD3 < CT3 (1) CH3 < CD3 < CT3
– – – –
(2) O (2) O
O < O <
+ + + + + +
81. Which of the following is not valid resonating 81.
structure of given compound :-
:-
Cl Cl
+ + + + + +
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
+ – + –
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
– –
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82. In following which one order is incorrect ? 82.
O O O O
|| || || ||
(1) C – OH > C – OH > (1) C – OH > C – OH >
N N N N
| | | |
H H H H
O O
|| ||
H–N C – OH (Acidic strength) H–N C – OH (
)
(2) 3ºAmine > 2ºAmine > 1ºAmine > NH
(2) 3ºAmine > 2ºAmine > 1ºAmine > NH
3 3
F NO2 . . F NO2 . .
.. .. .. ..
(3) NH2 > NH2 > NH2 (3) NH2 > NH2 > NH2
+ +
NR3 F NO2 NR3 F NO2
(4) OH > OH > OH (4) OH > OH > OH
– –
O O O O
– || | – || |
(1) CH2 – C – H CH2 = C – H (1) CH2 – C – H CH2 = C – H
(I) (II) (I) (II)
+ + + +
(2) CH3–CH2–CH–OCH3 CH3–CH2–CH=O–CH3 (2) CH3–CH2–CH–OCH3 CH3–CH2–CH=O–CH3
(I) (II) (I) (II)
+ +
O O–H O O–H
|| || – || || –
(3) CH3 – C – OH CH3 – C – O (3) CH3 – C – OH CH3 – C – O
(I) (II) (I) (II)
+ + + +
O–H O–H O–H O–H
|| || || ||
– –
(4) (4)
– –
1001CM305616016 H-15/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
84. In which of the following compound all lone pair 84.
(L.P.)
are localised ?
(1) .. (1) ..
N N
H H
.. ..
O–H O–H
(2) (2)
.. ..
H–B N–H H–B N–H
(3) (3)
.. ..
OH OH
(4) (4)
85. Which of the following can show resonance ? 85.
+ +
NH3 CH2=C=C=CH 2 NH3 CH2=C=C=CH 2
(P) (Q) (P) (Q)
+ +
H–C=O + H–C=O +
N N
| |
H H
H H
(R) (S) (R) (S)
(1) Q & R (2) Q, R & S (1) Q & R (2) Q, R & S
(3) P, Q, R & S (4) P & R (3) P, Q, R & S (4) P & R
86. Choose the incorrect option ? 86.
(1) –NO2 has more electron withdrawing (–I) (1) –NO2 (–I)
–CN
effect than –CN. (2)
(Threose)
(2) Threose compound is always optically
inactive. (3) –CT 3
(+I) –CH 3
(3) –CT3 has more electron donating (+I) effect
than –CH3. (4) (Ph–NH2)
sp2
(4) In aniline (Ph–NH2), nitrogen is sp2 hybridised.
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87. Total number of resonating structure of following 87.
compound is (only monoanion) :- (only monoanion)
(1) A–IV; B–II; C–III; D–I (1) A–IV; B–II; C–III; D–I
(2) A–IV; B–III; C–II; D–I (2) A–IV; B–III; C–II; D–I
(3) A–I; B–IV; C–III; D–II (3) A–I; B–IV; C–III; D–II
(4) A–I; B–III; C–II; D–IV (4) A–I; B–III; C–II; D–IV
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96. Match the column-I (Component) with 96.
-I ( ) -II (
column-II (% of the total cellular mass) and )
identify the correct option :-
Column II LrEHk
I LrEHkII
Column I
(Component)
(% of the total (?kVd
) (dqy dksf'kdh; Hkkj dk
%)
cellular mass)
A I 3
A Water I 3
B II 70-90
B Proteins II 70-90
C Carbohydrates III 2 C
III 2
(1) A–V; B–II; C–III; D–IV; E–I (1) A–V; B–II; C–III; D–IV; E–I
(2) A–II; B–V; C–I; D–III; E–IV (2) A–II; B–V; C–I; D–III; E–IV
(3) A–III; B–I; C–IV; D–V; E–II (3) A–III; B–I; C–IV; D–V; E–II
(4) A–V; B–IV; C–III; D–II; E–I (4) A–V; B–IV; C–III; D–II; E–I
97. During photorespiration ATP as well as O2 are 97.
ATP O2
consumed in the
(1) (2)
(1) Peroxysome (2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast (4) Vacuole (3) (4)
Light Light
98. A + B protochlorophyll
Zn
C. 98. A + B protochlorophyll
Zn
C
Find the correct option with respect to A, B & C Equation
A, B
C
given in the equation :-
(1) A - Succinyl CoA, (1) A - Succinyl CoA,
B - Alanine B - Alanine
(2) A - Succinyl CoA, (2) A - Succinyl CoA,
C - Chlorophyll C - Chlorophyll
(3) B - Lysine, (3) B - Lysine,
C - Chlorophyllide C - Chlorophyllide
(4) A - Succinyl CoA, (4) A - Succinyl CoA,
B - Lysine B - Lysine
99. During cyclic photo-phosphorylation which of the 99.
following process does not occur except :-
(1) Synthesis of ATP (1) ATP
(2) Photolysis of water (2)
(3) O2 release (3) O2
(4) Synthesis of NADPH2 (4) NADPH2
1001CM305616016 H-19/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
100.
100.
A
A
B
B
A A
Rate of Rate of
CO2 fixation B CO2 fixation B
0 10 20 0 10 20
O2 conc. O2 conc.
Bundle Bundle
sheath sheath
cell cell
Transport Transport Transport Transport
Fixation by Fixation by
C 4 acid Calvin cycle C 4 acid Calvin cycle
CO2 CO2
A C 3 acid A C 3 acid
110. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and 110.
(A-D)
select the option which includes all correct ones only.
:-
A. Two types of cells i.e. fusiform initials and ray A.
initials are found in cork cambium.
B. Secondary growth is found in leaves also. B.
C. Distinct(clear) annual rings are not formed in C.
India except himalayan region.
D. Activity of vasular cambium is affected by D.
physiological and environmental factors.
Options :- :-
(1) Statements B, C and D (1) B, C
D
(2) Statements A, B (2) A, B
(3) Statements C, D (3) C, D
(4) Statements A, C and D (4) A, C
D
111. Find out the correct match from the following table. 111.
Options :- :-
(1) i only (2) i and ii (1) i (2) i ii
(3) iii only (4) ii and iii (3) iii (4) ii iii
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112. Read the following five statements (A-E) and 112.
(A-E)
answer as asked next to them :-
:-
A. According to the Haberlandt, epidermis is A.
formed by the activity of protoderm.
B. Dermatogen, periblem and plerome are B.
meristematic zones.
C. According to the tunica corpus theory, cortex C.
is formed by the activity of tunica.
D. Leaf primordia are formed by the summit D.
zone of vegetative shoot apex.
E. Leaf primordia provide protection to the shoot E.
apical meristem.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four (2) One (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
113. During the formation of primary plant body, 113.
(body)
dermal tissues, ground tissues & vascular tissues
are produced by specific regions of the :-
?
(1) Apical meristem (2) Intercalary meristem (1)
(2)
(3) Lateral meristem (4) Secondary meristem (3) (4)
114. Which of the following character is not found in 114.
(
)
the sclerenchyma ? ?
(1) Cells are usually dead & without protoplasts (1)
(2)
(2) Cells perform various functions like
photosynthesis, storage etc
(3)
(3) Cells have thick & lignified walls
(4) Cell walls have a few or numerous pits (4)
115. Select the false statement from the following:- 115.
:-
(1) Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem (1)
(2) Vessel is a long cylindrical tube like structure (2)
(
)
made up of many cells
(3) Xylem fibres have highly thickened walls & (3)
obliterated central lumens
(4) Tracheids are elongated tube like cells with (4)
perforated ends
116. Xylem is present in the shape of Y and V in :- 116. Y V
:-
(1) Monocot root (2) Monocot stem (1) (2)
(3) Dicot root (4) Dicot stem (3) (4)
117. Exarch and polyarch vascular bundle is 117.
characteristic feature of :-
:-
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot root (1) (2)
(3) Monocot stem (4) Monocot root (3) (4)
118. The protoxylem in a dorsiventral leaf is towards :- 118.
?
(1) Upper epidermis (2) Lower epidermis (1)
(2)
(3) Centre (4) Any side (3) (4)
1001CM305616016 H-23/33
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/27-11-2016
119. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral 119.
grass leaf is shown by :-
:-
(1) Palisade towards adaxial surface (1)
(2) Palisade towards abaxial surface (2)
(3) Undifferentiated mesophyll (3)
(4) Palisade along both the surfaces (4)
120. Endodermis of dicot stem is also called :- 120.
:-
(1) Bundle sheath (2) Starch sheath (1) (2)
()
(3) Mesophyll (4) Piliferous layer (3) (4)
121. Centripetal xylem is the characteristic of :- 121.
?
(1) Roots (2) Stems (3) Leaf (4) Petiole (1) (2) (3) (4)
122. Phloem of gymnosperms have :- 122.
:-
(1) Sieve tubes & companion cells (1)
(2) Sieve cells & companion cells (2)
(3) Sieve cells & albuminous cells (3)
(4) Sieve tubes & albuminous cells (4)
123. Which of the following character is not related 123.
with companion cell ?
?
(1) It is specialised parenchymatous cell (1)
(2) It helps in maintaining pressure gradient in (2)
the sieve tube
(3) Its nucleus controls the function of sieve tube (3)
(4) It is connected by vessel through pit field (4)
124. Phloem fibres are :- 124. (
)
:-
(1) Generally absent in secondary phloem but are (1)
found in the primary phloem
(2) Generally absent in primary phloem but are (2)
found in the secondary phloem
(3) Generally present in both primary & (3)
secondary phloem
(4) Generally absent in both primary & (4)
secondary phloem
125. Select the correct statement :- 125. :-
(1) The innermost layer of the cortex is called (1)
pericycle
(2) Endodermis of root is comprises multiple (2)
layers of barrel shaped cells
(3) The tangential as well as radial walls of the (3)
endodermal cells of root have a deposition of suberin
(4) Initiation of lateral roots & vascular cambium (4)
during the secondary growth takes place from
the cells of endodermis of dicot root
126. In between the vascular bundles of dicot stem 126.
(
)
there are a few layers of radially placed
(
)
parenchymatous cells, which constitute the :- :-
(1) Medullary rays (2) Pith (1) (
) (2)
(3) Conjuctive tissue (4) Pericycle (3) (4)
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127. The cross section of a plant material shows the 127.
following anatomical features under microscope:-
The vascular bundles are radially arranged, six
xylem strands with exarch condition and well
developed pith. :-
The plant material should be :- (1) (2)
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot root (4) Monocot root (3) (4)
128. Given figure represents internal structure of 128.
monocot stem. In which labelled structures 1 & (1) (2)
2 are made up of :-
156. 156.
Tasmanian wolf Tasmanian wolf
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161. Before the industrial revolution in England in 161. 1850
1850, which type of Biston betularia present in
more amount :-
:-
(1) White winged (2) Dark winged (1) (2)
(3) Red winged (4) All of the above (3) (4)
162. Excess use of herbicides, pesticides has only resulted 162.
in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time
scale. It was an example of evolution by:-
:-
(1) Mass extinction (2) Anthropogenic action (1) (2)
(3) Continental drift (4) Both 1 and 3 (3) (4) 1 3
163. Select the incorrect statement :- 163. :-
(1) Lichens can be used as industrial pollution (1)
indicators
(2) Evolution is a directed process in the sense (2)
of determinism
(3) Evolution is a stochastic process based on (3)
chance event in nature and chance mutation
in the organisms
(4) Similarities in proteins and genes performing (4)
a given function among diverse organisms
give clues to common ancestory
164. What is the main essence of darwinlan theory of 164.
evolution :-
:-
(1) Genetic variation (1)
(2) Isolation (2)
(3) Struggle for existence (3)
(4) Natural selection (4)
165. Select the incorrect statements :- 165. :-
(A) The essence of darwinian theory of evolution (A)
is natural selection
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense (B)
of determinism
(C) The geological history of earth is not related (C)
with the biological history of earth
(D) During evolution the rate of appearance of (D)
new forms is linked to the life cycle
(1) A and B (2) B and C (1) A B (2) B C
(3) A and D (4) B and D (3) A D (4) B D
166. Binomial system of nomenclature means that 166.
every organism has :-
:-
(1) One scientific nomenclature consisting of two (1)
specific epithet
(2) A name given by two scientists (2)
(3) One scientific nomenclature consisting of one (3)
specific epithet
(4) A number in an international catalogue by (4)
which an organism is identified
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167. Both the words in a biological name when handwritten 167.
are underlined or printed in italics to indicate :-
:-
(1) They are endangered (2) They are living (1) (2)
(3) Their latin origin (4) Now they are extinct (3) (4)
168. In which of the following, character of class are 168.
more general as compared to the character of :-
:-
(1) Division (2) Sub-division (1) (2)
(3) Order (4) Kingdom (3) (4)
169. Two organism of same division but different order 169.
will be kept under the same :-
:-
(1) Family (2) Genus (3) Class (4) Species (1) (2) (3) (4)
170. Identify the correct from the column I, II and III:- 170. I, II III
:-
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