Vision IAS CSP20 Test 30 S

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 2992 (2020)
Q 1.D
• Statement 1 is correct: A right is essentially an entitlement or a justified claim. It denotes what we are
entitled to as citizens, as individuals, and as human beings. Rights are primarily those claims that we
along with others regard to be necessary for leading a life of respect and dignity. In fact, one of the
grounds on which rights have been claimed is that they represent conditions that we collectively see as a
source of self-respect and dignity. For example, the right to livelihood may be considered necessary for
leading a life of dignity. Being gainfully employed gives a person economic independence and thus is
central for his/her dignity.
• Statement 2 is correct: In most cases, the claimed rights are directed towards the state. That is, through
these rights people make demands upon the state. When we assert our right to education, we call upon the
state to make provisions for my basic education. Thus, rights place an obligation upon the state to act in
certain kinds of ways. Each right indicates what the state must do as well as what it must not do. For
instance, our right to life obliges the state to make laws that protect me from injury by others. It calls upon
the state to punish those who hurt me or harm me. If a society feels that the right to life means a right to a
good quality of life, it expects the state to pursue policies that provide for clean environment along with
other conditions that may be necessary for a healthy life. In other words, my right here places certain
obligations upon the state to act in a certain way.
• Statement 3 is correct: Rights not only place obligations upon the state to act in a certain way — for
instance, to ensure sustainable development — but they also place obligations upon each of us. Firstly,
they compel us to think not just of our own personal needs and interests but to defend some things as
being good for all of us. Protecting the ozone layer, minimising air and water pollution, maintaining the
green cover by planting new trees and preventing cutting down of forests, maintaining the ecological
balance, are things that are essential for all of us.
• Secondly, they require that we respect the rights of others. If we say that we must be given the right to
express my views we must also grant the same right to others. If we do not want others to interfere with
the choices we make — the dress we wear or the music we listen to — we must refrain from interfering in
the choices that others make. we must leave them free to choose their music and clothes. We cannot use
the right to free speech to incite a crowd to kill my neighbour. In exercising our rights, we cannot deprive
others of their rights. My rights are, in other words, limited by the principle of equal and same rights for
all.
Q 2.D
• An electoral bond is an interest-free banking instrument whereby a citizen or a business entity in India is
eligible to purchase (either through cheque or digital payments) the bond from specific branches of the
State Bank of India for 10 days each in months of January, April, July, and October. As per the business
rules unveiled by the government in 2018, EB can be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or
incorporated or established in India. Further, a person being an individual can buy electoral bonds, either
singly or jointly with other individuals. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
that has secured not less than 1 percent of votes polled in the last general election to the House of the
People or the Legislative Assembly of the State is eligible to receive such donations.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Other highlights of EB are that the bonds will be valid for 15 days only and shall not carry the donor's
name, although the payee will have to fulfill KYC (Know Your Customer) norms at the bank. What is
important here is no report is required to be submitted by receiving parties in case of donations received
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via electoral bonds. In other words, neither donors nor political parties are legally bounded to reveal the
details of donations. Thus, opacity is ingrained with this new instrument for political funding.
• Electoral bonds are available in the denomination of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lac, Rs. 10 lacs and Rs. 1
crore. Almost 99 percent of donations received by political parties between March 2018 and January 24,
2019, were as electoral bonds of Rs 10 lakh and Rs one crore, a right to information (RTI) application
revealed in November 2019. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 3.B
• Asian elephants are on the brink of extinction. There are only 35 000 left on the planet, 27,000 of them are
living in India. Recently, Voice for Asian Elephants held the Gentle Giant Summit in Kerala. A
steering committee named Mathanga Manava Maitri was constituted for the conservation of wild
elephants and wild animals at the Gentle Giants Summit organized by the Voice for Asian Elephants
Society.
• Mathanga Manava Maitri will join hands with various government departments to impart this
practical knowledge. Officials will be given instructions to strictly enforce the current rules. If the
violation continues, the steering committee will resort to legal means. The three-day workshop was
attended by officials from KSEB, Police, Forest Department, Railways and various NGOs.
• Voice For Asian Elephants Society (VFAES) is a US-based organization with a vision to create
sustainable communities through caring for and protecting endangered Asian elephants in India,
beginning with Kerala.
Q 4.C
• Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 24 countries and the European Commission (on
behalf of the European Union) working to reinvigorate and accelerate global clean energy innovation with
the objective to make clean energy widely affordable. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Mission Innovation was announced on November 30, 2015 due to pioneering efforts by India, France
and USA, as world leaders came together in Paris to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate
change Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The mission's objective is to accelerate the pace of clean energy innovation (research and development) to
achieve performance breakthroughs and cost reductions to provide widely affordable and reliable clean
energy solutions that will revolutionize energy systems throughout the world over the next two
decades. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Its goals are:
o A substantial boost in public-sector investment in clean energy R&D at the national level of MI
members.
o Increased private sector engagement and investment in energy innovation, particularly in key
Innovation Challenges.
o Many new or strengthened voluntary cross-border networks and partnerships on energy innovation,
greater engagement from innovators, and accelerated progress in addressing specific Innovation
Challenges.
o Greater awareness amongst MI members and the wider clean energy community of the
transformational potential of energy innovation, the progress being made, and the remaining critical
clean energy innovation gaps and opportunities.
Q 5.C
• Carrying capacity
o It is the maximum sustainable population of a species the environment can sustain for an indefinite
period of time given available resources. This is the point where the population theoretically cannot
grow any larger and it is not growing any larger. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o For functional purposes, carrying capacity will typically be an upper limit, but certain circumstances
can temporarily take a population above this (though the population will decrease sharply thereafter).
• Carrying capacity is determined and affected by a number of variables.
o The total geographic space available to a species determines the population number (biotic), but so
does the amount of energy (abiotic) available for that species to consume. Interactions with other
species, including humans, will also affect carrying capacity. The biotic factors refer to the living
components of an ecosystem, and the abiotic factors refer to the non-living, chemical and physical
components of the ecosystem. Therefore, both the abiotic and biotic resources affect the survival and
reproduction process. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The carrying capacity for any given area is not fixed.
o It can be altered by improved technology, but mostly it is changed for the worse by pressures which
accompany a population increase.
o As the environment is degraded, carrying capacity actually shrinks, leaving the environment no longer
able to support even the number of people who could formerly have lived in the area on a sustainable
basis. No population can live beyond the environment's carrying capacity for very long.
o Carrying capacity can be increased by the amount of food available, the local extinction of a
competitor, an increase in species fertility, a decrease in predation, an increase in the amount of
habitat available for use, and adaptations to the environment, such as resistance to disease or
adaptations that serve to decrease the amount of energy spent on obtaining food.
o Carrying capacity can be decreased by disease, an increase in predation, hunting or harvesting by
humans, a decrease in available habitat such as habitat destruction by humans, parasites, competition
with another species for a resource, or changes in the weather that make the species less suited to the
environment.
Q 6.D
• Statement 1 is not correct: India is the second-largest onion growing country in the world (China being
the largest). Indian onions has two crop cycles, first harvesting starts in November to January and the
second harvesting from January to May. The Major Onion producing states are Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana and Telangana. Maharashtra
ranks first in Onion production with a share of 28.32%.
• Statement 2 is not correct: India is the world’s largest milk producer, with 22 per cent of global
production, followed by the United States of America, China, Pakistan and Brazil. In India, Uttar Pradesh
is the largest milk-producing state (30,519 metric tonnes-2018-19). Apart from being the largest milk
producer, Uttar Pradesh also has the largest number of cows and buffaloes in India. Gujarat produces
14,493 metric tonnes (2018-19).
• Statement 3 is not correct: Five countries mainly Indonesia, Malaysia, Nigeria, Thailand and Cambodia
account for over 90% of the world’s total production of fresh fruit bunches of Palm Oil. In India, the
largest Palm Oil producing state is Andhra Pradesh.
• Palm Oil:

• Onion (2018):
Q 7.A
• In the 1946 provincial elections, Congress formed its ministries in Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Central
Provinces, Madras, NWFP, Orissa and United Provinces. The Muslim League formed its ministries
in Bengal and Sind. A coalition consisting of the Congress, Unionist Party and the Akalis was formed in
Punjab. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
• The Muslim league performed better compared to the elections of 1937. It gained 86.6% of the
Muslim votes and got a majority in Bengal and Sindh. Compared to the 1937 elections, the League clearly
established itself as the dominant party among Muslims. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q 8.A
• The rapid growth of the Indian economy has also created the demand for additional capacity of rail freight
transportation. This burgeoning demand led to the conception of the Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFC)
along the Eastern and Western Routes. DFC is a high-speed and high-capacity railway corridor dedicated
exclusively for freight (goods and commodity) movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCC) was incorporated as a company under
the Companies Act 1956 to undertake planning & development, mobilization of financial resources and
construction, maintenance and operation of the dedicated freight corridors.
• In the first phase of the plan DFCCIL has been entrusted with the responsibility of construction,
maintenance and operation of two corridors – Eastern Corridor from Ludhiana to Dankuni with Dadri-
Khurja link and Western Corridor from Dadri to Jawaharlal Nehru Port. DFCCIL’s role will primarily be
that of the infrastructure provider with the responsibility of construction, operation, and maintenance. The
DFCCIL will accept freight trains on its system, operate them on the DFC and then hand them back to
Indian Railways and other qualified operators at the other end.
• Four more Freight Corridors were also announced in 2010.
o East-West Corridor (Kolkata-Mumbai)
o North-South Corridor (Delhi-Chennai)
o East Coast Corridor (Kharagpur-Vijaywada)
o Southern Corridor (Chennai-Goa)
• Significance of DFC:
o Reduce unit cost of transportation by speeding up freight train operations & higher productivity.

o Improving Carrying Capacity by adopting state-of-the-art technology, DFC will make significant
improvements in basic design features (More height, width, container stack, etc.) that will enable it to
withstand heavier loads at higher speeds.
o Increase rail share in the freight market by providing customized logistic services. It will also
introduce high-end technology & IT packing of Freight Services.
o It will facilitate fresh industrial activity and multi-modal value-addition services hubs along the
corridors.
• The issue of land acquisition is one of the major challenges being faced by DFC. Land acquisition in the
DFC project is governed by the Railways Act, 1989, as it has been notified as a Special Railway Project.
As per section 105 (1) of the Land Acquisition Act 2013, "the provisions of this act shall not apply to the
enactments relating to land acquisition specified in the Fourth Schedule". Therefore, the Ministry of
Railways (through DFCCIL) is acquiring the DFC project as per " The Railway Act, 1989". Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
Q 9.B
• To hedge means to safeguard, and in the context of investing, it means to protect against risks. Hedge
funds are alternative investments using pooled funds that employ different strategies to earn active return,
or alpha, for their investors. Hedge funds may be aggressively managed or make use
of derivatives and leverage in both domestic and international markets with the goal of generating
high returns.
• The Features & Benefits of Hedge Funds: Hedge fund industry in India got a green flag in 2012 when
the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) allowed alternative investment funds (AIF). They
have the following features:
• High Net-Worth Investors: Only qualified or accredited investors can invest in hedge funds. They are
mainly high net worth individuals (HNIs), banks, insurance companies, endowments, and pension
funds. The minimum ticket size for investors investing in these funds is Rs 1 crore. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• Diverse Portfolio: Hedge funds have a comprehensive portfolio of investments ranging from currencies,
derivatives, stocks, real estates, equities, and bonds. Yes, they necessarily cover all the asset classes only
limited by the mandate.
• Higher Fees: They work on the concept of both expense ratio and management fee. Globally, it is ‘Two
and Twenty’, meaning there is a 2% fixed fee and 20% of profits. As for hedge funds in India, the
management fee can well below 2% to below 1%. And the profit-sharing varies between 10% to 15%
generally.
• Higher Risks: Hedge funds investment strategy can expose funds to huge losses. The Lock-in period
generally for investment is relatively long. Leverage used by these funds can turn investments into a
significant loss.
• Taxation: The Category III AIF (hedge funds) is still not given pass-through status on tax. This implies
that income from these funds is taxable at the investment fund level. Hence, the tax obligation will not
pass through to the unit-holders. This is a disadvantage for this industry as they are not on a level playing
ground with other mutual funds.
• Regulations: It is not required that hedge funds be registered with the securities markets
regulator and have no reporting requirements including regular disclosure of Net Asset Values (NAV).
i.e. they are unregistered private investment partnerships or funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Mutual funds are registered with securities markets regulator and are subject to the provisions of the
relevant regulations such as offer/issue of units/securities, disclosure and reporting requirement, valuation
for the purpose of computation of NAV, conflict of interest issue and limit leverage. Hedge funds are not
required to be registered and therefore, are not subject to similar regulatory provisions. Hence, statement
3 is not correct.
Q 10.A
• International Maritime Organization has been working to reduce harmful impacts of shipping on
the environment since the 1960s. Annex VI to the International Convention for the Prevention of
Pollution from Ships (MARPOL Convention) was adopted in 1997, to address air pollution from
shipping. Until 31 December 2019, for ships operating outside Emission Control Areas, the limit
for sulphur content of ships’ fuel oil wass 3.50% m/m (mass by mass). Recently, the amendments to the
MARPOL regulations stipulates that sulphur content in the exhaust from ships should be brought
down from 3.5 per cent m/m (Mass on mass) to 0.5 per cent worldwide.

• Installing scrubbers is an option to reduce the content in the gases before being released into the air. The
scrubbers would wash the exhaust gas from ships to bring the sulphur content down before releasing it to
the atmosphere. The water used for washing eventually has to go into the sea. However, ports such as
Singapore are refusing to accept the use of scrubbers on ships in their ports due to water pollution.
• There are also suggestions to evolve a national policy on that will be acceptable to India. Since the issue
pertains to the implementation of MARPOL regulations, DG Shipping as the regulator of shipping in
India and representing India in IMO conventions, would be the authority best suited to formulate the
policy.
Q 11.C
• Statement 1 is correct: Though a member of the House, the Speaker does not vote in the House except
on those rare occasions when there is a tie at the end of a decision. This is known as casting vote of
Speaker. It is provided under Article 100 in The Constitution
• However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under
consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. But, he can vote at all on such resolution or on any
other matter during such proceedings as being a member of the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 2 is correct: Till date, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has not been called upon to exercise this
unique casting vote.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Constitution, the Chairman exercises only a casting vote in the
case of equality of votes. However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the
Chairman from his office is under consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. He cannot also vote at
all on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings as he is not a member of the
Rajya Sabha.
Q 12.A
• Totipotency is the ability of a single cell to divide and produce all of the differentiated cells in an
organism. It was learned by scientists, during the 1950s, that whole plants could be regenerated from
explants, i.e., any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special
nutrient media. This capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called totipotency.
• Totipotency is set to become a key tool for research and future medical applications. Human development
begins when a sperm fertilizes an egg and the resulting fertilized egg creates a single totipotent cell, a
zygote. The zygote divides numerous times and forms cells that are the precursors to the trillions of cells
that will eventually constitute the human body
• Finding efficient ways to generate totipotent-like cells is therefore crucial. Totipotent cells own the
highest differentiation potential of all cells. They can only be found shortly after fertilization in an early
embryonic state and are capable of producing all cell types. Pluripotent cells, also called embryonic stem
cells, on the contrary, have lost some of this potential as they have already further developed.
Q 13.D
• A currency swap, also known as a cross-currency swap, is a legal contract between two parties to
exchange two currencies at a later date, but at a predetermined exchange rate. Since the exchange rates
are predetermined it brings stability to the forex and capital markets of the parties involved. Hence,
• Recently, Under the Framework for 2019-22, RBI will continue (The SAARC Currency Swap Facility
came into operation on November 15, 2012) to offer swap arrangement within the overall corpus of US $
Two billion. The withdrawals can be made in US Dollars, Euro or Indian Rupee. The Framework provides
certain concessions for swap withdrawals in Indian Rupee.
• The Currency Swap Facility will be available to all SAARC member countries, subject to their signing
the bilateral swap agreements. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 14.C
• The Northern Alliance, also known as the United Islamic Front for Salvation of Afghanistan
(UIFSA), was a coalition of militias seeking to topple the rule of the Taliban throughout
Afghanistan. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The technical and monetary support received from Iran, Russia, India, and Tajikistan; the flow of arms
coming from the west; and the coordinating services of special services from the U.S. and the UK from
inside Afghanistan, allowed UIFSA troops to finally oust the Taliban from power in Kabul. Ultimately,
the Northern Alliance was able to gain control over a large part of Afghanistan.
• This allowed the front to play a crucial role in establishing the post-Taliban government of Hamid Karzai
in late 2001 before disintegrating again in December of that same year.
Q 15.C
• GST composition scheme is a tax-paying mechanism offered to small businesses. When compared to
normal GST filing, the composite scheme offers two main benefits:
o reduced paperwork and compliance, and
o lower tax liability.
• Businesses registered under composition scheme are required to pay GST at 1% to 6% depending on the
type of business activity conducted by the business entity.
• Under the scheme, tax filing gets easier as one needs to file just one quarterly return and one annual
return.
• At present, the GST composition scheme limit is 1.5 crores i.e. businesses/individuals with an annual
turnover of up to Rs. 1.5 crore can opt for registration under the GST composition scheme.
• The limit for the GST composition scheme for the North Eastern States and hill states is lower than 1.5
crores which is decided by GST Council.
• Under the provisions of the GST Act, a range of businesses in the manufacturing and services sectors are
allowed to register under the composition scheme.
• However, the GST composition scheme is not applicable to the following persons/entities:
o Non-resident taxable person or a casual taxable person
o Businesses/persons supplying goods through an e-commerce portal operator that collects tax at source
o businesses/persons engaged in inter-state supply of goods
o manufacturer of tobacco products, tobacco substitutes and pan masala
o Businesses/persons who have purchased goods from an unregistered supplier
• 1.6 million taxpayers (17 percent of the total) are registered under the composition scheme, the current
threshold for which is fixed at Rs. 1.5 crore.
• They pay a small tax (1 percent, 2 percent or 5 percent) on their turnover and are not eligible for
input tax credits. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
• This set up minimizes their administrative burden, but also makes it difficult for them to sell to larger
firms, which would not be able to secure input tax credits on such purchases. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
• For this reason, about 1.9 million (24 percent of total regular filers) of the registrants sized between the
GST threshold of Rs 20 lakhs and the composition limit4 who could have opted for the composition
scheme chose not to do so and instead decided to file under the regular GST. Put differently, more than
54.3 per cent (1.9/(1.9+1.6)) of those eligible to register under the composition scheme, chose instead to
be regular filers.
Q 16.C
• The workers under Communist and radical nationalist influence participated in a large number of strikes
and demonstrations all over the country between 1922 and 1929. There were various strikes and also
numerous workers’ meetings organized on May Day, Lenin Day, the anniversary of the Russian
Revolution, and so on.
• The Government, nervous of the growing militancy and political involvement of the working class, and
especially at the coming together of the nationalist and the Left trends, launched a two-pronged attack
on the labour movement. On one hand, it enacted repressive laws like the Public Safety Bill, 1928
and Trade Disputes Act 1929 and arrested in one swoop virtually the entire radical leadership of the
labour movement and launched the Meerut Conspiracy Case in 1929 against them. On the other
hand, it attempted concessions like the appointment of the First Royal Commission on Labour in
1929. Hence, options 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
• The labour movement suffered a major setback partially due to this Government offensive and partially
due to a shift in the stance of the Communist-led wing of the movement. From about the end of 1928, the
Communists reversed their policy of aligning themselves with and working within the mainstream of the
national movement. This led to the isolation of the Communists from the national movement and greatly
reduced their hold over even the working class. Further, the Communists got isolated within the AITUC
and were thrown out in the split of 1931.
• Official Secrets Act, 1923 was meant for ensuring secrecy and confidentiality in governance, mostly on
national security and espionage issues. It was not related to the labour movement. Hence, option 1 is not
correct.
Q 17.D
• Auxins: They help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings, an application widely used for plant propagation.
Auxins promote flowering e.g. in pineapples. They help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages but
promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits. In most higher plants, the growing apical bud
inhibits the growth of the lateral (axillary) buds, a phenomenon called apical dominance. Removal of
shoot tips (decapitation) usually results in the growth of lateral buds.
• Cytokinins: They are synthesized in regions where rapid cell division occurs, for example, root apices,
developing shoot buds, young fruits, etc. It helps to produce new leaves, chloroplasts in leaves, lateral
shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation. Cytokinins help overcome apical dominance. They
promote nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence. Hence pair 2 is correctly
matched.
• Ethylene: Ethylene is a simple gaseous PGR. It is synthesized in large amounts by tissues undergoing
senescence and ripening fruits. Influences of ethylene on plants include horizontal growth of seedlings,
swelling of the axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedlings. Ethylene promotes senescence and
abscission of plant organs, especially of leaves and flowers. Ethylene is highly effective in fruit
ripening. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Abscisic acid: Abscisic acid (ABA) was discovered for its role in regulating abscission and dormancy.
But like other PGRs, it also has other wide-ranging effects on plant growth and development. It acts as
a general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor of plant metabolism. ABA inhibits seed
germination. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants
to various kinds of stresses. Therefore, it is also called the stress hormone. ABA plays an important role in
seed development, maturation and dormancy. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
Q 18.D
• The Gini index or Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution developed by the Italian
statistician Corrado Gini in 1912. It is often used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income
distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1
representing perfect inequality. A country in which every resident has the same income would have an
income Gini coefficient of 0. A country in which one resident earned all the income, while everyone else
earned nothing, would have an income Gini coefficient of 1. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Gini index is often represented graphically through the Lorenz curve, which shows income (or
wealth) distribution by plotting the population percentile by income on the horizontal axis and cumulative
income on the vertical axis.
• In 2016, the International Monetary Fund in its regional economic outlook for Asia and Pacific said
that India’s Gini coefficient rose to 0.51 in 2013 from 0.45 in 1990.
Q 19.A
• A wetland is a distinct ecosystem that is flooded by water, either permanently or seasonally,
where oxygen-free processes prevail. The primary factor that distinguishes wetlands from other
landforms or water bodies is the characteristic vegetation of aquatic plants, adapted to the unique hydric
soil.
• Wetlands provide a wide range of important resources and ecosystem services such as food, water,
fibre, groundwater recharge, water purification, flood moderation, erosion control, and climate
regulation. They are, in fact, are a major source of water and our main supply of freshwater comes from
an array of wetlands that help soak rainfall and recharge groundwater.
• The Ramsar Convention signed in 1971, is one of the oldest inter-governmental accord signed by
members countries to preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international importance.
• The aim of the Ramsar list is to develop and maintain an international network of wetlands which are
important for the conservation of global biological diversity and for sustaining human life through the
maintenance of their ecosystem components, processes and benefits. Wetlands declared as Ramsar sites
are protected under strict guidelines of the convention.
• Important Ramsar sites are
o Ashtamudi Wetland - Kerala
o Bhoj Wetlands - Madhya Pradesh
o Deepor beel - Assam
o Kolleru lake - Andhra Pradesh
o Rudrasagar lake - Tripura
o Vembanad lake - Kerala
• Recently 10 more wetlands from India are recognised as Ramsar sites. With this, the numbers of Ramsar
sites in India are now 37 and the surface area covered by these sites is now 1,067,939
hectares. Maharashtra gets its first Ramsar site (Nandur Madhameshwar) , Punjab which already had
3 Ramsar sites adds 3 more (Keshopur-Miani, Beas Conservation Reserve, Nangal) and Uttar
Pradesh with 1 Ramsar site has added 6 more (Nawabganj, Parvati Agra, Saman, Samaspur, Sandi
and SarsaiNawar).
• Pulicat lake and Salt marshes in Little Rann of Kutch are not Ramsar sites. Hence options 1, 3 and
4 are correct.
Q 20.A
• Articles 25 to 28 of the constitution provide for the Right to freedom of religion, in terms of:
o Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
o Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
o Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
o Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article
28).
• Cultural and educational rights: The Right of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions is provided under Article 30, a part of Cultural and educational rights under Part III of the
constitution.
• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is provided under
Article 15 of the constitution, a part of Right to Equality under Part III of the constitution.
Q 21.B
• Recently, Central Glass and Ceramic Research Institute, Kolkata has developed Ceramic
Membranes for the treatment of water contaminated with heavy metals. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Ceramic membrane is prepared from a mixture of inorganic substances such as alumina and
clay. Membranes are molded and shaped according to the design of the filter and then installed in the
filter structure. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This filter is able to segregate metals such as Iron, Arsenic, Fluoride, Arsenic etc along with the other
pollutants when water passes through these membranes. Its absorption capacity is up to 8 times higher
than other membranes and, minimizes water wastage and can operate under harsh operating environments.
These membranes last for around 10-15 years without replacement.
• These membranes can also be used in other sectors like food and beverage, drug and chemicals, waste
recovery and recycling industries and are especially useful in petrochemical processing, where it is not
possible to use organic membranes.
Q 22.C
• Kol Uprising: The Kols were one of the tribes inhabiting the Chhotanagpur area and Singhbhum areas.
They lived in complete autonomy under their traditional chiefs but this changed when the British
came. Along with the British, came the moneylenders and the merchants. These outsiders were called
as "suds" by kols.
• The Kols then lost their lands to farmers from outside due to acts of the then raja of Chotanagpur, who for
the greed of high rents, evicted tribals form their traditional landholdings. They were also made to pay
huge amounts of money in taxes. This led to many becoming bonded laborers.
• The British judicial policies also caused resentment among the Kols.
• There was an insurrection in 1831-32 which saw the Kols organize themselves and revolt against the
British and the moneylenders.
• The main form of rebellion was plunder and arson. The properties of outsiders were aimed but not their
lives.
• This armed resistance went on for two years after which it was brutally suppressed by the British with
their superior weaponry. The Kol Rebellion was so intense that troops had to be called in from Calcutta
and Benares to crush it.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 23.B
• Customs Duty is a type of indirect tax levied on goods imported into India as well as on goods
exported from India. In India, the basic law for levy and collection of customs duty is the Customs Act,
1962. It provides for levy and collection of duty on imports and exports, import/export procedures,
prohibitions on importation and exportation of goods, penalties, offences, etc. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Constitutional provisions have given to Union the right to legislate and collect duties on imports and
exports. The Central Board of Excise & Customs (CBEC) is the apex body for customs matters. Hence,
• Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry
of Finance, Government of India. It deals with the task of formulation of policy concerning levy and
collection of customs duties, prevention of smuggling and evasion of duties and all administrative
matters relating to customs formations. It also ensures that taxes on foreign and inland travel are
administered as per law and the collection agencies deposit the taxes collected to the public exchequer
promptly.
• To safeguard the strategic interests of the country specified Defence equipment and their parts, imported
by the Ministry of Defence or the Armed Forces, have been exempted from Basic Customs Duty in
General Budget 2019-20. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Basic duty or Basic customs duty: Basic Duty is a type of duty or tax imposed under the Customs Act
(1962). Basic Customs Duty varies for different items from 5% to 40%. The duty rates are mentioned in
the First Schedule of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and have been amended from time to time under the
Finance Act. The duty may be fixed on ad –valorem basis or specific rate basis. The Central Government
has the power to reduce or exempt any good from these duties.
• Additional customs duty or Additional duty is also known as a countervailing duty (CVD) is equal to
excise duty imposed on a like product manufactured or produced in India. It is implemented under the
Section 3 (1) of the Indian Custom Tariff Act.
• Special additional duty or Special Additional Duty of Customs is imposed at the rate of 4% in order to
provide a level playing field to indigenous goods which have to bear sales tax. This duty is to computed
on the aggregate of:
o assessable value
o basic duty of Customs;
o surcharge; and
o additional duty of Customs leviable under section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975
Q 24.D
• Fundamental Rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners:
o Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
o Protection of six rights regarding freedom of : (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii)
association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19).
o Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
o Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).
o Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
• Fundamental Rights available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens):
o Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22).The second part of Article 22
grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. The
detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for
extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. (ii) The grounds of detention
should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest
need not be disclosed. (iii) The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation
against the detention order.
o Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
o Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
o Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20).
o Right to elementary education (Article 21A).
o Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23).
o Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc., (Article 24).
o Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
o Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
o Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article
28).
• Thus, only two of his Fundamental rights are violated i.e when he is arrested under preventive
detention and not allowed to make a representation and when he is prevented from to carrying out his
religious practice. Hence, he can file a maximum two such writ petitions against these violations.

Q 25.D
• Tigers of Tadoba Andhari, Maharashtra’s largest reserve for the wild cat, are under threat. A dam
proposed on the river Human (pronounced Hooman) at Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in
Chandrapur district threatens to submerge more than 90 percent of a 7-km forest area. The project
not only falls in TATR buffer zone, but also the eco-sensitive zone of Ghodazari Wildlife Sanctuary
closeby.
• It will break the only linking corridor for tiger movement between TATR, Ghodazari and Umred-
Karhandla wildlife sanctuaries in the state. At present, the tigers freely step out of the 1,724-sq km TATR,
go up to Umred Karhandla in Nagpur, travel to Nagzira tiger reserve in Bhandara and reach Navegaon
National Park in Gondia, covering 100-120 km. Those moving eastward, ramble as far as Indravati Tiger
Reserve in Chhattisgarh. Others turn southwest through the proposed wildlife sanctuary of Kanhargaon
and reach Kawal Tiger Reserve in Telangana, 70-80 km from TATR. This long-range corridor will get
blocked for the tigers of TATR and impede their migration if the government decides to build the
dam. Hence the correct answer is option (d).
• There are three Tiger Projects in Maharashtra State, namely Melghat (Amravati) comprising of Gugamal
national park, Melghat Wild Life sanctuary and multiple-use area, Tadoba-Andhari (Chandrapur)
comprising of Tadoba National Park and Andhari Wild Life Sanctuary and Pench (Nagpur) comprising of
Pench National Park.
Q 26.A
• Core Investment Company (CIC) is a non-banking financial company carrying on the business of
acquisition of shares and securities and which (a) holds not less than 90 percent of its net assets in the
form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group
companies and (b) its investments in the equity shares in group companies constitutes not less than 60
percent of its net assets as on the date of the last audited balance sheet. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the responsibility of regulating and supervising the Non-
Banking Financial Companies by virtue of powers vested by the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934. Over last some years, RBI has carved out some specialized NBFCs like Core Investment
Companies (CICs), NBFC- Infrastructure Finance Companies (IFCs) etc.
• Core Investment Companies (CICs) are companies holding shares, bonds debentures and are categorized
as NBFCs by the RBI. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• CICs having asset size of 100 crore or above are categorized as Systemically Important Core
Investment Companies (CICs-ND-SI) and are required to obtain Certificate of Registration from the
Reserve Bank.
• Recently, with an objective to strengthen core investment companies (CIC), a working group formed by
the Reserve Bank of India recommended measures such as including periodical inspection of the
companies and formation of board-level committees.
Q 27.A
• Haryana Police has adopted a unique barcoding software. Trakea to ensure that thousands of forensic
reports that form the backbone of the criminal investigation system and subsequent trials in the courts of
law, are not tampered with.
• Essentially, it is a forensic evidence management system that helps in automation of the entire procedure,
right from the stage when forensic experts collect vital samples from the scene of crime to conducting
analysis of the samples, followed by tracking casewise forensic reports electronically through barcodes.
• Even the selection of forensic teams is done randomly through this software.
• Due to the unique barcoding, only the authorised investigating officers and forensic science experts shall
be able to track the crime exhibits and scientific examination reports, reducing the chances of
tampering/leakage of the report at any stag
• Also, there will be no case details mentioned on the crime exhibits/samples/parcels except the unique bar
code, that can only be read through the biometric system
Q 28.A
• Recent Context: 10 Himalayan states demanded a ‘green bonus’ from the Union government for keeping
critical ecosystems intact. To some extent, in fact, these states have been getting incentives based on their
forest cover under a Finance Commission formula since 2005. But this ‘regular’ demand is an emerging
global mode to conserve ecosystems called payment for ecosystem services (PES). And this demand has
triggered interest on PES in India which has been experimenting this though in sporadic ways. The
biggest challenge is how to monetise the ecosystem’s services, which can be compensated to the states.
By far, if the Finance Commission incentive fund is termed as PES, it is one of the major such schemes in
the world at this scale.
• Globally, the services an ecosystem provides are getting increasing policy attention. In October 2010, the
Conference of Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity held in Nagoya witnessed the acceptance
of environmental goods part of the national accounts.
• Thus, Payments for Ecosystem Services (PES) is an innovative approach to nature conservation. PES
occurs when a beneficiary or user of an ecosystem service makes a direct or indirect payment to the
provider of that service. The idea is that whoever preserves or maintains an ecosystem service should be
paid for doing so. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It may involve a variety of arrangements through which the beneficiaries of environmental services, from
watershed protection and forest conservation to carbon sequestration and landscape beauty, reward those
whose lands provide these services with subsidies or market payments. Arranging payments for the
benefits provided by forests, fertile soils and other natural ecosystems is a way to recognize their value
and ensure that these benefits continue well into the future.
• In sharp contrast to the “polluter pays' principle, PES follows the “beneficiary pays' principle,
compensating individuals or communities whose land use (or other decisions) influence the
provision of ecosystem services. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The underlying assumption is that the individual has the right to pollute and “society” must provide
compensation to avoid pollution costs and induce nonpolluting resource management decisions
• PES encourages the maintenance of natural ecosystems through environmentally friendly practices that
avoid damage for other users of natural resources. In addition to preserving natural resources, this method
improves rural areas and rural lifestyles.
• Ecosystem services have no standardized definition but might broadly be called "the benefits of nature to
households, communities, and economies or, more simply, "the good things nature does".
• Twenty-four specific ecosystem services were identified and assessed by the Millennium Ecosystem
Assessment, a 2005 UN-sponsored report designed to assess the state of the world's ecosystems. The
report defined the broad categories of ecosystem services as food production (in the form of crops,
livestock, capture fisheries, aquaculture, and wild foods), fiber (in the form of timber, cotton, hemp, and
silk), genetic resources (biochemicals, natural medicines, and pharmaceuticals), freshwater, air quality
regulation, climate regulation, water regulation, erosion regulation, water purification and waste
treatment, disease regulation, pest regulation, pollination, natural hazard regulation, and cultural services
(including spiritual, religious, and aesthetic values, recreation and ecotourism).
Q 29.A
• Rabindranath Tagore is one of the literary giants of modern India. He was internationally acknowledged
as a literary genius and awarded Nobel prize in 1913 for his poetic collection ‘Gitanjali’. Along with
being an accomplished literary genius, Rabindranath Tagore was an outstanding scholar, thinker, and
intellectual. His intellectual or philosophical development was impacted by Upanishads, Vaisnavism,
Brahmo Samaj, BhagvadGita, ModernWestern thought and Literature, Christianity, and the liberal and
humanist philosophy of Brahmo Samaj etc. Upanishads were instrumental in molding up Tagore’s
philosophy and especially his humanist values. Tagore’sphilosophical discourses in ‘Santiniketan’,
‘Sadhana’, ‘The Religion of Man’,‘Man’, ‘Manusher Dharma’, and ‘Sanchyar’ were profoundly impacted
by the teachings of the Upanishads. Tagore admitted in his various writings that Upanishads have been the
fundamental source of his inspiration. He was mainly inspired by the Upanishadic doctrine that in the
beginning ‘There was one Brahman, who wanted to be many and so created this world’
(TaittriyaUpanishads, p. 2-6). Hence option (d) is correct.
• He urged the masses to avoid victimology and instead seek self-help and education, and he saw the
presence of British administration as a "political symptom of our social disease". He maintained that, even
for those at the extremes of poverty, "there can be no question of blind revolution"; preferable to it was a
"steady and purposeful education". He was educationally a revolutionary and strongly believed that there
should be a system of education suited to India. It should be the system in which the cultures of east and
the west should unite and where there should be a platform for understanding each other. In the words of
G. Ramchandran, Gurudev never accepted that the object of education was simply the accumulation of
knowledge. Hence option (c) is correct.
• Rabindranath Tagore was not a member of the Indian National Congress, thus he never presided any
session. But he firmly held political views. He was categorically clear about the real political work that
remained undone in the country. He believed that all our energies must be directed to alleviate poverty, to
inculcate amity amongst communities and all manner of people and to foster values of freedom and self-
reliance, ‘atmashakti’. Swaraj for him was not just political freedom but freedom from hunger, disease,
servitude, and ignorance. Hence option (b) is correct.
• The INC Madras Session of 1898 was presided over by Ananda Mohan Bose. Hence option (a) is not
correct.
Q 30.D
• Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on
permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels, which are
fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another
parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
• This is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include
sheep, cattle, goats and horses. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed and packed
scientifically and exported to different world markets. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis. The main emphasis is on breeding,
genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.
• New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and United States of America are important countries
where commercial livestock rearing is practised. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 31.D
• The Standing Deposit Facility is a collateral-free liquidity absorption mechanism that aims to absorb
liquidity from the commercial banking system into the RBI. The proposal was first suggested by the Urjit
Patel Committee in its recommendation of the Monetary Policy Framework in 2014. It was introduced
through the recent amendment to RBI Act, 1934 vide Finance Act, 2018. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• Under reverse repo (which is a part of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility), banks get government
securities in return when they give excess cash to the RBI. An interest rate of reverse repo rate is also
provided to banks. The inconvenience with this arrangement is that the RBI has to provide securities
every time when banks provides funds. But Standing Deposit Facility allows the RBI to absorb liquidity
(deposit) from commercial banks without giving government securities in return to the banks. Hence
statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• Importance of the SDF is that it is designed to enable the Reserve Bank to deal with extraordinary
situations in which it has to absorb massive amounts of liquidity. In the past situations like the global
financial crisis and demonetisation caused liquidity absorption problems for the RBI.
Q 32.C
• Statement 1 is not correct: Parliamentary Privileges are a set of rights are mainly from the members of
both the Houses of Parliament. Apart from this, these rights are also given to those individuals who
speak and participate in any committee of the Parliament, which includes the Attorney General of
India and the Union Ministers.
• Statement 2 is correct: The freedom of speech available to the members on the floor of the House is
different from that available to the citizens under Article 19(2). A law made under this article providing
for reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech of the citizens would not circumscribe the freedom of
speech of the members within the walls of the House. Members enjoy complete protection even if the
words uttered by them in the House are malicious and false to their knowledge. Courts have no
jurisdiction to take action against a member for his speech made in the House even if it amounts to
contempt of the court.
• Statement 3 is correct: If any individual or authority violates or disregards any of the privileges, powers
and immunities of the House or members or committees thereof, he may be punished for “breach of
privilege” or “contempt of the House”. The House has exclusive power to determine as to what
constitutes breach of privilege and contempt and punish for such breach. The penal jurisdiction of
the House in this regard covers its members as well as strangers and every act of violation of
privileges, whether committed in the immediate presence of the House or outside of it.
• A person found guilty of breach of privilege or contempt of the House may be punished either by
imprisonment or by admonition (warning) or reprimand. Two other punishments may also be
awarded to the members for contempt, namely, ‘suspension’ and ‘expulsion’ from the House.
• Statement 4 is not correct: The Speaker or Chairman is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the
respective House, its Committees and members. It depends solely on the Speaker or Chairman to refer
any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report.
Q 33.C
• The history of India‘s maritime trade goes back to centuries ago. India has been one of the most important
points of sea trade in the entire South Asian region since the beginning of maritime trade.

• Long before the development of the Silk Road, the ships belonging to Indian traders travelled thousands
of miles crossing the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea to find their markets in West Asia, East Asia,
Southeast Asia, and East Africa. Similarly, merchants from these regions, especially Arabians and
Chinese frequently visited the Indian Subcontinent, trading silk, spices, porcelain, ivory, and even slaves.
• The chief ports of ancient India were on the West Coast—Bhrgukaccha, Supara, not far from the modern
Bombay, and Patala, on the Indus delta.
• Bhrgukaccha: Almost 2000 years ago, Bhrgukaccha (Bharuch) was a prominent port in the Indian
subcontinent region. Located at the mouth of the river Narmada, Bharukaccha was also known as
Barygaza to the merchants from around the world. Bharuch had established trade relations with Arabs,
Greeks, and Romans, Africans, Chinese and Egyptians. Bharuch was a terminus for a number of land-sea
trade routes and goods were trans-shipped there to send abroad utilizing the monsoon winds. The imports
into Barygaza were wine, copper, tin, lead, coral, topaz, cloth, gold and silver coins. Exports from the
town included plants from the Himalayas, ivory, agate, carnelian, cotton, silk and perfumes. Special gifts
were brought by merchants for the king. These included vessels of silver, singing boys, beautiful women,
fine wines and fine cloth.
• Supara: Supara near Mumbai was a prosperous port of the west coast of India since the beginning of the
first millennium B.C. Known under the names of Shutparak, and Sopara and identified with Ophir of
Solomon’s times by some scholars, this port center, an outlet to the trade of Deccan, has a rich
inscriptional reference. Sopara had been an important port that is known to be connected with the Arabian
sea, by an estuary or creek which is known as the Sopara creek even now.
• Patala: Patala is an ancient port city at the mouth of the Indus River. The historians of Alexander the
Great state that the Indus parted into two branches at the city of Patala before reaching the sea. Alexander
the Great built a harbor at Patala. Ships used to ply to the Persian Gulf and Arabia from Patala. Also,
pepper brought from the south was also exported from here.
• Other important ports include:
o Arikamedu Port: Arikamedu, located in today‘s Puducherry, a union territory of India, is known as
the port of Podouke in historical documents. With mentions in the Periplus Maris Erytheaae and
Tamil poems of the Sangam period, Arikamedu is believed to be an active trading port of the region
with the Roman Empire as early as the second century BC. Many believe that Arikamedu was a Chola
port dedicated to bead making and it was the only port city in the region to have ties with Romans.
o Muziris Port: Muziris, the ancient port city located in today‘s Indian state of Kerala, was one of the
most important trading ports in the world almost 2,000 years ago. Existed in the first century BC, the
Muziris port had played a significant role in connecting the region with the Persians, the Phoenicians,
the Assyrians, the Greeks, the Egyptians, and the Roman Empire. While spices, particularly black
pepper, were the key item exported from the Muziris port, other commodities shipped include semi-
precious stones, diamonds, ivory, and pearls, among others.
Q 34.D
• Articles 86 and 87 of the Constitution deal with the Address by the President. Article 86 confers a right
on the President to address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for
that purpose require the attendance of members. However, since the commencement of the
Constitution, the President has not so far addressed a House or Housestogether under this
provision.
• Article 87 deals with Special Address by the President and provides that the President shall address both
Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general
election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform
Parliament of the causes of its summons. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Article 87(1) originally required the President to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement
of every session. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, amended this provision.
• No other business is transacted till the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament
assembled together. Hence, option (b) is correct.
• As article 87 makes it clear, the Address is to be to both Houses of Parliament assembled together. In
other words, it means that if at the time of commencement of the first session of the year, the Lok
Sabha has been dissolved and the Rajya Sabha has to meet, then the Rajya Sabha can have its
session without the President’s Address. During the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in 1977 and 1991,
the Rajya Sabha had its sessions on 1 February 1977 and 3 June 1991, respectively without the
President’s Address. Hence, option (c) is correct.
• In the case of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha, the President addresses both
Houses of Parliament assembled together after the members of the Lok Sabha have made and subscribed
the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected by the Lok Sabha. The President addressed
both Houses of Parliament assembled together twice in the years 1957, 1962, 1989, 1991, 1996 and
in 2009 when general elections also took place after the first session of the year had been held.
• The President reads the Address in Hindi or English. The other version of the Address in English or Hindi,
as the case may be is generally read out by the Vice-President.
• When members of the two Houses of Parliament assemble together to hear the President’s Address, it
does not constitute a sitting of the Rajya Sabha or the Lok Sabha since a sitting of the Rajya Sabha is duly
constituted when it is presided over by the Chairman or Speaker or a member competent to preside over a
sitting of the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha and under the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
of Business in the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha. It is also not a joint sitting of the two Houses since it has
to be presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence by such person as may be
determined by the Rules of Procedure made under clause (3) of article 118 of the
Constitution. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
• The discussion on the Address takes place a few days after it is delivered and in the intervening period,
other business is transacted.
Q 35.B
• Recently, bilateral tensions have increased over US and India trade relations and each side’s tariff
policies. India has relatively high average tariff rates, especially in agriculture. India opposes the 25%
steel and 10% aluminium tariffs that the United States has imposed on trading partners under
the national-security based “Section 232” law. Sanitary and phytosanitary (SPS) barriers in India limit
U.S. agricultural exports. India’s IP regime remains a top U.S. concern, and India remains on the “Special
301” Priority Watch List for 2018. The USA also recently terminated India’s eligibility for
the Generalized System of Preferences. In this context, it is important to understand Indo-US trade
relations.
• The U.S. goods trade deficit with India was $20.8 billion in 2018, a 9.0% decrease ($2.1 billion) over
2017. The United States has a services trade deficit of an estimated $4.4 billion with India in 2018, down
3.7% from 2017. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The trade relationship between India and the USA is more consequential for India; in 2018, the United
States was its second-largest export market (16% share) after the European Union (EU, 17.8%), and third-
largest import supplier (6.3%) after China (14.6%) and the EU (10.2%). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India and USA have neither a Free Trade Agreement nor a Bilateral Investment Treaty in
place. The United States and India trade on WTO terms, as they do not have a bilateral FTA. Past
negotiations on a BIT are also stalled due to differences on approaches to investor protection.
Q 36.B
• Ajanta Caves, among first to be put on the world heritage sites in India, include paintings and
sculptures which are said to be the finest examples of Indian art. They are representative of Buddhist
religious art with figures of the Buddha and depictions of the Jataka tales. The Caves are about 30
rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments which date from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 or 650 CE.
• On 28 April 1819, John Smith, the Madras Presidency officer, accidentally discovered the entrance
to Cave No. 10 deep within the tangled undergrowth while hunting a tiger, which led to the discovery of
the showpiece Ajanta caves.
Q 37.A
• Mahatma Jyothibha Phule was a prolific social activist and thinker, who pioneered women’s
education in India, especially in Maharashtra.
• He read American political activist and philosopher Thomas Paine’s work ‘Rights of Man’. This book
influenced his idea of social justice.
• He taught reading and writing to his wife Savitribai. They then started a school for girls in Pune in 1848,
which was the first such school by Indians. He faced social ostracism because of this and even had to
leave his parental home.
• Later, he started a school for children of the lower castes. He advocated widow remarriage and fought
against female infanticide.
• He opened a home for widows and infants as well.
• As a staunch opponent of the caste system, Phule attacked the Vedas and the role of Brahmins in society.
He also openly expressed his gratitude to the colonial missionaries who felt, treated the lower castes as
worthy human beings.
• He is credited with using the word ‘Dalit’ for the depressed classes for the first time. It is a Marathi
word meaning ‘broken’ or ‘crushed’.Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Mahatma Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj on September 24, 1873. Through the society, he
opposed caste system, idolatry and denounced the need for priests. He also championed the necessity of
rational thinking. He promoted respect for all religions but shunned the rituals associated with them.
• Phule inspired many latter-day leaders including B R Ambedkar.
• Savitribai was also an active participant in the movement and she continued the work after her husband’s
death.
• Phule was also the Commissioner of the Poona Municipality from 1876 till 1883.
• Some of Mahatma Phule’s published works
o Gulamgiri-dedicated his book Gulamgiri to the American movement to free slaves, he linked the
conditions of the black slaves in America with those of the lower castes in India. Hence statement 3
is not correct.
o Powada : Chatrapati Shivajiraje Bhosle Yancha (Life of Shivaji)
o Sarvajanic Satya Dharmapustak.
• Phule was bestowed with the title of "Mahatma" on 11 May 1888 by another social reformer from
Bombay, Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 38.A
• The Union Health Ministry has launched the ‘World Health Organisation (WHO) India Country
Cooperation Strategy (CCS) 2019–2023: A Time of Transition, with the collaboration providing a
strategic roadmap for the WHO to work with the Indian government towards achieving its health
sector goals; improving the health of its population; and bringing in transformative changes in the
health sector. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• CCS is a medium-term vision for WHO’s technical cooperation with a given Member State and supports
the country's national health policy, strategy or plan.
• The CCS time frame is flexible to align with national cycles and processes. It is the basis for aligning
WHO’s collaboration with other United Nations bodies and development partners at the country level.
Q 39.B
• Manufactured Sand (M-sand) is the most common alternative of river sand, which has already gained
prominence in some of the southern States. It is produced by crushing of rocks, quarry stones to a
stipulated size of 150 microns. Hence statement 1 is not correct. To arrive at the required grain size,
existing coarser hard rock deposits are crushed in a series of crushers and the crushed material is
segregated in different fractions as suited to various construction activities. The sand obtained through
this process is further refined by removing fine particles and impurities through sieving and
washing. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• As per IS-383, the chemical characteristics and strength are similar to the river sand, and the
same type of applications can be served using M-sand. The bulk density and specific gravity of both
are comparable as well as the chemical characteristics and strength of M-sand are similar to that of river
sand as per IS-383. M-sand has a silt content of around 0.2% and water absorption of 1.6%, as compared
to 0.45% and 1.15% respectively, in river sand. M-sand concrete has a marginally higher bond strength,
and mortar made of M-sand shows higher compressive strength and modulus for masonry, over those of
river sand.
• Due to the deficit of natural sand supply, Karnataka has intensified the efforts for the production of M-
sand. The State has 164 M-sand manufacturing units and produces 20 million tonnes of Msand per annum.
Karnataka has a separate section for M-sand in the State Minor Mineral Concession Rules and has widely
promoted it resulting in wide-spread adoption of M-sand in the State. The total M-sand production in
Karnataka, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat is 20 MMT, 7.2 MMT, 3.24
MMT, <1 MMT and <1 MMT respectively. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 40.D
• A bay and a gulf are almost similar except that a bay is smaller than a gulf. A bay connects to a larger
water body such as an ocean or a lake. It is partly surrounded or demarcated by land and has a wide
mouth which accesses the water body. Bays can be formed in various ways. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
• Large bays were created as a result of plate tectonics. As the Pangaea super-continent broke along the
indented fault line, the continents moved apart leading to the formation of the largest bays in the world.
The largest bay in the world is the Bay of Bengal. Glacial and river erosion are also responsible for the
formation of a bay.

• A gulf is a large bay. It is the portion of the sea that penetrates into land or a deep inlet to the sea that is
partly surrounded by land. Just like a bay, gulfs are formed as a result of plate tectonics. As the Pangaea
super-continent broke along the curved fault line, continents separated leading to the formation of large
bays known as gulfs. The Gulf of Mexico formed about 300 years ago through plate tectonics. It
originated in Lake Triassic as a result of rifting in the Pangaea. Gulfs are important for commerce and
tourism while agricultural activities may be practiced nearby.
• An isthmus is a narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses and separates two bodies of
water. Isthmuses have been strategic locations for centuries. They are natural sites for ports and canals
linking terrestrial and aquatic trade routes. Isthmuses are also key sites for communications and cultural
exchange, as well as military outposts. The Isthmus of Panama in Panama links the continents of North
and South America, and separates the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
• A strait is a narrow body of water that connects two larger bodies of water. It may be formed by a
fracture in an isthmus. A strait can also be formed by a body of water overflowing land that has subsided
or has been eroded. The Bosporus, which links the Black Sea and the Aegean Sea, was formed this
way. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 41.D
• Hindu college was established on January 20th 1817, in Calcutta by David Hare with support from Raja
Ram Mohan Roy. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• This later went on to become one of the best educational institutions in the country producing some of the
best minds in India.
• This is the Oldest Modern Educational Institution in Asia. The institution played a key role during the
Bengal Renaissance period.
• The primary objective of was to provide tuition to the 'sons of respectable Hindus, in the English and
Indian languages and in the literature and science of Europe and Asia. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Young Bengal was a group of Bengali free thinkers emerging from Hindu College, Calcutta. They
were also known as Derozians, after their firebrand teacher at Hindu College, Henry Louis Vivian
Derozio.
Q 42.D
• Monotremes are one of the three main groups of living mammals, along with placentals (Eutheria) and
marsupials (Metatheria). The monotremes are typified by structural differences in their brains, jaws,
digestive tract, reproductive tract, and other body parts compared to the more common mammalian types.
In addition, they lay eggs rather than bear live young, but like all mammals, the female monotremes nurse
their young with milk. There are only five living monotreme species: the duck-billed platypus and
four species of echidna (also known as spiny anteaters). All of them are found only in Australia and
New Guinea. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Draco is a genus of agamid lizards that are also known as flying lizards, flying dragons or gliding
lizards. These lizards are capable of gliding flight; their ribs and their connecting membrane may be
extended to create "wings" (patagia), the hindlimbs are flattened and wing-like in cross-section, and a flap
on the neck (the gular flag) serves as a horizontal stabilizer and are sometimes used in warning to
others. Much like aircraft wings are built of struts with a membrane stretched across, these flying
dragons have elongated ribs that support a flap of skin, called the patagia. This allows them to glide
an average of 8m as they jump between trees. Their slender tails act as rudders for steering. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• The bluehead wrasse is a fish that lives in small social groups in coral reefs in the Caribbean. Only the
male has a blue head – signaling his social dominance over a harem of yellow-striped females. If this male
is removed from the group, something extraordinary happens: the largest female in the group changes sex
to become male. Her behaviour changes within minutes. Within ten days, her ovaries transform into
sperm-producing testes. Within 21 days she appears completely male. Clownfish, wrasses, moray eels,
gobies and other fish species are known to change sex, including reproductive functions. A school of
clownfish is always built into a hierarchy with a female fish at the top. When she dies, the most dominant
male changes sex and takes her place. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 43.B
• Shipbuilding production is strongly concentrated in the three East Asian economies China, Korea and
Japan, which in 2017 represented 86% of all CGT delivered. This high percentage has remained
relatively stable over the last years.

• The compensated gross tons (cgt) concept was first devised by shipbuilder associations, and adopted by
the OECD Council Working Party on Shipbuilding (WP6), in the 1970s to provide a more accurate
measure of shipyard activity.
• South Korea is a major contributor to the global shipbuilding market in terms of new shipbuilding orders
whereas China holds a lions share in the global shipbuilding completions.
Q 44.B
• Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) was founded by Jalal-ud-din Khilji in 1290 AD. It was the second dynasty to
rule the Delhi Sultanate, after the Mamluk dynasty.
• The second ruler of the Khalji dynasty, Alaud-Din Khalji built two important monuments, 1. Alai
Darwaza and 2. Siri Fort. It is believed that Siri Fort (a fort city) in Delhi was built in the wake of the
Mongol invasion. Located north of Mehrauli and east of Hauz Khas, this fort city of Siri was laid in
1303. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque was built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, founder of the Mamluk dynasty. Alai
Darwaza forms the southern gateway of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• Arhai (or Adhai) Din ka Jhonpra was constructed during the rule of the Mamluk dynasty, which started
during the reign of Qutb-ud-din Aibak. Hence option 3 is not correct.
Q 45.D
• Bills for amendment of the following provisions of the Constitution are passed by both Houses of
Parliament by a simple majority of members present and voting:
o admission or establishment of new States, the formation of new States, and alteration of areas,
boundaries or names of existing States (articles 2, 3 and 4);
o creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States (article 169);
o administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes (para 7 of the Fifth
Schedule); and
o administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (para
21 of the Sixth Schedule).
• These Bills are not deemed as Constitution Amendment Bills under article 368 of the Constitution and,
therefore, these are not called by the title ‘Constitution Amendment Bills’.
• Though normal legislative procedure holds good in respect of these Bills, Bills providing for aforesaid
matters in sub paras (a) and (b), in addition, require respectively the recommendation of the President for
the introduction and the prior adoption of the necessary resolution by the State Legislative Assembly
concerned.
• Such Bills are presented to the President for assent under article 111 of the Constitution. Hence, all
statements are correct.
Q 46.B
• It is opined that in due course of time Indo– Brahmaputra river was dismembered into three main drainage
systems:
o the Indus and its five tributaries in the western part;
o the Ganga and its Himalayan tributaries in the central part; and
o the stretch of the Brahmaputra in Assam and its Himalayan tributaries in the eastern part.
• The dismemberment was probably due to the Pleistocene upheaval in the western Himalayas, including
the uplift of the Potwar Plateau (Delhi Ridge), which acted as the water divide between the Indus and
Ganga drainage systems.
• Likewise, the down thrusting of the Malda gap area between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya
plateau during the mid-Pleistocene period diverted the Ganga and the Brahmaputra systems to flow
towards the Bay of Bengal.
Q 47.A
• Power sector in India has witnessed a paradigm shift over the years due to the constant efforts of the
Government to foster investment in the sector. As a result, India has improved its ranking to 76th position
in the Energy Transition Index published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
• Fostering Effective Energy Transition, 2019 Report of WEF states, “India, Indonesia and Bangladesh
have made fast progress towards universal electrification due to strong political commitment, a stable
policy regime, use of grid expansion, and decentralized generation sources, and a supportive environment
for investment in infrastructure.

Q 48.B
• Difference between ECI vs SEC:
o Supervision and conduct of elections are entrusted with two constitutional authorities: the
Election Commission of India (ECI) and the State Election Commissions (SECs).
o Set up in 1950, the EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the
President and Vice President of India, to Parliament, and to the state Assemblies and
Legislative Councils. The SECs, which were appointed in each state more than four decades
after the EC was set up, supervise municipal and panchayat elections.
o Although the two authorities have a similar mandate, they are independent of each other and draw
powers from different laws. For e.g. The SEC in Bengal draws it powers from the West Bengal State
Election Commission Act, 1994. It has nothing to do with the Representation of the People Act, which
lays down the EC’s powers. Each SEC is governed by a separate State Act. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
o Under the Constitution, the establishment of local self-government institutions is the responsibility of
the states (entry 5, List II, Seventh Schedule). However, experience showed that not all state
governments were serious about empowering Panchayati Raj institutions as elections were not being
conducted regularly. The Constitution was amended in 1992 to define the term (five years) for these
institutions. Simultaneously, another provision was made for setting up a constitutional authority, the
SEC, on the lines of the EC to conduct regular panchayat elections. The SEC was to be appointed by
the respective state governments.
o The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for setting up of SECs, are almost
identical to those of Article 324 related to the EC. In other words, the SECs enjoy the same status as
the EC. For example, like the removal of a Chief Election Commissioner, the State Election
Commissioner can only be removed via impeachment. In 2006, the Supreme Court emphasized the
two constitutional authorities enjoy the same powers. In Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal
Corporation of the City of Ahmedabad, the Supreme Court directed that state governments should
abide by orders of the SECs during the conduct of the panchayat and municipal elections, just like
they follow the instructions of the EC during Assembly and Parliament polls.
• Under Article 243K (4), the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to all matters
relating to, or in connection with, elections to the Panchayats. Delimitation Commission are constituted by
the notification of state government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 49.D
• Financial Stability Board (FSB) was established in 2009 under the aegis of G20 by bringing together the
national authorities, standard-setting bodies and international financial institutions for addressing
vulnerabilities and developing and implementing strong regulatory, supervisory and other policies in the
interest of financial stability. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India is an active member of the FSB having three seats in its Plenary represented by Secretary
(Economic Affairs), Deputy Governor-RBI and Chairman-SEBI. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Regular interaction with FSB takes place through periodic conference calls and meetings. Information is
exchanged with FSB member jurisdictions frequently as per international requirements.
• The FSDC Secretariat in the Department of Economic Affairs coordinates with the various financial
sector regulators and other relevant agencies to represent India’s views with the FSB.
• The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is a semiannual report by the International Monetary
Fund (IMF) that assesses the stability of global financial markets and emerging-market financing. It is
released twice per year, in April and October. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 50.C
• A tectonic plate (also called lithospheric plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock,
generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere. The theory of plate tectonics proposes
that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates. Young Fold Mountain
ridges, trenches, and/or faults surround these major plates.
• The major plates are as follows:
o Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
o North American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the South American plate along the
Caribbean islands) plate
o South American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the North American plate along the
Caribbean islands) plate
o Pacific plate
o India-Australia-New Zealand plate
o Antarctic Plate containing the continent of Antarctica, the Kerguelen Plateau and extending
outward under the surrounding oceans
o Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
o Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate
• Some important minor plates are listed below:
o Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate
o Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate
o Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
o Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
o Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
o Fuji plate: North-east of Australia
Q 51.B
• Vijayanagara Kingdom was established in 1336 AD by Harihara and Bukka Raya. The kingdom at its
zenith extended from the river Krishna in the north to River Cauvery in the south; the Arabian Sea in the
west to Bay of Bengal in the east. The decline of the empire started was heavily marked with Battle of
Rakshaha-Tangadii, also called as Battle of Tallikota in 1565, fought against the combined armies of
Golconda and Ahmednagar sultanates.
• Some of the reasons stated as the cause of the empire's decline are as follows:
o The rule of primogeniture was not established in the empire leading to civil wars among various
contenders.
o Traces of the origin of the Palegari system or ‘Palegar’ can be forced in the Vijayanagara
administrative system. In the Empire itself, there were many areas that were under the control of
subordinate rulers. These chieftains had been once defeated in the wars against the Vijayanagara
rulers, but their Kingdoms had been restored to them on condition of paying tributes and acceptance
of homage Systems such as the Palegar system in which the palegars or nayakas were granted amrams
(territories)with fixed revenues. This section had grown so powerful that sometimes it was difficult
for the government to control them. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In the Vijayanagara kingdom, the king was aided and advised by a council of ministers. Hence statement
1 is correct.
• The Vijaynagara kingdom was divided into Mandalams or Rajyas (Provinces) below which were nadus
(district), sthala (sub-district) and grama (village), while the Mughal empire was divided into "Subas"
which were further subdivided into "Sarkar","Pargana", and "Gram". Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The Chola tradition of village self-government was considerably weakened due to the growth of
nayakships which tended to be hereditary.
• The provincial governors had a large measure of autonomy and they held their own courts, appointed their
own officers, maintained own armies and even allowed to issue their own coins(though of small
denomination only) and they had the right to impose new taxes and remit the old ones. However, there
was no regular term for these governors. thus, some historians opine Vijayanagara empire was more a
confederacy than a centralized empire.
Q 52.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: Recently, the Ministry of Civil Aviation announced a scheme providing a
window up to January 31, 2020 for voluntary registration of all drones and their operators. Unmanned
Aircraft Operator Permit or UAOP is a permit required by the owners of the drones to fly
them which can be obtained from the Director-General of Civil Aviation. These UAOPs are not
transferrable and shall be applicable for not more than five years.
• Statement 2 is not correct: On successful submission of voluntary disclosure of possessing drone, a
Drone Acknowledgement Number (DAN) and an Ownership Acknowledgement Number (OAN) will be
issued online which will help in validation of operation of drones in India. However, the DAN and the
OAN do not confer any right to operate drones in India if it does not fulfil the DGCA’s drone
regulations. Further, ownership of drones in India without a valid DAN or OAN shall invite penal action
as per applicable laws.
• Statement 3 is correct: Digital Sky Platform is a software-based self-enforcement unmanned
traffic management (UTM) system which is expected to facilitate registration and licensing of drones and
operators in addition to giving instant (online) clearances to operators for every flight. The Platform
regulates all drones in the micro and higher categories. It allows operators to apply for a Unique
Identification Number (UIN), that needs to be issued for all drones and Unmanned Aircraft Operator
Permit online for approval by the civil aviation regulator.
Q 53.D
• The Indian Councils Act, 1909 (also known as Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced a system of communal
representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim
members were to be elected only by Muslim voters.
• The Government of India Act, 1919 extended the principle of communal representation by providing
separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
• The Government Of India Act, 1935 further extended the principle of communal representation by
providing separate electorates for women and labour (workers).
Q 54.A
• Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over
time. The time scale can be decades (for example, after a wildfire), or even millions of years after a mass
extinction.
• Ecological succession is a complex process and it may take thousands of years. Frederic Clements in 1916
for the first time proposed the sequential phases of ecological succession. The process of succession is
completed through a series of sequential steps as given below:
o Nudation: It is the development of a bare area (an area without any life form). It is the first step in
ecological succession.
o The causes of nudation are:
✓ Topographic: Soil or topography related causes such as soil erosion, sand deposit, landslide, and
volcanic activity results in the formation of a bare area.
✓ Climatic: Destruction of the community due to glaciers, dry period and storm.
✓ Biotic: It includes forest destruction, agriculture and disease epidemics which results in the total
destruction of the population in an area.
o Invasion: is the successful establishment of a species in the bare area.
o It is the second step in ecological succession.
o The process of invasion is completed in three steps:
✓ Migration
✓ Ecesis - a process of the successful establishment of a species in the bare area.
✓ Aggregation
o Competition and Co-action between individuals for food and space.
✓ The competition may be intra-specific (individuals within a species) or inter-specific (individuals
between species).
✓ Individuals of a species affect each other’s life in various ways and this is called co-action.
✓ Competition and co-action results in the survival of fit individuals and the elimination of unfit
individuals from the ecosystem.
✓ A species with wide reproductive capacity and ecological amplitude only will survive.
o Reaction: It is the modification of the environment through the influence of living organisms present
on it.
✓ It is the most important stage in the ecological succession.
✓ Reaction cause change in soil, water, light, and temperature of the area.
✓ Due to these modifications, the present community becomes unsuitable for the existing
environmental conditions.
✓ Such communities will be quickly replaced by another community.
✓ The whole sequence of communities that replaces one another in the given area is called sere
(sera).
✓ The various communities contributing sere are called seral communities or seral stages.
o Stabilization (climax) It is the last stage in ecological succession.
✓ The final or terminal community becomes more or less stabilized for a longer period of time.
✓ This community can maintain its equilibrium with the climate of the area.
✓ This final community is called the Climax Community (climax stage).
✓ The climax community is not immediately replaced by other communities.
✓ A climax community is determined by the climate of the region.
✓ Example of climax community: Forest, Grassland, Coral Reef
Q 55.C
• Solar Orbiter mission (an unmanned mission) was launched recently and is a collaboration between
ESA (the European Space Agency) and NASA.
• It will observe the Sun with high spatial resolution telescopes and capture observations in the environment
directly surrounding the spacecraft to know how the Sun can affect the space environment i.e heliosphere
throughout the solar system. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The spacecraft also will be the first to provide the mapping of the Sun’s north and south poles that could
allow observing the concentrated source of solar wind that permeates our solar system. The solar wind is
the mixture of charged particles that are highly concentrated at the poles and beam through our solar
system, affecting satellites and electronic devices on Earth. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The mission will also study the magnetic environment around the Sun, which will provide information
about the Sun’s 11-year solar cycle and its periodic outpouring of solar storms. The Orbiter carries ten
instruments, three of which will help to survey how Sun’s surface changes over time.
Q 56.A
• The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) is a first of its kind, unified access portal which brings
together women from different parts of India to realize their entrepreneurial aspirations. It is an initiative
of NITI Aayog. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The initiative is aimed at building an ecosystem for women across India to realize their entrepreneurial
aspirations, scale-up innovative initiatives and chalk-out sustainable, long-term strategies for their
businesses.
• These aspirations are manifest in the three pillars on which WEP is built:
o Ichha Shakti (motivating aspiring entrepreneurs to start their enterprise)
o Gyaan Shakti (providing knowledge and ecosystem support to women entrepreneurs to help them
foster entrepreneurship)
o Karma Shakti (providing hands-on support to entrepreneurs in setting-up and scaling up
businesses).
• WEP aims to address the bottlenecks faced by both aspiring and established women entrepreneurs by
streamlining information across government and private sector schemes and initiatives.
• In addition to providing services such as free credit ratings, mentorship, funding support to women
entrepreneurs, apprenticeship and corporate partnerships; WEP will encourage entrepreneurs to
share their entrepreneurial journeys, stories & experiences to nurture mutual learning.
Q 57.B
• The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Though originally privately owned, since nationalization in 1949, the
Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
• Main functions of RBI include:
o Monetary Authority: Formulates, implements, and monitors the monetary policy to maintain price
stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
o Regulator and supervisor of the financial system: Prescribes broad parameters of banking
operations within which the country's banking and financial system functions to maintain public
confidence in the system, protect depositors' interest and provide cost-effective banking services to
the public.
o Manager of Foreign Exchange: Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 to facilitate
external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange
market in India.
o Issuer of currency: Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation to give
the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality.
o Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: Introduces and upgrades safe and
efficient modes of payment systems in the country to meet the requirements of the public at large and
maintain public confidence in payment and settlement system
o Related Functions: Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking function for the central
and the state governments; also acts as their banker. Banker to banks: maintains banking accounts of
all scheduled banks.
• Issue functions of RBI:
o Section 22 of the RBI Act confers the RBI with the sole right to issue banknotes in India. The issue of
banknotes shall be conducted by a department called the Issue Department.
o The RBI Act enables the RBI to recommend to Central Government the denomination of banknotes,
which shall be two rupees, five rupees, ten rupees, twenty rupees, fifty rupees, one hundred rupees,
five hundred rupees, one thousand rupees, five thousand rupees, and ten thousand rupees or other
denominations not exceeding ten thousand rupees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The design, form, and material of bank notes shall be approved by the Central Government on the
recommendations of the Central Board of the RBI. Every banknote shall be a legal tender at any
place in India, however, on the recommendation of the Central Board, the Central Government may
declare any series of banknotes of any denomination to be not a legal tender. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
o Another important function is the exchange of mutilated or torn notes, which under the RBI Act is not
a matter of right, but a matter of grace. No person shall of right be entitled to recover from the Central
Government or the Bank, the value of any lost, stolen, mutilated or imperfect currency note, provided
that the Bank may, with the previous sanction of the Central Government, prescribe the circumstances
in and the conditions and limitations subject to which the value of such currency notes or bank notes
may be refunded as of grace. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 58.D
• An explosive detection device, RaIDer-X, was unveiled at the National Workshop on Explosive
Detection (NWED-2020) in Pune (Maharashtra). Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• The Workshop was organized by the High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL), Pune.
• RaIDer-X has the capability to detect 20 explosives within a distance of about 2 meters. Bulk explosives
in concealed conditions can also be detected by the device.
• The data library can be built in the system to expand its capability to detect a number of explosives in pure
form as well as with the contaminants.
• The device has various applications including narcotics, for local police, for customs and other detection
agencies who need to detect various elements that may be explosive or non-explosive in nature.
• RaIDer-X has been co-developed by HEMRL, Pune and the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.
Q 59.B
• Poverty can be defined as a condition in which an individual or household lacks the financial resources to
afford a basic minimum standard of living. Absolute poverty can be estimated as the shortfall in
consumption expenditure from a threshold called the “poverty line”. The official poverty line is the
expenditure incurred to obtain the goods in a “poverty line basket” (PLB).
• In India, so far six official committees have been assigned the task of estimating the number of people
living in poverty. These include the working group of 1962; V N Dandekar and N Rath in 1971; Y K
Alagh in 1979; D T Lakdawala in 1993; Suresh Tendulkar in 2009; and C Rangarajan in 2014. The
government did not take a call on the report of the Rangarajan Committee; therefore, poverty is measured
using the Tendulkar poverty line.
• The current methodology for poverty estimation is based on the recommendations of an Expert Group to
Review the Methodology for Estimation of Poverty (Tendulkar Committee) established in 2005. The
Committee calculated poverty levels for the year 2004- 05. Poverty levels for subsequent years were
calculated on the basis of the same methodology, after adjusting for the difference in prices due to
inflation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• NITI Aayog (previously Planning Commission) estimates levels of poverty in the country on the basis of
consumer expenditure surveys conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) of the Ministry
of Statistics and Programme Implementation using the methodology given by Tendulkar Committee.
• Tendulkar Committee recommended four major changes:
o a shift away from calorie consumption-based poverty estimation; Hence statement 2 is correct.
o a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India;
o a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price
adjustment; and
o incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty. The
Committee recommended using Mixed Reference Period (MRP) based estimates, as opposed to
Uniform Reference Period (URP) based estimates that were used in earlier methods for
estimating poverty. Hence statement 3 is not correct
• Poverty Line Baskets (PLB)Rural and urban poverty lines were first defined in 1973-74 in terms of Per
Capita Total Expenditure (PCTE). Consumption is measured in terms of a collection of goods and
services known as reference Poverty Line Baskets (PLB). These PLB were determined separately for
urban and rural areas and based on a per-day calorie intake of 2400 (rural) and 2100 (urban), each
containing items such as food, clothing, fuel, rent, conveyance and entertainment, among others.
• The official poverty line is the national average expenditure per person incurred to obtain the goods in the
PLB. Since 1973-74, prices for goods in the PLB have been periodically adjusted over time and across
states to deduce the official poverty line. Uniform Reference Period (URP) vs Mixed Reference Period
(MRP)Until 1993-94, consumption information collected by the NSSO was based on the Uniform
Reference Period (URP), which measured consumption across a 30-day recall period.
• That is, survey respondents were asked about their consumption in the previous 30 days. From 1999-2000
onwards, the NSSO switched to a method known as the Mixed Reference Period (MRP).
• The MRP measures consumption of five low-frequency items (clothing, footwear, durables, education and
institutional health expenditure) over the previous year, and all other items over the previous 30 days.
That is to say, for the five items, survey respondents are asked about consumption in the previous one
year. For the remaining items, they are asked about consumption in the previous 30 days.
Q 60.D
• Many environmental factors affect stomatal movement. The most prominent factors include light,
temperature, water availability to plants and CO2 concentration. Some endogenous factors, like K+, Cl-
and H- ions and organic acids, also influence stomatal movements.
• Light: Stomata open in the presence of light and close in darkness. The light intensity required to open the
stomata is very low, as compared to the intensity required for photosynthesis. Even moonlight is sufficient
to keep the stomata open in some plant species. In some plants (with CAM pathway) stomata open during
the dark and remain closed during the day. This unique behavior of stomata is a kind of adaptation to
conserve moisture in CAM plants, for example, pineapple, agave etc.
• Temperature: Stomata tend to open more with an increase in temperature and close with a decrease in
temperature. In some plant species, stomata remain closed even under continuous light at 0C. However, if
the temperature is increased, the stomatal opening in these species increases. At temperatures higher than
30C, there is a decline in stomatal opening in some species.
• Water Availability: If the water available to plants is less and the transpiration rate is high, plants
undergo water stress. Water stress (also called water deficit or moisture deficit) induces stomatal closure.
This happens to conserve moisture by plants by cutting down the transpirational loss of water.
• CO2 concentration: With an increase in carbon dioxide concentration inside the leaf, the stomata close.
This happens even under the light. In some plant species, stomata also close if we merely breathe on their
leaves. It is the internal leaf carbon dioxide concentration rather than the atmospheric carbon dioxide that
dictates stomatal opening. If plants are transferred to carbon dioxide-free environment but kept in
darkness, the stomata will still remain closed. This means that since the internal carbon dioxide is not
utilized due to the absence of photosynthesis in the dark. It influences the stomata to remain closed.
However, if these plants are exposed to light, photosynthesis will utilize the CO2 permitting the stomata to
open.
Q 61.C
• The Nehru Report (1928) was a memorandum to appeal for new dominion status and a federal set-up of
government for the constitution of India. It also proposed for the Joint Electorates with reservation of
seats for minorities in the legislatures.
• The recommendations of the Nehru Report were not acceptable to Jinnah. He proposed certain
amendments in the Nehru Report at the All Parties Conference held at Calcutta in 1928 but his demands
were not accepted. Jinnah in 1929 gave fourteen points in reaction to the Nehru Report, which was to
become the basis of all future propaganda of the Muslim League. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The 14 points included:
o Federal Constitution with residual powers to provinces. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Provincial autonomy
o No constitutional amendment by the center without the concurrence of the states constituting the
Indian federation.
o All legislatures and elected bodies to have adequate representation of Muslims in every province
without reducing a majority of Muslims in a province to a minority or equality.
o Adequate representation to Muslims in the services and in self-governing bodies.
o One-third of Muslim representation in the Central Legislature
o In any cabinet at the center or in the provinces, one-third to be Muslims.
o Separate electorates.
o No bill or resolution in any legislature to be passed if three-fourths of a minority community consider
such a bill or resolution to be against their interests.
o Any territorial redistribution not to affect the Muslim majority in Punjab, Bengal, and NWFP.
o Separation of Sindh from Bombay. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Constitutional reforms in the NWFP and Baluchistan.
o Full religious freedom to all communities.
o Protection of Muslim rights in religion, culture, education, and language.
Q 62.D
• Mirabai (1498 - 1547) was a Rajput princess who lived in the north Indian state of Rajasthan. She was a
devout follower of Lord Krishna. Mirabai was one of the foremost exponents of the Prema Bhakti (Divine
Love) and an inspired poetess. Mughal emperor Babur was born in the year 1483 in Farghana and died in
the year 1530. Both the personalities co-lived from 1498 to 1530, i.e. for 32 years. Thus they were
contemporaries. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Like many in the Bhakti movement, she ignored gender, class, caste, and religious boundaries.
• Some bhakti saints like Kabir, Gurunanak, Ravidasa were Nirguna saints while Tulsidasa, Surdasa,
Mirabai were also Shauna saints. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• She sang in Vraja-bhasha, sometimes mixed with Rajasthani, in praise of Giridhara Gopala (Shri
Krishna), her lord for whom she developed in her heart the most intense love and devotion. She became
popular in Rajasthan for her bhajans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Mirabai was married to Rana Kumbha in 1513 before she turned 14.
• Caught on the horns of a dilemma between her duty towards her marital family and her devotional
practices, in angst, she sought the advice of her contemporary, Sant Tulsidas, the writer of the devotional
masterpiece Ramcharitmanas.
Q 63.A
• Akbar introduced a number of Social and Educational Reforms:
o He stopped sati-unless, she herself, of her free will persistently desire for it. This led to a restriction on
sati, not a blanket ban. Hence option (a) is not correct.
o Widow marriages were legalized. Hence option (b) is correct.
o The age of marriage was raised to 14 for girls and 16 for boys. Hence option (c) is correct.
o The sale of wines and spirits was restricted.
o Akbar, was also against having more than one wife unless the first wife was barren.
o He revised the education syllabus, laying more emphasis on Moral education and mathematics and on
secular subjects. Hence option (d) is correct.
Q 64.B
• Question Hour: It has been mentioned in Chapter VII of the Rules of Procedure & Conduct of
Business Rules. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
o Unless the Speaker otherwise directs, the first hour of every sitting shall be available for the
asking and answering of questions. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
o Unless the Speaker otherwise directs, notless than fifteen clear days’ notice of a question shall be
given.
o Notice of a question shall be given in writing to the Secretary-General.
o A member who desires an oral answer to one’s question shall distinguish it by an asterisk
o If a question is not distinguished by an asterisk or if a question placed on the list of questions for oral
answer on any day is not called for answer within the time available for answering questions on that
day, a written answer to such question.
o A question may be addressed to a private member provided the subject matter of the question
relates to some Bill, resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for
which that member is responsible; and the procedure in regard to such questions shall, as far as
may be, be the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such
variations as the Speaker may consider necessary or convenient. Hence, Statement 3 is not
correct.
o The Speaker shall decide whether a question, or a part thereof, is or is not admissible under
these rules and may disallow any question, or a part thereof, when in the opinion of the
Speaker, it is an abuse of the right of questioning or is calculated to obstruct or prejudicially
affect the procedure of the House or is in contravention of these rules. Hence, Statement 4 is not
correct.
o A member may, by notice given at any time before the sitting for which such member’s question has
been placed on the list, withdraw the question, or postpone it to a later day to be specified in the
notice.
o The member in whose name a questionis listed for oral answer or any other member, when called by
the Speaker, may ask a supplementary question for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of
fact regarding which an answer has been given.
o An answer to question in the House shall not refer to the answer to a question or proceedings in the
Council during a current session.
Q 65.C
• Although the term 'political parties' was not mentioned in the Constitution until the fifty-second
constitutional amendment of 1985, the existence of some well-organised political parties was presumed as
these were already functioning. The Constitution only guaranteed freedom of association as a fundamental
right. Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for registration with the
Election Commission of associations and bodies of individual citizens of India as political parties.
• The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution which was added by the Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act,
1985 mentions political parties only for the specific purpose of considering disqualification of a person for
membership of either House of Parliament or of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a
State on the ground of defection from his political party. With that exception, even today, there is no law
governing the formation, registration, functioning or regulation of political parties.
Q 66.B
• According to Section 4 of the Lokpal & Lokayukta Act, 2013:
o The Chairperson and Members shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the
recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of:
✓ the Prime Minister - Chairperson; Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
✓ the Speaker of the House of the People - Member;
✓ the Leader of Opposition in the House of the People - Member;
✓ the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him - Member;
✓ one eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members referred to in clauses (a) to
(d) above, to be nominated by the President - Member. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
o No appointment of a Chairperson or a Member shall be invalid merely by reason of any vacancy in
the Selection Committee.
o The Selection Committee shall for the purposes of selecting the Chairperson and Members of
the Lokpal and for preparing a panel of persons to be considered for appointment as such,
constitute a Search Committee consisting of at least seven persons of standing and having special
knowledge and expertise in the matters relating to anti-corruption policy, public administration,
vigilance, policy making, finance including insurance and banking, law and management or in any
other matter which, in the opinion of the Selection Committee,may be useful in making the selection
of the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal:
• Provided that not less than fifty per cent. of the members of the Search Committee shall be from amongst
the persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes,Other Backward Classes, Minorities
and women:
• Provided further that the Selection Committee may also consider any person other than the persons
recommended by the Search Committee.
• The Selection Committee shall regulate its own procedure in a transparent manner for selecting the
Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal.
• The term of the Search Committee referred to in sub-section (3), the fees and allowances payable to its
members and the manner of selection of panel of names shall be such as may be prescribed.
Q 67.D
• Tax avoidance is the use of legal methods to modify an individual's financial situation to lower the
amount of income tax owed. This is generally accomplished by claiming the permissible deductions and
credits. This practice differs from tax evasion which uses illegal methods, such as underreporting income,
to avoid paying taxes.
• Tax avoidance techniques include:
• Treaty shopping:
o Treaty shopping involves the improper use of a Double Tax Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA), whereby a person acts through an entity created in another state with the main or sole
purpose of obtaining treaty benefits that would not be available directly to such a person.
o For example, a corporation (XCo) resident in country X may own a corporation (YCo) in country
Y. Dividends paid from YCo to XCo would be subject to a dividend tax of 30% in country Y. If XCo
were to form a corporation (ZCo) in the country Z (the third country) and transfer the stock of YCo to
ZCo, dividends would be paid from YCo to ZCo and, with Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements
between Z and Y, these dividends would qualify for benefits wherein tax amount becomes almost nil.
• Round Tripping: A strategy used by businesses that sell an asset to another business with an agreement
that the asset will be bought back at a time in the future. The strategy is used to increase the apparent
amount of revenue and sales that have been made during a specific period of time. This practice is
common in the business world but not everyone agrees it is a good business practice. Also known as
round trip transactions.

Q 68.C
• Indus Valley Civilization was flourished around 2,500 BC, in the western part of South Asia, what today
is Pakistan and Western India. The ruins of buildings and other things like household articles, weapons of
war, gold and silver ornaments, seals, toys, pottery wares, etc., show that some four to five thousand years
ago a highly developed Civilization flourished in this region.
• The Indus valley civilization was basically an urban civilization and the people lived in well-planned and
well-built towns, which were also the centers for trade. The ruins of Mohenjodaro and Harappa show that
these were magnificent merchant cities-well planned, scientifically laid, and well looked after. They had
wide roads and a well-developed drainage system. The houses were made of baked bricks and had two or
more storey.
• Statement 3 is not correct: At Harappa, a great granary has been discovered to the north of the citadel;
this was raised on a platform to protect it from floods and was divided into storage blocks. It was
doubtlessly used for storing the corn which was collected from the peasants. The chief food crops
included wheat, barley, sesamum, mustard, peas, etc. The evidence for rice has come from Lothal and
Rangpur in the form of husks embedded in pottery. Cotton was another important crop.
• Statement 2 is correct: The highly civilized Harappans knew the art of growing cereals, and wheat and
barley constituted their staple food. They consumed vegetables and fruits and ate mutton, pork, and eggs
as well. Evidences also show that they wore cotton as well as woolen garments. A piece of woven cloth
has been found at Mohenjodaro.
• Statement 1 is correct: The main domestic animals known to modern India had already been tamed
humped and humpless cattle, buffaloes, goats, sheep, pigs, asses, dogs, and the domestic fowl. The
elephant was well known, and may also have been tamed.
Q 69.B
• When the air remains over a homogenous area for a sufficiently long time, it acquires the characteristics
of the area. The homogenous regions can be the vast ocean surface or vast plains. The air with distinctive
characteristics in terms of temperature and humidity is called an air mass. It is defined as a large body of
air having little horizontal variation in temperature and moisture.
• Statement 1 is correct: The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the source
regions. Areas with significant topographic relief do not generally make good air mass source
regions because as air is moved around such areas, its temperature and humidity characteristics can
become quite varied. Over flat surfaces, these temperature and humidity tend to be more similar.
• Statement 2 is not correct: If the weather is very changeable (for instance, fronts moving through the
region) there will not be sufficient time for the air mass to take on the temperature and humidity
characteristics of the source region. For this reason, most air mass source regions tend to be either above
60 degrees of latitude (no warm air) or below 30 degrees of latitude (no cold air). Air mass source
regions are rarely found in the mid-latitudes (from 30 to 60 degrees N/S) because these areas tend to
be "combat" zones between warm and cold air masses. In these latitudes, we find a considerable frontal
activity, and this coming together of different air masses does not offer sufficient time for air masses to
fully develop.
• Statement 3 is correct: The air masses are classified according to the source regions. There are five
major source regions. These are:
o Warm tropical and subtropical oceans;
o The subtropical hot deserts (e.g. the Sahara Desert);
o The relatively cold high latitude oceans;
o The very cold snow-covered continents in high latitudes;
o Permanently ice-covered continents in the Arctic and Antarctica.
Q 70.B
• Statement 2 is correct: White giraffes were recently in news over the killing of two out of the remaining
three of its type in Kenya. It leaves just one such animal in the world. The two giraffes to be killed were a
mother and her seven-month-old calf. The mother’s other male calf is the one that survived.
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) had classified giraffes as vulnerable in the
IUCN Red List. Further, as per IUCN, large losses of the species have occurred in East Africa, where
roughly 86,000 giraffes have died since 1985. According to IUCN, the four principal factors that have led
to a population decline among giraffes are habitat loss, civil unrest, poaching, and ecological issues.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The white appearance of the giraffe is due to leucism (not albinism), a
genetic condition that causes skin cells to have no pigmentation. In albinism, animals lack melanin
throughout their body. Leucism, on the other hand, is partial and leads to the pale or patchy coloration of
the skin, hair, feathers, scales or cuticles, but not the eyes.
Q 71.A
• Reflation is a fiscal or monetary policy designed to expand output, stimulate spending, and curb the
effects of deflation, which usually occurs after a period of economic uncertainty or a recession. Reflation
aims to stop deflation (the general decline in prices for goods and services that occurs when inflation falls
below 0%). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Reflation policies typically include the following:
o Reducing taxes: Paying lower taxes makes corporations and employees wealthier. It is hoped that
extra earnings will be spent in the economy, lifting demand and prices for goods.
o Lowering interest rates: Makes it cheaper to borrow money and encourages people and businesses
to spend more freely.
o Changing the money supply: When central banks boost the amount of currency and other liquid
instruments in the banking system the cost of money falls, generating more investment and putting
more money in the hands of consumers.
o Capital Projects: Large investment projects create jobs, boosting employment figures and the
number of people with spending power.
Q 72.A
• The Revolt of 1857 served as a jolt to the British government. There was widespread resentment against
the company in Britain as the policies of the company were blamed for the revolt.
• Provisions of the Government of India Act 1858
o Indian territories of Britain were to be governed in the name of the British Queen.
o The Court of Directors and the Board of Control were scrapped.
o The powers of the Company’s Court of Directors were vested with the Secretary of State for India.
o This Secretary of State was to be a British MP and a member of the Prime Minister’s cabinet. He was
to be assisted by a council of 15 members which was called as Indian Council.
o Out of those 15 members, 7 were to be selected from the now superseded court of directors and 8 of
whom were appointed by the crown, making it a body of English men advising the secretary of state
in Indian affairs. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
o He was also the channel of communication between the British government in Britain and the Indian
administration. He also had the power to send secret despatches to India without consulting his
council.
o Via the Secretary of State, the British parliament could ask questions regarding Indian affairs.
o The representative of the British government in India was the Governor-General and Viceroy (both
the same person to avoid conflict).
o The Viceroy and the governors of the various presidencies were appointed by the Crown.
o The Viceroy was to be assisted with an Executive Council.
• Government of India Act of 1935 abolished the council of India, established by the Government of India
Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors. Hence statement 3 is
not correct.
• By Indian Independence act 1947, the office of Secretary of State for India was abolished and the
provisions of GOI Act 1935 relating to the appointments to the civil service or civil posts under the crown
by the secretary of the state ceased to operate.
Q 73.A
• Both Indian standard Time and Sri Lankan Standard Time are 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of GMT.
(UTC+5:30). In 2006, the Sri Lankan government changed the country's standard time from GMT
+ 6 to GMT + 5.5, to bring the island in line with its neighbour, India.
• Nepal Standard Time is the time zone for Nepal with a time offset from Coordinated Universal Time of
UTC+05:45 all over Nepal.
• Bhutan Standard Time is the time zone of Bhutan. It is +6:00 hrs ahead of Universal Time Coordinated
(UTC+6).
Q 74.B
• ShaGun Portal: It is a dedicated web portal for the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan ‘ShaGun’ aims to capture
and showcase innovations and progress in Elementary Education sector of India by continuous monitoring
of the flagship scheme - Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).
• School Education Shagun is an overreaching initiative to improve the school education system. The
initiative involves creating a junction in the form of a platform for all portals and websites of the
Department of School Education in the Government of India and all States and Union Territories (UTs).
• In Hindi, 'Shala' means 'School' and 'Gunvatta' means 'Quality'. Additionally, 'Shagun' means 'good omen'.
• Shala Gunvatta (Shagun) Portal is a twin-track approach to monitor the progress of implementation of the
various components while also capturing and sharing of best practices from States and UTs.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 75.C
• To achieve the Paris Agreement goal of keeping global warming below 1.5C above pre-industrial levels
requires reducing greenhouse gas emissions by 50% by 2030. 'The Truth Behind the Climate Pledges'
report released by The Universal Ecological Fund ranks the countries' commitment to reducing
GHG emissions and identifies weaknesses in voluntary pledges. It focuses both on the adequacy of the
pledges to contribute to reducing GHGs globally by 50% by 2030 and whether these pledges are likely to
be implemented.
• The Universal Ecological Fund (Fundacion Ecologica Universal FEU-US) is a non-profit organization
which works to achieve sustainable development by using the distributing carefully analyzed information.
It aims to research and analyze climate science and explain it in a simple way. It promotes and mobilizes
support for climate action. It works with the top climate scientists and informs their assessments to
policymakers. 'The Truth About Climate Change' and 'The Economic Case for Climate Action in
the United States' are also reports released by this organization.
Q 76.D
• Many of the achievements of the Cholas were made possible through new developments in
agriculture. Although agriculture had developed earlier in other parts of Tamil Nadu, it was only from the
fifth or sixth century that this area was opened up for large-scale cultivation. Forests had to be cleared in
some regions; the land had to be leveled in other areas.
• According to Chola inscriptions, there were five types of 'land gifts' that Chola kings gave to their people:
o Vellanvagai was land for non-Brahmana, peasant proprietors. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Brahmadeya was land gifted to Brahmanas
o Shalabhoga was land for the maintenance of a school. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Devadana/Tirunamattukkani was land gifted to temples.
o Pallichchhandam was land donated to Jaina institutions. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
Q 77.C
• Atmospheric brown cloud is a layer of air pollution containing aerosols such as soot or dust that absorb as
well as scatter incoming solar radiation, leading to regional and global climatic effects and posing risks to
human health and food security. This layer extends from Earth’s surface to an altitude of roughly 3 km
(1.8 miles). Whereas, stratosphere is found just above the troposphere. It extends up to a height of 50
km. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The brownish column of ABC’s is due to the absorption and scattering of solar radiation by anthropogenic
black carbon, fly ash, soil dust particles, and nitrogen dioxide gas.
• Atmospheric brown clouds are particularly prevalent in tropical regions; they occur as a result of elevated
pollutant emissions and a lengthy dry season that prevents aerosols from being removed from the
atmosphere through precipitation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Five regional ABC hotspots around the world have been identified:
o East Asia
o Indo-Gangetic Plain in South Asia
o Southeast Asia
o Southern Africa
o Amazon Basin
• Effects:
o Significant reduction of solar radiation to the surface by as much as 15% leading to lower surface
temperatures, a phenomenon known as global dimming.
o It has the effect of warming the atmosphere as particles absorb sunlight, and of cooling Earth's surface
as the particles reduce the amount of sunlight that reaches the ground. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
✓ Global dimming creates a cooling effect that reduces the global average temperature elevation of
greenhouse gases on global warming by 0.3–0.7 degrees centigrade.
o Altered regional monsoon patterns (less sea evaporation from sunlight means less rain)
o Less rain in northwest India, Pakistan, Afghanistan & western PRC by as much as 40%
o Reduction in photosynthesis (drop in agricultural productivity) Acid deposition and plant damage
Respiratory ailments
Q 78.A
• Article 46 of the Constitution provides that the state shall “promote with special care the educational and
economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes
and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation”.
• To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age,
sickness and disablement is provided under Article 41.
• To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years is
provided Article 45.
Q 79.D
• Given the diversity of the subcontinent, there were, and always have been, populations whose social
practices were not influenced by Brahmanical ideas. When they figure in Sanskrit texts, they are often
described as odd, uncivilized, or even animal-like. Categories such as the nishada, to which Ekalavya is
supposed to have belonged, are examples of this. Others who were viewed with suspicion included
populations such as nomadic pastoralists, who could not be easily accommodated within the framework of
settled agriculturists. Sometimes those who spoke non-Sanskritic languages were labelled
as mlechchhas.
• While the Brahmanas considered some people as being outside the system, they also developed a sharper
social divide by classifying certain social categories as “untouchable”. This rested on a notion that certain
activities, especially those connected with the performance of rituals, were sacred and by extension
“pure”. Those who considered themselves pure avoided taking food from those they designated as
“untouchable”.
• In sharp contrast to the purity aspect, some activities were regarded as particularly “polluting”. These
included handling corpses and dead animals. Those who performed such tasks, designated as
chandalas, were placed at the very bottom of the hierarchy. Their touch and, in some cases, even
seeing them was regarded as “polluting” by those who claimed to be at the top of the social order.
• The Manusmriti laid down the “duties” of the chandalas. They had to live outside the village, use
discarded utensils, and wear clothes of the dead and ornaments of iron. They could not walk about in
villages and cities at night. They had to dispose of the bodies of those who had no relatives and serve as
executioners. Hence options (b) and (c) are correct.
• Much later, the Chinese Buddhist monk Fa Xian (c. fifth century CE) wrote that “untouchables” had to
sound a clapper in the streets so that people could avoid seeing them. Another Chinese pilgrim, Xuan
Zang (c. seventh century), observed that executioners and scavengers were forced to live outside the
city. Hence option (a) is correct.
• By examining non-Brahmanical texts which depict the lives of chandalas, historians have tried to find out
whether chandalas accepted the life of degradation prescribed in the Shastras. Sometimes, these depictions
correspond with those in the Brahmanical texts. But occasionally, there are hints of different social
realities. There are instances were chandalas resisted the attempts to push them to the bottom of the social
order.
• The presence of Chandalas was considered polluting and they were made to live outside the villages of the
upper varnas. The slaves were mostly from the Shudra varna. Hence option (d) is not correct.
Q 80.A
• At the turn of the 20th century, Tibet remained one of the last uncontrolled regions in the ‘Great Game’
between Russia and Britain keen to increase their respective strongholds in Central and Inner Asia.
• The British invasion in 1904 was instigated by Lord Curzon (1859–1925), the Viceroy of India, and led
by the imperial adventurer Colonel Sir Francis Edward Younghusband (1863-1942). Hence statement
1 is correct.
• The objectives of the British through this mission were
o Economically, the British wanted to develop Indo-Tibetan trade and to exploit its rich mineral
resources.
o Politically, the British wanted to safeguard the northern frontier of India. But up to the end of the 19th
century, the Tibetan authorities blocked all British efforts to penetrate it.
• In August 1904, the expedition reached Lhasa without coming across any Russians on the way. A treaty
was signed after prolonged negotiations called as The Treaty of Lhasa, officially known as the
Convention between Great Britain and Tibet.
o Tibet had to pay Rs. 25 lakhs as indemnity.
o The Chumbi valley was to be occupied by the British for three years;
o a British trade mission was to be stationed at Gyantse.
o On their part, the Tibetans agreed not to admit the representatives of any foreign power into Tibet.
• The British achieved very little by the Tibetan expedition. It secured Russia's withdrawal from Tibet but at
the cost of confirming Chinese suzerainty.\
• In the Shimla Conference (1913–14), Tibet and Great Britain, with Chinese participation, negotiated the
status of Tibet and of the Tibet-India frontier (the McMahon Line). However, China refused to ratify the
conference’s agreement (including the demarcated border), nor would it recognize Tibet as an
independent entity. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 81.A
• The Local Area Banks (LABs) are small private banks, conceived as low-cost structures that would
provide efficient and competitive financial intermediation services in a limited area of operation, i.e.,
primarily in rural and semi-urban areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Local Area Bank Scheme was introduced in 1996 to enable the mobilization of rural savings by local
institutions and, at the same time, to make them available for investments in the local areas.
• The Local Area Banks (LABs) were expected to bridge the gaps in credit availability and strengthen the
institutional credit framework in the rural and semi-urban areas.
• Initially, LABs were required to have a minimum capital of Rs. 5 crore. Later, the New Policy on the
working of Local Area Banks increased the minimum capital base to 25 crore.
• In 2014, RBI has permitted LABs to be converted into small finance banks subject to them meeting the
prescribed eligibility criteria.
• The regulatory and supervisory responsibility over the LABs lies with the RBI. LABs would be subject to
prudential norms, accounting policies, and other policies as laid down by RBI. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
Q 82.C
• The Brayton cycle is a thermodynamic cycle named after George Brayton that describes the
workings of a constant-pressure heat engine. The original Brayton engines used a piston compressor
and piston expander, but more modern gas turbine engines and airbreathing jet engines also follow the
Brayton cycle. Although the cycle is usually run as an open system (and indeed must be run as such
if internal combustion is used), it is conventionally assumed for the purposes of thermodynamic analysis
that the exhaust gases are reused in the intake, enabling analysis as a closed system. Hence option (c) is
the correct answer.
• Indian scientists have developed a supercritical carbon dioxide Brayton test loop facility that would help
generate clean energy from future power plants including solar thermal. This next-generation technology
loop was developed indigenously by the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.
• While conventional power plant cycles produce power from turbines using water or steam as the working
fluid, supercritical carbon dioxide (sCO2) cycles use CO2 that is in a supercritical state—at a temperature
and pressure above its critical point where liquid and gas phases are not distinguishable.
Q 83.B
• There are three types of ATM (Automated Teller Machines) in India:
o Banks own ATM, they are owned and operated by banks themselves. But it is a costly way of
providing credit to customers and so most of the banks outsource this process.
o 'Brown Label' ATM are those Automated Teller Machines where hardware and the lease of the
ATM machine is owned by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking
networks is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand (label) is used on the ATM.
o 'White label' ATM, they are set up, owned and operated by non-banks. Non-bank ATM operators are
authorised under the Payment & Settlement Systems Act, 2007 by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI). The rationale to allow non-bank entities to set up WLAs has been to increase the geographical
spread of ATMs for increased/enhanced customer service, especially in semi-urban / rural areas.
o Reserve Bank of India, is a banking regulation authority and is not involved in providing any
individual customer banking services.
Q 84.A
• Parliament recently passed the amendments to the Companies Act to tighten the norms pertaining to
corporate social responsibility (CSR). Failure to comply with these new norms, for an activity that should
ideally be voluntary, will not only attract fines but could also lead to imprisonment.
• Presently Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure is at the discretion of the corporate however
after enactment of Section 135 of Companies Act 2013 such expenditure is made mandatory for certain
corporate.
• Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) has been in existence for a long time and is almost as old as
civilization. It is based on the Gandhian Principle of “trusteeship concept” whereby business houses are
looked upon as trustees of the resources they draw from society and thus are expected to return them back
manifold.
• India is the only country so far, where CSR activities have been made mandatory. Hence statement
1 is correct.
• Every company having net worth of rupees five hundred crore or more, or turnover of rupees one
thousand crore or more or a net profit of rupees five crore or more during any financial year shall
constitute a Corporate Social Responsibility Committee of the Board consisting of three or more directors,
out of which at least one director shall be an independent director.
• The Board of every company referred to, shall ensure that the company spends, in every financial year, at
least 2% of the average net profits of the company made during the three immediately preceding financial
years, in pursuance of its Corporate Social Responsibility Policy: Provided that the company shall give
preference to the local area and areas around it where it operates, for spending the amount earmarked for
Corporate Social Responsibility activities.
• The Provisions of CSR are applicable to Foreign Company having Branch Office or Project in India
if it fulfill the above given criteria. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• CSR projects or programs or activities undertaken in India only shall amount to CSR Expenditure.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Expenditure incurred by Foreign Holding Company for CSR activities in India will qualify as CSR spend
of the Indian subsidiary if, the CSR expenditures are routed through Indian subsidiaries and if the Indian
subsidiary is required to do so as per Section 135 of the Act.
• CSR activities done through Trusts/NGOs/Section 8 Companies are considered as CSR activities if these
entities are created just for this.
• A company may also collaborate with other companies for undertaking projects or programs or CSR
activities in such a manner that the CSR committees of respective companies are in a position to report
separately on such projects or programs.
Q 85.A
• Buddhism has contributed a great deal to the development of medicine especially Ayurveda. A new
branch of medicine based on mercury was innovated by Nagarjuna while practicing alchemy. He was a
scholar in philosophy, Alchemy, Magic, and Medicine. He established a University on NagarunaKonda
where material science like Ayurveda and chemistry were taught.
• Acharya Vagbhata another noted Buddhist physician wrote Astanga Sangraha, Ashtanga Hridaya,
and Ras Ratna Samucchaya. The last work viz., Ras Ratna Samuchaya exclusively deals with the
processing of mercury, minerals, metals, gems and poisonous materials to render useful for
therapeutic purposes. Some of the work of Vagbhata especially Ashtanga Hridaya was translated in
Tibetan language forming the very base of Tibetan system of medicine "Sowa rig Pa" which is recently
recognized by the Govt. of India due to its wide practice in Sikkim, Leh, and Dharmashala. Hence, option
(a) is correct.
• Sushruta (c. 7th or 6th century BCE) was a physician in ancient India and has been credited for inventing
and developing surgical procedures. His work on the subject, the Sushruta Samhita (Sushruta's
Compendium) is regarded as one of the Great Trilogy of Ayurvedic Medicine; the other two being the
Charaka Samhita, which preceded it, and the Astanga Hridaya, which followed it.
• Jivaka-Kumarabhrta ( pali: Komarabhacca) a celebrated surgeon - Physician of Buddha’s time
has received his medical education at Taksasila for seven years. He was believed to be physician to King
Bimbisara and Buddha.
Q 86.D
• Bannerghatta National park near Bangalore, Karnataka, was founded in 1970 and declared as a
national park in 1974. In 2002 a portion of the park, became a biological reserve, the Bannerghatta
Biological Park. It is the first biological park in India to have a fenced forested elephant sanctuary. Fauna
in the park include Wild Boar, Sloth Bear, Sambar, Chital, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, Common Langur,
Bonnet Macaque, Porcupine, Hare, Slender Loris etc. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Kanger Ghati National Park: The name of Kanger Ghati National Park is derived from the Kangar
river, which flows in its length. Kanger Valley is spread over 200 square kilometers. It got the status of a
national park in the year 1982. Among the various protected areas in the country, the Kanger Valley
National Park near Jagdalpur, in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh is one of the densest national parks,
well known for its biodiversity, landscape, waterfalls, subterranean geomorphologic limestone caves,
and home for the Bastar hill myna, the state bird of Chhattisgarh.The Kanger Ghati National Park has
an exotic array of wildlife species. Some of these are tigers, mouse deer, leopards, wildcat, sambar, chital,
barking deer, langurs, jackals, rhesus macaque, flying squirrel, sloth bear, wild boar, rabbits. Hence pair
2 is correctly matched.
• Gorumara National Park: Gorumara National Park is an important national park of North Bengal. It
is situated just at the foothills of Eastern Himalaya in Terai region, on the flood plains in Murti, Raidak.
Jaldhaka a Tributary of Brahmaputra flows just beside the National Park. Hence pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
o The park has mixed vegetation of forest & grassland. It is famous for its good population of One
Horned Indian Rhino.
o Ministry of Environment and Forest has declared Gorumara as the best among the protected areas in
India for the year 2009.
o It was declared a reserve forest in 1895. In 1949 it was given a status of a wild life sanctuary. Later on
Gorumara was declared as National Park in 1994.
o The park is famous for one horn Indian Rhino. Asiatic elephant, gaur, Leopard, deer, sambar, King
cobra, pythin etc.
• Bandhavgarh National Park: It is the most popular national parks in India is located in the Vindhya
Hills of the Umaria district in Madhya Pradesh. It was declared as a national park in 1968. Hence pair 4
is correctly matched.
o The area of Bandhavgarh is being flourished with a large biodiversity, the place which is also being
famed to grip highest density of tiger population in India. Similarly, the park also beholds the largest
breeding population of leopards and various species of deer.
o The Park consists of mixed vegetation ranging from tall grasslands to thick Sal forest and so is the
perfect habitat of variety of animals and birds.
o The list of the faunas available at Bandhavgarh is: White Tigers, Bengal Tigers, Leopards, Sambar,
Barking Deer, Nilgai, Wild Boar, Gaur, Chausingha and Chinkara, the Asiatic jackal, Bengal fox,
sloth bear, ratel, grey mongoose, striped hyena, jungle cat, leopard and tiger.
Q 87.A
• Statement 1 is correct: India has signed the United Nations Convention on International Settlement
Agreements (UNISA) in 2019. The United Nations General Assembly adopted the United Nations
Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation on 20th December 2018.
The Convention is also known as the “Singapore Convention on Mediation”.
• It provides uniform framework for enforcing international settlement agreements which results from
mediation.
• Signing of the convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive
signal to foreign investors about India's commitment to adhere to international practice on
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR).
• Statement 2 is not correct: The The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019 has provided
for the establishment of the NDIAC as a statutory body to conduct, promote and facilitate
arbitration, mediation, and conciliation proceedings for resolution of international disputes.
Q 88.A
• The President under Article 360 of the constitution has the power to declare a financial emergency
if he is satisfied that the financial stability or the credit of India or any part of its territory is
threatened. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• A Proclamation issued under clause-
o may be revoked or varied by a subsequent Proclamation;
o shall be laid before each House of Parliament;
o shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period
it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament:
• Every Proclamation to declare Financial Emergency shall be laid down before each house of Parliament
and must get approval in two months from the date of issue. Provided that if at the time of the
proclamation of a Financial Emergency, the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok
Sabha takes place in the meantime (i.e. within two months from date of issue) then must get the approval
of the Rajya Sabha within 2 months, but such proclamation shall cease to operate after 30 days from the
first sitting of Lok Sabha.
• Once the declaration of Financial Emergency is approved by both houses of Parliament, it remains in
operation till it is revoked by the President and no maximum period is defined under the
Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• During the period any such Proclamation is in operation, the executive authority of the Union shall
extend to the giving of directions to any State to observe such canons of financial propriety as may
be specified in the directions, and to the giving of such other directions as the President may deem
necessary and adequate for the purpose.
• Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution
• any such direction may include:
o a provision requiring the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons
serving in connection with the affairs of a State;
o provision requiring all Money Bills or other Bills to which the provisions of Article 207 apply to
be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the
State;
• It shall be competent for the President during the period any Proclamation issued under this article is in
operation to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons
serving in connection with the affairs of the Union including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the
High Courts.
• Despite, the financial crisis of 1991, there has been no instance of financial emergency being
proclaimed in India or any territory of it thereof.
Q 89.A
• The Charvaka school of philosophy is also known as Lokayata Philosophy- the philosophy of the
masses. According to Charvaka, there is no other world. Hence, death is the end of humans and pleasure
the ultimate object in life.
• Charvaka recognizes no existence other than this material world. Since God, soul, and heaven, cannot be
perceived, they are not recognized by Charvakas. Out of the five elements of earth, water, fire, air, and
ether, the Charvakas do not recognize ether as it is not known through perception. The whole universe
according to them is thus consisted of four elements.
• This school of philosophy advocated that the human body is meant for sensual pleasure. It says even one
has to borrow to enjoy, should go for it.
Q 90.B
• Bharat Mata is a work painted by the Indian painter Abanindranath Tagore in 1905. The work depicts
Bharat Mata, or Mother India, in the style of a Hindu Goddess. The painting was the first illustrated
depiction of the concept and was painted with Swadesh ideals during the larger Indian Independence
movement. Bharat Mata, depicts a saffron-clad woman, dressed like a sadhvi, holding a book, sheaves of
paddy, a piece of white cloth and a garland in her four hands. The painting holds historical significance as
it is one of the earliest visualizations of Bharat Mata, or "Mother India. Hence pair 3 is correctly
matched.
• The work 'Lady in the Moonlight' is a famous painting of Raja Ravi Varma. In this painting, a lady sits
alone in the moonlight. It's a classic painting with extraordinary light effects. Hence pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• 'Meeting in the Staircase' was painted by Gagendranath Tagore, brother of Abanindranath Tagore in the
1920s. Gagendranath Tagore was a product of the Bengal School of Art, who along with his brother
Abanindranath Tagore contributed to the development of modern Indian art. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
Q 91.C
• Impossible trinity in Economics: It is a theory which states that it is impossible for a country to have
three things at the same time:
o a stable currency,
o the free movement of capital (i.e. the absence of capital controls)
o independent monetary policy. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The idea is that in the long-run, a central bank that hopes to conduct independent monetary policy must
choose between maintaining a fixed foreign exchange rate and allowing the free movement of capital.
• For instance, a central bank that chooses to increase the total money supply by adopting loose monetary
policy cannot hope to maintain the foreign exchange value of its currency unless it resorts to restricting
the sale of domestic currency in the currency market.
• The idea is derived from the academic works of Canadian economist Robert Mundell and British
economist Marcus Fleming. The depreciation episodes of 2013 and 2018 in India are symptomatic of the
impossible trinity.
Q 92.C
• National Hydrology Project: It is a Central Sector Scheme being implemented by the Department of
Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation under Jal Shakti Ministry with support
from the World Bank. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Its objective is to improve the extent, quality, and accessibility of water resources information, and
to strengthen the capacity of water resources management institutions in India. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• Key result indicators:
o Improving the extent, quality, and accessibility of water resources data: Number of new or upgraded
Water Resources monitoring stations providing validated data online (Number).
o Improving the accessibility of water resources information: Percentage of information products
produced under the project made available to the stakeholders.
o Strengthening capacity: Number of Water Resources institutions achieving benchmark performance
levels.
• The number of direct beneficiaries:
o The project has two groups of direct beneficiaries: central and state implementing agencies (IAs)
responsible for surface and/or groundwater planning and management, including river basin
organizations; and
o users of the Water Resources Information System (WRIS) across various sectors and around the
World.
• About Water Resources Information System: The generation of a database and the implementation of a
web-enabled Water Resources Information System popularly known as India-WRIS was initiated through
a Memorandum of Understanding signed on December 3rd, 2008 between the Central Water Commission
(CWC), Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation (now Ministry of Jal
Shakti) and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), Department of Space. This project was
funded by the Central Water Commission.
o India-WRIS provides a single-window solution for all water resources data and information in a
standardized national GIS framework. It allows users to Search, Access, Visualize, Understand and
Analyse comprehensive and contextual water data for the assessment, monitoring, planning and
development of water resources in the context of Integrated Water Resources Management (IWRM).
Q 93.A
• Since the 18th century, Sind was being ruled by some Baluchi chiefs collectively known as “Amirs of
Sind”. The East India Company, because of the strategic positions of the Ports of Sind had tried its hand
as early as 1775 to open a factory out there. But they abandoned it in 1792.
• In 1809, during the times of Lord Minto, an embassy was sent to these Amirs which resulted in the
“Treaty of Eternal Friendship” of 1809.
• Once becoming the friends of English, the Amirs stopped allowing French to the Ports of Sind. The
British were able to renew this treaty in 1820, which excluded the Americans from Sind. Hence pair 2 is
correctly matched.
• Lord Ellenborough, Auckland's successor sent Sir Charles Napier with full civil and military power to
Sindh in September 1842, to take control of all British Indian troops there. Sindh was annexed in
1843 after a brief campaign by Sir Charles Napier.
• Treaty of perpetual friendship was signed between Maharaja Ranjith Singh and Britain in 1831. Ranjit
Singh wanted to annex Sind but could not do so because of the English opposition. Hence, In 1831 he
signed the treaty of perpetual friendship with the English. Later, in 1838 he entered into a tripartite
treaty with the English and Shah Shuja to depose Dost Muhammad Khan, the exiled Amir of
Afghanistan and placed Shah Shuja on the throne. This led to the Afghan war. Hence pair 1 is correctly
matched.
• Ranjith Singh wanted to bring all the Sikh states under his control. He had Malwa, on the south side of the
Sutlej river, as his next target. The Sikh states appealed to the British for protection. The British also
thought Ranjit Singh’s advances injurious to their interest. So, the East India Company concluded
the Treaty of Amritsar with him on April 25, 1809.
• The British Government signed the treaty of “Mutual Friendship“, which is also called the Minto-
Metcalfe Treaty with Maharaja Ranjit Singh on 30 May 1809. This Friendship was based upon the
British fear of attack from Napoleon or Russia from the Northern frontiers of the British Empire in India.
• The Treaty of Titalia was signed between the Chogyal (monarch) of the Kingdom of Sikkim and the
British East India Company (EIC). The treaty, which was negotiated by Captain Barre Latter in
February 1817, guaranteed security of Sikkim by the British and returned Sikkimese land annexed by the
Nepalese over the centuries. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 94.D
• According to Section 60 of Representation of People's Act, 1951: Any of the following persons can
give his vote either in person or by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at an election in a
constituency where a poll is taken, namely:
o being a member of an armed police force of a State, who is serving outside that
State. Hence, Statement 2 is correct;
o being a person who is employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
o the wife of any such person.
• Any person belonging to a class of persons notified by the Election Commission in consultation with
the Government can give his vote by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at an election in a
constituency where a poll is taken.
• Any person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force to give his
vote by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at an election in a constituency where a poll is taken.
Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• Any of the persons given below:
o being a member of the armed forces of the Union;
o being a member of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950, have been made applicable
whether with or without modifications
• give his vote either in person or by postal ballot or by proxy, and not in any other manner, at an
election in a constituency where poll is taken. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Q 95.A
• Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change in the price a producer receives for his
goods/services sold in the domestic market/exports. It measures the average change in the price of goods
and services either as they leave the place of production, called output PPI or as they enter the production
process, called input PPI. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of the change in retail prices of goods and services
consumed by defined population group in a given area with reference to a base year. Whereas WPI
captures the price changes at the point of bulk transactions and may include some taxes levied and
distribution costs up to the stage of wholesale transactions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
PPI vs WPI
• WPI captures the price changes at the point of bulk transactions and may include some taxes levied and
distribution costs up to the stage of wholesale transactions. PPI measures the average change in prices
received by the producer and excludes indirect taxes.
• WPI does not cover services whereas PPI includes services.
• Weight of an item in WPI is based on net traded value whereas in PPI weights are derived from Supply
Use Table.
PPI vs CPI
• The prices received by the producers differ from the prices paid by the consumers on account of various
factor such as taxes, trade and transport margin, distribution cost etc. PPI estimates the change in average
prices that a producer receives while CPI measures the change in average prices that a consumer pays.
• Weights of items in CPI are derived from Consumer Expenditure Surveys whereas for PPI it is calculated
on the basis of Supply Use tables.
Q 96.B
• Article 22 (1) of our Constitution guarantees that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody
without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right
to consult and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of their choice. Hence, every accused has a
fundamental right to legal representation.
• Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the
laws within the territory of India Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth
• Article 19: Right to Freedom (Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.) All citizens
shall have the right:
o to freedom of speech and expression;
o to assemble peaceably and without arms;
o to form associations or unions;
o to move freely throughout the territory of India;
o to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and
o omitted
o to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Article 39A: The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of
equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in
any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of
economic or other disabilities.
Q 97.C
• Statement 1 is correct: HCNG does not require any modification of the engine or retro-fitment. Only
some calibration is required on the bus.
• Statement 2 is correct: Hydrogen is characterized by a rapid combustion speed, a wider combustion
limit, and low ignition energy. These characteristics can reduce the exhaust emissions of the fuel,
especially methane and carbon monoxide emissions. Although the NOx emissions for CNG are already
extremely low compared to traditional fuels, the addition of hydrogen causes increased NOx emissions.
Q 98.C
• Deep Ocean Mission (DOM): It is led by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Hence statement 1
is not correct.
o The mission proposes to explore the deep ocean similar to the space exploration started by ISRO.
o Underwater robotics and ‘manned’ submersibles are key components of the Mission which will help
India harness various living and non-living (water, mineral and energy) resources from the seabed and
deep water.
o The tasks that will be undertaken over this period include deep-sea mining, survey, energy exploration
and the offshore-based desalination.
o These technological developments are funded under an umbrella scheme of the government –
called Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources Modelling and Science (O-
SMART).
o One of the main aims of the mission is to explore and extract polymetallic nodules (PMN).
Hence statement 2 is correct.
• PolyMetalic Nodules:
o These are small potato-like rounded accretions composed of minerals such as manganese, nickel,
cobalt, copper and iron hydroxide.
o They lie scattered on the Indian Ocean floor at depths of about 6,000 m and the size can vary from a
few millimetres to centimetres.
o These metals can be extracted and used in electronic devices, smartphones, batteries and even for
solar panels.
• The International Seabed Authority (ISA), an autonomous international organisation established
under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, allots the ‘area’ for deep-sea
mining. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 99.B
• Recently, Coronavirus was officially declared a pandemic by WHO. World Health Organization (WHO)
declared COVID-19 an official name for coronavirus disease. Declaring a global health emergency gives
the Director-General of the WHO the power to offer recommendations that could prevent the spread of a
disease, like travel advisories or restrictions, and allow them to review public health measures in place in
affected countries.
• This is the sixth declared global health emergency in the past decade. Other five are H1 virus that
caused an influenza pandemic (2009), West Africa’s Ebola outbreak (2013-2016), polio (2014), Zika
virus (2016), and the ongoing Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo (2019).
Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large family of viruses that cause illness ranging from the common cold
to more severe diseases such as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and Severe Acute
Respiratory Syndrome (SARS-CoV). A novel coronavirus (nCoV) is a new strain that has not been
previously identified in humans. The genome structure of the virus which is spreading in China is 70 per
cent similar to Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS). Coronaviruses are zoonotic, meaning they
are transmitted between animals and people.

• Common signs of infection include respiratory symptoms, fever, cough, shortness of breath and breathing
difficulties. In more severe cases, an infection can cause pneumonia, severe acute respiratory syndrome,
kidney failure and even death. The infection can be diagnosed by PCR Test (Polymerase chain reaction).
This test identifies the virus based on its genetic fingerprint. At present, there is no specific treatment for
the new virus, and no vaccine is available to prevent it.
Q 100.C
• Recombinant DNA technology is the joining together of DNA molecules from two different species.
The recombined DNA molecule is inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that
are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry. Since the focus of all genetics is the gene, the
fundamental goal of laboratory geneticists is to isolate, characterize, and manipulate genes. Recombinant
DNA technology is based primarily on two other technologies, cloning and DNA sequencing. Cloning is
undertaken in order to obtain the clone of one particular gene or DNA sequence of interest. The next step
after cloning is to find and isolate that clone among other members of the library (a large collection of
clones). Once a segment of DNA has been cloned, its nucleotide sequence can be determined.
• Recombinant DNA technology has made it possible to engineer microbes, plants, and animals such that
they have novel capabilities. Genetically Modified Organisms have been created by using methods other
than natural methods to transfer one or more genes from one organism to another, generally using
techniques such as recombinant DNA technology.
• Recombinant DNA technological processes have made an immense impact in the area of healthcare by
enabling the mass production of safe and more effective therapeutics. Since the recombinant therapeutics
are identical to human proteins, they do not induce unwanted immunological responses and are free from
the risk of infection as was observed in case of similar products isolated from non-human sources.
• Hence both the statements are correct.

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