Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition by Susan King Strasinger - Test Bank

Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th
Edition By Susan King Strasinger

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Sample Test
Chapter 3: Renal Function
Multiple Choice
1. Normal functions of the kidney include all of the following except:

2. Regulating body hydration
3. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes
4. Regulating electrolyte balance
5. Elimination of serum proteins
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
TOP: Renal physiology
2. The approximate number of nephrons contained in each kidney is:

3. 100,000
4. 500,000
5. 1,000,000
6. 5,000,000
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 1
3. The order of blood flow through the nephron is:

4. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
5. Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
6. Peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole
7. Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2
4. The total renal blood flow is approximately:

5. 40 mL/min
6. 120 mL/min
7. 600 mL/min
8. 1200 mL/min
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 2
5. The total renal plasma flow is approximately:

6. 60 mL/min
7. 120 mL/min
8. 600 mL/min
9. 1200 mL/min
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2

6. The glomerular filtrate is described as a:

7. Plasma filtrate containing glucose and protein
8. Protein-free ultrafiltrate of plasma
9. Selective filtrate of plasma containing urea
10. Plasma filtrate without glucose and protein
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
7. Increased production of aldosterone causes:

8. Decreased plasma sodium levels
9. Decreased glomerular blood pressure
10. Increased plasma sodium levels
11. Increased urine volume
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 4

8. The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
system is:
9. Glucose
10. Potassium
11. Chloride
12. Sodium
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 4
9. The specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is:

10. 1.002
11. 1.010
12. 1.020
13. 1.030
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
10. All of the following substances are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate
by active transport except:
11. Glucose
12. Water
13. Sodium
14. Amino acids
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
11. For active transport to occur a substance:

12. Must combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy
13. Must be filtered through the proximal convoluted tubule
14. Must be in higher concentration in the filtrate than in the blood
15. Must be in higher concentration in the blood than in the filtrate
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 5
TOP: Reabsorption mechanisms
12. Water is passively reabsorbed in all parts of the nephron except the:

13. Proximal convoluted tubule
14. Descending loop of Henle
15. Ascending loop of Henle
16. Collecting duct

ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 5
13. Most of the sodium filtered by the glomerulus is reabsorbed in the:

16. Distal convoluted tubule
17. Collecting duct
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 5
14. The enzyme renin is produced by the kidney:

15. To activate antidiuretic hormone
16. In response to low plasma sodium levels
17. When too much sodium is being reabsorbed
18. To regulate secretion of hydrogen ions
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 7
TOP: Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
15. Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the countercurrent mechanism is

dependent on all of the following except:
16. High salt concentration in the medulla
17. Water-impermeable walls of the ascending loop of Henle
18. Reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the ascending loop of Henle
19. Active transport reabsorption of sodium and glucose in the proximal
convoluted tubule
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 7
TOP: Tubular concentration
16. The osmotic gradient of the medulla:

17. Controls the permeability of the walls of the collecting duct
18. Affects passive reabsorption of water in the descending loop of Henle
19. Stimulates sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule
20. Controls ammonia production by the distal convoluted tubule
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 7
TOP: Tubular concentration

17. Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption in the:

20. Ascending loop of Henle
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 4
TOP: Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
18. Decreased production of aldosterone:

19. Produces a low urine volume
20. Produces a high urine volume
21. Increases ammonia excretion
22. Affects active transport of sodium
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 4
TOP: Collecting duct concentration
19. Production of antidiuretic hormone is controlled by the:

20. Osmotic gradient of the medulla
21. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
22. State of body hydration
23. Cells of the renal cortex
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 6
TOP: Collecting duct concentration
20. Substances removed from the blood by tubular secretion include primarily:
21. Protein, hydrogen, and ammonia
22. Protein, hydrogen, and potassium
23. Amino acids, urea, and glucose
24. Protein-bound substances, hydrogen, and potassium
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 8
21. Kidneys with impaired production of ammonia will consistently produce

urine with a:
22. High pH
23. High volume
24. Low pH
25. Low volume

ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2
TOP: Acid-base balance
22. To enhance the excretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia is produced by the

cells of the:
24. Loop of Henle
26. Collecting duct
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 7
23. To maintain the buffering capacity of the blood, hydrogen ions combine
with:
24. Filtered phosphate ions
25. Filtered bicarbonate ions
26. Secreted ammonia
27. Secreted ammonium ions
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 7
24. Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular filtration rate must
measure substances that are:
25. Not filtered by the glomerulus
26. Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule
27. Secreted in the distal convoluted tubule
28. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 9
TOP: Glomerular filtration tests
25. Results for glomerular filtration tests are reported in:

26. Milliliters per minute
27. Milliliters per 24 hours
28. Milligrams per deciliter
29. Milliequivalents per liter
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 11
26. All of the following are endogenous clearance test substances except:

27. Urea
28. Creatinine
29. Inulin
30. Beta2 microglobulin
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 11
27. Performing a clearance test using radionucleotides:

28. Requires the patient to abstain from all food
29. Roes not require an infusion
30. Provides visualization of the filtration
31. Requires patient hospitalization
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 11
TOP: Clearance tests

28. If a substance is completely filtered by the glomerulus and then

completely reabsorbed by the tubules, the clearance of that substance will be:
29. Falsely decreased
30. Falsely increased
31. Normal
32. Zero
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ 11
TOP: Clearance tests
29. The most routinely used laboratory method for measuring the glomerular
filtration rate is the:
30. Inulin clearance
31. Estimated glomerular filtration rate
32. Creatinine clearance
33. Beta2 microglobulin clearance
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 9

30. Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the
following data:
Urine volume: 720 mL for 12 hours
Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
31. 60 mL/min
32. 80 mL/min
33. 100 mL/min
34. 120 mL/min
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 10
TOP: Creatinine clearance
31. Performing an estimated glomerular filtration rate is helpful for

determining:
32. Renal concentrating ability
33. The feasibility of administering medications
34. Early renal disease
35. Renal blood flow
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 9
TOP: Glomerular filtration rate

32. John White donates one of his two healthy kidneys to his twin brother. His
glomerular filtration rate can be expected to:
33. Decrease by 50%
34. Increase by 50%
35. Decrease gradually over 1 year
36. Remain within a normal range
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 11
33. The renal function that is most frequently the first affected by early renal
disease is:
35. Glomerular filtration
36. Tubular reabsorption
37. Tubular secretion
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 10
TOP: Tubular reabsorption tests
34. For accurate evaluation of renal tubular concentrating ability, patient

preparation should include:
35. Fasting
36. Fluid deprivation
37. Increased hydration
38. Abstaining from all medications
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 11
TOP: Tubular reabsorption tests
35. Measurement of urine osmolality is a more accurate measure of renal

concentrating ability than specific gravity because:
36. Osmolality is measured by instrumentation
37. Specific gravity is not influenced by urea and glucose molecules
38. Osmolality is influenced equally by small and large molecules
39. Specific gravity measures only urea and glucose molecules
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Osmolality
36. In the measurement of osmolality, a solute that is dissolved in solvent will:

37. Decrease the boiling point
38. Decrease the freezing point
39. Raise the vapor pressure
40. Raise the dew point
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 14
TOP: Osmolality
37. Clinical osmometers use NaCl as a reference solution because:

38. 1 g molecular weight of NaCl will lower the freezing point 1.86 oC
39. NaCl is readily frozen and vaporized
40. NaCl is partially ionized similar to the composition of urine
41. 1 g equivalent weight of NaCl will lower the freezing point 1.86 oC
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 14
TOP: Freezing-point osmometers
38. Substances that can interfere with serum osmolality readings include all
of the following except:
39. Lipids
40. Lactic acid
41. Ethanol
42. Sodium

ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Freezing-point osmometers
39. The results of a serum osmolality performed by both freezing-point and

vapor-pressure osmometry do not agree. A possible cause of this discrepancy
would be:
40. Increased ethanol
41. Increased lipids
42. Decreased lactic acid
43. Decreased potassium
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 14
TOP: Technical factors
40. A technical error that could cause a discrepancy between freezing-point

and vapor-pressure osmometry readings is:
41. Failure to refrigerate the sample
42. Evaporation of the sample
43. Failure to separate cells and serum
44. Fluid deprivation of the patient
ANS: C
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 14
TOP: Technical factors
41. The normal serum osmolality is:

42. 50 to 100 mOsm
43. 275 to 300 mOsm
44. 400 to 500 mOsm
45. Three times urine osmolality
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Osmolality clinical significance
42. The extent to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be
determined by measuring:
43. Serum creatinine
44. Urine creatinine
45. Serum osmolality
46. Urine and serum osmolality
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 12
TOP: Osmolality clinical significance
43. Following fluid deprivation, a patient has a serum osmolality of 276 mOsm
and a urine osmolality of 1000 mOsm. This patient:
44. Has normal concentration ability
45. May have defective antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
46. May have insufficient tubular ADH response
47. Has a high serum lipid concentration
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 13
TOP: Free water clearance
44. Which of the following tests provides information similar to specific

gravity?
45. Total colloid content
46. Protein concentration
47. Absorbance
48. Osmolality
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13

45. The serum osmolality of a patient with hyponatremia:

46. Will be similar to the urine osmolality
47. Should be greater than 300 mOsm
48. Should be lower than 275 mOsm
49. Will be falsely increased
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 13
TOP: Tubular secretion and renal blood flow
46. Following injection of ADH, a patient has a serum osmolality of 290 mOsm
and a urine osmolality of 450 mOsm. The patient:
47. Continued to observe water deprivation
48. Lacks tubular response to ADH
49. May have ingested excess alcohol
50. Should be evaluated with a creatinine clearance
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 12

47. To determine the amount of water that must be cleared to produce urine
with the same osmolality as the ultrafiltrate, one should perform:
48. A free water clearance
49. A Mosenthal test
50. An osmolar clearance
51. A urine-to-plasma ratio
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 15
48. Which of the following tests should be used to determine the ability of the
kidneys to respond to filtrate osmolality?
49. Free water clearance
50. Fishberg test
51. Urine-to-plasma osmolality
52. p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 15
49. A free water clearance of -2.5 could be indicative of:

50. Lack of renal concentration and dilution
51. Decreased ADH production
52. Hyponatremia
53. Dehydration
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
50. Given the following laboratory data, calculate the free water clearance:
Volume = 2800 mL/24 hour; Urine Osmo = 1200 mOsm, Plasma Osmo = 400
mOsm
51. +2 mL/min
52. +4 mL/min
53. -2 mL/min
54. -4 mL/min
ANS: D
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 15
51. A patient with insufficient production of ADH would have which of the
following results?
52. Urine volume—2 mL/min; osmolar clearance—2 mL/min

ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
52. The PAH test is used to measure:

55. Albumin excretion
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 16
TOP: PAH test
53. To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow, a test substance

should be:
54. Filtered by the glomerulus
55. Reabsorbed by the tubules
56. Secreted by the distal convoluted tubule
57. Cleared on each contact with functional renal tissues
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 16
TOP: Renal blood flow tests
54. PAH is secreted by the:

58. Collecting duct
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 16
TOP: PAH test
55. A PAH test result showing a renal plasma flow of 400 mL/min:
56. Is a normal result
57. May be falsely decreased from impaired tubular secretion
58. Should be corrected to correspond to the patient’s body size
59. Indicates glomerular filtration of PAH
ANS: B
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 16
TOP: PAH test

56. Which of the following is not associated with the elimination of hydrogen

ions?
57. Protein
58. Phosphate
59. Ammonia
60. Bicarbonate
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 1
57. Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:

58. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased filtration of
hydrogen ions
59. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of
hydrogen ions
60. Inability to produce an acid urine due to impaired production of ammonia
61. Inability to produce an acid urine due to increased production of ammonia
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 1
TOP: Acid–base balance

58. Tests to measure the tubular secretion of hydrogen ions include all of the
following except:
59. pH
60. Titratable acidity
61. Urinary bicarbonate
62. Urinary ammonia
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 17
59. Following administration of oral ammonium chloride, a patient with renal

tubular acidosis will produce:
60. Highly concentrated urine
61. Urine with a low pH
62. Urine with a high pH
63. Very dilute urine
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 17

60. Total acidity of a urine specimen is a combination of:
61. Titratable acidity and pH
62. Titratable acidity and ammonium ion
63. pH and total acidity
64. Total acidity and ammonium ion
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 17
61. Which of the following clearance substances does not require urine

collection?
62. Creatinine
63. Cystatin C
64. Inulin
65. 5-HIAA
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 11
TOP: Cystatin C
62. A 12-hour urine specimen with a volume of 360 mL is collected for a

creatinine clearance. What is the volume (V) used to calculate the clearance?
63. 0.5 mL/min
64. 1.0 mL/min
65. 1.5 mL/min
66. 2.0 mL/min
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
63. Using the following values, calculate the creatinine clearance: urine
volume—1200 mL/12h, urine creatinine—60 mg/dL, and serum creatinine—0.8
mg/dL
64. 60 mL/min
65. 75mL/min
66. 112 mL/min
67. 128 mL/min
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
64. Can a patient with the following results be given a nephrotoxic

medication: urine volume—720 mL/24 h, urine creatinine—100 mg/dL, and
serum creatinine—2.5 mg/dL?
65. No, clearance is 20 mL/min
66. No, clearance is 40 mL/min
67. Yes, clearance is 80 mL/min
68. Yes, clearance is 120 mL/min

ANS: A
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 15
65. Given the following information, calculate the osmolar clearance: urine
volume—720 mL in 24 hours, urine osmolality—700 mOsm, and plasma
osmolality—300 mOsm
66. 1.0 mL/min
67. 1.2 mL/min
68. 1.8 mL/min
69. 2.0 mL/min
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
TOP: Osmolality
66. Given the following information, calculate the patient’s free water
clearance: urine volume—360 mL in 12 hours, urine osmolality—1400 mOsm,
and plasma osmolality—275 mOsm
67. +0.5 mL/min
68. -1.5 mL/min
69. -1.0 mL/min
70. -2.0 mL/min

ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
TOP: Osmolality
67. Following a 2-hour infusion of p-aminohippuric acid (PAH), during which

200 mL of urine is collected, the urine PAH is 260 mg/dL, and the patient’s
plasma PAH is 0.8 mg/dL. Calculate the renal plasma volume.
68. 525 mL/min
69. 553 mL/min
70. 614 mL/min
71. 765 mL/min
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 16
TOP: PAH test
68. What is the physical property measured by a vapor-pressure osmometer?

69. Vapor temperature
70. Dew point temperature
71. Osmotic pressure
72. Oncotic pressure
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 14
TOP: Osmolality
NARRBEGIN: 03-nar-01
A patient showing symptoms of impaired renal function has a battery of tests

performed. Results are:
Serum creatinine: 2.0 mg/dL
Urine creatinine: 150 mg/dL
Serum osmolality: 270 mOsm
Urine osmolality: 100 mOsm
24-hour urine volume: 2000 mL
NARREND
69. Using the information provided, calculate the creatinine clearance.

70. 50 mL/min
71. 85 mL/min
72. 105 mL/min
73. 110 mL/min
ANS: C
NAR: 03-nar-01
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 10
TOP: Renal function case study

70. Using the information provided, calculate the osmolar clearance.

71. 0.5
72. 1.0
73. 2.0
74. 2.5
ANS: A
NAR: 03-nar-01
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15
71. Based on the information provided, calculate the free water clearance.
72. -0.5
73. -1.0
74. +0.6
75. +0.9
ANS: D
NAR: 03-nar-01
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 15

72. Based on the information provided, which renal function is abnormal in

this patient?
ANS: B
NAR: 03-nar-01
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 15
73. Based on the information provided, can this patient be safely given a
nephrotoxic antibiotic?
74. Yes
75. No
ANS: A
NAR: 03-nar-01
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 15

74. Based on the information provided, would increasing the patient’s intake
of fluids alleviate this problem?
75. Yes
76. No
ANS: B
NAR: 03-nar-01
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 15
A laboratory supervisor is authorized to purchase a new osmometer. The

supervisor must decide between a freezing-point and a vapor-pressure model.
NARREND
75. Based on the information provided, if this is a pediatric hospital, which

model is better?
76. Freezing-point
77. Vapor-pressure
ANS: B
NAR: 03-nar-02
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 14
TOP: Osmolality technical factors case study
76. Using the information provided, which model is more likely to be affected
by technical errors?
77. Freezing-point
78. Vapor-pressure
ANS: B
NAR: 03-nar-02
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 14
77. Using the information provided, which model is affected by lipemic serum
but not elevated ethanol levels?
78. Freezing-point
79. Vapor-pressure
ANS: A
NAR: 03-nar-02
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 14
78. Using the information provided, what substance is used as a reference

standard in both models?
79. KCl
80. Distilled water
81. NaCl
82. Deionized water
ANS: C
NAR: 03-nar-02
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 14
A physician is treating a patient exhibiting symptoms of impaired renal function

following a massive hemorrhage. The physician orders a serum sodium and a
PAH clearance test. The patient has a serum PAH of 1.0 mg/dL, urine PAH of 200
mg/dL, and a urine volume of 240 mL in 2 hours. The serum sodium is decreased.
NARREND

79. Using the information provided, based on the tests ordered, what renal
function is the physician’s primary concern?
ANS: D
NAR: 03-nar-03
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 16
80. Calculate the patient’s renal blood flow using the information provided.
81. 100 mL/min
82. 200 mL/min
83. 300 mL/min
84. 400 mL/min
ANS: D
NAR: 03-nar-03
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 16

81. Based on the information provided, would it be better for this patient to
have an increased or decreased serum renin level?
82. Increased
83. Decreased
ANS: A
NAR: 03-nar-03
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 16
True/False
82. The afferent and efferent arterioles have the ability to vary in size.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 1

83. Blood pressure within the glomerulus varies directly with systemic blood
pressure.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2
84. A decrease in plasma sodium produces an increase in blood volume.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2
85. The filtrate leaving the ascending loop of Henle is highly concentrated.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2

86. A substance that is not filtered by the glomerulus will not be found in the
urine.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 2
87. Hydrogen ions are filtered by the glomerulus and reabsorbed and secreted
by the renal tubules.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 2
88. An increase in the plasma level of beta2 microglobulin correlates with

decreased glomerular filtration.

ANS: True
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 3
89. To calculate a creatinine clearance using the MDSD formula, the patient
must collect at least a 2-hour urine specimen.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 9
90. The nephrons with the longest loops of Henle are the cortical nephrons.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2
TOP: Renal anatomy

Chapter 4: Physical Examination of Urine
Multiple Choice
1. The primary pigment responsible for normal urine color is:

2. Uroerythrin
3. Urochrome
4. Hemoglobin
5. Bilirubin
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 1
TOP: Normal urine color
2. A dark yellow urine producing yellow foam may contain:

3. Hemoglobin
4. Protein
5. Red blood cells
6. Bilirubin
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
TOP: Abnormal urine color

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Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th

Edition By Susan King Strasinger

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If face any problem or Further information contact us At tbzuiqe@gmail.com

1. Normal functions of the kidney include all of the following except:

TOP: Renal physiology

2. The approximate number of nephrons contained in each kidney is:

TOP: Renal physiology

3. The order of blood flow through the nephron is:

TOP: Renal physiology

4. The total renal blood flow is approximately:

TOP: Renal physiology

5. The total renal plasma flow is approximately:

TOP: Renal physiology

6. The glomerular filtrate is described as a:

TOP: Renal physiology

7. Increased production of aldosterone causes:

TOP: Renal physiology

TOP: Renal physiology

9. The specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is:

TOP: Renal physiology

TOP: Renal physiology

11. For active transport to occur a substance:

TOP: Reabsorption mechanisms

12. Water is passively reabsorbed in all parts of the nephron except the:

TOP: Reabsorption mechanisms

13. Most of the sodium filtered by the glomerulus is reabsorbed in the:

TOP: Reabsorption mechanisms

14. The enzyme renin is produced by the kidney:

15. Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the countercurrent mechanism is

TOP: Tubular concentration

16. The osmotic gradient of the medulla:

TOP: Tubular concentration

17. Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption in the:

TOP: Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

18. Decreased production of aldosterone:

TOP: Collecting duct concentration

19. Production of antidiuretic hormone is controlled by the:

TOP: Collecting duct concentration

TOP: Renal physiology

21. Kidneys with impaired production of ammonia will consistently produce

TOP: Acid-base balance

22. To enhance the excretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia is produced by the

TOP: Acid-base balance

TOP: Acid-base balance

TOP: Glomerular filtration tests

25. Results for glomerular filtration tests are reported in:

26. All of the following are endogenous clearance test substances except:

TOP: Glomerular filtration tests

27. Performing a clearance test using radionucleotides:

TOP: Clearance tests

28. If a substance is completely filtered by the glomerulus and then

TOP: Clearance tests

TOP: Glomerular filtration tests

TOP: Creatinine clearance

31. Performing an estimated glomerular filtration rate is helpful for

TOP: Glomerular filtration rate

TOP: Glomerular filtration tests

TOP: Tubular reabsorption tests

34. For accurate evaluation of renal tubular concentrating ability, patient

TOP: Tubular reabsorption tests

35. Measurement of urine osmolality is a more accurate measure of renal

36. In the measurement of osmolality, a solute that is dissolved in solvent will: