ML7111 EXTRA PRACTICE QUESTIONS ANSWERS FEBRUARY 2020

NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

1. A Laboratory Information System generates a unique accession (sample) number based on

the:
a. Test type
b. Patient’s diagnosis
c. Test orders
d. Specimen type

LIS generates separate accession numbers for each specimen type which goes to a
different sub-department/ bench. For example, specimen from the same patient
collected in EDTA and in a heparin tube will have two separate accession numbers.
For more inf0rmation on LIS: https://cloudlims.com/blog/what-is-a-lims.html

 COA is certificate of analysis. This may be required for some medico-legal

cases.

2. Which of the following is NOT associated with a risk of thrombosis?

a. Prothrombin mutation G20210A
b. Hemophilia A
c. Factor V Leiden
d. Protein C Deficiency

All of the above except hemophilia A can cause thrombotic disorders caused by
changes/deficiencies in regulators of coagulation which normally stop coagulation
when the injury is repaired. The deficiencies/mutations result in continuation of
coagulation causing clotting in vessels. Anticoagulant therapies such as warfarin or
heparin are required to prevent thrombosis in such patients. Hemophilia A is a sex-
linked inherited bleeding disorder due to deficiency of F VIII.

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3. A specimen collected in sodium citrate tube was sent for CBC. What should the technologist
do?
a. Run as requested
b. Reject the specimen
c. Ask the supervisor
d. Inform the consultant pathologist

An appropriate specimen for CBC is collected in Sodium or Potassium EDTA in a

powder form, approx. 1 mg/mL of blood. EDTA maintains blood cell morphology for
hematology analyzers for 24 hours at 40C. Sodium citrate (3.2%) is in a liquid form and
is used for coagulation assays in a ratio of anticoagulant to blood as 1:9. Therefore,
blood is diluted in sod. Citrate 9:10. CBC counts in sod. Citrate are inaccurate and need
multiplication of all directly measured parameters by 10/9 (1.1).

Some patients, however, have a tendency to show platelet satellitism by attaching

themselves around neutrophils, thus reducing the platelet count erroneously.

Any specimen that shows reduced platelet count below the action limits for their lab,
e.g. 70 X109/L, must be followed by confirmation of the low platelet count by checking
the specimen for clots; or by checking the PBS for platelet estimates, presence of
platelet clumps, or platelet satellitism. If satellitism is observed, a specimen in sodium
citrate must be requested, and the direct numeric counts (which ones?) must be
multiplied by 1.1. This also needs recalculation of RBC indices and WBC absolute
counts.

4. Which of the following laboratory finding is most likely to be observed in a patient with
increased serum calcium levels and the presence of M-spike in serum electrophoresis?
a. Platelet Count of 590 X 109/L
b. ESR of 62 mm at the end of one hour
c. MCV of 115 fL
d. MCHC of 280 g/L

Presence of excess immunoglobulins in the plasma results in increased ESR. In multiple

myeloma of the IgG and IgA subtypes, significant correlations is found between the ESR and
the monoclonal proteins or between the ESR and the percentage of plasma cells in bone
marrow. The ESR is increased linearly with the concentrations of fibrinogen or gammaglobulin
(IgG) when these exceeded normal thresholds.

5. A strictly aerobic gram positive bacillus is non-motile, and catalase positive. It is non-
hemolytic on blood agar. Which of the following is the most likely organism?
a. Actinomyces israelii
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Bacillus cereus

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

With this information, the description is applicable only to Bacillus anthracis. Actinomyces is
anaerobic/aerotolerant, Corynebacterium is aerobic but facultatively anaerobic, and B cereus is
motile.

6. What do I do first if my colleague spilled concentrated HCl on the hands?

a. Check MSDS
b. Neutralize with concentrated NaOH
c. Call the Supervisor
d. Wash under running water

Safety guidelines for corrosive chemicals - If you spill an acid or base on your skin,
immediately wash well with water. Strong bases react with the oils in your skin to produce a
soapy feeling layer. Rinse until well after that feeling is gone. Do not attempt to neutralize
a spill on your skin.

7. A patient specimen showed critical results of TSH & T4 beyond the limits of measurement.
What would be the appropriate next step?
a. Report immediately as critical results
b. Inform the supervisor immediately
c. Run the quality control again to confirm
d. Dilute the specimen and rerun

This applies to any test results beyond the linearity range of an analyzer.

8. A neonate is suspected of suffering from the hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of
the following test will be useful in confirming the diagnosis by an in vitro sensitization
technique?
a. Indirect antihuman globulin test
b. Direct antihuman globulin test
c. Administration of RhIg
d. Immune hemolytic transfusion reaction
Direct antihuman globulin test is used to detect ‘in vivo’ sensitization. RhIg is
administered after the diagnosis of HDN.

9. The cell washer does not dispense the exact amount of saline, what is the best follow up
action?
a. Measure the incorrect volume and add or remove manually
b. Wash more times than normal
c. Continue working because cells are being washed
d. Put out of service and perform manual washing

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

The washer must be calibrated to confirm the amount of saline dispensed before it can be
used again for washing red cells. If the amount of saline is insufficient, cell washing will
not be appropriate and can affect the following test results due to remnant interfering
substances.
Cell Washing Technique:
Step 1: Centrifuge the whole blood at 3000rpm (1800rcf) for 5 minutes Step 2: Remove plasma and
buffy coat layer. Step 3: Resuspend the red cells in normal saline (0.9% NaCl) with approximately 2
times the volume of the red cells, and invert the tube to mix. Step 4: Centrifuge for 5 minutes at
2000 rpm and discard the supernatant. Step 5: Repeat Steps 3 & 4 twice for a total of 3 washes or
until the supernatant is clear

10. A two-day-old baby has developed severe jaundice. The mother is A Rh (D) Negative. Which
manual test will be appropriate to confirm the most likely diagnosis?
a. Perform Kleihauer-Betke test
b. Measure indirect bilirubin in serum
c. Measure hemoglobin level
d. Perform indirect antiglobulin test on baby’s blood

Kleihauer-Betke test will detect the infiltration of fetal cells in mother’s blood by detecting
the presence of cells containing HbF. Indirect (not Direct) bilirubin will be increased in any
hemolytic disease, and is not specific for HDN. IAT should be performed on mother’s; not
baby’s blood.

11. Following results were obtained in a patient with polycythemia vera: Hemoglobin 190 g/L,
WBC 3.2 X109/L, ESR 1 mm, RBC count 6.2 X1012/L.
Which results needs further investigation?
a. RBC Count
b. WBC Count
c. Hemoglobin measurement
d. ESR result
Cell counts of all types of blood cells are increased in PV. ESR is not diagnostic, and is
usually low at high Hb. Hemoglobin and RBC are higher than normal, and correlate with
PV.

12. The following results were obtained on a routine urinalysis using Multitest strips:

pH: 7.6 Specific Gravity: >1.040 Blood: Absent

Protein: 30 mg/dL Glucose: Negative Ketone: Negative

Bilirubin: Positive Urobilinogen 1.0 mg/dL Nitrite: Negative

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

Leucocyte Esterase: Positive

How will these results be interpreted?

a. Ascorbic acid is causing a false-negative glucose reaction

b. The alkaline pH is causing a false-positive protein result
c. The amount of urobilinogen present indicates hepatocellular disease
d. Radiographic contrast media causing high specific gravity

urinary excretion of radiographic contrast media significantly increases urine specific

gravity values. No other result correlates with increase in specific gravity. There is
likely some interference. Of the options, radiographic contrast media do give falsely
increased specific gravity. The other options give the opposite results than those
indicated. pH of 7.6 is not alkaline enough to give a false positive protein result.

The normal urobilinogen range is less than 17 umol/L (<1mg/dl). However,

it’s still considered normal to have values in the range of 0 – 8 mg/dl. Having
a urobilinogen level above or below this range is considered abnormal in a
clinical setting.
Elevated urobilinogen levels may indicate excess RBC (red blood cell)
breakdown, liver overburdening, hematoma, poisoning, or even liver
cirrhosis.
Decreased urobilinogen levels may indicate a blockage in the bile duct
system or bile production failure.
See the following link for other causes of false positives and negatives in urine.
http://www.conovers.org/ftp/NOTEBOOK/UA-FALSE.TXT

13. Scenario: At 10:00 AM, you start working at the Specimen Receiving and Processing area of
the laboratory. Which of the following specimens that have been received in the lab require
immediate intervention before proceeding with the specimen processing?

Test Requested Collection Tube Time Collected

a. Bilirubin Red top, wrapped in 9:30 am

foil

b. Glucose Sodium fluoride 8:50 am

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

c. Ionized Calcium Heparin, on ice 7:45 am

d. Total Protein EDTA 9:50 am

Lithium heparin specimens are centrifuged at 3000 rpm for 5 min and analyzed within 20–30 min
after collection. Gel tubes specimens are analyzed for iCa within 1 h of collection after clot formation
and centrifugation at 3000 rpm for 5 min.
Calcium is the fifth most common element and the most prevalent cation found in the body. Calcium
exists in three physiochemical states in plasma, free/ionized, bound and complexed with small
anions. Ionized calcium is a more useful measure than total calcium and provides the best indication
of calcium status because it is biologically active and is tightly regulated by hormones. Calcium is
used for the assessment and treatment of parathyroid disease, a variety of bone diseases and
chronic renal disease.

14. A laboratory manager is considering purchase of a spectrometer. The characteristics of the

two spectrophotometers under consideration are as follows:
Instrument A: Bandpass 20 nm Instrument B: Bandpass 10 nm
How can this information be interpreted?
a. Instrument A has greater sensitivity and specificity
b. Instrument B has greater sensitivity and specificity
c. Instrument A has greater sensitivity but less specificity than B
d. Instrument B has greater sensitivity but less specificity than A

Resolution or specificity can be increased by reducing the slit width, but a narrower
slit reduces the amount of light passing through the monochromator to the detector,
and therefore reduces the sensitivity.

Bandpass – the distance between two points where the wavelength is ½ the intensity as the
peak: (Range of wavelengths)

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

Advantages of Narrow Bandpass Spectrophotometers

1. Greater potential accuracy. 2. Greater potential sensitivity. 3. Can use high intensity light
source.

Disadvantages of Narrow Bandpass Unit

1. Must be accurately calibrated. 2. More expensive equipment. 3. Complex optical

system.

Concerns/Problems with Spectrophotometry

Certainty of Wavelength: Verification of wavelength calibration should be done periodically,

especially if a parameter in the instrument has been changed, such as the lamp being changed
or the instrument has been bumped or traumatized.

Wavelength calibration verifies that the wavelength indicated on the dial is what is being
passed through the monochromator.

Solution:

Calibrate with appropriate filter (ex., didymium, holmium oxide)

2. Too Broad/Narrow Bandpass The problem is inherent in spectrophotometer as determined

by monochromater. The solution is to change the monochromater OR use a different
spectrophotometer.

3. Linearity:

Solution: Determine range of linearity using standard curve.

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4. Stray Light - (light energy measured outside the spectral region defined by monochromater)
causing non-linearity and insensitivity.

Solution: Use sharp cut off filters. If dirty, clean optical system. Replace monochromator grating
if defective.

5. Old/New Bulbs Solution: Wavelength calibration. Replace old bulb.

6. Low Concentration of Analyte Increases Instrument Error Solution: Alter/adapt new

procedure

15. Which the most appropriate test to monitor vitamin K antagonist?

a. Activated partial thromboplastin time
b. Thrombin time
c. International normalization ratio
d. Mixing studies

Warfarin (Coumadin) is the vitamin K antagonist that acts by inactivation of vitamin K

in turn preventing carboxylation of factors II VII IX & X, extending the coagulation
time. INR is standardized Prothrombin time with the comparison of the
thromboplastin reagent of any manufacturer with that standardized by WHO. By the
ISI (International Standardization Index). Learn the formula for calculating INR.

16. A specimen of stool is inoculated on Skirrow’s medium with antibiotics. Which of the
following is the optimum incubation condition for the isolation of the pathogen?
a. 5% O2 , 10% CO2, 85% N2 at 420C
b. 5% O2 , 10% CO2, 85% N2 at 350C
c. 15% O2 , 10% CO2, 75% N2 at 420C
d. 10% CO2, 90% N2 at 420C

Skirrow’s medium is used for cultivation of Campylobacter species which are

microaerophilic, requiring only 5-6% O2 in the environment. Optimum temperature for
growth is 420C.

17. A ‘dumb’ computer terminal is used for which purpose?

a. To run programs to perform specific tasks at the work station
b. To accept data entry only if the main computer is operating
c. To download programs from the main computer
d. To store data if the main computer is not operational

Dumb terminals have no 'intelligence' (data processing or number crunching power) and
depend entirely on the computer (to which they are connected) for computations, data
storage, and retrieval. Dumb terminals are used by airlines, banks, and other such firms
for inputting data to, and recalling it from, the connected computer.

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Read more: http://www.businessdictionary.com/definition/dumb-terminal.html

18. What is true about commercial paraffin?

a. It has synthetic resin added
b. It makes the paraffin hydrophilic
c. It makes the paraffin noninflammable
d. It changes paraffin to an amorphous solid

Modern Paraffin Media

Pure paraffin wax is found as a white, odorless, tasteless, waxy amorphous solid. It's typical
melting point, without additives, is between 46° to 68° C. Manufacturers have improved
histology paraffin by improving and refining the purification methods of the basic paraffin
wax base. Currently, most commercial histology paraffin is a mixture of the following
components:

1. Paraffin wax
2. Hydrocarbon polymers or resins (increases hardness and support)
3. Microcrystalline waxes and/or bees wax (reduces crystal size, regulates melting
point, and increases adhesion for ribboning)
4. Additive of dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO), a hyrgroscopic compound, which improves
infiltration of wax into the tissue. Hydrophilic – absorbs water; hygroscopic - absorbs
moisture from air)

There are many different and specialized paraffin formulations available in the current
market. There is no one best paraffin for every laboratory or laboratory situation. However,
the performance of any paraffin formula is affected by the following variables:

1. Melting point: Depends on the molecular weight and proportions of additives

2. Degree of polymerization: Related to the amount of stabilization additive
3. Working temperature: Maintained during infiltration and embedding

19. The sections stained with Congo red show collagen, elastic fibers, and keratin stained red.
What could have caused this nonspecific staining?
a. Acidic pH
b. Alkaline pH
c. Alcoholic solution of Congo Red
d. High salt content

The use of alcoholic solutions, high salt content, and high pH, as in the Puchtler Congo red method,
greatly increase staining specificity for amyloid. A saturated salt solution in alcohol at alkaline pH is
used in both the dye solution and as a pretreatment of the tissue sections just before staining. High
salt content and alkaline pH are believed to depress dye ionization and electrostatic binding to non-
amyloid structures. Saturation of the salt and dye solutions is very important, and the instructions

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

must be followed exactly.

With the Congo red stain, false-positive or false-negative results are usually related to (1) the
staining technique, (2) the microscope equipment, or (3) the presence of small amounts of
amyloid. Congo red in aqueous solution will bind nonspecifically to many tissue structures,
including collagen and elastin. Excessive differentiation may lead to decolorization of the amyloid,
while collagen remains stained.

The Congo red stain can be applied to tissues fixed in a variety of fixative solutions, including
Bouin, Helly, Zenker, ethanol, and formalin; this technique is also effective for frozen sections and
cytology smears. This versatility makes the Congo red stain suitable for the examination of tissues
in many settings, including the examination of archival tissues in paraffin blocks. Tissues that have
been stored for prolonged periods in formalin will have diminished staining; therefore, fixation for
inordinately long periods should be avoided.

20. A medical laboratory technologist needs to prepare 70% ethyl alcohol (ETOH) solution to be
used in a hepatitis C molecular assay. The stock ETOH is at 100%. 50 mL of 70 % ETOH is
needed. How would the MLT prepare this solution?

a. 15 mL 100% ETOH diluted to 50 mL

b. 30 mL 100% ETOH diluted to 50 mL
c. 35 mL 100% ETOH diluted to 50 mL
d. 40 mL 100% ETOH diluted to 50 mL
An example of simple lab math. 50 mL of 70% alcohol should contain 35 mL of
100% alcohol, to be diluted to 50 mL.

C1 V1 = C2 V2 100 X (X) = 50 X 70 X = 50 X 70 ÷ 100 = 35 mL.

This means that 35 mL will contain sufficient 100% alcohol and this should be
diluted with water to 50 mL.

21. A section of liver stained by Periodic acid Schiff staining shows a background pink color.
What could have caused it?
a. Over oxidation of Schiff’s reagent
b. Formation of pararosaniline due to inadequate washing after Schiff reagent
c. Formation of pararosaniline due to prolonged washing after Schiff reagent
d. Schiff reagent was too old because it showed purple color after addition of formalin

When tissue sections are treated with periodic acid, glycols are oxidized to aldehydes. After reaction
with Schiff’s reagent (the main components are pararosaniline and sodium metabisulfite), a
pararosaniline adduct is released that stains the glycol containing elements in the tissue section pink to
red. A number of cellular elements may be demonstrated with the PAS reaction, e.g. glycogen,
basement membranes sulfo- and sialomucins, neutral mucosubstances.

Mild oxidizer such as periodic acid is used to avoid over oxidation producing carboxyl groups
that cannot form chromophores with Schiff reagent. Purple color after the addition of

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

formalin indicates that Schiff reagent is in a good working condition. Over oxidation will
eventually lead to a pale or false negative reaction. 

22. While performing a quality control for antimicrobial susceptibility test, the technologist
found that the zones for tetracycline are too small, and zones for clindamycin are too large
for the QC strains of E. Coli and Staph aureus. What should technologist do next?
a. Increase the concentration of Ca++ and Mg++ contents of the medium
b. Increase the concentration of organisms in the inoculum
c. Increase the pH of the medium
d. Decrease the pH of the medium

The agar medium should have a pH between 7.2 and 7.4 at room temperature after gelling. If
the pH is too low, certain drugs will appear to lose potency (e.g., aminoglycosides, quinolones,
and macrolides), while other agents may appear to have excessive activity (e.g., tetracycline). If
the pH is too high, the opposite effects can be expected (smaller zones with tetracycline, larger
with macrolides such as erythromycin, and lincosamides such as clindamycin.

Ca++ & Mg++ ion content affects the zone size of Ps. aeruginosa for aminoglycosides such as
gentamicin – high content gives smaller zones. Increased number of organisms will reduce zones
of all antibiotics.

Susceptibility Troubleshooting Table:

https://catalog.hardydiagnostics.com/cp_prod/Content/hugo/TroubleShootForDiskDiff.htm

23. A specimen of urine from a suprapubic aspiration was inoculated on CLED agar using 0.01
mL loop. It grew 6 lactose fermenting colonies after 24 hours incubation. What should the
technologist report?
a. 6 X 106 CFUs/L
b. 6 X 105 CFUs/L
c. Report as contaminants
d. Report as insignificant bacteriuria
Using 0.01 mL (10 µL) loop, one colony (CFU) is equal to 105 CFU/L. If using a 0.001 mL
(1 µL) loop, one colony is equal to 106 CFU/L. Suprapubic aspiration urine is a sterile
specimen, and any growth is significant unlike the mid-stream urine where <10 X10 6/L is
of doubtful significance.

24. Which of the following statements best describes the principle of dark-field microscopy?
a. Transparent objects are rendered visible by changing the amplitudes of light waves
so that they can pass through the specimen
b. Selective absorption of light produces a visible image of the object because
specimen detail appears as differences in intensity

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

c. A visible image of the object is produced by the use of diffraction grating which
creates an image with greater resolution
d. Light passes through the objects in the specimen at an angle, and enters the
objective after diffraction by the objects.

Darkfield microscopy: only the

light refracted by the object
passes through the objective
making objects visible behind a
dark background as no direct
light enters the objective.

Darkfield STOP

25. A patient is admitted to Emergency department with severe bleeding, and urgently needs a
blood transfusion. Which of the following procedures must be performed before a unit of
blood is released?
a. The physician responsible for patient care must sign a statement documenting the
urgent need for the transfusion for this patient
b. The laboratory personnel must have a properly labeled sample of blood from the
patient
c. The patient’s history of transfusion must be checked and documented
d. The laboratory must seek permission from Canadian Blood Services to release
un-crossmatched O negative units for the patient.

This statement is required to authorize the blood bank to issue un-crossmatched blood to the
patient.

26. After performance of DNA electrophoresis, the isolated bands appear too close together. Which of
the following can be done with the next run to improve the appearance/separation of the bands in
the samples?

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NAME ____________________________ Submission Date ___________

a. Increase the percent agarose concentration of the matrix

b. Increase the running time of the electrophoresis assay
c. Increase the sample volume applied to the gel
d. Decrease the sample volume applied to the gel

The rate of electrophoretic separation when using polyacrylamide or agarose gels is affected by time,
current, and the percent matrix used. Sample volume will not affect rate of separation but only makes
the resulting bands more visible when stained. Achieving increased separation can be accomplished by
increasing the time or current used. It can also be achieved by decreasing the percent matrix, because
the "pores" present in a 1% agarose gel will be larger than those in a 5% gel. This larger size pore will
allow easier molecular passage of DNA molecules during electrophoresis. Conversely, achieving a tighter
band pattern (i.e., higher resolution of smaller DNA molecules) can be accomplished by decreasing time
or current, or increasing percent matrix used.

27. The procedure for mass spectrometry starts with which of the following processes?
a. The sample is bombarded by an electron beam
b. The ions are separated by passing them into electric and magnetic field
c. The sample is converted into gaseous state
d. The ions are detected by a detector

The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts with converting the sample into gaseous state. This is done
by chemical processes.

For more information, follow the link: http://www.premierbiosoft.com/tech_notes/mass-

spectrometry.html

28. A patient’s serum cortisol results were as follows:

8 AM: 585 nmol/L 4 PM: 590 nmol/L Midnight: 310 nmol/L

Which of the following is the most likely clinical condition?

a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Addison disease
d. Adrenal hypofunction

Ref Range: Serum cortisol:  09.00 h, 171‐536 nmol/L, 00.00h <50 nmol/L

The patient has hypercortisolism and no diurnal variation (during a 24-hour cycle). Cushing syndrome is
the signs and symptoms associated with elevated cortisol levels. It can be due to the tumors of pituitary
gland (Cushing disease) or tumors of adrenal glands.

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High concentrations are typical of Cushing’s syndrome (corticosteroid    excess) but can also occur in 
severe depression and alcoholism.  Cortisol can be measured during stimulation of the adrenals and/or p
ituitary in the investigation of adrenal hypofunction. A >550nmol/L cortisol makes primary adrenal
hypofunction very unlikely.
A midnight serum [cortisol] 200 nmol/L has high diagnostic specificity for, adrenal hyperfunction.  
Cortisol secretion exhibits a circadian rhythm with highest concentrations occurring in the morning and
the lowest at around midnight. 

Addison disease is caused by adrenal hypofunction characterized by decreased cortisol and increased
ACTH. Cortisol production is not related to thyroid glands.

29. A patient complains of chills, fever, headache, fatigue and joint pain of several week duration. The
clinical history revealed a red rash resembling a bull’s eye on his right forearm after a deer hunting
session. Based on this information, which of the following will be an appropriate follow up test?
a. Darkfield microscopy for Borrelia recurrentis
b. Enzyme immunoassay for Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Rapid Plasma Reagin test for Treponema pallidum
d. Fluorescent antibody test for Treponema pallidum

The clinical information indicates that the most likely clinical condition is Lyme disease caused by
Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete infection transmitted by deer ticks. The infection is transmitted to
multiple organs through the blood stream. The organisms may not be present in the lesion and cannot
be cultivated on artificial culture media. He best way to diagnose is by serological methods. If IgG or IgM
antibodies by enzyme immunoassay, and confirmation by western blot assay. The symptoms do not
indicate a sexually transmitted disease such as syphilis.

30. What is the cell lineage if CD13, CD33, CD34 are found on cells of a patient with acute leukemia?
a. Lymphocytic
b. Myelocytic
c. Monocytic
d. Erythrocytic

Myeloid CD markers: CD34 is an immature cell marker on myeloblasts. CD13 & CD33 are present on all
myeloid progeny.

B Cell CD Markers: CD10, CD19, CD 21, CD22, CD24

T Cell CD Markers: CD1, CD2, CD 3, CD5, CD7, CD8

CD molecules are utilized in cell sorting using various methods, including flow cytometry.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cluster_of_differentiation

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Two commonly used CD molecules are CD4 and CD8, which are, in general, used as markers for
helper and cytotoxic T cells, respectively. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds CD4 and a
chemokine receptor on the surface of a T helper cell to gain entry. The number of CD4 and CD8 T
cells in blood is often used to monitor the progression of HIV infection.

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