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OpenCommons@UConn
Chemistry Education Materials Department of Chemistry
October 2007
Recommended Citation
David, Carl W., "Introductory Mathematics for Quantum Chemistry" (2007). Chemistry Education Materials. 50.
https://opencommons.uconn.edu/chem_educ/50
Introductory Mathematics for Quantum Chemistry
C. W. David
Department of Chemistry
University of Connecticut
Storrs, Connecticut 06269-3060
(Dated: October 9, 2007)
ψn=3,`=1,m` =−1 (ρ, ϑ, φ) = |3, 1, −1 >= N3,1,1 ρ(4 − ρ)e−ρ sin ϑe−ıφ (2.2)
which is a 3p electron’s state (ρ) is a dimensionless radius. (i.e., the normalization equation, required so that the
A harmonic oscillator might have an appropriate ket probability of finding the electron somewhere is 1, cer-
of the form tain(!)), which itself is shorthand for the complicated
2 2 three-dimensional integral, usually display is spherical
ψ3 (x) = |3 >= N3 8β 3 x3 − 12βx e−β x /2
(2.3) polar coördinates.
i.e., the ket notation allows us to indicate inside the One sees that constructing the ‘bra’‘ket’ [2] consists of
funny delimiters the essential characteristics of the in- two separate concepts, making the ‘bra’ from the ‘ket’
volved wavefunction without extraneous elements which by using the complex conjugate, juxtaposing the two in
might distract attention from the overall viewpoint being the proper order, and integrating over the appropriate
propounded! domain. The analogy of this process is the dot product
of elementary vector calculus, and it is here where we get
our mental images of the processes described.
B. The Dot Product In three space, x, y, and z, we have unit vectors î, ĵ, k̂,
so that an arbitrary vector as:
Returning to the hydrogen atom, the following ‘vector’
R~1 = X î + Y ĵ + Z k̂
< 3, 1, −1| = N3,1,1 ρ(4 − ρ)e−ρ sin ϑe+ıφ (2.4) could be re-written as
which is the complex conjugate of the original wave func- |R1 >= X|i > +Y |j > +Z|k >
tion [1] , is known as a ‘bra’ vector, and the notation In this space, one doesn’t integrate over all space, one
< 3, 1, −1|3, 1, −1 >= 1 (2.5) adds up over all components, thus
Typeset by REVTEX
2
h̄2 ∂ 2 ψ
− + 0ψ = Eψ (3.1)
2m ∂x2 ERR(x)
in the box (domain) 0 ≤ x ≤ L. The solutions are known
to be
r
2 nπx
ψn (x) = sin = |n > (3.2) domain
L L
0 L x
where n is an integer greater than zero, and L remains
the size of the box.
Now, a Fourier Series is an expansion of a function ERR(x)
(periodic) over the same (repeated) domain as above, in
the form
r
X X 2 iπx
|f unction >= ci |i >= ci sin (3.3)
i i
L L
ERR 2(x)
(where we changed index for no particular reason from
n to i, other than to remind you that the index is a
dummy variable). The question is, what is the optimal,
best, nicest, etc., etc., etc., value for each of the ci in this
expansion? FIG. 1: Error involved in approximating a function.
ERRORm is now a postive definite number which mea- series at m. We re-write this explicitly to show that sum-
sures the error committed in truncating the approximate mation:
m r !2
Z L Z L
X 2 iπx
|f unction > − ci sin dx = ERR(x)dx ≡ ERRORm (3.8)
0 i=0
L L 0
and form the partial holding all other ci constant, where i = 0...j...m, which
is
∂ERRORm
(3.9)
∂cj
(Z m r !r )
L
∂ERRORm X 2 iπx 2 jπ
= −2 |f unction > − ci sin sin dx (3.10)
∂j 0 i=0
L L L L
which we set equal to zero. This means that we are searching for that value of cj which makes the ERROR an
extremum (of course, we want a minimum). This leads to the equation
Z L Z L( X m r ! )
jπx 2 iπx jπx
|f unction > sin dx = ci sin sin dx (3.11)
0 L 0 i=0
L L L
and, since one can exchange summation and integration, one has
m Z r !
Z L L
jπx X 2 iπx jπx
|f unction > sin dx = ci sin sin dx (3.12)
0 L i=0 0 L L L
But the right hand side of this equation simplifies because the sines are orthogonal to each other over this domain,
so the r.h.s. becomes
Z L Z L r !
jπx 2 jπx jπx
|f unction > sin dx = cj sin sin dx (3.13)
0 L 0 L L L
< f unction|j > and i=7 were omitted from the summations (Equation
cj = (3.15) 3.3), i.e., the summation ran past this particular har-
< j|j > monic. It would look like:
which is fairly cute in its compactness. Of course, if |j > 6πx 8πx
is normalized (as it is in our example) then · · · + c6 sin + c8 sin + ···
L L
cj =< f unction|j > (3.16) Clearly, since each sine is orthogonal to every other
sine, the seventh sine sin 7πxL would have no expansion
which is even more compact! in this series, i.e., each ci would be zero! We can not
4
leave out any term in the series, i.e., it must be complete, One has, defining the up-ladder operator M +
before one can assert that one can expand any function
in terms of these sines (and cosines, if need be). Said
another way, nπx
(n + 1)πx πx nπx πx
M + sin → sin = cos sin +sin c
7πx 1πx 2πx L L L L L
sin 6= c0 + c1 sin + c2 sin + ···
L L L
since the one term on the r.h.s which is needed, was, by which looks like
assumption, absent!
πx
+ L πx ∂|n >
M |n >→ cos |n > + sin = |n+1 >
IV. LADDER OPERATORS L nπ L ∂x
πx
L πx ∂|n >
M − |n >→ cos |n > − sin → |n − 1 >
L nπ L ∂x
πx
− L πx ∂
D. Ladder Operators in the Operator
M = cos − sin
L nπ L ∂x Representation
E. Ladder Operators and the Hamiltonian where we want to exchange the order on the l.h.s. so
that we can ascertain what the eigenvalue of the oper-
We need to show that this ladder operator works prop- ator M + |n > i,, i.e., we need the commutator of the
erly with the Hamiltonian, i.e., Hamiltonian with the ladder operator,
p2x
≡ Hop (4.7) [Hop , M + ] ≡ Hop M + − M + Hop
2m
and to do this we assume
Remembering that
Hop |n >= |n >
and ask what happens when we operate from the left with [px , x] = −ıh̄
M + (for example). We obtain
p2x
2
+ πx L πx ∂ πx L πx ∂ px
[Hop , M ] = cos + sin − cos + sin (4.9)
2m L nπ L ∂x L nπ L ∂x 2m
π πx πx πh πx i πx
= ıh̄ sin + cos px px + ıh̄ px sin − cos p2x
L L L L L L
i.e.,
π πx πx π h πx π πx i πx
= ıh̄ sin px + cos p2x + ıh̄ sin px − ıh̄ cos − cos p2x
L L L L L L L L
π πx π h πx π πx i
= ıh̄ sin px + ıh̄ sin px − ıh̄ cos
L L L L L L
6
πx π πx π 2 πx
[p2x , cos ] = 2ıh̄ sin px + h̄2 cos
L L L L L
πx π πx π 2 πx πx
p2x cos = 2ıh̄ sin px + h̄2 cos + cos p2x
L L L L L L
πx π πx πx
= px sin px − ıh̄ cos − sin p2x
L L L L
πx π πx πh πx i πx
= sin px − ıh̄ cos px − ıh̄ px cos − sin p2x
L L L L L L
π πx h π πx i
= −ıh̄ cos px − ıh̄ px cos
L L L L
i.e.,
π πx h π πx π πx i
= −ıh̄ cos px − ıh̄ cos px + ıh̄ sin
L L L L L L
πx π πx π 2 πx
[p2x , sin ] = −2ıh̄ cos px + h̄2 sin
L L L L L
πx π πx π 2 πx πx
p2x sin = −2ıh̄ cos px + h̄2 sin + sin p2x
L L L L L L
We had, in Equation 4.8 the following, which we now wish to reverse. We need the commutator
of the Hamiltonian with the UpLadder Operator [3].
M + Hop |n >= M + |n >
p2
πx
L n πx o px
[Hop , M ] = x
+
cos − sin − M + Ho p
2m L nπ L ıh̄
which becomes
p2x πx p2 L n πx o px
[Hop , M + ] = cos − x sin − M + Ho p (4.17)
2m L 2m nπ L ıh̄
π 2 πx
1 π πx πx
[Hop , M + ] = 2ıh̄ sin px + h̄2 cos + cos p2x
2m L L L L L
π 2 πx p
1 L π πx πx
x
− −2ıh̄ cos px − h̄2 sin + sin p2x − M + Ho p (4.18)
2m nπ L L L L L ıh̄
2 πx
+ 1 π πx
2 π
[Hop , M ] = 2ıh̄ sin px + h̄ cos
2m L L L L
1 1 πx h̄ π
πx
+ −2 cos px − sin px (4.20)
2m n L ı L L
π πx π 2 πx 2 πx 1 h̄ π πx
2m[Hop , M + ] = 2ıh̄ sin px + h̄2 cos − cos p2x − sin px (4.21)
L L L L n L nı L L
π 2
1 h̄ π πx πx 2 πx
2m[Hop , M ] = +
2ıh̄ + sin px + h̄2 cos + cos p2x (4.22)
nı L L L L n L
π 2
1 h̄ π n πx px o πx 2 πx
+
2m[Hop , M ] = ıh̄ 2ıh̄ + sin + h̄2 cos + cos p2x (4.23)
nı L L ıh̄ L L n L
px
and substituting for sin πx
L ıh̄ one has
π 2 n πx o π 2 πx 2 πx
2m[Hop , M + ] = h̄2 (1 + 2n) M + − cos + h̄2 cos + cos p2x (4.24)
L L L L n L
(1 + 2n) π 2 n + πx o 1 π 2 πx 2 πx p2
[Hop , M + ] = h̄2 M − cos + h̄2 cos + cos x
(4.25)
2m L L 2m L L n L 2m
(1 + 2n) π 2 + (1 + 2n) π 2 n πx o 1 π 2 πx 2 πx p2
[Hop , M + ] = h̄2 M − h̄2 cos + h̄2 cos + cos x
2m L 2m L L 2m L L n L 2m
(4.26)
(1 + 2n) π 2 + h̄2 π 2 πx 2 πx
[Hop , M + ] = h̄2 M + (2n) cos + cos Hop (4.27)
2m L 2m L L n L
1. Alternative Formulation
∂2
πx
L πx ∂
cos + sin f=
∂x2 L nπ L ∂x
8
∂
πx ∂ π πx L πx ∂ 2 1 πx ∂
cos − sin + sin + cos f=
∂x L ∂x L L nπ L ∂x2 n L ∂x
π πx ∂f πx ∂ 2 f
− sin + cos
L L ∂x L ∂x2
π 2 πx π πx ∂f
− cos f − sin
L L L L ∂x
1 πx ∂ 2 f L πx ∂ 3 f
+ cos + sin
n L ∂x2 nπ L ∂x3
π πx ∂f
1 πx ∂ 2 f
− sin + cos (4.28)
nL L ∂x n L ∂x2
So the commutator would be:
∂2 πx ∂ ∂ 2 f
πx πx ∂
L πx L
cos + sin f − cos + sin =
∂x2 L nπ L ∂x L nπ L ∂x ∂x2
2π πx ∂f
− sin
L L ∂x
π 2 πx
− cos f
L L
2
2 πx ∂ f
+ cos
n L ∂x2
π πx ∂f
− sin (4.29)
nL L ∂x
or
2π π
πx ∂ π 2 πx 2 πx ∂ 2
= − − sin − cos + cos (4.30)
L nL L ∂x L L n L ∂x2
2π π
nπ + πx π 2 πx 2 πx ∂ 2
= − − M − cos − cos + cos (4.31)
L nL L L L L n L ∂x2
2m π 2 πx π 2 πx 2 πx ∂ 2
+ +
− [H, M ] = − (2n − 1) M − cos − cos + cos (4.32)
h̄2 L L L L n L ∂x2
2m π 2 π 2 πx 2 πx ∂ 2
+
− 2 [H, M ] = − L (2n + 1) M + + (2n) cos + cos (4.33)
h̄ L L n L ∂x2
h̄2 πx ∂ 2
π 2 π 2 πx 2
[H, M + ] = − − (2n + 1) M + + (2n) cos + cos (4.34)
2m L L L n L ∂x2
h̄2 πx h̄2 ∂ 2
πx 2
+ π 2 +
π 2
[H, M ] = − − (2n + 1) M + 2n cos − cos (4.35)
2m L L L n L 2m ∂x2
h̄2 πx h̄2 ∂ 2
πx
π 2 +
π 2 2
H|n + 1 > + − (2n + 1) M + 2n cos |n > + cos |n >= n |n + 1 >
2m L L L n L 2m ∂x2
h̄2
πx
π 2 π 2 2 πx
H|n + 1 > + − (2n + 1) M + + 2n cos |n > − cos n |n >= n |n + 1 >
2m L L L n L
h̄2
πx
π 2 + π 2 4m
H|n + 1 > + − (2n + 1)M + 2n − n cos |n >= n |n + 1 >
2m L L nh̄2 L
h̄2
π 2 π 2 4m πx
H|n + 1 > + − (2n + 1)M + |n > + 2n − 2 n cos |n >= n |n + 1 >
2m L L nh̄ L
h̄2
π 2 π 2 4m πx
H|n + 1 > + − (2n + 1) |n + 1 > + 2n − n cos |n >= n |n + 1 >
2m L L nh̄2 L
h̄2 π 2
π 2 4m πx
H|n + 1 > + 2n − n cos |n >= n |n + 1 > + (2n + 1) |n + 1 >
L nh̄2 L 2m L
n2 h̄2 π 2 ∂2 kµ 2µ
n = ψ − 2 z 2 ψ = − 2 Eψ (5.2)
2mL2 ∂z 2 h̄ h̄
which would be simplified if the constants could be sup-
then pressed. To do this we change variable, from z to some-
thing else, say x, where z = αx. Then
h̄2
π 2
H|n + 1 >= n + (2n + 1) |n + 1 > ∂ ∂x ∂ 1 ∂
2m L = =
∂z ∂z ∂x α ∂x
so
Sines and cosines form a complete orthonormal set, suit-
∂2
able for Fourier Series expansion, where ‘ortho’ means 1 kµ 2µ
ψ − 2 α2 x2 ψ = − 2 Eψ (5.3)
that each member is orthogonal to every other member, α2 ∂x2
h̄ h̄
and ‘normal’ means that one can normalize them (if one
wishes). There are other such sets, and each of them and
shows up in standard Quantum Chemistry, so each needs ∂2 kµ 2µ
to be addressed separately. 2
ψ − 2 α4 x2 ψ = −α2 2 Eψ (5.4)
∂x h̄ h̄
10
∂2ψ Given
− x2 ψ = −ψ (5.5)
∂x2
x2
where ψ0 = |0 >= e− 2
q
h̄2
2 kµ µE 2E µk with = 1, it is possible to generate the next solution by
p
2
2α µE
= = = using
h̄2 h̄ 2 h̄
∂
A. A Guessed Solution N+ = − +x (5.6)
∂x
The easiest solution to this differential equation is as an operator, which ladders up from the ground (n=0)
2
state to the next one (n=1) To see this we apply N + to
− x2
e ψ0 obtaining
∂ x2 2
+
N ψ0 = N |0 >= +
− + x e− 2 = − (−x) ψ0 + xψ0 = 2xe−x /2 = ψ1 = |1 > (5.7)
∂x
Doing this operation again, one has where H(x) is going to become a Hermite polynomial.
One then has
+ + ∂ − x2
2
2 −x2 /2
N ψ1 = N |1 >= − + x 2xe = (−2+4x )e
∂x
(5.8)
etc., etc., etc..
dψ 2 2 dH(x)
= −xe−x /2 H(x) + e−x /2
dx dx
C. Generating Hermite’s differential equation
Assuming
2
ψ = e−x /2
H(x) and
2
ψ − x2 ψ = −e−x /2 H(x) − 2xe−x /2 + e−x /2 = −e−x /2 H(x) (5.9)
∂x dx dx2
D. An alternative solution scheme so, integrating each side separately, one has
d2 y d(xy) d2 y dy dx d2 y dy
2
+ 2 = 2
+ 2x + 2y = 2
+ 2x + 2y = 0 ; n = 0 (5.13)
dx dx dx dx dx dx dx
Doing this again, i.e., differentiating this (second) equation (Equation 5.13), one has
dy dy
d2 y
d dx 2 d2x d(y) dy d2 dx d dx
dy
dx
+ +2 = 2
+ 2x +4 = 0; n = 1
dx dx dx dx dx dx
2
+ 2x + 2(n + 1)g(x)e−x = 0
dx dx
d2 y d2 y
d2 dx2 d dx2
d2 y
+ 2x +6 =0 i.e.,
dx2 dx dx2
2
g 00 (x) − 4xg 0 (x) − 2g(x) + 4x2 g(x) + 2xg 0 (x) − 4x2 g(x) + 2(n + 1)g(x) e−x = 0
or i.e.,
and substitute this into Equation 5.11, obtaining Consider Laplace’s Equation:
∂2ψ X
= i(i − 1)ai xi−2 ∂2χ ∂2χ ∂2χ
∂x2 i=2 ∇2 χ = + + 2 =0 (6.1)
∂x2 ∂y 2 ∂z
∂ψ X
−2x = −2 iai xi
∂x i=1
X which is a partial differential equation for χ(x, y, z). For
( − 1)ψ = ( − 1) ai xi = 0 our purposes, the solutions can be obtained by guessing,
i starting with χ = 1, and proceeding to χ = x, χ = y and
χ = z. It takes only a little more imagination to obtain
i.e., χ = xy and its associates χ = yz and χ = xz. It takes
just a little more imagination to guess χ = x2 − y 2 , but
∂2ψ
= 2(1)a2 + (3)(2)a3 x + (4)(3)a4 x2 + · · · once done, one immediately guesses its two companions
∂x2 χ = x2 − z 2 and χ = y 2 − z 2 .
∂ψ
−2x = −2a1 x1 − 2a2 x2 − 2a3 x3 − · · · Reviewing, there was one simple (order 0) solution,
∂x
2 three not so simple, but not particularly difficult solu-
( − 1)ψ = ( − 1)a0 + ( − 1)a1 x + ( − 1)a2 x − · · · = 0
tions (of order 1) and six slightly more complicated solu-
which leads to tions of order 2. Note that the first third-order solution
one might guess would be χ = xyz!
(3)(2)a3 + ( − 1)a1 − 2a1 = 0 (odd) If one looks at these solutions, knowing that they are
quantum mechanically important, the 1, x, y, and z so-
lutions, accompanied by the xy, xz, yz, and x2 − y 2 so-
(4)(3)a4 − 2a2 + ( − 1)a2 = 0 (even)
lutions suggest something having to do with wave func-
tions, where the first function (1) is associated in some
(5)(4)a5 − 2a3 + ( − 1)a3 = 0 (odd) way with s-orbitals, the next three (x, y, and z) are as-
sociated with p-orbitals, and the next (of order 2) are
etc., which shows a clear distinction between the even associated with d-orbitals. If all this is true, the per-
and the odd powers of x. We can solve these equations ceptive student will wonder where is the dz2 orbital, the
sequentially. fifth one, and how come there are six functions of order
We obtain two listed, when, if memory serves correctly, there are 5
d-orbitals! Ah.
2+1−
a3 = a1
(3)(2)
y 2 − z 2 + x2 − y 2
2+1− 2+1− 1−
a4 = a2 =
(4)(3) (4)(3) (2)(1)
can be rewritten as
i.e.,
(3 − )(1 − ) y 2 − z 2 + x2 − y 2 + z 2 − z 2
a4 =
(4)(3)(2)(1)
etc.. which is
This set of even (or odd) coefficients leads to a series
which itself converges unto a function which grows to
positive infinity as x varies, leading one to require that x2 + y 2 + z 2 − 3z 2
the series be terminated, becoming a polynomial.
We leave the rest to you and your textbook.
or as
1⇔1
x ⇔ r sin ϑ cos φ
y ⇔ r sin ϑ sin φ
z ⇔ r cos ϑ
xy ⇔ r sin ϑ cos φr sin ϑ sin φ = r2 sin2 ϑ cos φ sin φ
xz ⇔ r sin ϑ cos φr cos ϑ = r2 sin ϑ cos ϑ cos φ
yz ⇔ r sin ϑ sin φr cos ϑ = r2 sin ϑ cos ϑ sin φ
x2 − y 2 ⇔ r2 sin2 ϑ cos2 φ − r2 sin2 ϑ sin2 = r2 sin2 ϑ cos2 φ − sin2 φ
..
. (6.2)
Now, Laplace’s equation in spherical polar coördinates which, by the nature of partial differentiation, becomes
is
" #
∂χ
2 1 ∂r2 ∂r 1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂χ
∂ϑ ∂2χ
∇ χ= 2 + 2 2 sin ϑ + =0
r ∂r r sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
`
(6.3) 1 ∂r2 ∂r
Next, we notice that our earlier solutions were all of the ∇2 r` Y`,m` = Y`,m` ∂r
r2 ∂r
form " ∂Y`,m`
#
` 1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂ 2 Y`,m`
+r 2 2 sin ϑ + = 0 (6.5)
χ = r` Y`,m` (r, ϑ, φ) (6.4) r sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
∂Y`,m`
" #
2 ` `−2 `−2 1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂ 2 Y`,m`
∇ r Y`,m` = `(` + 1)r Y`,m` + r sin ϑ + =0 (6.7)
sin2 ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
which, of course, upon cancelling common terms, gives Laplace’s Equation in Spherical Polar Coördinates on the
" ∂Y`,m`
# unit sphere, i.e. Legendre’s Equation!
1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂ 2 Y`,m`
`(`+1)Y`,m` + 2 sin ϑ + =0
sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
(6.8)
14
What then are these angular solutions we found? and if you check back concerning their origin, you will
see where the Hydrogenic Orbitals naming pattern comes
` = 0; 1 from for s, p and d orbitals.
` = 1; sin ϑ cos φ
` = 1; sin ϑ sin φ
` = 1; cos ϑ
` = 2; sin2 ϑ cos φ sin φ
` = 2; sin ϑ cos ϑ cos φ
` = 2; sin ϑ cos ϑ sin φ
` = 2; sin2 ϑ cos2 φ − sin2 φ
` = 2; 1 − 3 cos2 ϑ
These functions have been written in “real” form, and
.. they have “complex” (not complicated) forms which al-
. (6.9) low a different simplification:
1s ⇔ ` = 0; 1
eıφ + e−ıφ
2px ⇔ ` = 1; sin ϑ
2
e − e−ıφ
ıφ
2py ⇔ ` = 1; sin ϑ
2ı
2pz ⇔ ` = 1; cos ϑ
e + e−ıφ e − e−ıφ
ıφ ıφ
3dxy ⇔ ` = 2; sin2 ϑ
2 2ı
eıφ + e−ıφ
3dxz ⇔ ` = 2; sin ϑ cos ϑ
2
e − e−ıφ
ıφ
3dyz ⇔ ` = 2; sin ϑ cos ϑ
2ı
" 2 ıφ 2 #!
2 e + e−ıφ
ıφ
e − e−ıφ
3dx2 −y2 ⇔ ` = 2; sin ϑ −
2 2ı
2
3dz2 ⇔ ` = 2; 1 − 3 cos ϑ
..
. (6.10)
Once they have been written in imaginary form, we can We have a trio of functions
create intelligent linear combinations of them which illu-
minate their underlying structure. Consider 2px + ı2py
2pm` =−1 = sin ϑe−ıφ
which becomes
2pm` =0 = cos ϑ
2pm` =+1 = sin ϑe+ıφ (6.11)
ıφ (6.12)
sin ϑe
Perhaps the next best place to introduce Spherical Har- |n, `, m` >= Rn,` (r)Y`,m` (ϑ, φ)
monics and Legendre Polynomials is the Hydrogen Atom,
since its eigenfunctions have angular components which Here, Rn,` is the radial wave function, and Y`,m` is the
are known to be Legendre Polynomials. angular wave function (a function of two variables), Since
The Schrödinger Equation for the H-atom is
2
" #
h̄2 2 Ze2 2 1 ∂ r∂r∂ 1 ∂
∂ sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂2
− ∇ |n, `, m` > − |n, `, m` >= En |n, `, m` > ∇ = 2 + 2 2 sin ϑ +
2me r r ∂r r sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
(6.13)
We know that this equation is variable separable, in
" #
2 2 Y ∂r2 ∂R
∂r R ∂ sin ϑ ∂Y
∂ϑ ∂2Y
∇ |n, `, m` >= ∇ Rn,` (r)Y`,m` (ϑ, φ) = 2 + 2 2 sin ϑ +
r ∂r r sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
Multiplying through by r2 shows that the expected variable separation has resulted in a proper segregation of the
angles from the radius.
" #
1 ∂r2 ∂R 1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂Y
∂ 2
Y 2mZe2 r 2m
∂r
+ 2 sin ϑ ∂ϑ
+ 2
+ 2 = − 2 En r 2
R ∂r Y sin ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ h̄ h̄
| {z }
We can see this by noting that the underbracketed part nating. We write
of this last equation is a pure function of angles, with no
radius explicitly evident. µ = cos ϑ
It is now standard to obtain (recover?) the equation
(6.8)
" # and
1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂Y
∂ϑ ∂2Y
sin ϑ + = −`(` + 1) (6.14) ∂µ p p
Y sin2 ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2 = − sin ϑ = − 1 − cos2 ϑ = − 1 − µ2
∂ϑ
where the minus sign (which is essentially arbitrary) is
demanded by convention. so
Cross multipilying by Y, one has
∂ ∂µ ∂
=
" #
1 ∂ sin ϑ ∂Y
∂ϑ ∂ 2
Y ∂ϑ ∂ϑ ∂µ
sin ϑ + = −`(` + 1)Y (6.15)
sin2 ϑ ∂ϑ ∂φ2
which is, substituting into Equation 6.15
which is written in traditional eigenfunction/eigenvalue
form.
∂ p ∂
C. Another Form for the Legendre Differential = − 1 − µ2
Equation ∂ϑ ∂µ
" p p
∂ 1 − µ2 1 − µ2 ∂Y
#
1 p
2
p
2 ∂µ ∂2Y
1−µ 1−µ + = −`(` + 1)Y (6.16)
(1 − µ2 ) ∂µ ∂φ2
where the `(`+1) form is a different version of a constant, To proceed, we need to generate a function |2 > which
looking ahead to future results! is not only normalizeable but orthogonal to |0 > and
|1 >.
Z −1 r
∂ (1 − µ2 ) ∂Y ∂ 2
Y
1
∂µ
= −`(` + 1)Y < 2|0 >= ψ2 dµ = 0
+ (6.17) +1 2
∂µ ∂φ2
and
where Z −1
r
2
< 2|1 >= ψ2 µdµ = 0
Y`,m` (ϑ, φ) = e ±ım` φ
S`,m` (ϑ) +1 3
∞
X
S`,0 (µ) = y(µ) = cn µn = c0 +c1 µ+c2 µ2 +· · · (6.19)
n=0 ∂ 2 y(µ) 2
2 ∂ y(µ) ∂y(µ)
2
− µ 2
− 2µ + `(` + 1)y(µ) = 0 (6.22)
which we substitute into the differential equation: ∂µ ∂µ ∂µ
∂ (1 − µ2 ) ∂y(µ)
∂µ
so that when we feed the Ansatz into this differential
= −`(` + 1)y(µ) (6.20) equation we obtain
∂µ
+`(` + 1) c0 + c1 µ + c2 µ2 + c3 µ3 + · · · = 0
(6.23)
power series into a polynomial. Do the opposite for an To show this, we start by defining
odd solution.
g` ≡ (µ2 − 1)`
d2 g`
(1 − µ2 ) = −2`(µ2 − 1)` − 4µ2 `(` − 1)(µ2 − 1)`−1
dµ2
dg`
2(` − 1)µ = 4µ2 `(` − 1)(µ2 − 1)`−1
dµ
+2`g` = 2`(µ2 − 1)` (6.29)
The r.h.s. of this equation set adds up to zero, and one obtains on the left:
d2 g` dg`
A(µ) = (1 − µ2 ) + 2(` − 1)µ + 2`g` = 0 (6.30)
dµ2 dµ
d3 d2 d2
dA(µ) d d
= (1 − µ2 ) 3 − 2µ 2 + 2(` − 1)µ 2 + 2(` − 1) + 2` g`
dµ dµ dµ dµ dµ dµ
d2
d dg` Continuing, one notices that the changing coëfficients are
= (1 − µ2 ) 2 − (2` − 4)µ + (4` − 2)µ
dµ dµ dµ regular in their appearance, so that the following table,
which summarizes the pattern of coëfficients,
d2 A(µ) 2
2
2 d d d g`
= (1 − µ ) 2 − (2` − 6)µ + (6` − 6)µ
dµ2 dµ dµ dµ2
d3 A(µ) 2
3
2 d d d g`
3
= (1 − µ ) 2 − (2` − 8)µ + (8` − 12)µ
dµ dµ dµ dµ3
κ = 1 2` − 4 = 2` − 2 ∗ (κ + 1) 4` − 2 = (3 + κ)` − 2 ∗ κ =6 if ` = 1
κ = 2 2` − 6 = 2` − 2 ∗ (κ + 1) 6` − 6 = (3 + κ)` − 2 ∗ κ = 6 if ` = 2
κ = 3 2` − 8 = 2` − 2 ∗ (κ + 1) 8` − 12 = (3 + κ)` − 2 ∗ κ = 12 if ` = 3
.. .. .. ..
. . . .
κ=` 2` − 2 ∗ (` + 1) = 2 8` − 12 = (3 + `)` − 2 ∗ ` = `(` + 1)
with K constant, then Here, we expand the denominator using the binomial the-
orem,
1 ∂d` g` 1 d` (µ2 − 1)`
P` (µ) = =
K dµ` K dµ`
Here,
2` `!
1 m(m + 1) 2 m(m + 1)(m + 2) 3
is chosen for K’s value to make the normalization auto- = 1−my+ y − y +· · ·
matic. (1 + y)m 2! 3!
1. Alternative Generating Function Method where r1 and r2 are the distances from the nucleus to
electrons 1 and 2 respectively. ϑ is the angle between
Another method of introducing Legendre Polynomials the vectors from the nucleus to electron 1 and electron
is through the generating function. Since this method 2. It is required that we do this is two domains, one in
is very important in Quantum Mechanical computations which r1 > r2 and one in which r2 > r1 . This is done for
concerning poly-electronic atoms and molecules, it is convergence reasons (vide infra). For the first case, we
worth our attention. When one considers the Hamilto- define
nian of the Helium Atom’s electrons, one has r2
ζ=
Ze2 Ze2 e2 r1
− − + (6.33)
r1 r2 r12
so that ζ < 1, and Equation 6.34 becomes
where r12 is the distance between electron 1 and elec-
tron 2, i.e., it is the electron-electron repulsion term. We 1 1 1
= p (6.35)
examine this term in this discussion. We can write this r12 r1 1 + ζ 2 − 2ζ cos ϑ
electron-electron repulsion term as
1 1 which we now expand in a power series in cos ϑ (which
=p 2 (6.34) will converge while zeta < 1). We have
r12 2
r1 + r2 − 2r1 r2 cos ϑ
√ 21 2 √ 21
d d
1 1 1 1 + 1
1+ζ −2ζ cos ϑ 1 1+ζ −2ζ cos ϑ
cos2 ϑ + · · ·
= cos ϑ +
d cos ϑ2
p
r1 1 + ζ 2 − 2ζ cos ϑ r1 1! d cos ϑ
2!
cos ϑ=0 cos ϑ=0
(6.36)
20
It is customary to change notation from cos ϑ to µ, so which we now expand in a power series in µ (which will
converge while ζ < 1). We have
1 1 1
= p (6.37)
r12 r1 1 + ζ 2 − 2ζµ
√ 1 2 √ 1
d d
1 1 1 1 + 1
1+ζ 2 −2ζµ 1 1+ζ 2 −2ζµ
µ2 + · · ·
= µ+
+ (6.38)
dµ2
p
r1 1 + ζ 2 − 2ζµ r1 1! dµ
2!
µ=0 µ=0
which we leave in this form, ready to evaluate and equate the “bond length” is “a”, and therefore the “dipole mo-
to earlier versions of this expansion. ment” is “qa”.
At some point P (x, y, z), located (also) at r,ϑ,φ, we
have that the potential energy due to these two point
H. The Expansion of a Finite Dipole in Legendre charges is
Polynomials
−q q
U (x, y, z, a) = p +p
There is yet another way to see Legendre Polynomials x2 + y 2 + (z − a/2)2 x2 + y 2 + (z + a/2)2
in action, through the expansion of the potential energy
of point dipoles. To start, we assume that we have a which is just Coulomb’s law.
dipole at the origin, with its positive charge (q) at (0,0,- If we expand this potential energy as a function of “a”,
a/2) and its negative charge (−q) at (0,0,+a/2), so that the “bond distance”, we have
1 d2 U 1 d3 U
1 dU 2
U (x, y, z, a) = U (x, y, z, 0) + a+ a + a3 + · · ·
1! da a=0 2! da2 a=0 3! da3 a=0
All we need do, now, is evaluate these derivatives. We have, for the first
1 dU 1 2(z − a/2)(−1/2) 1 2(z + a/2)(1/2)
= q − − + −
1! da a=0 2 (x2 + y 2 + (z − a/2)2 ))3/2 2 (x2 + y 2 + (z + a/2)2 ))3/2
h (z−a/2)
i h
(z+a/2)
i
1 d dU
1 d (x2 +y 2 +(z−a/2)2 ))3/2
+ (x2 +y 2 +(z+a/2)2 ))3/2
da
= −q
2! da 2 × 2! da
a=0
∂ sin ϑ ∂
Lx ≡ ypz − zpy = −ıh̄r sin ϑ sin φ (cos ϑ) + −
∂r r ∂ϑ
∂ cos ϑ sin φ ∂ cos φ ∂
− −ıh̄r cos ϑ (sin ϑ sin φ) + + (6.48)
∂r r ∂ϑ r sin ϑ ∂φ
At constant r, the partial with respect to r looses mean- ing, and one has
Lx sin ϑ ∂
= r sin ϑ sin φ + −
−ıh̄ r ∂ϑ
cos ϑ sin φ ∂ cos φ ∂
− cos ϑ + (6.49)
r ∂ϑ r sin ϑ ∂φ
22
and similar arguments lead to = ypz zpx − ypz xpz − zpy zpx + zpy xpz − zpx ypz
+zpx zpy + xpz ypz − xpz zpy = ypz zpx
∂ cos ϑ sin φ ∂
Ly = ıh̄ cos φ − (6.51)
∂ϑ sin ϑ ∂φ which is, reordering:
L+ = Lx + ıLy
= Lx Lx + ıLx Ly − Lx Lx − ıLy Lx
= Lx Lx − Lx Lx + ı(Lx Ly − Ly Lx )
= +ı(ıh̄Lz )
= −h̄Lz
[Ly , L+ ] = h̄Lz (6.58) This last equation tell us that L+ ladders us up, and L−
ladders us down on Lz components. If
then or
Lz L− | >= (something − h̄)L− | > and repeating this for the other order, one has
which means that where ever we were, we are now lower L− L+ = L2 − h̄Lz − L2z
by h̄. If
K−2 h If this particular ket is the highest one, |hi >, then lad-
dering up on it must result in destruction, so we have
K−3 h +h̄Lz |hi > +L2z |hi >= K 0 h̄2 |hi >
K−4 h +(hi)h̄2 |hi > +(hi)2 h̄2 |hi >= K 0 h̄2 |hi >
FIG. 2: Laddering Down on the z-component of angular mo- while, working down from the low ket one has
mentum
L+ L− |lo > −h̄Lz |lo > +L2z |lo >= K 0 h̄2 |lo >
+ −
Next, we need an expression for L L , not the com-
mutator. It is: which is
L+ L− = (Lx + ıLy )(Lx − ıLy ) −(lo)h̄2 Lz |lo > +(lo)2 h̄2 |lo >= K 0 h̄2 |lo >
or −(lo) + (lo)2 = K 0
which can only be true if (lo) = - (hi). Say (hi) = 7, if (hi) = 7.1 then (lo) can not be achieved by stepping
then K’ = 7*8 and -7(-7-1) which is the same! Note that down integral multiples of h̄.
24
and “ask” what equation v(x) solves. We do this in two So, assuming the first part of Equation 8.7, we have
steps, first assuming
k − 1 k − 3 (k−3)/2
xy 00 = x w(x) + (k − 1)x(k−1)/2 w0 (x) + x(k+1)/2 w00 (x)
2 2
k − 1 (k−3)/2
2y 0 =2 x w(x) + 2x(k−1)/2 w0 (x)
2
ny = nx(k−1)/2 w(x)
k−1 k − 1 (k−1)/2
− y =− x w
2 2
x x(k+1)/2
− y =− w
4 4
k2 − 1 k 2 − 1 (k−3)/2
− y =− x w→0 (8.8)
4x 4
1 −x/2 dk y
w00 = e v − e−x/2 v 0 + e−x/2 v 00 v=
4 dxk
26
where y ∗ and R(ρ) are solutions to Laguerre’s Equation which implies that
of degree n. Wow.
aj+1 j−γ 1
= ∼
aj (j + 1)2 j
X. PART 3 as j → ∞. This is the behaviour of y = ex , which would
overpower the previous Ansatz, so we must have trunca-
Now, all we need do is solve Laguerre’s differential tion through an appropriate choice of γ (i.e., γ = n∗ ).
equation.
xy 00 + (1 − x)y 0 + γy = 0 XI.
where γ is a constant (to be discovered). We let If γ were an integer, then as j increased, and passed
into γ we would have a zero numerator in the expression
?
(j − γ)
X
y= aλ xλ aj+1 = aj
λ=0 (j + 1)2
27
and all higher a’s would be zero (i.e., not a power series and therefore Equation 8.3 tells us that
but a polynomial instead)! But
2µZe2
∗ k−1
2µ 2µE n − = n∗ − ` =
α2 = 2 h̄2 α
2 =−
h̄ h̄2
implies
so, from Equation 8.6 we have
2µZe2
k2 − 1 α=
= `(` + 1) h̄2 (n∗ − `)2
4
k 2 − 1 = 4`2 + 4` 2µE µZ 2 e4
α2 = − 2 = 4 ∗
h̄ h̄ (n − `)2
k = 2` + 1 i.e.,
so µZ 2 e4
E=− 2
2h̄ (n∗ − `)2
k2 − 1 2` + 1 − 1
= =`
2 2
[1] the only thing that happens in making the complex con- [3] notice the rewriting into momentum language!
jugate is that each ı is changed to −ı (and each −ı → ı). [4] The limits correspond to ϑ = 0 to ϑ = π
[2] the ‘bracket’, hah, hah.