Bsc. Ay - ge (Ag? Set No. 1 13U/102/28 | Question Booklet No... (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ball-point pen) Roll No Roll No. (Write the digits in words) Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet ..... Day and Date 5. 10. a. 12. 13. 14. (Signature of invigitator) ” INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet} 1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No, on the Question Booklet. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark}. For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. Ifa candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/her. [ards Rn feet Fafa arroyo 1 Fa eB) [No, of Printed Pages: 56+213U/102/28 Set No. 1 Time/aa ; 2 Hours/a2 Full Marks /qute : 300 Note/#tz: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One 1. (323) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. aftrarfie wet at eat ae a wae wt wets we 3 ois aT Rl weds Tea TRH faq Um sie rer TOT) wake aaa we aT NIE I aT (2) Ifmore than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. aft wants Safer am at om % free wt a, at frmend ae oe 1 (3) This paper comprises of Five Sections. Sections I and II are compulsory whereas only one Section out of III, IV and V is to be attempted. we wea ws we wt) ws 1 a Ul oftad & af ws mm, Vai a fart we a at oe) Section- wel CHEMISTRY (Compulsory for all) The lowest strength of acid is shown by wt wt am fam aren ora 2 (1) CH,COOH (2) CH,CICOOH (3) CHC1,COOH (4) CCI,COOH 1 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (323) ‘The incorrect outer electronic configuration of (1) Cut is 34!4s! (2) Cu is 3d!°4s! (3) Cr is 3a54s! (4) Cut is 3a'° wl a stam arett sctazifie—faeae & fer era 87 (1) Cut ® fae 3a!°4s! (2) Cu % fare 3a! as! (3) Cr % fae 3a54s! (4) Cut & fam 3d!? Which is incorrect for the oxidation states? (2) Mn has 7 in KMnO, (2) Fe has 3 in [Fe(CN),]-° (3) Ni has zero in Ni(CO), (4) Ni has 2 in Ni(CO}, tea stadt feufa/saean fra 4 87 (Q) KMno, 4 Mn 7 @ (2) [Fe(CN)g] 9 4 Fe 132% (3) Ni(co), FNi A YW? (4) Ni(CO), FN MAR Which of the following is correct? (1) Cellulose is a disaccharide (2) Fructose is a disaccharide (3) Starch and cellulose both are polysaccharides (4) Sucrose is a polysaccharide aa RA WA a tam ae a? (1) Sasts setae 2 (2) wade eters & (3) rd ait Sapte Sai ciefthogs @ (4) Aaa sicltaees 25. (323) 13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 Which of the following is correct? (1) Internal pressure, (@E/@V}r =0 for real gas (2) AG is - (ve) at equilibrium (3) AG is + (ve) at equilibrium (4) AG is zero at equilibrium wi a aaa aa 27 (1) we areafas ta F arate aa (dE /dV)p =0 Bae (2) Fger w AG fifa een * (3) Ager AG visfea eran 2 (4) Haar W AG=0 Bane Which of the following is true? (1) P)Os is an acidic oxide (2) P,Og is a basic oxide (3) CoHs—OH is neutral in nature (4). CgHs—OH is basic in nature wi a sta-a aa 2? (1) P05 Wifes ataargs & (2) P2O5 afte sitveargs & (3) CgHs—OH J # saris ea @ (4) CoHs—OH 9 4 afte drat & Which of the following is correct? (1) Axial overlap of s with p,-orbital gives x-bond (2) Heisenberg’s relation is Ax-Ap2h/4n (3) RNA exists as double helix (4) Bond-order of He =% 3 (P.T.0,)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (323) eat 3 ata adi 2? () ] sa p, wae % we dftees often a x-aig art 2 (2) wrested ar AY Ax-Ap2>h/ an ® (3) RNA @eé efor H eta ® (4) He. a aig ate 42% For a d-electron, possible values of its azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are (1) I=2 and 3; m=0, +1 and +2 (2) T= ;m=-1,0, and +1 (3) 1=2;m=~-2,-1,0, +1 and +2 (4) I= =0, +1 and +2 Ge dah & awa witqua ser ae wen ae wet (1) 1=2 a 3; m=0,+1 3h 42 (2) 1=1;m=-10, 3H +1 (3) 1=2;m=-2,-1,0,+1 3h +2 (4) I= =0,t1 9 +2 Which of the following is used as a fertilizer? (1) Gammexane (2) Gammexane and DAP (3) Urea and DAP (4) Urea and DDT waa shea am A me sqm aa 8? (1) Ahaha (2) *AaRt sit DAP (3) aftar sit DAP (4) afta ait DDT13U/102/28 Set No. 1 10. Which is the correct match for the allotropes of C and P? 1. (323) Carbon (1), Diamond and graphite (2) Diamond and graphite (3) Monoclinic and rhombic (4) Red and white Phosphorus Monoclinic and rhombic Red and white Diamond and graphite Monoclinic and rhombic C att P & tetgra & sft ata-ar att ta are 2? are (1) Ga sit dog (2) @a site Berge (3) Waehfre sit wife (4) are ote we eae Attache ott wifes ere att ae ra site tore Berets sit afters Phase rule is F =C-P+2. When four phases of S can coexist? (1) Never (2) At the three triple points (3) At the transition temperatures (4) At the three triple points as well as at transition temperatures ba ea F=C-P+2 81 wom % at da sa ara ast aA? () A ae (2) art fafa catoga (3) gata ar (4) det ite ciege moan gfe aE 5 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 12, 13. 14, (323) According to law of mass action, for a gaseous reaction R =P at equilibrium (1) dJR)/dt>a[P]/at (2) d{R]/dt<-d[P]/at (3) -d[R\/dt=a[P|/at (4) d{R]/dt=a[Py/at @ aie oe tar & ogan w fa often R=P ae (1) d[R]/dt>d[P]/dt (2) d{R}/dt<-d[P]/dt (3) -d[R]/dt=d[P]/dt (4) d[R]/dt=d{P)/adt Which of the following is correct? (1) An isotope has same number of neutrons (2) An isobar has same number of protons (3) An isotone has same number of electrons (4) An isotope has same number of protons eat a aaa met a? (1) orgie A agin aca ae (2) angctan # sites an Ba (3) sigetas 4 saagia aan at & (4) srestety # stzia are aa & Electron of H is present (1) as a cloud around nucleus (2) in orbit whose principal quantum number, n =1 (3) in several orbits for which n>1 (4) around nucleus for n<1 to n>11s. 16. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 HOw gaagia thgg ea 2 (1) =feaa % ani sit yd saat are A wee fre EST 2) aie @ rear Reins wre ae, n=1 8 (3) ate oie & fret fiver wed wet n>1® (4) =afferre & anette ferret Gefives wren Fe nl A nol awe In the light of Le Chatelier principle (1) an endothermic reaction is facilitated at high temperature (2) an exothermic reaction is facilitated at high temperature (3) a gaseous reaction Ay +3By AB, is facilitated at low pressure (4) a gaseous reaction Ay +B =2AB is facilitated at high pressure ate fart orga Q) afte am « wdatis afte weft & (2) safe arena a wastafia: sifttira aah & (3) & te sft A, +3B, =2AB, aa T AeA a (4) ww 4 aftr A, +B, =2AB sift aww aE R According to Graham's law of diffusion, rate of diffusion of a gas is (1) directly proportional to the molecular mass (2) inversely proportional to the molecular mass (3) independent of the molecular mass (4) equal to the molecular weight of the gas 7 (7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 17. 18, (323) rest 3 fovea at organ tha & fewer A ae we wart (1) sicher wre sretaeh wetefae & (2) Richer ra & grace stata 8 (3) Atetrrqer wre gt Pit ag ae & (4) fre & niche ae wear Rat 2 Which of the following is incorrect? (1) Half-life of a gaseous reaction A> B is <1/{A]"" (2) A catalyst provides an alternative path of lower activation energy (3) Molecularity and order of reaction is same (4) A unimolecular reaction may be a first order reaction A RA RUA A stan nea 87 0) we te & fife As BA atf-ang <1/[A]" (2) ww Rife an safes sat an Aafere/gaT TET sues HT eR (3) aistegha ote sition an amt ame tate 4) apfimtchegere sero a mde AB eB Which of the following is correct for [Fe(CN),]"* (Hint : Fe?* is 34°}? (1) It is paramagnetic (2) It is diamagnetic (3) It is ferromagnetic (4) It is antimagnetic Fea aha [Fe(CN)g)4 & sft ae ® (eam : Fe? 1 3d®)? (1) Fe ors 2 (2) ae srarhrttea & (3) ae Res 2 (4) we Dette & 813U/102/28 Set No. 1 19. Which of the following is correct? (2) Metals decompose water with the liberation of Hy (2) Atomic volume decreases from Li to K (3) Basic character decreases from Li to K (4) P and Cl give acidic oxides wi a ah-m at 87 (1) Aza oh at dante /smeea wea # fret H, te feat & (2) Li & K we very-snama vem & (3) Li @ K wm afte qm ae (4) P atk Cl ofafta staengs 23 € 20. Which of the following is correct for the use of indicator in titration of solutions? (1) Phenolphthalein in HCl with NaOH (2) Methyl orange in NaOH with oxalic acid (3) Phenolphthalein in warm (acidified) oxalic acid with KMnO, (4) No external indicator is used in warm (acidified) oxalic acid with KMnO, wi a aha fete a win aden & faq wa 87 (1) NaOH @ HCI % ara fiatewaeta seer ar win eh 8 (2) NaOH a statis sme & arm Rage sift eee a win ee & (3) 74 (Aah) HC,0, # KMnO, % ara feriondeta a win aor & (4) mi (anh) H,C,0, # KMnO, & aa are a eee ar weir ae et (323) 9 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 21. 22, (323) Assertion, A : Dextro-variety of tartaric acid is optically active. Reasoning, R : Asymmetric carbon atom is present in dextro-variety. (1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false while R is true Assertion, (tt) A: adits ute A Sead fer yan-afra at 2) Reasoning, (@rm) R : 7qz) fren i semfiea C-aq aot #1 Q) A aR et da & sit a & fae R dw are 8 2) A aR cht de 8 eq A % UR de ar ee (3) A we @ fq R maa & (4) Area 2 safe Romie Assertion, A : Phenol is neutral while ethyl alcohol is acidic. Reasoning, R : Benzene ring withdraws electron and facilitates removal of H* (1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) Ais true but R is false (4) A is false while R is true Assertion, (3) A : fiat aga t wafs was wateta wife 8 Reasoning, (arm) R: dh fin eagiy om aie when 8 fia are He an ea smart & oat 81 (1) A st R at de Fate A & fae R dw are a 2) A sit R at de 2 eq A % feu R ate ar He (3) Awa? fey R wade (4) Ate * sam R ade 1023. 24. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Which of the following is a polymer? (1) CHCly (2) Acetates (3) Pvc (4) Coty SRA eA a aoe aT stich 7 (1) CHCl; (2) weiter (3) Pvc (4) Cele Which of the following is correct for primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols? H a baton is primary alcohol H (2) ~{-¢-on is secondary alcohol I (3) —[—OH is tertiary aleohol (4) wi a ain-ar unffis, fidtew ott qian watetar & sft met 87 | H (1) —C=C—OH weft wateiat & H i - (2) ae ge ferias Catala & ‘C—OH is tertiary alcohol (3) fon Teas wateia & (4) —C=C—OH qfas wateia? Mu (7.0)13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 25. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) The functional group R—C=0 is aldehydic (2) RCO R is ketone (3) CjgH20}, (Maltose) is monosaccharide (4) Sucrose is disaccharide wi 8 aaa mea 2? (1) Brarare—ayR R-ex0 redenfsa % (2) R-CO—R 4a 2 (3) CigHa20,, (Fras) Hrd & (4) Gata oedaes % (323) 1227. 28. 29. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—II well MENTAL AGILITY (Compulsory for all) Which of the following diseases is caused by virus? (1) Plague (2) Cholera (3) Tetanus (4) Chickenpox fra 4 ata-ch tort area aa 27 q) (2) tm (3) tema (4) fea wie The circumference of a circle is 110 cm. What is the perimeter of the square whose side is equal to the diameter of the circle? we qa A of 110 Sho @1 sa at ar ofers aa am fat wH yw ga ome} aca a (1) 240 cm (2) 70 cm (3) 140 cm (4) 220 cm ‘The Prime Minister of India is (1) elected (2) appointed (3) nominated (4) selected ara a ern (1) yr ame (2) fram fem aren & (9) ara fear sat & (4) ara fsa srt & If x=-3, then x9 - a x HW -3 %, A x? - (ay 1s (2) -27 (3) -33 (4) 54 x will be equal to -x mam en 13 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 30. 31. 32. 33. 34, (323) The largest petroleum reserve is located in (1) Tran (2) Russia (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Venezuela aad ag tglferan a ene () fF (2) wae (3) ae ora F (4) Fagen t Egg contains all nutrients, except (1) avidin (2) riboflavin (3) carbohydrates (4) biotin 834 fe 3 a we & afafon wh sree aa oe et (1) afer (2) uestwetfer (3) aratergew (4) artes The headquarter of World Bank is located in (1) Manila (2) Washington DC (3) New York (4) Geneva fra de a1 you fea 2 (1) Aten (2) after Howie H (3) are F (4) fata By selling 11 pencils for a rupee, a man loses 10%. How many pencils per rupee should he sell to gain 10% ? WH ore 1 or Fo 11 Get Fa a 10% aH rem 21 seal cH wa H fart Hed aah arfeu ff 10% a Ware A? (9 (2) 10 (3) 8 4) 5 What is location-value of 3 in the figure 9831240? Wen 9831240 4 3 at ta—-am wR? (2) 31240 (2) 3 (3) 3000 (4) 30000 1435. 36. 37. 38. 39. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 The percentage value of 2 shall be a ses a a Q) 125 (2) 8 (3) 15 (4) 25 There are 4 poles in a row A, B,C and D. Pole A is longer than C, B is smaller than D and C is longer than D. Which pole is the smallest one? ABCD a aM w i RR aon AC a ame, B.D a dak a CD a aah aH-a1 Gur wad diz 8? a) B (QA 3) D ac In which season of the year the distance between us and the sun is the minimum? (1) Winter (2) Summer (3) Rainy season (4) Spring at fre shen 3 ad Gi em ahi & fe ah aan an? Q) a ¥ (2) mf a (3) aah aq a (4) aaa F Spot the stranger in the following (1) Pearl millet (2) Rice (3) Ground nut (4) Maize feat a ooh @ veafie Q) ae (2) aR (3) ret (4) Wr Seeds of which of the following crops are also a source of edible oil? (1) Wheat (2) Maize {3) Barley (4) Pea fra 3 8 fee gaat & det 8 cre ta ft wa fae ora 87 (ye (2) 7a a a (4) Fe 15 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 a. 42. 43. (323) ‘The next number in the following series fre starr 35, 32, 34, 31, 33 is sre Hem et (1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 31 (4) 35 Which one of the following is not a Kharif season crop of North India? (1) Paddy (2) Mung beam (3) Sesame (4) Gram fra G8 ahh sae oem ana A athe & stem Hadi ot or 27 Q) wa 2) i (3) fret (4) = Which one of the following animals is not found naturally in Indian forest? (1) Blue bull (2) Zebra (3) Rhino (4) Chinkara fe 4 a eae oat opis wr 8 rede se A agi orn aren 8? (1) terra (2) 3a (3) fer (4) Farr A circle with 7 cm radius is segmented into six equal triangular areas as shown in figure below. The area of shaded portion shall be we ga fred fie 7 cm @ #8 feed wa fa & agen 6 figst | fem fen na 2) oer wo vefifa am a Sane ar eh? (1) 7x ¥36-75 cm? (2) 19x ¥36-75 cm? (3) 21x ¥36-75 cm? (4) 14cm? 1647. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Which of the following animals is not having any tooth in its upper jaw throughout its life? (1) Horse (2) Cow (3) Goat (4) Donkey fie 28 fea ora & owt aay foster oa ww ot ata at ater a7 () wer (2) 7a (3) wae 4) 77 In the series given below find out the next number aR One dum a ag A den aa 3,7, 13, 19, — ay 21 (2) 25 (3) 29 (4) 31 Spot the stranger in the following (1) Carrot (2) Sugarbeet (3) Radish (4) Turmeric fra a steed ofeenfig Q) mR (2) qt (3) eh (4) wet In how many ways the letters of word ‘COMMERCE” be arranged? We] ‘COMMERCE’ & sian farrit we @ erafera fare ot aad 87 (1) 5040 (2) 10080 {3) 2520 (4) 5240 6x3 (3-1) is equal to 6x3(3-1) WR a) 0 (2) 36 @) 55 (4) 19 17 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 49. An aeroplane flies from New Delhi to Washington DC via Africa and returns from same route with same speed and height. Which of the following statements would be correct? (1) While reaching Washington DC it will take more time than in return journey, (2) In return journey it will take more time than in reaching to Washington DC. (3) While going and in return journey time taken will be the same. (4) Time required for going and in coming back will not follow any definite trend. wm wad wera af fegh @ after Sodio afta eat sre 2, aan fie sel aa a che wt oT 1 ast ara we ofa ed ward a ahd oftada adi ween 2) ce feafa Fer 8 8 ae eer wal em? (Q) aries ¥iogio weet H sa ana ait sit etal A an (2) a # oem tet A sae aaa atm (3) 38 oh aA 4a ann ara ai (4) fife ea a yo Ae ae aT Bam a 50 Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? (1) Oxygen. (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Methane (4) Nitrous oxide fie # ata ‘sees’ ta afl 8? (1) aire (2) ada aysitaenys (3) a (4) ARE salaaTES (323) 1852. 53. 54, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—III we—lll PHYSICS and MATHEMATICS (Physics) In the equation Y-A = X -B, where Y is the Young's modulus of elasticity, A area of cross-section and B is the dimensionless quantity. The dimensional equation of X will be wie Y-A=X-B 4 Y aa semem Iie, A age dana i Bw femia ofh a1 x a fifa afer em Q) Mur-? (2) ML-?7-? (3) M?L?7r (4) Mour-? An electron with charge e and mass m is accelerated from rest through a potential difference equal to 5 volts in vacuum. The final kinetic energy of the electron will be frmaen 8 we gi Hardt eG FMA m ta 5 dee & fm a aa ats fen orn 21 Ragi A afte Sat ahh (1) 3e joule 2) Se joule (3) 7e joule (4) 10e joule A particle moves in a circle of radius 50 cm at 10 revolutions per second. The acceleration of the particle in metre per second? is WH Fm 50 Sorte fren % ya 10 ofowam wf Baws A aa a aa ca ei a aha WA dane? Fae (1) 50x? {2) 1005? (3) 2002? (4) 400 n? ‘The heat given to an ideal gas in isothermal condition is used (1) in increasing internal energy (2) in doing the internal work (3) in decreasing internal energy (4) in doing the external work 19 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 56. 87. (323) ananh sree i oreef ta A A ng Son aa ond & (1) arate sat gfe a (2) arate wd ad a (3) arate sai wer # (4) wa ad ac a ‘The length of second pendulum is increased by 44%. The periodic time of oscillation will be (1) increased by 20% (2) increased by 22% (3) decreased by 20% (4) decreased by 22% we aang tem A onl & 44% Ft gfe at a ah 2 a ee dee ed a (1) 20% ay aT (2) 22% we wT (3) 20% we we (4) 22% We sn If the illuminance of a surface from a point source is to be reduced to 25%, the distance of the surface from the source must be (1) increased by 25% (2) increased by 50% (3) increased by 75% (4) increased by 100% fe wm fey ata 8 feat ace oet arch diz A wera 25% aH oT 2, a ae A aa a ga (1) 25% @ ager eo (2) 50% & agra am (3) 75% @ agen em (4) 100% # agrn em A voltmeter can read up to 10 volts. The resistance of voltmeter coil is R. If this voltmeter is to be converted into an ammeter capable of reading up to 1p, then a resistance r is to be used as (1) in series with R and rR (3) in parallel with R and rR 2058. 59, 60. 61. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 w atectter often 10 aire we vg wa Rt atest AM quech wm ufe Ra aR ateoter A after pA ve og aR ara ofier F ager 8, at viata ¢ at wn SH () reR@R& we Heh HH (2) r>R ARS wa doh ae (3) reRAR* we ware mH (4) rR AR % wa wae we Which of the following expressions represents a stationary wave? fra A 8 aa arian ommmf ain A frefia axa 87 () Asin (ot) (2) Asin (wt)-cos (kx) (3) Asin (-ot) (4) Acos (kx) In the reaction represented by frafetaa afifrar F aX op VA 4, BAS 4, BAF () a, By7 (2) yB,a°* (3) a**. 4B (4) Baty The total energy of electron in hydrogen atom in first excited state is ~3-4 eV. The kinetic energy of this electron is aeghs sory & aay 4 ser sta omen F ga sal wR -3-4ev tlw ah a atts Saf art (Q) 34 ev (2) -3-4 ev (3) 68 ev (4) -6-8 eV When the electron enters in the magnetic field in perpendicular direction, then the path of the electron will be (1) linear (2) circular (3) helix (4) parabolic 21 (27.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 62. 63. 64. 65. (323) va reah wads da f aeaq saa aon 8, a ach wa eh () ta (2) yee (3) Frecta (4) erate A source of unknown frequency produces 8 beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a source of 270 Hz. The frequency of unknown source is aan aight a TH wa 150 wt ata & ae 8 ate a 270 eH B ma 12 He rR am 21 aan ata A srgit a ar & (1) 258 Hz (2) 242 Ha (3) 261 Hz (4) 292 Hz A photon of energy 10 eV is incident on a metal surface having work function 4°6 eV. The maximum KE and minimum KE of the emitted photoelectrons will be (1) 10 eV, 46 eV (2) 54 eV, zero (3) 10 eV, zero (4): 46 eV, zero af 10 eV A af ar Sica fat omg A wae TE oats 8, org A ame wT a GaT 46 eV 2) senfiia Ga-seagis A afirart war ape afta sal ehh (1) 10 eV, 46 eV (2) 54eV, FH = (3) 10 eV, IT (4) 46 eV, 1 The element z X“ has to be converted into its isobar after radioactive decays. It should emit G aa 2X4 # Yeceire sant & ser ae omen aa Facet & feu cafe ar wT (l) ay (2) By (3) 4,8 4) ay The wavelength of matter wave is independent of (1) charge (2) mass (3) velocity (4). momentum vad aot a ainted felt ae ae 2 (1) raat ae Q) Rw (3) aw 4) ana 2266. 67. 68. 69. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 In Young’s double slit experiment is carried out with light of wavelength 5000 A. The distance between the slits is 0-2 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at x=0. The third maximum taking the central maximum as zeroth maximum will be at X equal to (1) 167 em (2) 150 cm (3) 0-50 cm (4) 5:00 cm vn fi-feee wi 4 5000 A ata vam a win fiom nm 81 @ feedlot A xh 02 Sorte aan feet % aft A zh 200 douto Bi Sata gar x0 HB aaa sea A a AR sae waa Bay 8 tet TEM A aX th (1) 167 Gore (2) 150 @orffo (3) 0°50 Aotfo (4) 5:00 Morte ‘The specific heat C, for diatomic can be expressed as Aeweamaps % fre faire sem a fran aT wa (1) Cp =3R (2) Cy=§R (@) C,=3R (4) Cy=3R A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown vertically at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Its KE at highest point of its flight will be (1) B/V2 (2) EB (3) zero (4) £/2 we ig afm a 45° som oeaie aa A sata A on & an eat afte oat Bl oe vam fi wpe nf al Pet eh? (1) E/v2 (2) EB 3) (4) B/2 For adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas the value of AP / P will be equal to(y=C, /Cy) sre te % egher wan % fee AP/P aw WIM ® (y=C,/Cy) AV ya aw av 4) PY (y+ v Vv av. (2) GB) + 23 (7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 7. 72. 73. (323) A drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor is Vy, when the current iis flowing in it. If both the radius of the conductor and current are doubled, the drift velocity will be ww wae Hoye aah a agen anv, 2 aah wal i om vain @ oA 81 aR ae A fra oa sei ae ae are gp aC at omy, a aE an A so (Vg /18 (2) Va /8 (3) Va /2 (4) Va/9 In a discharge tube (3Li7)* and (;N'*)** are present. How many parabolas will be obtained at screen in Thomson's experiment? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Bight vem feet veh AH (QLi7)* aan (,NI4)** safe 1 aime in Hoek feat wea om at? (1) & (2) & (3) =r (4) 33 A spherical black body whose radius is 12 cm, radiates 450 W power at 500 K temperature. If radius is reduced to half and temperature is doubled, then radiated power in watt will be we trevan gferar fad fier 12 Aoife @, 500 K am 450 W afm fafefr act a) af fren A ann ax fen ot var ae at Gee ae fear ara, at are 8 fafa afin ehh (1) 1800 (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 300 The eccentricity of earth’s orbit is 0:0167. The ratio between its maximum velocity to minimum velocity in earth’s orbit will be yah A war A serge 00167 81 gel A wan A ge aR | RETA ai aT sigue eT (1) 3/2 (2) 5/3 (3) 11/7 (4) 1.03, 2413U/102/28 Set No. 1 74. The motion of a particle is represented as Y =A sin (ot) +B cos (ot). Then it is an (1) SHM with amplitude equal to (A+B) (2) SHM with amplitude equal to (A+B)/2 (3) SHM with amplitude equal to Va? +B? TB & am 4 Aft Y= Asin (ot) +B cos (ot) & weita Ri ae aft eh (1) (A+B) arm ae ated of (2) (A+B)/2 sre fh are ora of 8) a? +B? sam & aet owead fe (4) Ja3 8° ara & ae onad aft (4) SHM with amplitude equal to y. 78. For a transistor if a and B are the current gains in CB and CE configurations respectively, then fret gift af a @ p aM: CB a CE firma a um wala quia dt (1) a =B/(1+8) 2) a =B/(1-p) (3) B=a/(1+a) (4) B=(+a)/a (323) 25 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 76. 77. 78. 79. (323) (Mathematics) ‘The equation x? +2x+3=0 has (1) two equal roots (2) two complex roots (3) two real roots (4) one real and one complex root wa x? +2x4+3=0 % Q) a ae qe at (2) 2 afta qe ah (3) 2 area aa et (4) we ae arate oft ue afr eh If20 (3) <0 (4) 20 If A=[a,6,¢d}, then the mapping { (a,c), (b,c), (¢, a), (d,a)} is (1) one-one {2) one-one onto (3) many to one (4) many-one onto WR A=(ab,6d)}, A sfafeam { (a,c), (b,c), (4a), (d,a)) 8 (1) W-t (2) TH-UH Rees (3) aR-w (4) aR-UH streaTes The mapping f(x) =x? +2 defined on the set of natural numbers is (1) many-one (2) many-one onto (3) one-one onto (4) one-one 2680, 82. 83, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 sipties seat agora ve oftenfia wT f(x) =x? 42 & () Ew 2) FE sear (3) Ww sarees (4) wes 13 ‘The value of D’ (i" +i"*'), i=V=1, equals at 3 Visi), i-v-i we mt Qa (2) i-1 (3) -i (4) 1-i oe (2) -4 (3) (4) -1 ae v2 If logo 2, logig (2* 1) and logy (2* +3) are in AP, then x equals AE logig 2, logo (2% -1) 3M logyg (2% +3) AAR Ah A, a x HAA (1) log, 5 (2) logyo 5 (3) logs 2 (4) Logi 2 If the sum of first n natural numbers is } times the sum of their squares, then n equals, aR wen mpfre seas a a we aS ana Lp a, in ae as (2) 6 3) 7 (4) 8 27 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 85. 86. 87. (323) Ramesh has 6 friends. In how many ways can he invite one or more of them at a dinner? tu & 6 fia @1 a ew a afte fiat at ae fad atat 8 sta A omifia ax aaa 27 (1) 64 (2) 63 (3) 63 (4) 6 [b 3] ena 13 or 3 10 10 -3 10 3 -10 3 [-10 -3 (y E ‘i a |S a a fs? w {3 | Factors of the expression x* +y° +29 -3xyz are Baws x? 4y9 429 —axye Bis E (1) (x? +y? +27) (xy +yz+2x—x-y-z) (2) (x+y+2) (xy+yz+z2x—x? -y? -2?) (3) (x+y +2) (x? +y? +2? — xy -ya-zx) (4) (ety +2) (x? +y? +27 + xy +y2+2x) ‘The equation of a line which passes through (acos? 0, asin? 6) and perpendicular to the line x sec 0 +y cosec 0 =a is fq (acos*0,asin? 9) & qa art sik ta xsecO+ycosecd-a % ara ta A hte & (1) x cos 0 +y sind =2acos 2 (2) xsin 0 -ycos@ =2asin 29 (3) xsin® +ycos@ =2acos 20 (4) xcos6 ~y sin @ =acos 20 2888. 90. 91. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 The length of the tangent drawn from the point (2, 5) to the circle x? +y? -2x -3y-1=0 is 3 (2,5) 8 am x? +y? -2x-ay-1-0 7 wh ne ee A ae a () 9 @ 3 ) lim a equals: woe \x-cosx “% lim ce man? #5 Vx-cosx a) 0 (2) -1 (3) when x #0, f(0)=0, then (I) f'(x) exists at x =0 (2) (3) f'(x) exists everywhere (4) ak soa wate x +0, £(0)=0, @ x (1) x=0 % f'(x) siferra vam ® (2) (8) f(x) waa arfteera HR (4) F a _ —— equals ax | Tssin x a dx ($35) Q -4 4 (3) 29 3 ( 22 2 2 1 (4) © F(x) is discontinuous everywhere f(x) is continuous everywhere f(x) waa saa % f(x) waa waa e (P.7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 92. 93, 94, (323) The function f(x) =tan x-x (1) always increases Q always decreases (3) never decreases (4) some times increases but not everywhere we f(x)=tan x-x (1) Bm agen 8 (2) een ae & (3) =A wea 7a & (4) aA aga @ aed ada Tei <+8m * ax equals L+cos x case ee I+cos x (1) cot F +e @) xtanZ+e (3) log (1+cos x) +e (4) log (x +sin x) +e The value of a2 Oe) ge #0a+4(5-x) is “12 ax) (7 28 ae wt #esssa(E-x) Wn (2) a @ (4) 25 309s. 96. 97. 98. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 ‘The solution of the differential equation # =lexty+ay is ramet wot Yas x eye ay TE 2 1) lsy=x4%+ Oe ace (3) log (1+y) =log e(1 +x) For any vector @,|@x i|?+|ax j|?+/axk|? equals fa afer a % fad G,)ax i[?+/ax j|?+laxk|? BAR AT (1) 1al? (2) 21a)? (3) $1al? (4) 3)a/? ‘Two dice are rolled one after the other. The probability that the number on the first is smaller than the number on the second is Qo & F ae ww BS ot ei wea oa A Gen qet Gia A den a He A A wea ze a4 Qs (3) 3 as 2 150 The value of +=! 15° jg 1+tan* 15° 2 15° 1-tan? 15° wane I+tan? 15° ay (2) V3 3) a @ 4 31 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 99. If the sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 4V3 cm and Y13 cm, then the smallest angle of the triangle is a fie fy A aE 7 om, 4/3 om ott VIS om Hi, A Aye a aR de aoe (yy 18° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 224° 100. lim ——*— is equal to x90 tan! 2x lim, ~— mm z x90 tan! 2x (1) 0 24 (3) 1 (4) 2 (323) 32101, 102. 103, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—IV wey BOTANY and ZOOLOGY (Botany) Abscission occurs during (1) senescence (2) dormancy (3) fertilization (4) seed germination aed fas dem aot 8? (1) Stefaee (2) sgRTaeeT (3) Fre (4) a sige Khaira disease of rice is a deficiency disease caused by (1) magnesium deficiency (2) copper deficiency (3) zinc deficiency (4) iron deficiency aaa & au ow are & (1) fate ar sere (2) 7 a ae (3) 38 ora (4) theca a ona Alleles are (1) genetic materials of nucleolus (2) different molecular form of a gene (3) self-fertilizing true breeding homozygotes (4) different molecular form of chromosome 33 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 104, 105. 106. (323) ah at (1) afore & organs werd (2) a & Fafa omnis eee (a) wafer & wa ees (4) stein & Fair sas fake Viruses are considered non-living because (1) they do not move (2) they do not mutate (3) their nucleic acid does not code for protein (4) they cannot reproduce independently fregsit a fisfia arr stan &, tf (1) 3 aaa aa (2) 3 seakafta at ea (3) FR afters ute se & fore reers ele (4) 3 aia wy @ greene ae aT aeA A mycorrhiza is a (1) fungal disease of root (2) mycoplasma disease of root (3) fungus-plant root association (4) bacterial disease of root gatigaT & TH () a & eae (2) 4a a areas 7 (3) Fae-aeT qa Hr aed 4) et ar Steere ar The crop Brassica nigra belongs to the family (1) Tiliaceae (2) Euphorbiaceae (3) Brassicaceae (4) Malvaceae 34107. 108, 109. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 ‘fret sem fra sren—aftan HI TEI? (1) feferaretg (2) atfearehg (3) Aftrarehg (4) arearetg A seed contains (1) an embryo (2) a zygote (3) stored food (4) both an embryo and stored food is 3 ania tren & Q) yr (2) pas (3) aafea omer (4) Ro ea afta omen aH The bast fibre of jute is (1) secondary xylem of stem (2) secondary phloem of stem (3) ground tissue of stem (4) cortex of stem Fe 1 are oR e (Q) ar fdas orgy (2) 3 at fietae vette (3) wow fen aq (4) Aw aaa One of the major ‘Basmati’ rice producing State in India is (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Karnataka (3) Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh wna # ‘orem’ aaa a1 we wae serge asa e (Q) srw (2) safer 3) aa (4) tise 35 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 110. 111. 112. 113. (323) Nitrogen fixation in rice field is done by (1) brown algae (2) green algae (3) blue-green algae (4) red algae wa Ga H angio wr fener fea ar tren 8? (1) tare (2) eta Bara (3) ta-efta tara (4) aa at Early blight of potato is caused by (1) Ustilago hordei (2) Puccinia graminis (3) Albugo candida (4) Alternaria solani cara, fend dor a aT (1) sifeeernt eeF (2) gear wifi (3) sqrt #fer (4) saeeenttar ater Plant growth depends on (1) cell enlargement (2) hormones (3) cell division (4) All of the above het ar fare onfirt & Q) aa age 2) WH (3) aia fers (4) seth a ‘A combination of auxins and gibberellins spraying on some plants resulted in (1) preventing of senescence (2) promoting of fruit ripening (3) promoting production of parthenocarpic fruit (4) killing broad leaf plants 36114, 115. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 vel oc oifter GE Rata & igae fergera ar aftr ater 8 (1) stoiseen 3 deen Q) Faw wee (3) witafis wai & sere 4 aie (4) eh oft ara chet at et The Central Sugarcane Research Institute is located at (1) Lucknow (2) Coimbatore (3) Bhubaneswar (4) Guwahati ‘aga yrds fad yedtege wet wafer 87 (1) res (2) Brragz (3) yar (4) area Bordeaux mixture contains (1) copper carbonate, magnesium sulphate and linseed oil (2) copper sulphate, lime and water (3) copper nitrate, lime and sodium sulphate (4) copper oxide, sodium chloride and water aigae flamer § afters dt & () ain ariite, Afar ache wa teh te (2) ait ake, aa wa (3) Bint aregz, aan wa aifeen ace (4) Fin steers, aiften actos Gi wa 37 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 116. 117, 118. 119, (323) ‘The scientific name of paddy is (1) Brassica nigra (2) Ustilago nude (3) Triticum aestivum (4) Oryza sativa ‘Say a tafser 8 (1) after arg (2) sifeecrm 3 (3) greften bfear (4) sitter afar The centre of origin of wheat crop is (1) Myanmar (2) Peru (3) Brazil (4) Central Asia 3 Fa wo ee (1) Fata (2) te (3) arte (4) ne efter The fruit of mango is (1) berry (2) drupe (3) pome (4). pepo aim a at (yy 38 2) 3) or (4) a Claviceps purpurea is the causal organism of (1) rust of wheat (2) smut of barley (3) ergot of rye * (4) powdery mildew of pea 38120. 121. 122, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 waft offer a ww & (1) 3 a gor (2) art ar ag (3) we a onfe (4) we A Rae HEA Soil fertility is reduced by (1) decaying organic matter (2) crop rotation (3) intensive agricultural practices (4) nitrogen fixing microorganisms ya A ate Pw aren ue, a 87 (1) Se veri a staera (2) wae am (3) Te Bit a sae (4) qersifaat a aregtort ar féirtiae Which greenhouse gas other than methane is being produced by agricultural fields? (1) Ammonia (2) Nitrous oxide (3) Arsenic trioxide (4) Sulphur dioxide ‘ta te seven fire ofa esa ta ar semen aft ast ara fem at wat 8? (1) sree (2) TRH sitaergs (3) srafre qesiaegs (4) Fem sresiteeres The increase in crop yield with green manure is approximately we Aah & wer 8 weet A erom feet gfe GE 8? (1) 1-10% (2) 10-20% (3) 30-50% (4) 60-80% 39 (2.7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 123. 124, 125. (323) The problem in water conservation is to reduce the amount of (1). precipitation (2) run-off water (3) evaporation (4) groundwater wa-eem 4 gen auen frwal an ad A ait 87 (1) saga (2) SraTe set (3) arefterror (4) anise The edible part of Pisum sativum is () fruit (2) cotyledon or seed (3) leaf (4) root thfean dam a sitsa sia & Q) Fa (2) areca seat ais, 3) v4 @ ‘The Indian Agricultural Research Institute is located at (1) Chennai (2) Srinagar (3) Lucknow (4) New Delhi Yio tiracaa fed exer wel safer 27 (1) ae (2) fram @) was (4) Reet126. 127. 128, 129, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (Zoology) Zoological name of tapeworm is (1) Ascaris tumbricoides (2) Wuchereria bancrofti 7 (3) Taenia solium (4) Fasciota hepatica c whore ar sig aah am & ()) whe oarsistee (2) getter az (3) afta aterm (4) Sftraten fete Which one of the following blood groups is considered as universal donor? Frefefira Ha staat ow aap aden 8? Qa 2B (@) AB (4 0 The centrum of the 8th vertebrae of the frog is, (1) Procoelous (2) Amphicoelous (3) Amphiplatyan (4) Heterocoelous ites A onal wie a azn 8 (1) siete (2) ware 3) waar (4) Batter Which of the following is not a mammal? (1) Whale (2) Dolphin (3) Sea horse (4) Seal Frafafan % % ata eh aa 87 () (2) Sifter 8) aga ats (4) ata 41 (P.O)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (1) stomach (2) duodenum (3) jejunum (4) oesophagus Afar sida a ae () sree 3 (2) safera 4 @) ara (4) wetter 131. Malaria is caused due to (1) Plasmodium vivax (2) Entamoeba histolytica (3) Amoeba proteus (4) Giardia Wefan a are % Q) Sra aaa (2) Gertie feectfertear (3) sreftar attr (4) Rrenféar 132. The element found in the haemoglobin is (1) Fe (2) Cu (3) Mg (4) Zn ‘teretfr Fo oe a ater wa & (1) ater (2) afar (3) fife (4) Fire &) Which of the following is the non-protein amino acid? (1) Ornithine (2) Histidine (3) Glutamic acid (4) Proline frafafian 4 8 ata ante anit ome 87 (1) safer (2) fafa (3) reef sme (4) ete 134, Vision in insect is (1) monocular (2). binocular (3) stereoscopic (4) mosaic wad H gfe eh 87 () arpa (2) agigen (3) Feehan (4) ae (323) 42135, 136, 137. 138, (323) ‘The enzyme lipase belongs to the class (1) Oxidoreductases (2) Transferases (3) Hydrolases (4) Ligases ats wa & (1) sifretheats af ar Q) qawsa at a (3) egies af ar (4) args af ar ‘The number of cervical vertebrae in giraffe and camel is () 7 (2) 10 (3) 12 fas wa Sz 4 ota atest A den ee t (Q) a (2) (3) are Canal system is the characteristic of (1) sponges (2) sea anemones (3) sea urchins ara a am (1) tt a 2) Ach we @) A oR a Human blood has the highest percentage of (1) monocytes (2) neutrophils (3) eosinophils ana we F aaa oiftrs oftera & (1) Weitere ar (2) aie ar (3) attri a 43 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (4) indefinite (4) fire (4) Hydra (4) BRT (4) basophils (4) Aateett ar (P.T.0;)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 139. Part of alimentary canal which has functions of digestion and absorption is (1) cesophagous (2) stomach (3) intestine (4) mouth cavity SER aT aE AMT A Te a stator ar ar Het (1) wate 8 (2) sarera & (3) Berea t (4) Faget 140. The longest living animal is (1) dog (2) crocodile (3) tortoise (4) elephant wad dist oq & () = (2) water (afeare) (3) sgaT (4) wa Lock and key theory of enzymatic action was proposed by (1) Kogl and Smith (2) Beadle and Tatum (3) Emil Fischer (4) Jacob and Monod Tareh fra A ats wi A at a sfeorer fer ar (1) ae wi fea 3 (2) fags wa 2m > (3) Ufa flee 3 (4) Sata ats 3 In nucleotides, nitrogenous bases are linked to pentose sugar by (1) peptide bond (2) phosphodiester bond (3) glycosidic bond (4) hydrogen bond afterterst Ho aggtort are Hats wr 8 yer cea? () Ferns ae a (2) weve da 7 (3) Toreatfafes aa gra (4) west aa oer 143, In starch, glucose molecules are linked by (1) peptide bond (2) phosphodiester bond (3) 1-4 and 1-6 glycosidic bond (4) hydrogen bond (323) 44144, 145, 146, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 werd Ho raata omy yd aa & (1) ters da gra (2) wreaterre a grt (3) 1-4 W 1-6 varatfefte a grt (4) eaghe de a Which of the following uses sonar system for the location of its prey? (1) Firefly (2) Fox (3) Bat (4) Wild cat Freferiaa #8 ata ore frame A are ara & fre stat neh wt wat wT 27 (1) were (2) arg (3) sams (4) sire fg The basic unit of taxonomy is (1) class (2) order (3) genus (4) species arate A sree Fatt Q) ae (2) até (3) sia (4) efifirs NissI’s granules are found in (1) neurons (2) muscle fibres (3) neutrophils (4) erythrocytes Frere frend wg oh & (1) Han Sifters F (2) arateh & agai F (6) =aifret # (4) Woiranga ‘The larval stage of frog is (1) Ammonotelic (2) Ureotelic (3) Uricotelic (4) Aminotelic itew ar fra 87 (1) saivtefers ==. (2) afters (3) afahefere (4) ettafers: 45 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 148, The centrum of ninth vertebra of frog is (1) biconvex (2) amphicoelous (3) procoelous (4) amphiplatyan few A tel ate wm dea & (1) aeeiaae (2) eee (3) sete (4) ofraretfearr In meiosis, synaptonemal complex appears during (1) diplotene (2) pachytene (3) zygotene (4) metaphase I adga atm fund 9 firietina siaaa from & (1) feeites (2) Sta # (3) suqtaa # (4) Fare 150. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? (1) Ascorbic acid—Scurvy (2) Thiamine—Beriberi (3) Niacin—Pellagra (4) a-Tocopherol—Night blindness frfataa #-& eae ge Hite 87 0) wens: erat (2) erased (3) frnfa—temn (4) a-aattnta att (323) 46151. 152. 153. 154. 155. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—V wv AGRICULTURE Borlaug Prize was given in the field of (1) Science (2) Technology (3) Film (4) Agriculture aetna grea fiw Qa @ fear aren 87 (Q) fra (2) steht (3) fer (4) ef Area of Alluvial soil in Uttar Pradesh is am xin # wehg yg a dasa t (1) 10:85% (2) 51-22% (3) 61-78% (4) 20-95% National Dairy Development Board was established in afta a0 flere até @ een ae a af? (2) 1963 (2) 1965 (3) 1967 (4) 1970 Average normal temperature of cow body is mma & eit ar attra aaa arse eter & (1) 100-5 °F (2) 101-5 °F (3) 102-5 °F (4) 100 °F Estrogen hormone is related to (1) reproduction 2) milk production (3) protein synthesis (4) fat synthesi a7 (P.7.0,)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 156. 157. 158. 159, (323) wehr thin feed wafia 87 (1) 3 (2) gy sere (3) tam deer In milk, protein is present in (4) ae aero (1) soluble (2) globules (3) colloidal (4) emulsion qu a shea oe oft (1) gereia rH (2) fear (3) #rengsra (4) eR UP Council of Agricultural Research is situated at qa) Lucknow (2) Kanpur (3) Allahabad (4) Jhansi Sat wear BAR aa vfeg fem 2 (Ql) Fare (2) FAqe (3) Ferereng (4) ate Average percentage of fat in Jersi cow milk is wat ra Hoga to aen At otaa sftra we el & a) 40 (2) 45 3) 55 (4) 65 In gypsum nutrients present are (1) calcium and sulphur (2) calcium and iron (3) iron and sulphur (4) iron and manganese fara 4 aia-a chee wa oe wat €? (Q) Sferey a ae (2) feram a sg (3) IR a Fe (4) ag trite 48160. 161. 162. 163. 164, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Name of the State for highest production of sugarcane in India is (1) Maharashtra (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Karnataka (4) Bihar und Homa ar genes wad afin fer ora Feta 8? (1) Ferg (2) se weer (3) ete (4) fren As per census of 2010-11 world population in billion is ad 2010-11 A samo % ome oH feer At sae fate HR (y) 55 2) 65 (3) 7-0 (4) 7-5 Temperature of cold storage for storage of potato should be ome, were & fed ates eA aT TRH eT ATR, (1) 10 to 25 °C (2) 40 to 65 °C (3) 8:0 to 10-5 °C (4) 11-0 to 15-5 °c In black soils, the black colour is due to (1) iron oxide (2) magnesium oxide (3) humus (4) copper oxide ref grat at 1 aren Pe are ater 87 (1) srg tenes (2) tv ataengs 3) we (4) Fine sitaeres Triticale is a cross between (1) wheat x barley (2) barley x rye (3) wheat « rye fetaa ata t () Ae x Ht (2) hx ue (3) Ex af 49 (4) wheat x oat (4) A x 38 (7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. (323) Percentage of nitrogen in calcium ammonium nitrate is fer amit age A area A sft aor att @ Q 21 (2) 25 3) 31 (4) 44 Dwarf varieties of wheat in India were started during area ah oo & 4 A wenfe a sare wre RoT (1) 1961 (2) 1963 (3) 1967 (4) 1970 Name of the element responsible for Jhulsa disease in plant is (1) sulphur (2) zine (3) iron (4) calcium gee on fea aa A ah @ een 2? (1) Bem (2) fare (3) ater (4) ferem In world maximum goats are found in (1) America (2) India (3) China (4) Pakistan fra Hawa sfts aati ae og amt #7 (Q) sie (2) ama 3) a (4) arfereata Name of the vitamin responsible to increase the reproductive capacity is (1) vitamin A 2) vitamin D (3) vitamin E (4) vitamin K sere wifes agrt & fer fre faerie at tar anita? (1) fret a (2) fae D (3) Rafe E (4) frerfirr K Percentage of dry matter in cakes is feel # yon veri A afta aon tt 8 () 60 (2) 70 (3) 80 (4) 90 50171. 172. 173. 174, 175. 176, (323) Average percentage of ‘Khoa’ in buffalo milk is fe & qu 8 tea site ‘aha’ um at (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 25 White colour of milk is due to the (1) fat globules (2) casein (3) carotene 3a & in fa arm ate a A? (1) aan ete (2) (3) tar Hours required to develop egg in hen are wi are as wa} ad ome (1) 18-20 (2) 22-24 (3) 28-30 Average percentage of protein in paneer is sett & shea At ceva sera ae ehh 8 a) 7-9 (2) 10-12 (3) 14-16 Average temperature (°F) of hen is Wf a stad arama (°F) ee 8 (1) 99 (2) 103 (3) 107 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (4) (4) (4) (4) (4) (4) 35 milk sugar 30-35 20-22 110 Which one of the following concentrated organic manures has maximum phosphorus content? (1) Fishmeal (2) Neamcake (3) Poultry manure (4) Guano Festa #8 wta-8 arg ards are A anfven testee omar art 82 lr —— 51 (4) art (7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 177. 178. 179. 180. 181, (323) Iron from mines is known as (1) pig iron (2) cast iron (3) rot iron (4) iron ore ani 3 om oie At aed & (a) fier ome (2) ae sg (3) te sme (4) sree site ‘Average percentage of carbon in steel is gena 4 ada aren afters wat eat 8 (a) 01-02 (2) 04-05 (3) 08-10 (4) 10-15 Principal element of glass is (1) tead (2) calcium silicate (3) magnesium (4) iron ata # qr a amt Q) tar (2) Sferem fafee (3) Saif (4) ate ‘Grow more trees’ movement was started by (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Jawaharlal Nehru (3) K. M. Munshi (4) Vinoba Bhave “ses ges oma” sree Pre wry fay 1? (a) ere aie (2) wareera ae (3) Ho Ho Bah (4). tan we Regional Rural Bank was established in Soha amt ae A aren sa ef? (a) 1970 (2) 1975 (3) 1980 (4) 1985 52182, 183, 184, 185. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 In India first phase of Cooperative Movement was started in una # apart sree a vaH eT Fa MEY EST? {1} 1900 (2) 1904 Five Rupee note is issued by (1) State Bank of India (3) Finance Ministry ‘ata sear ar ate fee gro orf fae oat 8? () Be ae aie xfien (3) fra area Pungency of onion is due to (1) allyl propyl di-sulphide (3) alicine wana dram fia are gra 8? (1) Weg Storer Tea, (3) eherfer Damping off disease spreads from (1) bacteria (2) fungi ‘Sn sis tor Gert (3) Stag 2) wa 53 (3) (2) (4) (2) (4) (2) (4) (2) 4) 3) (3) 1910 (4) 1920 Reserve Bank of India Planning Commission ford ate ate sfizar ava arin carotene allyl propyl sulphide aR Were SITET EHTS algae (4) virus aR (4), Ferg, PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. (323) Vitamin present in green chilli is (1) vitamin A (2) vitamin B (3) vitamin © vd fit 4 fata wen ome () faa A (2) faa B (3) frei Cc ‘Mallika’ and ‘Aamrapali’ is the variety of fruit (1), Mango (2) Guava (3) Apple “afgar’ wa ‘ommarel” fara re A worl 2? QQ) 3 (2) srrEq (3) a4 ‘Panama’ disease is found in (1) Guava (2) Banana (3), Mango ‘carn’ an aren & (1) SHR, (2) er (3) 3m Oryza sativa is the botanical name of (1) Wheat (2) Maize (3) Paddy sitar dar fra arrears am 87 a) #e (2) wan (3) oF Average percentage of rice in paddy is om ¥ steer aaa A after war frre & (1) 50-55 (2) 60-64 (3) 70-74 54 (4) (4) 4) (4) (4) (4) (4) (4) (4) vitamin D frefiz D Papaya Grapes aK Barley 75-78191, 192, 193. 194, 195, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Which one of the following fertilizers is least hygroscopic? (1) Urea {2} Ammonium sulphate (3) Diammonium Phosphate (4) Calcium ammonium nitrate Frnfefer 4 2 atom sicw an-a-an oni 8? (1) afer (2) seifrem aetke (3) Sesriem ori (4) Safer onifen az ‘Time of self-pollination in groundnut is (1) morning (2) noon (3) evening (4) night afrech Ferrey fea ae eat 8? Q) ee (2) are (3) 7 (4) v8 Which one of the following soils is best for vegetable cultivation? (1) Sandy (2) Sandy loam (3) Clay loam (4) Clay soil Free yet a a wach yer we seme % fore gan 87 (1) as 2) aqen are (3) Afean are (4) after ye Which one of the following can be suitably grown as a mixed crop with wheat? (1) Cabbage (2) Cotton (3) Sorgham (4) Mustard Freferag & ahaa fifa ore ARE & fre sam 8? (Q) stat (2) sare (3) "aR (4) Beat Which one of the following parts of tobacco plant synthesises nicotine? (1) Root (2) Stem (3) Branch (4) Leaf Prefers aang ar ahaa mr Rata warm 8? () a8 (2) 7 (3) "ar (4) 7A 55 (7.0)13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 197. 198. 199. 200. Nitrogen present in urea is in the form of (1) nitrate (2) ammonia (3) amide (4) nitrite afer arias fra eo i oe ardt 87 () ae (2) seifrn (3) wRS (4) Teer “Bhavani’ is the variety of (1) Mustard (2) Linseed (3) Castor (4) Toria ‘wari’ Preah wanft 8? (1) at (2) sere (3) 3 (4) tien Which one of the following organic manures has the narrowest C:N ratio? (1) Biogas slurry (2) FYM (3) Compost (4) Groundnut cake frafifie fre ara FB da CN ogee wer sara 87 (1) aritte der (2) tie A ae (3) re (4) Freeh A eet Whiptail symptom in cauliflower is due to the deficiency of (1) copper (2) molybdenum (8) iron (4) zine agers & federal Peet aah 8 tot 87 Q) tae (2) sifereeaa (3) ae (4) fae Annual rainfall for dry farming should be {1} less than SO cm (2) 50-80 cm (3) 80-100 cm (4) 100-120 cm ge adh & fed after af ata ae (1) 50 aotto & ar (2) 50-80 @erfo {3) 80-100 aorte (4) 100-120 #orfte wee 56 D/3(323)—10500avafirat & fore free cee en wen rene mer SHR SA gH Hes tet eh ere | a Fre) ower often fiat & 10 fre & ore Ata a fe wera a wt gu stag @ ote AE oe ger at hs gear eqs oe aA eC eA Yee oH Te frtes BT tee oe wee A gad gfe wa a a) fier era foramen cite ova & afte, Fran a wre HE oA ge we TAH 3 aM geen rer & fea me Ri 7 a aA ite 7 oF Peper BPH re seve AF Per se, ae aT wa a ot yeated fer aT) ce organs en sever wr aan wn rey we 7 @ faut teat we fered ween & wm ge ve TR orem eet fruits wae we fers ver ota fed a ag ea etal araere Gael wer-gferan wai men ew eae fer era ferch) she wo ato THT sega ton, merger deem a fe stem Cafe ae A) sen wet gfe agente do att sho To rte TH Mo wt fafa! A softer wt orga we A) . afr aie A ahh ood aw Pade ara weno en HARA ora me wae OTR ATT HT aT Sar . reaver te wat ae eres se fe a Ree eT eft gar fed ora ae voy at weafurn ofee & ah AD Te ge wT so aa & veer yw Rad free & sega Hy TT wom tr . wate were ae & fed aa Uw Ga AT we A afew Te A FE Ta aa Ht onl wea Te ae See METI AT TT ¥ ou % Re Uae are ea Br sing Soe ET TAT TT Bh aA oe Pe eT a gee eT a7 Tee Coo aafen oie & at RA A wt PT a oret Gig 21 Be wet we eT ole A TART Loge at & fed regia & gaye Bar Te w ve sis yew AT a _aten a aU Har somos aa-vA whe MeL A aT we aden gam a A wa Ther wT a ae TR aA seule ae eh af wae arene ter ogee eet swan at, A ae Peace gra Puffle gs ve, wT ener