23/03/2020 @® CODE-B Aakash Medical IT-JEE| Foundations ‘Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456 MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs. Test - I Topics covered : Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom. Botany = The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom Zoology = Animal Kingdom Instructions : (0) Use biue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (il) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. (li) Dark only one circle for each entry. (iv). Dark the circle in the space provided only. (v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on Answer sheet. (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score. Choose the correct answer 2. A patticle is moving in x-y plane such that its 1. The correct velocity-ime (v-t) graph for the given position co-ordinates are, varying wir. time as me x= Ssin121 wt and y = 12tcos6 xt (where x and acceleration-fime (a-f) graph is ¥ are in meter and tis in second). The speed of a the particle at t= 1s is (1) 605V2nmis (2) 121nmis (8) 605% mis @) 12W2amis 3. The total number of insignificant zeroes in the measurement of a quantity x = 0.003270 is v v (2 3 / @4 a4 a @ 4, The percentage error in the measurement of a, b t t and ¢ are 0.3%, 1% and 0.9% respectively. The v maximum percentage error in the measurement v ap 1 of quantity x= "will be @) | \ (4) f * > | (1) 3% Q) 1.2% @) 1% (4) 2.9% aTest Series for NEET-2020 10. If velocity (V), mass (M) and time (T) are taken as. fundamental quantities then dimensional formula ‘of Young's modulus is (1) (MTS) (2) [MvT] @) IMT] (4) IMveTs] Speed of a swimmer in still water is 14.14 km/h, River water is flowing due east with speed 40 km/h. The swimmer on south bank of 1 km ‘wide river wishes to cross the river via shortest ath, Then the angle at which he/she should make strokes w.r.t. east direction and the Corresponding time taken to cross the river is. (1) 45°, th 2) 45°.0.1h (3) 135°, 2h (4) 135°,0.1h stone is projected at an angle of 45° above the horizontal with speed 10V2 mis from the top of a building of height 200 m. If the point of projection is taken as origin then the position of the particle after 3 s of projection is (take g= 10 mis?) (1) (B0V2 7-30 jm — (2) (307-30 jm (3) (307+15V2 jym (4) (307-15 jm ‘The position vector of a particle moving in x-y plane is given by 7 = 2t7 + (3t~6f*) 7. Then the equation of trajectory of the particle is () yeSaee)——@) yo Sxtt-n) 3_x Q) y=x(3-¥ @ y-x($-3) ‘A particle Is moving in x-y plane such that its linear momentum is varying wt. time as P(t)=Blsinoti +cosat j], where B and @ are constants. Then which of the following is correct? (1) Force is parallel to momentum (2) Force is perpendicular to momentum (3) Force is antiparallel to momentum (4) Force is in different plane as that of ‘momentum ‘A particle is revolving on a circie of radius r with constant tangential acceleration. Afler one complete revolution, if speed of the particle becomes double of the initial speed v, then net acceleration of the particle when it just complete cone revolution is mares 4ar O} a? V5 nr (4) y=3x-6x v qq @) @) £ esr +9 (4) 1 12. 13, 14, A particle P is moving along a straight line from west to east with constant velocity 40 mis as ‘shown in figure. For an observer sitting at O, the angular velocity of particle at the instant 0= 30° will be, (perpendicular separation of ‘observer from line of motion is 80 m) w E a) grads ©) Jreais @) Consider a particle moving uniformly on a circular Path. Then which among the following is correct? 3 qrdls ar (1) Gps eonstant (2) constant div oF (4) Allof these ‘A particle is projected from ground with initial velocity 18V3 m/s.as shown in figure. The time taken by particle in moving from P to Q is (take g = 10 ms~*) y ° x (1) 188 2) 368 @) 548 (4) 728 Consider a square ABCD of side 1m each as shown in figure. Then (OA+AB+BD)will have a magnitude of (2)Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-t (Code-B) 15. 16. 7. 18. 19. 20. The most precise instrument among the following is (1) Screw gauge with pitch 0.5 mm and 100 circular scale divisions (2) Screw gauge with least count 0.001 mm (3) Meter scale of least count 1mm (4) Vernier callipers with 19 main scale division coinciding with 20 vernier scale division ‘A weighing machine provides measurement of mass (in kg) in four trials as 50.00, 50.20, 50.12 ‘and 50.08 respectively, then (1) Mean absolute error is 0.06 (2) Fractional error is 0.002 (8) Percentage error is 0.2% (4) Fractional error is 0.01 ‘The phenomenon of scattering of light by change inwavelength is called (1) Chadwick scattering (2) Ramanujan scattering (3) Newton's scattering (4) Raman scattering Choose the correct statement among the following (1) Dimensionless quantities can have a unit (2) A dimensionally correct equation must be correct (3) Change in system of units will surely change the numerical value of the physical quantity (4) Dimensions of a physical quantity can never be a fraction If linear momentum of a particle varies with Av B+3x" ‘Then distance x from origin as P= dimensions of “is (A and B are dimensional constants) MLTy (2) ML" T"] @ ML"T @) MEeT AA particle is moving along x-axis such that its position x is varying w.r.t. time t is given by x = (3 — 9f). The distance covered by the Particle in first 3s is (1) 27m (2) 675m (8) 135m (4) 54m 21. 22, 23. 24. 25. The position time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is given in following graph ‘The average speed of the particle between time t=0tot=B8sis xm) 12 2 4 6 8 i) (1) 3s (2) 9mis (3) 6s (4) Omis ‘A drunkard is walking straight such that he takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backwards and continues with same repeated patter. If each step is 1m long and takes 1 $ in each step, then after what duration of time he will fallin a pit at a distance 6 m from starting point? (1) 8s 2 165 (3) 128 (4) 2s ‘A bike moving along a straight road with a speed (of 90 kmih is brought to rest travelling a distance of 250 m. If retardation of bike is uniform then time taken to bring the bike to rest is (1) 5s (2) 108 (3) 15s (4) 208 The numerical value of surface tension in SI untt is P and in CGS system of units is Q, then P : Q is (1) 10:4 (2) 12102 (3) 10354 (4) 10224 ‘The position-time graph of two particles A and B is as shown in graph. Then ratio of speeds “ Position —> (1228 2) V3:2 @) 1:48 (a) 44 @)Test-t (Code-8) 26. 27. Iftwo vectors A=i+aj+bk and 5 = 5i +15] +25k are parallel to each other, then the values of a and b respectively are 1) 5.5 (2) 3,15 (3) 15,5 (4) 3.5 ‘The position x (x > 0) of @ particle on a straight line varies w.r.ttime tas vx =(2t+1), then (1) Velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t (2) Velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to vt (3) Velocity of the particle is proportional to (4) Particle moves with constant acceleration A particle moves with an initial velocity v, along a straight line with a retardation av (a. is a positive constant and v is velocity at any time f) then (1) The particle wil come to rest after a time 1 Yo (2) The velocity of the particle will become after atime + (3) The total distance covered by the particle is % a (4) Velocity versus time graph will be linearly decreasing Dimensional formula of physical quantity is IW? L°T}, then the physical quantity is (1) Angular momentum if, p= 1, q= 2and r= (2) Planck's constant if, p= 4, q= 2 and r=—1 (3) Young's modulus if, p= 1, q=—1 and r= 1 (4) Both (1) and (2) ‘Atrain is moving on a straight track with uniform acceleration. The engine of the train is passing a pole with speed u and the next pole with speed v. 2" The speed of the train while engine covers & ) of distance between the consecutive poles, is la? +2? fou? sv? 5 Oe ers Su? + 2v? [2u? + 5v? 5 ® 5 a) @) 3t 32, 33, 36. 36. Test Series for NEET-2020 The order of magnitude of 192 is (1) 0 @4 @2 (4) 3 Six particles A, B, C, D, E and F are situated at the comers of a regular hexagon of side d. They start approaching each other in same sense such that A approaches 8, B approaches C and so on with ‘same speed v. The time after which they meet each other is a? @ 72 6d d a O & ‘A man running on a horizontal road at 3. mis (along +ve x direction) finds that rain is falling vertically. He increases his speed to 6 mis and finds that rain drops make angle 30° with vertical. Velocity of rain wart. road is (+ve vis along vertically upward) (1) (37+V3 jf) mis (2) (V3i+3v3 j)mis (3) (W37-3j)ms (4) (37-3y3 j)mis ‘Two projectiles A and B are projected with angle of projections 20° and 40° respectively. If Rs, Ha and Rs, Hs are horizontal range and maximum height for the two projectiles respectively, then (1) Ra> Re, Ha> Ho (2) Ra> Re, Ha< Ho (3) Ra= Re, Ha= Ho (4) Data is insufficient to compare Ra, Ro, Haand He The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm with 100 divisions on circular scale. In measurement of thickness of a wire, there are 3-divisions on linear scale and 25 divisions on circular scale coinciding with reference line. If nothing is put between the ‘studs then 20% division on circular scale is coinciding with reference line such that zero of linear scale is visible, then thickness of wire is (1) 3.05 mm (2) 3.30 mm (3) 3.25 mm (4) 3.0mm A shell is fred at {= 0 s from a gun having barrel at an angle of 45° with horizontal. If speed of shell is 60 ms at = 0 then the radius of curvature of the trajectory of the shell after t =3y2s Is (take g = 10 m/s?) (1) 60m (2) 90m (3) 180m (4) 200m (4)Test Series for NEET-2020 Test (Code-B) 37. Two balls are projected in vertically upward | 42. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet direction with velocity 8 m/s and 12 mis ls given to be (90 = 03) cm and respectively from the same position at the same (4.0 + 0.1) cm respectively. Then the square root instant of time. Then the separation (s) between. of the area of the sheet upto correct significant ‘the balls varies with time t till one of the balls hits figure will be reported as ‘the ‘ground can be best represented by (1) (6.0 £0.17) cm (2) (6.0 + 0.175) cm (3) (6020.2)cm (4) (6.00.18) em 4 43. The displacement (x) time (f) graph of a particle 0 @ moving along x-axis is shown in figure. Choose the correct option among the following. 7 7 x s s ® / 4) / t 7 t 38. A stone is released from rest from the top of a (1) Particle speeds up and slows down two times very high tower. In first 3 seconds the stone falls {@) Particle speeds up two times and slows down xm, then for next x m fall ime taken by stone Is one time (1) 32s @) 302-1 (8) Particle comes to momentary rest twice (3) 3/3-V2)s (4) 3-18 (4) Both (1) and (3) 44, A man tries to cross the river and reach point 39. A car staris from rest accelerates on a straight ; path with constant accolraion a for somo time, | 8.0% the opposita bank of rver as shown. Then after which it decelerates at constant value b and ne gnmimum | spe relative water at 3 to rest. Total time elapsed ist, thon direction, of swimmer at O so that he can reach comes . point B is (given river speed Is u) average velocity of the car abt 2abt aye ® a+b) a) _2bt 4) at ® a+b) @) (+b) 40. two vectors Aandi are given tous as, 1 Got at sen ee at ee (1) 4,220° with direction of river flow A ++4j+50k and B=5i+8j/+50k, the 2 angle of made by vector (A-B) with negative (2) ¥,60° with ection of ever fow axis is 2 o 2 (3) 7.60" with cirecton ofriver fw @) 239" 0 sea (4) 127° (4) a with direction of river flow 41 A lets. fred horizontally aiming at an object 45. If water drops are falling at regular intervals from which stars falling at the instant the bullet is fired ‘as shown in figure. The position A is taken as ‘origin and bullet speed 10 mis. i the bullet hits the object after 1 s then the co-ordinates of the Point where it hits is (Take g = 10 mis?) Bullet Object A (1) (0, 10) (2) (10, -8) (3) (10,-10) (4) (6-5) a ceiling at a height of 80 m from the floor. If drops are falling at the interval of 4 s, then height of third drop from the floor when first drop reaches the floor is (take g = 10m 5) (1) 60m (2) 40m 3) 20m (4) 5m 6)Test-t (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020 46. 47. 49, 51. ‘The total number of electrons present in 9.6 g of SOF ion is (1) 5Ny (2) SON, (3) 0.5 Ny (4) 25 Ny 50 g of magnesium carbonate (MgCO;) sample decomposes on heating to give magnesium oxide (MgO) and 11 9 of carbon dioxide (CO,). Percentage purity of MgCO, in the sample is, (1) 42% (2) 25% 8) 30% (4) 88% ‘A concentrated aqueous solution is 98% H,SO, by mass and density 1.8 g/ml. The volume of this acid required to make 500 mi of 0.2 M H,SO, solution is, (1) 11.55 mi (2) 55.5 mi (3) 25.5 mi (4) 5.55 mi When an electron jumps from 5* excited state to 4 excited state in H-atom then the maximum number of Lyman lines and Balmer lines obtained respectively are (1) 06 (2) 5,5 @) 0,4 (4) 5,4 When light of frequency (v ) falls on a particular metal surface then the correct graph of kinetic, energy (KE) of ejected electrons versus v is given by wy @ IN KL wt The number of angular nodes in 3d_, orbital is qay4 (2) 2 @0 (3 In the reaction, 2NaOH + H,PO, —> Na,HPO, + 2H,0, the equivalent mass of H,PO, is (M: Molar mass of HaPO;) M (a) M Qs M 2M. az “> 53, 55, 56. 87. 58. 59. 60. 61. Total number of atoms present in 11.2 mi of CO, (g) at STP is (1) 4.5Ny (2) 1.5% 10° Ny (3) 1.5% 10° Ny (4) 150 Ny 68 g sample of a compound containing carbon and oxygen only, contains 47.05% oxygen by mass. The empirical formula of the compound is (1) Co (2) Co, (3) C,0, (4) C0, In which mode of expression, the concentration of a solution depends on temperature? (1) Normality (2) Motarity (3) Volume strength (4) Allof these ‘One kilogram of electrons represents __mole of electrons. (m, = mass of one electron in kg) (1 Ma (2) mq 1 ™ ® am on 20 mi of ©, and 50 mi of H, is sparked till the reaction is completed to form liq. H,O. Assuming temperature and pressure constant, the reduction in volume of gases after reaction Is (1) 50 mi (2) 60m (3) 70 mi (4) 10 mi Maximum number of atoms is present (1) 48g O atom (2) 4890, (3) 48905 (4) 5 mole of O, Mass of NaOH solution required (50% (w/w)) to Neutralize 2 litre of 1 M H,SO, solution is (1) 1609 (2) 320g (3) 80g (4) 409 ‘The equivalent mass of a metal is three times than that of chlorine. The equivalent mass of metal chloride will be (1) 355 @7 (3) 142 (4) 105.5 ‘The number of neutrons in Fe” ion is (Mass number of Fe is 58) (1) 26 (3) 32 (2) 56 (4) 30 @Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-B) 62. 63. 65. Electromagnetic radiation with minimum wavelength is (1) rays @ IR (3) Radio waves (4) Xrays ‘The wave number for the shortest wavelength transition in the Paschen series of atomic hydrogen is (R,, : Rydberg constant) () Ry Ry ay 4) The number of radial 4s-orbitals respectively are (14.2 2) 1,3 3) 0,3 (4) 2,3 If an electron, a-particle, neutron and proton have same de Broglie wavelength, then kinetic energy will be minimum for (1) Electron (2) Neutron (3) o- particle (4) Proton Which of the following sets of quantum numbers: represents an incorrect option? x0 Ry nodes in 2p and A oom s 1 aa o 0 3 4 @s 1 445 1 @2 oo $ 1 44 1 0 3 Radius of 2! orbit will be minimum for (1) He" (2) Be* @)H (4) ui ‘The energy of electron in an orbit of H-atom ‘where two standing waves are present is (1) -13.6eV (2) -7ev (3) -1.51 ev (4) -3.4ev 69, 70. nm 72. 73. 74, 7. For which set of n andé, electrons will have lowest energy among the following? (1) n=3, 6=4 (@) n=2, 6214 (@) n=4, £=0 (4) n=2, 620 ‘The orbital angular momentum of a d-electron is given by w Br @ 2 (@) Vea (4) ea ‘The number of significant figures in 3.35 x 10" is (1) Three (2) One @) Four (4) Two Mass of Mg required to produce 11.2 of H, gas at STP on reaction with dilute HCI will be (1) 69 2) 189 (3) 129 (4) 24g Which of the following pair of species illustrates law of multiple proportions? (1) 05,05 (2) H,0, 0,0 (3) CHy, CH (4) KOH, Kcr ‘Atomic mass of Mg is 24 amu it means that an atom of Mg Is 24 times heavier than (1) Mass of one carbon atom (C-12) 1) (nse toe etn som 012) (Mas fon moe exon ato (C12) 1 (gE) som aon somo Isat of mcr mass, term oma mass is used for (1) KNO,, (3) NH,CONH, (2) CeHy05 (4) NH,Test-t (Code-8) Test Series for NEET-2020 76. Mole fraction of NaOH in its aqueous solution having its molality 2 is (1) 0.015, (2) 0.036 (8) 0.028 (4) 0.045 ‘An element(A) has the following isotopic composition, ‘A : 40%, "A : 60%. The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally ‘occurring element A is nearly equal to (1) 100.9 (2) 101.4 (3) 101.7 (4) 101.2 The number of orbitals in a ‘£' subshell is given by (1) 261 2 e+1 (8) 224 +1) (4) 2642 ‘The possible exchanges for a d configuration is (4 2) 10 3) 8 (4) 6 Among the following, maximum number of unpaired d-electrons will be present in [atomic numbers : Fe = 26, Mn = 25, Cr= 24, Co = 27] (1) cr (2) Mn?* (3) Fe* (4) Co™ ‘The correct expression Uncertainty principle is h (1) dxxave 7. 78. 81 for Heisenberg's h (2) axxap> (3) dxxaveE h (4) Axx ape 4) dxxape Isoelectronic species are (1) NOandcN” (2) Cyand NO (3) CO and on (4) COand o> 83, 85. 86. 87. 88, 89, 90, For H-atom, degenerate orbitals are (1) 18 and 2p (2) 3s.and 3d (8) Ss and 3d (4) 2p and 3p Which of the following observations are not justified by wave nature of light? (1) Photoelectric effect (2) Variation of heat capacity of solids as a function of temperature (3) Black body radiation (4) Allof these ‘The number of revolution of electrons per second in an nb orbit of H-atom is proportional to 4 1 OF 2) 1 4 ® a @) ‘Starks effect refers to the (1) Absorption spectrum (2) Splitting of spectral lines in electric field (3) Splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field (4) Emission spectrum Percentage of Mg in an enzyme is 1% by weight. ‘The minimum molecular mass of enzyme is (1) 1200u (2) 1800u (3) 2400 u (4) 3600 u The concentration of aq. 40% (WW) glucose solution in ppm is (density of solution is 4.2 g/ml) (1) 3.3 « 10° ppm (2) 4.5% 10 ppm (3) 5.5 * 10° ppm (4) 1.5 10° ppm ‘A gaseous mixture contains equal mass of ‘oxygen and hydrogen. The ratio of their molecules is (1) 1:4 (2) 1:16 (3) 1:2 (4) 1:32 The ratio of the energy of a photon of 1000 A wavelength to that of photon of 2000 A wavelength is (1) 4:2 @) 4st (2) 2:1 (a) 1:4 (8)Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-B) 91 Find the edd one wrt fission (1) Bacteria (2) Uniceliuiar algae (3) Amoeba (4) Mossess True regeneration is ability (1) To regenerate the lost body part completely (2) To regenerate the plasma membrane (3) To replace the Golgi body in the cell (4) To regenerate the lost body part partially Which of the given is incorrectly matched. (1) Planaria — Budding (2) E.coli — Fission (3) Fungi — Fragmentation (4) Hydra — Budding According to binomial nomenclature correctly writon sdemtfename of wheat (1) triticum Aestivum — (2) Triticum aestivum (3) Triticum aestivum (4) Triticum Aestivum A__ is the branch of science which deals with versity of organisms and the 8 relationship amongst them Complete the above statement by choosing correct option for A and B. (1) A~Taxonomy, 8 - Reproductive (2) A—Systematics, B - Evolutionary (3) A~ Classification, B — Evolutionary (4) A= Identification, 8 - Evolutionary In taxonomic hierarchy (1) Species serves as the basic and highest category (2) Species serves as the basic and lowest category (8) Division serves as the basic and highest category (4) Kingdom serves as the basic and lowest category Panthera leo and Canis familaris are (1) Placed in same kingdom and same genus (2) Placed in different orders and different families (3) Placed families (4) Placed in different kingdom and different orders in same kingdom and different 98. 99, 100. 101 102. 103. 104. Identify the edd one for herbarium formation (1) Animals are killed, dried and preserved (2) Pants are collected, dried and labeled (8) Contains information of plant specimens (4) Herbarium sheet of size 41 x 29 emis used Central National Herbarium is located in (1) Dehradun (2) Lucknow (@) Kolkata (4) New Dethi Find the odd one w.rt. universal rules of binomial nomenclature (1) Biological names are generally taken from Latin (2) First word in biological name represents specific epithet (8) First word in_ biologi capital letter (4) If handwritten both words in biological name are separately underiined Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are included in name starts with (1) Blue green algae (2) Deuteromycetes (3) Ascomycetes (4) Phycomycetes Coenocytic mycelium is seen in the members of (1) Basidiomycetes 2) Ascomycetes (@) Phycomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes Find the odd one out ws. Basidiomycetes (1) Most advanced fungi group (2) Motile structure or celis are absent (3) Most common asexual spore is conidia (4) Dikaryophase is the dominant phase of life cycle In ascomycetes, ascospore are produced in fruiting bodies i.e. ascocarp. These ascospores are (1) Haploid and produced by meiosis (2) Diploid and produced by mitosis (3) Haploid and produced by fission (4) Diploid and produced by fragmentation (9)Test 4 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020 105, 106, 107. 108, 109, 110 1 In zygomycetes, sporangiospores are (1) Produced inside sporangia and are non motile (2) Produced inside sporangia and are motile (3) Nonmotile and exogenously produced (4) Motile and exogenously produced Find the incorrect match. (1) Oomycetes Algal fungi (2) Zygomycetes — Conjugation fungi (8) Basidiomycetes - Club fungi (4) Ascomycetes - Most primitive fungi Chief producers of ocean are (1) Blue-green algae (2) Dinoflagetiates (3) Diatoms (4) Euglenoids Cell wall of diatoms is (1) Easily destructibie and has deposition of sulphur (2) Nearly indestructible and has deposition of silica (3) Nearly indestructible and has deposition of sulphur (4) Easily destructible and has deposition of si Find the odd one w.rt. Mycoplasma (1) They are also called “Jokers of kingdom” (2) They are pleomorphic and resistant to penicilin (3) Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan (4) They are heterotrophic and are smallest prokaryotes Curing of tea leaves is done by the activity of (1) Lactobacillus (2) Clostridium (3) Xanthomonas (4) Micrococcus In cyanobacteria, heterocyst is found to perform ‘special activities. Which of the following is not true about the heterocyst? (1) Itlacks PS-Il activities (2) tis site of nitrogenase activity (3) Itlacks PS-1 (4) It performs Neixation plant 112 113, 114. 116 116. 117. 118. Toxins released by ___ may even kill other marine animals such as fishes. (1) Euglena (2) Desmids (3) Gonyaulax (4) Amoeba Slime moulds form connecting link with plants and animals because (1) They ave cell wall composed of peptidoglycan and do not reproduce asexually (2) They don't have cell wall at any stage of life and show heterotrophic mode of nutrition (3) They have cell wall in their spores and main body piasmodium is without cell wall (4) They have cell wall composed of chitin in spores and main body lacks cell wall Archaebacteria are similar to eukaryotes because the former (1) Have 80S ribosomes (2) Lacks 70S ribosomes (3) Have introns in their genetic material (4) Have cellulosic cell wall Organism used in petroleum pollution contro, is (1) Clostridium botulinum (2) Beijerinckia (3) Xanthomonas (4) Pseudomonas putida Bacterial photosynthesis is unique because (1) H,0 is used as the source of electron (2) CO, is reduced to glucose (3) H,S and other organic compounds can be used as source of electrons (4) 0; 1s evolved Which of the following is not a bacterial disease? (1) Mad cow disease (2) Typhpoid (3) Cholera (4) Tetanus Which is not a mode of genetic recombination in bacteria (1) Transduction (2) Conjugation (3) Transformation (4) Binary fission (49)Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-B) 119, 120. 121, 122, 123. 124. Find the mismatched p: Algae Feature (1) Chlorophyceae —-— Chlorophyll a +d (2) Phaeophyceae —— Chlorophylla +c (8) Rhodophyceae Cellulose + Pectin + Polysulphate esters (4) Chlorophyceae Cellulose + Pectose Find the odd one out w.r.t. algae used as food supplements (1) Chloretta (2) Laminaria @) Spirulina (4) Chlamydomonas Phycoerythrin is a major pigment found in (1) Diatoms (2) Green algae (3) Red algae (4) Brown algae In bryophytes zygote undergoes develops into B_ (1) A= Meiosis, B = Haploid sporophyte (2) A=Melosis, B = Diploid sporophyte (3) A= Mitosis, 8 = Haploid embryo (4) A= Mitosis, B = Diploid embryo In bryophytes (1) Sporophyte is independent from gametophyte (2) Sporophyte is the main plant body (3) Sporophyte is not free living and derives nourishment from gametophyte (4) Gametophyte is main plant body and sporophyte Is restricted to single celled stage only Read the given statements about bryophytes A. Sphagnum has great water absorbing capacity, hence it is called cotton mass. B. Sphagnum often grows in acidic marshes and can be used as fuel (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct 126. 126. 127. 128. 129, 130. 131 Dioecious bryophyte is (1) Funaria (2) Marchantia (3) Polytrichum (4) Riccia Evolutionarily, first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues are A while first terrestrial plants to possess seeds are B_ (1) A—Pteridophytes, B - Bryophytes (2) A~Gymnosperms, B - Pteridophytes (3) A—Pteridophytes, B - Angiosperms (4) A—Pteridophytes, B- Gymnosperms Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous, but ‘some produce two kinds of spores, such as (1) Selaginelia and Salvinia (2) Lycopodium and Azolla (3) Dryopteris and Pteris (4) Lycopodium and Salvinia Which of the following is not tue about pleridophytes? (1) In homosporous species, gametophyte is monoecious (2) In heterosporous species, gametophyte is dioecious (3) Pteridophytes can grow easily on dry and sunny places (4) Pteridophytes produce flagellated sperms Which of the following is also called i (1) Ginkgo bitoba (2) Pinus (8) Cedrus (4) Gnetum In angiosperms, synergid cells and egg cell are (1) Present in three celled egg apparatus (2) Diploid structures, (3) Involved in syngamy and triple fusion (4) Situated at chalazal end of embryo sac Tallest tree in angiosperms is (1) Eucalyptus (2) Sequoia (3) Wotta (4) Cycas co)‘Test-1 (Code-8) ‘Test Series for NEET-2020 132, Select the incorrect match. (1) Chilgoza = Pinus gerardiana (2) Ephedrine - Ephedra (3) Pinus = Sulphur shower (4) Cycas = Association of ‘Anabaena in mycorthizal roots 133. Choose the correct one for gymnosperm (1) Male and female gametophytes are highly reduced (2) Sporophyte is _nonphotosynthetic and depends on gametophyte (3) Fruits are enclosed within ovary (4) Embryo sac represents its, gametophyte female 434. Pollen grains in angiosperms. (1) Ate haploid and megasporangium (2) Represent female gametophyte (8) Are carriers of male gametes (4) Both (1) and (3) 195. Choose the organism that reproduce sexually (1) Anabaena (2) Euglena (8) Altemaria (4) Penicitium Produced — in 136, Select the mismatch w.rt. animals and their respective phylum. (1) Portuguese man of war - Cnidaria (2) Brittle star = Echinodermata (3) Tape worm - Platyhelminthes. (4) Hook worm = Mollusca 137. In molluscs, the file like rasping organ called radula belongs to which system? (1) Excretory system (2) Digestive system (8) Respiratory system (4) Circulatory system 138. Which of the following features is incorrect regarding ooelenterates? (1) Radially symmetrical (2) Cridobiasts are present on tentacles (3) Organ level of organisation (4) Gastro-vascular cavity 139, Which of the following is a feature of the phylum represented by animal given below? @ (1) Bilateral symmetry (2) Organ system level of body organisation (3) Direct development (4) Bioluminescence 140. The common feature between butterfly, prawn, king crab and mosquito is (1) They are mostly viviparous (2) Holometabolous metamorphosis (3) Tracheal respiration (4) Chitinous exoskeleton 141, Select the incorrectly matched pair. (1) Aschelminthes — Wuchereria (2) Annelida = Chaetopleura (8) Arthropoda = Locusta (4) Echinodermata = Ophiura 142. Choose the set of animals that belong to the same class. (1) Pterophyllum and Carcharodon (2) Ichthyophis and Pristis (3) Myxine and Petromyzon (4) Conus and Pteropus 143, Complete the analogy and choose the correct ‘option, Poikilothermous : Chelone : : Homeothermous (1) Aptenodytes (2) Alligator (8) Bufo (4) Clarias 144, Select the correct statement. (1) Naja exhibits external fertilization. (2) Crocoditus has a two chambered heart. (3) In krait, tympanum represents ear. (4) Lizards do not shed their scales as skin cast. (#2)Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-B) 145. 146. 147. 148 149, 160, 151, Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of notochord in larval tail (1) Ascidia (2) Salpa (8) Doliolum (4) Branchiostoma Match column-I and column-Il w.r.t. respiratory structures involved in the respective animals. Select the correct option. Column Column-il a. Gills () Cockroach b. Book-gills (i) Scorpion ©. Book-lungs (ii) Limutus 4d. Tracheal system (jv) Prawn (1) a, i), eli), avy (2) atv), bea, (i, 4) (8) afi), Bai, ef), a) (4) ati), bv), (0), iy ‘Among the following filariasis disease? (1) Culex (2) Musca domestica (3) Tsetse fly (4) Locusta Choose the correct set containing only poriferans. (1) Meandrina, Sycon, Adamsia (2) Aurelia, Obelia, Euspongia (8) Sycon, Spongilla, Euspongia (4) Spongilla, Physalia, Meandrina Select an oviparous mammal. (1) Balaenoptera (2) Omithortynchus (8) Delphinus (4) Equus Pinctada is commonly known as (1) Tusk shett (2) Chiton (3) Pearl oyster (4) Apple snail Excretion is carried out by proboscis glan (1) Myxine (2) Saccogiossus (3) Hyla (4) Hippocampus which vector spreads 152. 153. 164. 156. 156. 157. Which one is incorrectly matched? (1) Uricotelio, = Cockroach (2) Ammonotelic — Physalia (8) Ureotelic — Hemidactylus (4) Uricotelio = Pigeon Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement A : In annelids, body surface is distinctly marked out into metameres. ‘Statement B : Nereis posseses parapodia wh helps only in swimming and neural regulation. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (3) Both statements are incorrect, (4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct. Many living members of class _A ‘ectoparasite on some other _B — are Choose the option which fills the blanks correctly. A B (1) Cyclostomata Fishes (2) Chondrichthyes Amphibians (3) Amphibia Fishes (4) Reptiia Osteichthyes In which class of animals are air sacs connected to lungs to supplement respiration? (1) Chondrichthyes (2) Osteichthyes (3) Aves (4) Reptilia Choose the odd member wir. monoecious animals, (1) Earthworms (2) Leeches (3) Nereis (4) Tapeworm Choose the incorrect statement. (1) In Ascaris, alimentary canal is complete with a well developed muscular pharynx (2) In molluscs, posterior head region has sensory tentacles (3) Bioluminescence is a property of Ctenoplana (4) Comb plates help in locomotion (3)Test-1 (Code-8) Test Series for NEET-2020 158, 159, 160. 161. 162 163, 164, 165, In box given below how many animals possess tube feet for locomotion? Euspongia, Pila, Dentallum, Asterias, Balanogiossus, Antedon (2 Q6 @) 5 4 Choose the incorrect feature. w.rt. Osteichthyes. (1) Mouth is mostly terminal (2) Presence of four pairs of gills. (3) Gill slits are separate and without operculum, (4) Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy. All animals are included in Division Gnathostomata except (1) Hag fish (2) Saw fish (8) Dog fish (4) Angel fish Select the organism commonly called as fighting fish (1) Catla (2) Clarias (3) Betta (4) Labeo Select the correct statement. (1) Notochord is replaced by bony vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. (2) In cephalochordates notochord is persistent throughout their fe. (3) All chordates are vertebrates. (4) In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail region. ‘Which one is not a feature of chordates? (1) Presence of notochord (2) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and double, (8) Heart is ventral in location. (4) Post anal tal is present. Choose the animal in which the alimentary can: urinary and reproductive tracts do not open into cloaca. (1) fehthyophis (2) Aligator (3) Elephas (4) Neophron Collar level of body organisation is represented (1) Pleurobrachia (2) Gorgonia (3) Pennatula (4) Sycon 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. im 172 173 Select the fresh water animal (1) Spongilia (2) Ctenoplana (3) Ophiura (4) Saccoglossus ‘The cylindrical body of Balanoglossus does not show presence of (1) Proboscis (2) Head (8) Collar (4) Trunk Ascaris is not (1) Bilaterally symmetrical (2) Tripioblastic (3) Monoecious (4) Pseudocoetomate All of the following possess radial symmetry in adult stages except (1) Coelenterates (2) Ctenophores (8) Adult echinoderms (4) Molluscs ‘An undifferentiated layer called mesoglea is present between ectoderm and endoderm in (1) Coelenterates (2) Annelids (3) Echinoderms (4) Hemichordates Select the incorrect statement. (1) in Platyhelminthes body cavity is absent. (2) Notochord is an ectodermally derived rod-like structure (3) Choanocytes line the spongocoel (4) All chordates are tiploblastic tn which animal polyp produces “medusae asexually and medusae forms the polyp sexually? (1) Hydra (2) Sea cucumber (3) Obelia (4) Squid Match column and column-II w.rt. organisms and their locomotory structures. Column- Column-l a. Sea walnuts (i) Tube feet b. Earthworm ‘Comb plates c. Laccifer i) Setae 4d. Starfish (W) Jointed appendages Choose the correct option. (1) (i), Bt), efi), (iv) (2) a(i, bli), ef), dCi) (3) a(ii), bfiv), cfi), di) (4) ai, Dé), ef), 4) (14)Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-B) 174, 175, 176. 17. Statocyst acts as a balancing organ but they are not present in (1) Arthropods (2) Molluscs (3) Annelids (4) Poriferans Excretory structure of earthworm is (1) Nephridia 2) (3) Malpighian tubules (4) Flame cells Select the triploblastic animal which has no excretory system. (1) Lancelet (2) Lamprey (3) Sea ur (4) Magur Choose the odd one wrt. class Osteichthyes. (1) Hippocampus (2) Carcharodon (8) Labeo (4) Exocoetus a 178, 179, 180. Identify a scaleless fish, which kills its enemies with an electric shock from the electric organ. (1) Pristis: (2) Catla (3) Pterophylum (4) Torpedo ‘Among the following the largest aquatic living animal is (1) Elephas (2) Balaenoptera (3) Camelus (4) Panthera Consider the following features Enterocoelom Stomochord Open circulatory system Worm-like appearance Indirect development Select the correct option wrt. the group of animals which possess all the above features. (1) Urochordates (2) Cephaiochordates (3) Hemichordates (4) Gnathostomates aege e. (5)