20/03/2020 @® CODE-A Aakash MeeicallIIT-JEE| Foundations Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456 MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time: Test -1 .00 Hrs, Topics covered : Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom Botany —_: The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom Zoology _: Animal Kingdom Instructions : {() Use biveyblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle, (li) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. (li) Dark only one circle for each entry. (Iv). Dark the circle in the space provided only. (¥) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on Answer sheet. (vi). Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score. PHYSICS Choose the correct answer : 3. If &» Is permittivity of free space and yo is 1. IFA, Band C are three physical quantities such magnetic permeabiliy of free space then the that A and B are of same dimensions while C has 4 different dimensions, then which of the following dimensional formula of (ZF is may be meaningful Hoo + - (1) [Mu] ” Azo) @ (-28) (2) [Mur] A (2A-38) 2 © eo oa @ (mr?) (4) [Mur] 2. Time period of a simple pendulum recorded in three experiments are 1.95, 2.0 and 2.1, then | 4. A particle moving on a straight line has initial velocity 2.03 mls, accelerating uniformly with M te eroris 0. (1) Mean absolute erroris 0.01 1.0 mis? after 0.3 s will have velocity (in m/s) (2) Relative error is 0.05 (upto correct significant figures) (8) Percentage error is 0.5% (1) 23 (2) 20 (4) Percentage error is 0.05% (3) 2.06 @)24 (0)‘Test-t (Code-A) ‘Test Series for NEET-2020 5. 10. ‘A physical quantity X is related to four quantities a5 a, Byyand pas x = 8 wr The percentage errors in measurement of a, B, p and y are ys. * 2% and i respectively then percentage errr in Xis, (1) 15% (2) 25% (3) 35% (4) 4% If power ofa force varies with displacement x and ax? time t as P= where @ and b are dimensional constants, then the dimension: formula of [ab] is (1) [mer] (2) (mer) (3) [Mer] (4) [Mur] If force (F), acceleration (a) and time (0) are considered to be fundamental quantities, then the dimensional formula of surface tension is (1) (Fat (2) [Fat] (3) [Fer] (4) [Fa] If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, which of the following verier scales gives vernier constant equal to 0.05 mm? (1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions (2) 191mm divided into 20 divisions (3) 90 mm divided into 100 divisions (4) 99 mm divided into 100 divisions If dimensional formula of a physical quantity is [MeL°T®], then the physical quantity is (1) Torque, if a= 1,b=2andc¢=-1 (2) Surface tension, it (3) Impusse, ita (4) Radial acceleration, if a = 0, b= 1 and ¢=— Which of the following is more precise instrument? (1) Meter scale having smallest division 1 mm (2) Vernier calipers in which 20 vernier scale division coinciding with 19 main scale division (3) Screw gauge with 0.5 mm smallest division on linear scale and 50 divisions on circular scale (4) Vernier calipers with least count 0.02 mm 11, 12, 13. A pattiole is moving along x-axis such that its position (x) varies with time(t) as, x = (t sinf) m then average acceleration of the particle from t=0stot= sis 2 (1) 3 mis? (2) £ mis? (@) Ems? (4) 4 mis? The velocity time graph of a particle moving on a straight line is as shown in figure. y(mis) (2) (3) Apolice jeep wants to chase a thief's car which is moving with speed 40 mis on a straight track. If the separation between the jeep and car is 400 m then speed of jeep required to catch the car in 20sis (1) 40 mis (3) 80 mis (2) 60 mis (4) 120 mis (2)‘Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 14, 15, 16. 7. 18. Who among the following scientist was awarded Nobel prize for his work on photoelectric effect? (1) Sirlsaac Newton (2) Albert Einstein (3) de-Brogiie (4) Neil Bohr The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of @ particle moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. If the initial velocity of the particle is 5 ms then the velocity at the end of 7 5 is a(mis*) + 2 2 (8) (1) Sms (2) 6ms (3) 8mis (4) 10 mis ‘A vehicle travels one fourth of total distance with speed ¥, and remaining part with speed v, then its average speed in the total journey is By t¥2 ive 1) Sette 2) ie, Ore Ove Atte a) Ae Byte YtVe ‘An elevator of cabin height 1.2 m_ starts ascending with acceleration 2 mis®. One second after the start a loose bolt starts falling from the ceiling. The time after which bolt will hit the floor of elevator is (9 = 10 m/s?) ye @* 1 (3) 5s (4) z The displacement time graph of a particle moving ‘on a straight line is as shown. The section of the ‘graph which corresponds to positive acceleration is 0 ime (1) OA (2) AB (@) BC (4) DE 19. 20. 2. 22. 23. A particle moves a distance x in time f according 1 to the equation x The acceleration of ky the particle is proportional to 2 5 (1) (velocity)? (2) (velocity)® 1 5 (3) (distance)? (4) (distance)? Aball is dropped from a high tower at t= 0. After 40 s another ball is thrown in downward direction from the same point with speed v. If these two balls meet at = 15 s. Then the value of v is (take g = 10 m/s?) (1) 50 m/s. (2) 100 ms (3) 200 mis (4) 225 mis A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with velocity 6] mis, in xy plane with constant acceleration 2) mis? . Then the postion coordinates of the particle (in m) when velocity of the particle becomes parallel to x-axis is (1) (8,9) (2) 3,9) @) 6-9) @) 6,0) Speed of a projectile at the point of projection is v2 times the speed at its maximum height the angle of projection of the projectile is (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60" (4) tan™(v2) A particle moves so that its position vector is given by 7 =Asinati + Bcosatj, where A and B are positive constants which of the following is ‘rue? (1) Velocity and acceleration both are Perpendicular to 7 (2) Velocity is perpendicular to 7 and acceleration is directed towards origin (3) Velocity is parallel to 7 and acceleration is parallel to 7 ifA=B (4) Velocity is perpendicular to 7 for A = B, and ‘acceleration is opposite to 7 for any value of AandB @)“Test Series for NEET-2020 2. 2. ‘A particle is moving such that its position co-ordinates are varying with time as shown below S.No. | Position (x, y) inm | Time (s) w (0, 2) 0 (ii) (2,8) 2 {iy (8.8) 6 ‘The average velocity of the particle from f= 0s tot=6sis (1) (47+33) mis a (3) (i+]) ms (4) (31443) ms The angle of projection of a projectile for which range is double the maximum height, will be (1) 8 = tan-(2) (2) 6 = tan-(4) ) mvs (3) Water jet comes out from a point © on the ‘ground at a speed v at angle 45° with horizontal as shown. The speed v of jet so that it can wot the man upto his head will be (g = 10 mis?) 245" , (4) @=tan™* (1) 10 ms (2) 10V2 mis @ ms (4) 100 mis A particle moves with velocity V in xy plane as V=c(xy7i+yx2j) mis. Then the general equation of its path will be (1) y=x+ constant (2) y= x2+ constant 22+ constant (4) y= x°+ constant of the following set of magnitude of vectors cannot give zero resultant? (1) 1,2,3 (2) 25,5,15 (3) 10.5.8 (4) 15,8,20 ‘A man crosses a river of width 400 m flowing at 40 mis in minimum time. If velocity of man in still water is 50 mis then the displacement of man while he reaches the opposite bank ofthe river is (1) 80m (2) 8V4m (3) 804m (4) 10V44m 30. 34 32. 33, For a man walking with speed 3V2 km/h rain appears to fall vertically downward. When he starts running with SV2 kmh rain appears to fall cn him at an angle of 45° with vertical. The speed of rain wrt. ground (in kmh) is (1) V2 (2) 26 (3) 26 (4) 2v7 Two boys A and B initially separated by a straight line distance a on the ground. If A and B both start running simultaneously with same speed as shown in figure. The distance of their closest approach will be A “oy 2 $ Ya 2 (2) 28 @) a Consider three vectors A,B and C,, which add up to give zero vector. Then which of the following is false? (1) [Axi (2) (AxB)xG ti (3) (Axd)-6= ae if ALB (4) (Ax8)-6 =0 for any angle between A and The position of a particle is varying w.rt. time as F =a(t—1'i+bt?] where a and b are constants, is in m, and ¢ is in second. The time after which acceleration becomes normal to the velocity is xc] the plane of A, Band G 2 O oe °) BaoF a a ® ap Oe A particle starts from rest on a circle of radius 257 with uniformly increasing speed. If it completes 5 revolutions after § s of motion then tangential acceleration will be (1) 5 mis? (2) 10 ms? (3) 15 mis? (4) 20 mis? 4)‘Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A) 36. 37. 46. 47. In the figure given below the maximum height of the projectile will be y le em (1) 135m 2) 155m @) 18m (9m A pattice is moving on a circle of radius 2 m. Its speed (v) varies with time tas v= af, where «is @ consiant. The ratio of radial acceleration to tangential acceleration of the particle at f= 2 sis Oa 28 8) 2a a4 ‘A ball is dropped from a jong tower. One second after its fall air provides horizontal acceleration of 42 ms?. Total displacement covered by the ball after 4 s of its fal will be (take g = 10 mis?) (1) 133.3 m (2) 100m (3) 278m (4) 150m ‘A particle on y-axis starts from rest along a straight line y= 3 with constant acceleration 2V3 mis. Angie made by position vector of the particle with positive x-axis afler one second of its motion is (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° ‘A man standing at a point in @ flood affected area, is waiting for a food packet to be dropped from a plane. Ifthe plane is fying at an altitude of 2 km with speed 360 knvh, then at what angle of Sight (with respect to horizontal) the packet should be dropped so as to reach safely in hands of the man? (lake g= 10 rvs?) (1) 30" 245° (8) tanr*(2) (4) 60° Total number of degenerate orbitals in the 24 shell of Li®* ion is (2 a @e8 ae ‘Angular nodes present in 4s and 2p orbitals respectively are 40. If diagonals of a parallelogram are (j-7) and (i-+]), then area of the parallelogram will be (1) 0.5 unit (2) 1 unit (3) 2unit (4) 4 unit 41. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 om and 10s as the units of mass, length and time respectively. Then the value of 10 N in this system will be (1) 1000 units 2) tunts (3) 10 units (4) 100 units 42, Acar moving along x-axis with speed 72 km/h is brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If retardation is. uniform then time taken (in s) in stopping this car is, a (22 @) 3 a4 43. If resultant of two unit vectors @ and v3 magnitude, then the magnitude of difference of these unit vectors is (1) Zero @1 @ 8 4) v2 44, A bady is moving with 20 mis towards east. After 5:5 its velocity becomes 30 mis towards north and continues. Then ratio of magnitude of average velocity between (0 to 10 s) and average acceleration between (0 to 10 s) is 1 3 ay 2 @) 3A3 m5 @ 58 @) 5 (4) 5vi3 45, Two quantities are measured as A = 1.0 m + 0.2 m and 8 = 2.0 m 0.2 m. The correct value of VAB should be reported as (1) 14m£0.2m 2) 14m£0.1m (8) 1.41 m £0.15 m (4) 14ms£04m iSTRY (1) 4,0 2) 3,0 @) 01 4) 2,3 48. Normality of 0.1 M HPO, is (1) 02N (2) 0.4N (3) 03N (4) 0.15N ©)‘Test-t (Code-A) 49. 51 55. 87. The molality of aq. solution of urea in which mole fraction of urea is 0.1, is (1) 647m (2) 524m (3) 6.98 m (4) 5.78 m The angular moment of electron in d-orbital is h A) Ze 2 (1) Zero az Bh h @ Br oz ‘The number of atoms present in 0.48 g of O, is (Ng = 6.022 x 10%) (1) 18 10° (2) 1.8 * 108 (3) 18 « 10 (4) 1.8 «10? Which of the following method of expressing concentration is dependent on temperature? (1) Molality (2) Mole fraction (3) (wants (4) Molarity Maximum possible number of spectral lines obtained in Lyman series when an electron in H- atom sample de-excites from third excited state to ground state is (1) 3 (2) 6 @)4 8 ‘The wavelength associated with a 0.1 kg moving object is 6,62 x 10 m. The speed of the moving object is (h = 6.62 « 10 Js) (1) 10 ms* (2) 100 ms* (3) 1ms (4) 0.1 ms The correct set of quantum numbers (n, £, m) for valence electron of zinc (2 = 30) is (1) 44,2 (2) 3,0,0 (3) 4,0,0 (4) 42,0 ‘The number of significant figures in 50 pens is (1) Infinite (2 (3) Zero (4) 1 The equivalent mass of KCLMgCI,6H,O is (M= Molar mass of salt) ()M (2) @) ez oz @ 58. 59. 60, 61 62, 63, 65, ‘Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘The ratio of the radius of second orbit of He* to the first orbit of Be™ ions is (1) 44 (2) 1:2 (@) 3:2 (4) 8:4 50 ml of 1 N NaOH is mixed with 150 ml of 2.N Ca(OH),. The molarity of OH” ions in the resulting solution will be [Consider complete dissociation of NaOH and Ca(OH), (1) 25M (2) 1.75M (3) 1.25M (4) 1.50M Which of the following possess highest mass? (1) 22.44, at STP (2) SgofH, (3) 0.3 mole of H, (4) 1.204 x 10* molecules of H, For a microscopic particle of mass m, Ax = 2Av. The uncertainty in the velocity of particle wil be [a fe 1 [fh 1 fp Oe Oa Volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make 3 L of 0.1 M NaOH solution is (2 @ 25L @) 154 aL x gram of metal gives y g of metal oxide on ‘complete combustion. The equivalent weight of metal is ) 8x. 8) on @) x x ® ay y-x 4) Y=X @ 2 fe) Among the fotoning (Sais minimum for (1) Electron (2) Proton (3) e-particle (4) Neutron ‘Among the following which has maximum number of molecules? (1) 499 of HPO, (3) 289N, (2) 45g of CoH,0, (4) 369H,0 @‘Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 66. 67. 70. m. 72, 73, ‘An organic compound contain C, H and O gave the following analysis C = 40%, © = 83.33%. Its molecular formula may be (1) CH,O, (2) CHO (3) CHO (4) CoH.O, The number of moles of nitrogen in one litre of air containing 79% nitrogen by volume, under standard conditions is 79x10 7.910% () Soa @ a 79x10 79x10° @) O204 @) O04 An element, X has the following isotopic composition, "X : 80% and 1X : 20%, The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to (1) 100.9 (2) 100.4 (3) 1012 (4) 101.8 Volume of CO, obtained at STP by the comple! decomposition of 10 g of lime stone (90% pure) is nearly (1) 1.7 litre (2) 3.8 litre (3) 2 litre (4) 26 litre Select the isosteres pair among the following (1) Oz, O3 (2) CO, Ny (8) CO, 0, (4) Co, co, The number of revolution of electrons per second inn omit of H-atom Is (k = constant) k k wy as k k @ + ws ‘The maximum wavelength among the following is of (1) Xrays (2) rays (3) IR (4) Radio waves ‘The phenomenon which justify the wave nature of light is/are (1) Diffraction (2) Photoelectric effect (3) Interference (4) Both (1) and (3) 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. 79, 80, at Bohr theory is applicable to (1) uit (2) Be™ @) 8° (4) Ht In H-atom spectrum, the wavelength of radiation ‘emitted when electron falls from third excited state to ground state is (R,, = Rydberg constant) 16 3 Re @ aR, 9 18 © oR, © Fer, The number of photons emitted in one second by ‘a 10 watt bulb, which emits monochromatic light of wavelength 662 nm, is (n= 6.62 * 10™%ys) (1) 6.28 x 10 (3) 5.21 « 10% Select the _ correct photoelectric effect (1) Number of ejected electrons are independent of intensity of light (2) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent of intensity of light (8) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent of frequency of light (4) Number of ejected electrons depends on the frequency of light A steel vessel containing 10 g H, and 64 g O, was exploded. The maximum moles of H,0 produced in the reaction is (1) 8 (2)7 @4 (4) 5 If vapour density of a gas is 44 then the volume ‘occupied by the 0.88 g of gas at STP is (1) 2240 mi (2) 112 mi (3) 224 mi (4) 1120 mi Number of maximum possible electron(s) in Zn. for which n+ £ = aa 6 @)8 (4) 12 If the kinetic energy of an electron in n® shell of H-atom is 3.4 eV then nis a2 (23 @)1 (4) 4 (2) 3.33 x 10° (4) 7.25% 10” statement regarding‘Test-t (Code-A) ‘Test Series for NEET-2020 ot. 1 (cazarign)o mn (1) tamu (2) 1 avogram (3) 1 datton (4) All of these ‘The mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution containing 42.5% (w/w) NaNO, is (1) 0.281 (2) 0.053, (3) 0.215 (4) 0.135 If threshold energy of a metal is 1.5 eV and energy of incident photon an metal is 3 eV then stopping potential for the metal is (1) 15 (2) 25V (3) 35V (4) 05 The ratio of masses of two particles is 1 : 2 and ratio of their kinetic energies is 9 : 2. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths is (1) (2) Nia IN ale @) (4) 86. 87. 88, 29, 90, Which of the following is a possible arrangement of electrons in an atom? (1) n=5,1= Q) n=4,1= (3) n=5,1=4,m=2,s=+ @)n=4, ‘The energy absorbed by each molecule of B, is 2.2» 10-"® J and bond energy per molecule of B, is 2 * 108 J, The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be (1) 11084 (2) 2* 10-95 (3) 2« 107) (4) 11095 The percentage loss of mass by Na,SO,-10H,0 to become anhydrous is (1) 72.5% (2) 45.2% (3) 55.9% (4) 65.2% ‘The number of standing waves in 3° shell of Heatom is (3 Qs @) V3 4) 3 A gaseous mixture contains H, and CO, gases in the ratio of 1 : 11 (ww). The ratio of number of atoms of H, to CO, in the mixture is a) (2) @) a) ela ole Nin ain Identify the wrong statement for flora. (1) Itgives the information about plants (2) It gives the actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of given area (8) Itis an index to the plant species of a specific area (4) It also includes information of distribution pattern of animal species along with plants of anarea 92, Key is an important taxonomic aid used for _A of plants and animals based on Bina pair known as _C. (1) ANaming, B-Keys, C-Couplet (2) A-ldentification, C-Couplet B-Contrasting characters, (3) A-Classification, B-Similarities, C-Keys (4) ATaxonomy, B-Dissimilarities, C-Lead 8)‘Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 93, 100 Select the odd one out w.rt. zoological parks (1) Wild animals are kept in zoos. (2) These are in-situ conservation strategies of animals (3) Animals are kept in protective environment under human care (4) National Zoological Park is located in Delhi The specific epithet in Panthera leo and Pisum sativum respectively, are (1) feo and Pisum (2) Panthera and sativum (8) feo and sativum (4) Panthera and Pisum ‘The basios to taxonomy does net include (1) Characterisation (2) Identification (3) Nomenclature (4) Evolutionary relationship ‘True regeneration is seen in (1) Allfungi and algae (2) Planaria (3) Amoeba (4) Bacteria In five kingdom classification, R.H. Whittaker proposed a new kingdom as (1) Plantae (2) Protista (3) Monera (4) Fungi RH. Whittaker classified the organisms into five kingdoms on basis the following criterias, except (1) Coll structure (2) Thallus organisation and mode of nutrition (3) 16 S RNA sequences (4) Phylogeny In six kingdom classification, which kingdom was further divided into two kingdoms (1) Monera (2) Plantae (8) Fungi (4) Animalia Which of the following is not a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria (1) Azotobacter (2) Clostridium (3) Rhizobium (4) Klebsiella 101 102 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108, Find the mismatched pair. (1) Acetobacteria Vinegar production aceti (2) Bacillus vulgaris. — Ammonification (3) Nitrosomonas -N, fixation (4) Lactobacillus — Curd production Branched chain lipids in cell membrane is a feature of (1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria () Diatoms (4) Cyanobacteria Bacteria commonly reproduce asexually by (1) Conjugation (2) Binary fission (3) Budding (4) Conia formation Fungi differ from bacteria in having (1) 70 ribosomes (2) Chitinous cell wall (3) Plasma membrane (4) Asexual reproduction Euglena does not (1) Have chlorophyll a (2) Reproduce asexually (3) Have call wall (4) Show heterotrophic mode of nutrition ‘The parasitic fungus found on mustard leaves is. (1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo candida (3) Alternaria (4) Puccinia Choose the correct option having names of all sac fungi (1) Neurospora, Claviceps, Morels (2) Agaricus, Morels, Truffles (3) Claviceps, Penicilium, Puccinia (4) Atternaria, Penicilum, Morels Find the odd one out w.rt lichens (1) They are composed of phycobiont and mycobiont (2) The autotrophic component of lichens prepare food for heterotrophic component (3) They are pioneer colonisers of barren rocks: (4) Lichens can grow easily in SO2 polluted areas @)Test A (Code-A) ‘Test Series for NEET-2020 409, 110. "1 112, 113, 114, 118. 116 Which one is incorrectly matched. (1) Ascomycetes = Penicillium (2) Basidiomycetes — Agaricus (8) Zygomycetes = Albugo candida (4) Oomycetes = Phytophthora ‘Which one is not a feature of fungi imperfect. (1) Mycelium branched or septate (2) Asexual reproduction by conidia (3) Oospores are sexual spores (4) Fruiting bodies are absent Endomycorrhiza (1) Forms, Hartig net in cortex of roots (2) Is mainly formed by oomycetes (3) Are also called Vesicular Mycorthiza (4) Is found in Pinus roots Chief producers in the oceans are (1) Dinoflagetlates (2) Euglenoids (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Diatoms Sexual spores are produced exogenously in (1) Alternaria and Trichoderma (2) Puccinia and Ustilago (3) Penicitium and Aspergillus (4) Neurospora and Phytophthora Find the statement wrong for both virus and viroids (1) Both are non-infectious (2) Both have genetic material (3) Both are obligate parasites (4) Both are smaller than bacteria Early blight of potato is caused by (1) Ustitago (2) Alternaria (3) Albugo (4) Phytophthora Cellulose and chitin respectively are major components of cell wall of (1) Algae and blue-green algae (2) Algae and diatoms (8) Algae and fungi (4) Fungi and algae ‘Arbuscular 117. 118. 119. 120. 121 122. 123. Membrane bound organelles are present in (1) Saccharomyces (2) Streptococcus @) Bacillus (4) Clostridium Which of the following is not related to ‘prions’? (1) Kuru disease (2) CFJ disease (3) BSE or Mad Cow disease (4) Cholera Which Is true about cyanobacteria? (1) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis and cell wall is composed of chitin (2) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis and cell wall is composed of cellulose (3) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis along with nitrogenase activity in heterocyst (4) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis but have heterocyst Find the odd one out w.r.t. chlorophyceae (1) Storage bodies are called pyrenoids (2) Pyrenoid are composed of protein and starch (3) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Fucus are members of this class (4) Chiorophyll a, b and carotene are pigments found in chlorophyceae Which of the given ‘Phaeophyceae'? (1) Celt wail is composed of cellulose, pectin and polysulphated esters (2) Floridean starch is stored food (@) They have carrageen and agar in cell wall (4) Produce flagellatd spores and gametes Hydrocolloids of red algae (@) Are water holding substances (b) Also includes agar (©) Are produced by Gelidium and Gracilaria Which of the above statements are true? (1) All(a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only 3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only Classification system given by Linnaeus and Hutchinson respectively are (1) Natural and artical (2) Artificial and natural (3) Artificial and phylogenetic (4) Phylogenetic and artificial is a feature of (10)‘Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 124, 125, 126. 127 128. 129, Find the correctly matched pai. (1) Chlorophyceae - Asexually reproduce by zoospores (2) Phaeophyceae — Show post fertilzational development (3) Rhodophyceae - Antherozoids are flagellated male gametes (4) Phaeophyceae - Characteristic colour is due to phycoerythrin Find the odd one out (1) Chara (2) Nostoc (3) Ulothrie (4) Spirogyra Which ofthe following statements is wrong wr. bryophytes? (1) They are found localities damp, shady and humid (2) They are called amphibians of plant kingdom (3) Gametophyte is diploid and dominant plant body (4) Bryophytes are homosporous Mosses (1) Have less developed sporophyte than liver worts (2) Exhibit creeping, green and branched filamentous stage called protonema, which is their juvenile phase (3) Show dipiontic life cycle (4) May asexually reproduce by gammae ‘Which bryophyte has been employed by gardners to keep the seedlings moist? (1) Sphagnum (2) Marchantia (3) Polytrichum (4) Funaria Coralloid roots are found in (1) Pinus (2) Sequoia (@) Cycas (4) All gymnosperms 130, 131 132, 133, 134. 136. ‘After double fertilization in angiosperms. (1) Fertiized ovules develops into embryos (2) Synergid and antipodal cells degenerate (3) Zygote develop into seeds (4) Synergids cells remain antipodal cells, Find the odd one out wt generations. suspended in alternation of (1) In hapiontic is dominant stage life cycle, gametophyte (2) In diplontic life cycle, sporophyte is dominant stage (3) In haplo-dipiontic life cycle both sporophyte and gametophyte stages are absent (4) In haplo-diplontc life cycle both sporophyte and gametophyte stages are equally dominant Zygotic meiosis, (1) Is found in all algae (2) Occur in all pteridophytes and angiosperms (8) Is seen in green algae (4) Ocour in all gymnosperms and angiosperms Find the mismatched pair w.rt. plants (1) Bryophyta- Embryophytes (2) Pteridophyta-First racheophytes (3) Gymnosperms-Naked seeded plants (4) Angiosperms—Archegoniate spermatophyte Read the following statements, ‘A. In angiosperms seeds are formed inside fruit and the sporophylis are organised into flowers. B. a) (2) Both the statements are wrong ‘Smallest angiosperm is Wolfia Both the statements are correct, (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only Statement B is correct Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. angiosperms. (1) A flower is the modified shoot (2) PEN is triploid (3) Apisti has stigma, style and ovary (4) Pollen grain is formed inside megasporangia (11)Tast-1 (Code-A) ‘eat Saties for NEET-2020, 136, 137, 138, (zoouocy ) ‘The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct option w.r.t. 8 common characterslic of two of these animals, ) © @ © ae, (1) (@) and (4) have cnidobiast for self defense (2) (©) and (4) have a true coelom (3) (@) and (4) respire mainly through gills (4) (b) and (c) show radil aymmety Choose the option in which, the genus name, Its two cheracters and class are not corractly matched, [annum name |e characte lene (9 [opine [claret realar mouth |Cywtomala Polatiemnece opel (2) | carharedon [Pt [conatrenea ame rs eoparaia ah (o|cum — Eereneeans Caen (4) | onnyeanie |Teewpode yrpanumpreant| Apia Match the following genera In column | with their respective phylum In column Il Column | Column it 9. Cucumaria () Platyheiminthes b. Meendrina (W) Mollusca ¢ Cheetoploure, () Costenterats 4. Taanle (W) Echinodermata Select the correct option. (1) a, BA, et), dv) (2) a(t), bq, et), (3) a), bam, eft), dt) (4) a(t, bev), ef) ty 139, 140. 141 142. 143. ‘The adult animal which exhibits radial symmety Is (1) Asterias (2) Lotigo (3) Aedes (4) Pheretima A new animal was discovered and brought to the lab for scientific observation and study. The following characteristic © features = were documented about it () The adults were tetrapods (i) A lot of differance was observed batwoen larvae and adults. }) The tails were absent in the adults, which the lervee had, (Q¥) Adults could tive both on land and water The organism most liksly belongs to (1) Arthropoda (2) Pisces (@) Protochordata (4) Amphbia Select the animal that le characterized by crap and gizzard in ta digestive system (1) Tapeworm (2) Sponges (3) Cockroach (4) Humans Which of the folowing animals la a homectherm? (1) Struthlo (2) Noje (@) Seccoglossus (4) Vipers russe! Select the flying mammal (1) Macropus @) Proropus (@) Balaanoptora (4) Omithorhynchus Choose the Incorract statement. (1) Allmammate are not viviparous (2) All cyclostomes possess Jaws and paired fins. (3) Reptiles generally have a three chambered heart (4) Not oll fishes have gills covered by an operculum (12)Tost Series for NEET:2020 145. Which one of the following characteristic features is shared by reptiles and amphibians? (1) A tympanum represents the ear (2) Fertilization is mainly internal (2) Developmentis indirect (4) Skin is moist without scales Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Petromyzon has an ammocoete larvae (2) Vertebrates possess notochord during the ‘embryonic period. (3) All vertebrates are chordates (4) All chordates are vertebrates Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement A : Subphyla Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as protochordates. Statement B : Ascidia is a urochordata. (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Statement A is incorrect, (3) Both statements are correct (4) Statement B is incorrect Chordates are not (1) Schizocoelomates (2) Triploblastic (8) Bilaterally symmetrical (4) Possessing —_organ-system organisation Choose the odd one wrt. Tetrapoda. (1) Mammals (3) Aves Choose the Osteichthyes. (1) Notochord is persistent throughout life (2) Mouth is located ventrally (3) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed (4) Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy Select the largest animal endoskeleton or exoskeleton. (1) Aurelia (2) Myxine (3) Cucumaria (4) Sword fish 146, 147. 148, level of 149, super class (2) Osteichthyes (4) Reptilia correct statement 150. wrt 151. without any 152, 153. 154, 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. ‘Test-t (Code-A) How many animals in the given box have open circulatory system? (Octopus, Salamandra, Spider, Crab, Chelone| (4 (2) 2 @ 5 3 ‘Among the following which organism is an enterocoelomate with bilateral symmetry? (1) Grass-hopper (2) Octopus (3) Sea horse (4) Loligo Choose the animal that shows direct development during the life cycle. (1) Pheretima (2) Echinus (3) Saccoglossus (4) Dentalium ‘An important characteristic feature that is shared between Balanogiossus and Pteropus is (1) Presence of (2) Sexes are separate () Dorsal solid nerve cord (4) Presence of notochord ‘Musca domestica belongs to the order (1) Arthropoda 2) Insecta (3) Muscidae (4) Diptera Which one of the following is a feature of butterfly? (1) Organ level of body organisation (2) Body consists of head, thorax and abdomen. (3) Belongs to second largest phylum (4) Body is covered by a calcareous exoskeleton ‘Alteration of generation between asexual and ‘sexual phases of an organism is termed (1) Metagenesis (2) Metastasis (3) Metamorphosis (4) Morphogenesis How many of the features listed below are correct w.rt. phylum porifera? () Internal cavities are lined with food fitering flagellated cells, (li) Body is made up of meshwork of cells sacs (ii) Mostly asymmetrical (iv) Water vascular system (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (13)Test ‘Test Series for NEET-2020 160. 161. 162, 163, 164 165, 166, 167 168 1 (Code-A) ‘A viviparous endoparasite of the human body is (1) Hookworm (2) Round worm (3) Trichina worm (4) Tape worm Members of phylum A and B are exclusively marine. A and B respectively are (1) Porifera and Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora and Hemichordata (3) Aschelminthes and Porifera (4) Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata ‘An organism that does not show the presence of cell wal (1) Sea pen (8) Psoudomonas (2) Ecol (4) Thermus aquaticus ‘Which of the following represents genus of ‘Cat’? (1) Equus (2) Felis (3) Canis (4) Rattus Select the incorrect feature wrt ctenophores. (1) Tissue level of body organisation (2) Fertlization is external (3) Ciliated comb plates primarily help in feeding (4) Digestion both intracellular is extracellular and ‘The group of animals which belong to the same phylum are (1) Tape worm, Pinworm, Hookworm (2) Sea anemone, Sea hare, Sea cucumber (8) Starfish, Flying fish, Saw fish (4) Cute fish, Devil fish, Sea hare ‘A member of the largest phylum of animal kingdom is (1) Lepisma (2) Exocoetus (3) Sepia (4) Tetradon Members of which phylum have a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth and anus (1) Mollusca (8) Echinodermata (2) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelida ‘Which of the following animais is diploblastic? (1) Lancelet (2) Magur (3) Liver fuke (4) Sea wainut 169. 170. 1m 172, 173 174, Choose the edd one w.rt. presence of ventral solid central nervous system. (1) Dotiotum (2) Scorpion (3) Spider (4) Periplaneta Which of the following characteristics is present in phylum Aschelminthes? (1) Monoecious (2) Parapodia (3) Pseudocoeiom (4) Metamerism All of the following are correctly matched, except (1) Bombyx mori = Sericulture (2) Apis indica = Apiculture (3) Pinctada — Pearl culture (4) Laceifer lacca = Vermiculture Which one is not a feature of Adamsia? (1) Metagenesis (2) Gastrovascuiar cavity () Diplobiastic (4) Cnidobiast Select the Incorrect statement. (1) Schizocoeiom first originated Annelida. (2) Blastopore is the pore of blastocoel (8) Solenocytes are the main structures in platyhelminthes. (4) The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents an egg with a juvenile. Given below are four matches of animals and their respiratory organs. In phylum excretory A. Herdmania = Book lungs B. Delphinus = Lungs: ©. Anopheles — Tracheal tubes D. Limulus = Book gills ‘The correct matches are (1) Cand D only (2) AandB (3) B,C and D (4) Aand D only (14)‘Test Series for NEET-2020 4175, A larvcidal fish which helps control malaria is (1) Silverfish (2) Gambusia (3) Cuttleish (4) Flyingfish 176. Select the correct statement w.rt aves. (1) The forelimbs generally have scales (2) Respiration is carried out mainly by air sacs (@) Development is indirect, (4) Endoskeleton is fully ossified 177. The larva of which animal _undergoes metamorphosis in fresh water and then retums to the ocean (1) Petromyzon (8) Ascidia 178. Choose the hemichordates. (1) Presence of stomochord (2) Worm like marine animal (3) Presence of proboscis gland (4) Body is metamerically segmented (2) Branchiostoma (4) Salpa incorrect feature wart. ‘est-t (Code-A) 179. Select the flightless bird. (1) Neophron (2) Aptenodytes (3) Psittacula (4) Columba Select the organism which has the following characteristics. 180. (0) The male bears a brood pouch where female lays egg. (i) Tallis prehensite (ii) Presence of long snout (iv) Bony endoskeleton (1) Hippocampus (2) Catia (3) Scoliodon (4) Pristis a (15)