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1. Hydrographic survey deals with the
mapping of _______.
A. Large water bodies
B. Canal system
C. Colour movement
D. None of these
Ans. A.
hydrographic Survey deals with any body
of still or running water such as a lake,
harbor, stream or river. Hydrographic
surveys are used to define shore line and
under water features. Also used for
construction of sea works.
2. If the smallest division of a Vernier is
longer than the smallest division of its
primary scale, the Vernier is known as
_______.
A. Direct Vernier
B. Double Vernier
C. Simple Vernier
D. Retrograde Vernier
Ans. D.
Retrograde verniers are found on some
devices, including surveying instruments.
A retrograde vernier is similar to the direct
vernier, except its graduations are at a
slightly larger spacing. In direct vernier it
has N no. of graduation but in retrograde
Vernier it has N+1 no. of graduations.
Both Direct and retrograde verniers are
read in the same manner.
3. A well-conditioned triangle has angles
not less than ______ and more than
respectively.
A. 10°, 90° B. 20°,120°
C. 90°, 120° D. None of these
Ans. C.
a well-conditional triangle is one in which
all angle is greater than 30 & less than
120. It is used to calculate the area of
field in construction work.
4. Compensating errors in chaining are
_______.
A. Proportional to the length of the line
B. Proportional to the square root of the
length of the line
C. Inversely proportional to the square
root of the length of the line
D. Inversely proportional to the length of
the line
Ans. B.
1
compensating errors may be positive or
negative depends on the least square
method. In this method the most probable
error is,
Es = +.6745√∑v2/n-1
Where, v is the difference b/w the
observation & the mean value of the set of
observation.
5. If a chain is found too short on testing,
it can be adjusted by ______.
A. Straightening the links
B. Inserting additional circular rings
C. Flattening the circular rings
D. Any of the options
Ans. D.
if a chain is too short on testing then it
can be adjusted by,
1) Inserting a big circular ring b/w the
links of the chain.
2) Straightening the links of the chain.
3) Smoothening or levelling of the circular
rings.
6. Permissible limits of error in chaining
for measurement on rough or hilly ground
is ______.
A. 1 : 2000 B. 1 : 1000
C. 1 : 500 D. 1 : 250
Ans. D.
chaining in hilly area can be done by using
indirect method or ranging rod method.
During the chaining permissible error will
be there.
These error have limits of 1 :250 (for hilly
area only).
7. During chaining along a straight line,
the leader of the survey party has three
arrows and while follower has five arrows,
the distance of the follower from the
starting point will be ______.
A. Three chains B. Four chains
C. Five chains D. None of these
Ans. C.
in a chain surveying, leader or instructor &
follower is there.
Follower holds the zero end of the chain &
the leader fixes up an arrows at the end of
a one chain length. Follower marks an
arrows at end of one chain length (20m &
links are of 20 cm.). so, if follower has five
arrows then the distance of follower from
starting point to the end of chain is five
arrows.
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8. Invar tapes are made of an alloy of
_______.
A. Nickle and steel
B. Copper and steel
C. Tin and steel
D. Aluminium and steel
Ans. A.
Invar, also known generically as FeNi36
(64FeNi in the US), is a nickel–iron alloy.
It has low thermal coefficient of expansion
& used in surveying.
9. Chainage is the distance measured
_______.
A. Along a chain line
B. Perpendicular to a chain line
C. Perpendicular to a tie line
D. None of these
Ans. A.
By extension, chainage (running
distance) is the distance along a curved or
straight survey line or chain line from a
fixed commencing point, as given by an
odometer.
It is also known as base line of the curve.
10. In chain survey execution, the first
step taken is ______.
A. Reference sketches
B. Marking stations
C. Running survey line
D. Reconnaissance
Ans. D.
The preliminary inspection of the area to
be surveyed is called reconnaissance. The
surveyor inspects the area to be surveyed,
survey or prepares index sketch or key
plan. Walk the whole area and thoroughly
examine the ground, note the position of
boundaries, road, and river etc., various
difficulties to chain lines, select stations,
and prepare neat sketches called index
sketches or key plan.
11. A soil has liquid limit of 60%, plastic
limit of 35%, shrinkage limit of 20% and it
has a natural moisture content of 50%.
What is the liquidity index of the soil?
A. 0.4 B. 0.6
C. 1.5 D. 1.3
Ans. B.
liquidity index, IL = (WN-WP)/(WL-WP)
Where, WL, Wp & WN= liquid limit, plastic
limit & moisture content.
So, IL = (50-35)/(60-35) = .6
2
12. The effective stress strength
parameters of a soil are c = 10 kPa and φ
= 30, then shear strength on a plane
within the saturated soil mass at a point
where total normal stress is 300 kPa and
pore water pressure is 150 kPa, will be
______.
A. 90.5 kPa B. 96.6 kPa
C. 101.5 kPa D. 105.5 kPa
Ans. B.
given, σ=300kpa, u=150kpa, c=10kpa &
ф=30
σ’ = σ-u = 300-150 = 150kpa
from equation,
τf = c + σ tan ф = 10 +150 tan 30 =
96.6kpa
where τf = shear strength
13. If the pores of a soil are completely
full of air only, the soil is said to be
________.
A. wet soil
B. fully saturated soil
C. dry soil
D. partly saturated soil
Ans. C.
if pores of a soil are full of air only, then it
means only air voids are present in soil. &
no water voids in the soil are present. So
this type of soil is known as dry soil. If
water voids are present in any case, then
it can be partially saturated or fully
saturated soil.
14. A soil sample has void ratio of 0.5 and
its porosity will be close to _______.
A. 50% B. 66%
C. 100% D. 33%
Ans. D.
by the relation,
n = e/(1+e)
where, n = porosity of soil sample & e =
void ratio
so, n = .5/(1+.5) ×100 = 33%
15. Gradually varied flow is ______.
A. Steady uniformed flow
B. Steady non-uniform flow
C. Unsteady uniform flow
D. Unsteady non-uniform flow
Ans. B.
Gradually Varied Flow is defined as
steady non-uniform flow in a channel in
which there are gradual changes in the
water depth. In this case we see the little
change in the depth of water.
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16. Bluff body surface _______. layer falls almost to zero then pressure
A. Is smooth so that friction can be changes suddenly.
neglected 19. A one dimensional flow is one which
B. Coincides with streamlines ________.
C. Does not coincide with streamlines A. Is uniform
D. Perpendicular to streamlines B. Is steady uniform
Ans. C. C. Takes place in straight lines
streamline is the straight lines parallel to x D. Involves zero transverse components of
axis & streamline body looks like a fish. flow
Where as a bluff body looks like a brick, a Ans. D.
cylinder or an airfoil at large angles of as shown in figure. Flow through a circular
attack. Both are different from each pipe, in this case
other& not coincide with each ether.
17. Centre of pressure on an inclined
plane is ________.
A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
D. At metacentre
Ans. C.
as shown in figure. The center of pressure
is at hc distance from the free surface &
centroid is at h distance from the free
surface. So, on an inclined plane the
center of pressure is below the centroid. It is readily seen that velocity at any
location depends just on the radial
distance from the centreline and is
independent of distance, x or of the
angular position θ. This represents a
typical one-dimensional flow.
20. A body floats in stable equilibrium
________.
A. When its metacentric height is zero
B. When metacentre is above centre of
gravity
C. When its centre of gravity is below its
centre of buoyancy
D. None of these
18. Separation of flow occurs when Ans. B.
pressure gradient ______. as shown in figure. For stable equilibrium
A. Tends to approach zero metacentric height should be above the
B. Becomes negative center of gravity & center of gravity
C. Changes abruptly should be above the centre of buoyancy.
D. Reduces to a value when vapour
formation starts
Ans. C.
Flow separation occurs when the
boundary layer travels far enough against
an adverse pressure gradient that the
speed of the boundary layer relative to the
object falls almost to zero. the fluid flow
becomes detached from the surface of the
object. Means when speed of boundary

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21. The depth of water below the spillway Ans. D.

and after hydraulic jump are 1 m and 6 m adhesion b/w molecules of a fluid depends
respectively. The head loss will be ____. on the
A. 1.74 m B. 6 m 1) Contact angle b/w fluid & glass.
C. 1.7 m D. None of these 2) Atmospheric pressure
Ans. D. In case of capillary rise, if atmospheric
head loss, hL = (d2-d1)3/4d1d2 pressure is more, then the rise will be less
So, hL = (6-1)3/4.6.1 = 5.21 m. & if less atmospheric pressure, then rise
22. At the centre line of a pipe flowing will be more.
under pressure where the velocity 25. Canal normally used for diversion of
gradient is zero, the shear stress will be flood water of a river is ______.
________. A. Feeder canal B. Inundation canal
A. Minimum C. Ridge canal D. Contour canal
B. Maximum Ans. B.
C. Zero Inundation canal are long canals taken
D. Could be any value off from large rivers. They receive water
Ans. C. when the river is high enough and
by the relation, especially when in flood.
τ= μ du/dy Where, contour canal follows the contour
where, τ is shear stress & du is velocity line on the field & ridged canal is the type
distribution. of watershed canal also.
So, if du=0 then τ will be 0. 26. Intensity of irrigation ________.
23. For a gauge pressure of A of - 10.89 A. Is the percentage of culturable
kPa, what is the specific gravity of the commanded area proposed to be irrigated
gauge liquid B in the figure below? annually
B. Is always more than 100 %
C. Is the percentage that could be ideally
irrigated
D. All the options are correct
Ans. A.
Intensity of irrigation is defined as the
percentage of the irrigation proposed to
be irrigated annually. Usually the areas
irrigated during each crop season (Rabi,
Kharif, etc) is expressed as a percentage
A. 1 B. 2 of the CCA which represents the intensity
C. 3 D. None of these of irrigation for the crop season.
Ans. A. 27. The shift of the transition curve of
from the equation, radius 300 m and length 48 m is _______.
s1gh1+s2gh2 = s3gh3 A. 0.32 m B. 0.42 m
where s1, s2 & s3 are the specific gravity. C. 0.52 m D. 0.62 m
1.6×9.8×2.743 + 1×(3.429-3.048)×9.8 = Ans. A.
s3×9.8×3.048 shift of transition curve,
So, s3 = 1.02 S = L2/24R = 482/24×300
24. When the adhesion between molecules = .32 m.
of a fluid is greater than adhesion between 28. The commutative speed distribution
fluid and the glass, then the free level of curve is usually adopted for geometric
fluid in glass tube dipped in the glass design of highway. The percentile speed
vessel will be ______. adopted for geometric design is ______.
A. Same as the surface of the fluid A. 85th percentile speed
B. Lower than the surface of the fluid B. 90th percentile speed
C. Higher than the surface of the fluid C. 98th percentile speed
D. Dependent on atmospheric pressure D. 99.9th percentile speed

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Ans. C. 31. A torsion member is fabricated from

we design the highway for approximate two concentric thin tubes. At the ends, the
60kmph speed & as shown in figure for tubes are welded to rigid discs so that
this speed the percentile speed will be both the tubes are twisted as a unit. The
98th. radius of the outer tube is 2r and that of
the inner tube is r. If the shear stresses
developed in the outer tube is 'τ', then the
shear stress in the inner tube will be
______.
A. τ B. 0.25 τ
C. 0.75 τ D. 0.5 τ
Ans. D.
from the torsional equation
T is directly proportional to r
So, T1/T2 = r1/r2
T1/T = r/2r = .5
So, T1 = .5T
32. The maximum bending stress in an I-
beam occurs at the _______.
A. Neutral axis
B. Outermost fiber
C. Joint of wedge and flange
D. Section where shear stress is maximum
Ans. B.
by the equation,
M/I = σ/y
In I section the outermost fibre have large
29. Maximum allowable shear stress in a area. & less moment of inertia.
section is 100 kg/cm2. If bar is subjected So, max. bending stress occurs at the
to tensile force of 5000 kg and if the outermost fibre.
section is square shaped, what will be 33. A support is said to be non-yielding if
dimension of sides of the squares? ______.
A. 10 cm B. 5 cm A. It can take any amount of reaction
C. 12 cm D. √12 cm B. It is frictionless
Ans. B. C. It holds the beam firmly
assume side of square = a D. The beam has zero slope at the support
tensile stress of the section = 5000/a2 Ans. D.
& max. allowable stress = ½ (tensile in case of fixed support, the beam has
stress) zero slope at the support. & max. at end if
So, 100 = 1/2×5000/a2 fixed at one end only.
a = 5 cm. Fixed support is also known as non-
30. A brittle material of 4 sq. m cross yielding support.
section carries an axial tensile load of 20 34. A rectangular bar has been subjected
tonnes. What will be the maximum shear to torsion. The maximum shear stress will
stress in the block? occur _______.
A. 1250 kg/cm2 B. 1000 kg/cm2 A. At the centre
C. 500 kg/cm 2
D. None of these B. At the corner
Ans. D. C. At the middle of longer side
tensile stress = tensile load/area D. Along the diagonal
= 20000/4 = 5000 Ans. C.
So, max. shear stress = ½ (tensile stress)
= 1/2×5000 = 2500 kg/cm2

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by the relation
Max. shear stress = 32T/∏d3
Where d is the diameter of the coil which
is less from diameter of the circle D
So, if d will be less then shear stress will
be more.
39. A closed-coil helical spring is subjected
to a torque about its axis. The spring wire
would experience a _______.
A. Bending stress
B. Direct tensile stress of uniform intensity
as shown in figure the max. shear stress at its cross section
occurs a the centre of reactangular beam C. Direct shear stress
Having depth is d. D. Torsional shearing stress
35. Which of the following sections will be Ans. A.
best in torsion? in case of helical spring if any torque load
A. Solid circular B. Hollow circular is subjected to spring.
C. Triangular D. Rectangular Then wire experiences bending stress
Ans. B. Bending stress = 32T/∏d3
from the equation, Where T is torsion of the spring.
T/J = σ/r 40. Two beam of equal cross-sectional
T is directly proportional to J. area are subject to equal bending
Where J is polar moment of inertia & it is moment. If one beam has square
more in case of hollow circular section cross-section and the other has circular
Than solid. section, then ______.
36. If a close coiled helical spring absorbs A. both beams will be equally strong
30 Nmm of energy while extending by B. circular section beam will be stronger
5mm, its stiffness will be _____. C. square section beam will be stronger
A. 2 N/mm B. 4 N/mm D. the strength of the beam will depend
C. 6 N/mm D. 10 N/mm on the nature of aiding
Ans. C. Ans. B.
stiffness = load/deflection from the bending equation,
= 30/5 = 6 N/mm. M/I = σ/y
37. The core of a circular section short So, σ is inversely proportional to I.
column of diameter d is a concentric If I will be less then beam will be stronger.
circular area having a diameter ______. & here I will be less for circular section
A. d/4 B. d/3 41. Strength of concrete show an increase
C. d/2 D. d/8 with ______.
Ans. A. A. Decrease in rate of loading
core of a circular section short colomn = B. Increase in rate of loading
∏d2/64 C. Unaffected by rate of loading
Circular area of diameter d’ = ∏d’2/4 D. Depends on application of load
So, for concentric d’ = d/4 Ans. B.
38. The maximum shear stress occurs on strength of concrete = (load at the
the outermost fibres of a circular shaft failure)/(area of the specimen of the
under torsion. In a close coiled helical concrete)
spring, the maximum shear stress occurs So, if we increase the rate of loading
on the _______. gradually then it’s strength also will
A. Outermost fibers increase.
B. Fibers at mean diameter 42. If the slump of concrete mix is 60 mm
C. Innermost fibers its workability is ______.
D. None of these A. Low B. Medium
Ans. C. C. High D. Very high

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Ans. B. 47. Approximate value of shrinkage strain

43. Segregation is responsible for ______.
A. Honey comb concrete
B. Porous layers in concrete
C. Sand streaks in concrete
D. All the options are correct
Ans. D.
When concrete beaks into the part then
some types of structure of concrete is
formed due to segregation like,
Honey comb concrete, porous concrete, &
sand streaks.
44. The durability of concrete is affected
by ______.
A. Cider B. Vinegar
C. Alcohol D. Both cider & vinegar
Ans. D.
both the cider & vinegar is alcoholic
beverage.
If we mix these two in mixing of concrete,
then it decreases the strength of concrete
& durability of concrete.
45. Slump test is a measure of ______.
A. Tensile strength
B. Compressive strength
C. Impact value
D. Consistency
Ans. D.
The concrete slump test measures the
consistency of fresh concrete before it
sets. It is performed to check the
workability of freshly made concrete, and
therefore the ease with which concrete
flows. It can also be used as an indicator
of an improperly mixed batch.
46. Shrinkage of concrete is directly
proportional to ______.
A. Cement content
B. Sand content
C. Aggregate content
D. Temperature of water
Ans. A.
shrinkage of concrete is directly
proportional to the volume of the paste of
w/c ratio.
If volume reduces then strength of
concrete increases.
So, the shrinkage of concrete depends on
w/c ratio.
7
in concrete is ______.
A. 0.03
B. 0.003
C. 0.0003
D. 0.00003
Ans. C.
as per IS 456:2000,
The approximate value of the total
shrinkage strain for design may be taken
as 0.0003.
48. Which one of the following properties
of a plastic concrete is modified by the
air-entraining agents?
A. workability
B. segregation
C. bleeding
D. All option are correct
Ans. D.
if we add the air entraining agent to the
concrete or if we add the, Al (aluminium)
powder to the concrete, then air bubble is
formed which increases the workability of
concrete & decreases the segregation (it
seperate coarse particle from the water) &
bleeding (it seperate water from the
coarse particle) in concrete.
49. A concrete in which dry coarse
aggregate are first packed to have the
least voids and then the cement sand
mortar is injected under pressure to fill all
the voids, resulting in a very dense
concrete, is known as ______.
A. Pre-packet concrete
B. Vacuum concrete
C. No fines concrete
D. Aerate concrete
Ans. D.
if a concrete has voids then we can fill
these voids by injected the cement sand
mortar. This process is known as aerate
concrete. It is used in floor construction &
in fire proofing because it have good fire
resistivity.
50. For protection from frost, concrete
should be _______.
A. Dense
B. Free from cracks
C. Adhesion between mortar and
aggregate should be perfect
D. All the options are correct
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Ans. A.
when frosting occurs on the concrete then
seepage in concrete starts.
Which decreases the strength of the
concrete. So that’s why for protection
Concrete should be dense.
51. In order to have segregation in
concrete dropping height should not be
less than ______.
A. 25 cm B. 50 cm
C. 100 cm D. 250 cm
Ans. B.
as per IS code; for segregation in concrete
dropping height should not be less than 50
cm. if dropping height is greater than 50,
then coarse particle will be separate from
water. which causes segregation in
concrete. & if less than 50 then no
segregation will be there in concrete.
52. The main object of compaction of
concrete is ______.
A. To eliminate air holes
B. To achieve maximum density
C. To get intimate contact between the
concrete and embedded material
D. All the options are correct
Ans. D.
the main purpose of the compaction is to
increase the density & remove he air voids
from the concrete. & after doing
compaction we get a strong bond between
concrete & embedded material because of
after compaction the molecules of
concrete becomes too close to each other.
53. Steam curing is not used with ______.
A. Ordinary Portland cement
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. High alumina cement
D. All the options are correct
Ans. B.
Steam curing is a process for hardening
concrete, cement, and mortar that
involves exposure to warm steam. It can
not used with rapid hardening cement
because it is time taking process. So, if we
use hard cement then bond b/w cement &
brick will be week.
54. For a satisfactory workable concrete
with a constant W.C. ratio increase in
aggregate-cement ratio
8
A. Increases the strength of concrete
B. Decreases the strength of concrete
C. No effect on the strength of concrete
D. None of these
Ans. A.
as we know, the strength of concrete
depends on,
W/c ratio, aggregate-cement ratio etc.
So, if aggregate-cement ratio increases.
The strength of concrete will also increase.
55. Addition of sugar in concrete results in
_______.
A. Increase in setting time by about 1hr
B. Increase in setting time by about 4 hr
C. Decrease in setting time by about 1 hr
D. Decrease in setting time by about 4 hr
Ans. A.
when sugar is added to the concrete then
it makes a chemical reaction with cement
56. The aggregate impact value of the
aggregate used in _______.
A. Building concrete is less than 45
B. Road pavement concrete is less than 30
C. Runway concrete is less than 30
D. All the options are correct
Ans. D.
In building there is no restriction of
concrete, so we use 40mm or larger size
aggregate impact value. & for road
pavement & runway it should be less than
30.
57. The development of strength of
cement and its fineness are _______.
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Not related
D. Randomly related
Ans. C.
development of strength of cement
depends on the porosity which is the w/c
ratio. So if w/c ratio increases it’s porosity
increases & strength decreases &
Fineness, or particle size of portland
cement affects hydration rate and thus
the rate of strength gain. The smaller the
particle size, the greater the surface area-
to-volume ratio, and thus, the more area
available for water-cement interaction per
unit volume.
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58. Flash set of ordinary Portland cement exceeding 300 mm or web thickness
paste is ______. whichever is less).
A. Premature hardening 62. Limit state of serviceability of
B. Surface hardening only prestressed concrete sections should
C. Hardening without development of heat satisfy ______.
of hydration A. Cracking, deflection and maximum
D. All the options are correct compression
Ans. A. B. Cracking only
hardening refers to the gain of strength of C. Deflection and cracking
a set of cement paste. D. Deflection and maximum compression
Premature is done for ordinary Portland Ans. A.
cement & process of hardening of cement limit state of survicibility-
Continues for a period more than one 1) Cracking or flexure check. (which
year. depends on % of reinforcement)
59. The limits of percentage 'p' of the 2) Deflection check. ((l/d)provided should be
longitudinal reinforcement in a column is less than (l/d)max)
given by _______. 3) Maximum compression check. (which
A. 0.15 % to 2 % B. 0.8 % to 4 % depend on factored load)
C. 0.8 % to 6 % D. 0.8 % to 8 % 63. Shear span is defined as the zone
Ans. C. where ______.
according to IS 456-800 A. Bending moment is zero
The max percentage of reinforcement in a B. Shear force is zero
column is 6%. C. Shear force is constant
& for longitudinal it lies b/w .8 to 6% D. Bending moment is constant
60. The bond strength between steel Ans. C.
reinforcement and concrete is affected by as shown in the figure (b). The shear force
_____. is costant from A to load 0.5kN so this
A) Steel properties zone is called shear span of beam.
B) Concrete properties
C) Shrinkage of concrete
The correct answer is
A. A and B B. B and C
C. A and C D. A, B and C
Ans. D.
factors affecting bond strength b/w steel
reinforcement & concrete
1) Grade of concrete
2) Properties of concrete
3) Properties of steel, commonly mild steel
is used.
61. The side face reinforcement, if
required in a T-beam will be ______.
A. 0.1 % of the web area
B. 0.15 % of the web area 64. A reinforced cantilever beam of span 4
C. 0.02 % to 0.3 % of the web area m has a cross-section of 150x500 mm. If
depending upon the breadth of the web checked for lateral stability and deflection,
D. Half of the longitudinal reinforcement the beam will ______.
Ans. A. A. Fail in deflection only
Side face reinforcement in the web of the B. Fail in lateral stability only
beam is provided when the depth of the C. Fail in both deflection and lateral
web in a beam exceeds 750 mm. (0.1% of stability
the web area and shall be distributed D. Satisfy the requirements of deflection
equally on two faces at a spacing not and lateral stability

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Ans. C. A. A straight profile along the centroidal

lateral stability- axis
For cantilever beam, span≤25b (it should B. A straight profile along with the lower
be satisfy) kern
4m≤25×150≤3.75 so, it will be fail. C. A parabolic profile with convexity
For deflection- downward
For cantilever beam (l/d)basic=20 D. A circular profile with convexity upward
Here, (l/d)provided should be less than Ans. C.
(l/d)max. as shown in figure. The centroid of tendon
So, it will also fail.(not satisfying the in case of pre-stressed concrete
condition) Look like as a parabolic profile with
65. The final deflection due to all loads convexity downward.
including the effects of temperature, creep
and shrinkage and measured from as-cast
level of supports of floors, roofs and all
other horizontal members should not
exceed _____.
A. Span/350 B. Span/300
C. Span/250 D. Span/200
Ans. C.
max. deflection in a beam should not
exceed, length of the span/250
So, for 5m span deflection should not
exeed 20mm.
66. The main reinforcement of a RC slab
consists of 10 mm bars at 10 cm spacing.
If it is desired to replace 10 mm bars by
12 mm bars, then the spacing of 12 mm
bars should be ______. 69. If 'b' is the width of the plate and 'd' is
A. 12cm B. 14cm the diameter of the rivet, then the
C. 14.40 cm D. 16 cm efficiency of a riveted joint having
Ans. C. diamond riveting is given by ______.
spacing of reinforcement is directly A. (b-d)/b B. (b-d)/d
proportional to the area of reinforcement. C. (b-2d)/b D. (b-2d)/d
So, s1/s2 = d12/d22 Ans. B.
10/s2 = 102/122 efficiency of a joint = (strength of
So, s2 = 14.4 cm. joint)/(strength of solid plate)
67. According to Whitney's theory, the So, ղ = An/Ag (other values are constant
maximum depth of concrete stress block in this case)
in a balanced RCC beam section of depth ղ = (b-d).t/(b.t) = (b-d)/b
'd' is ______. where t is the thickness of the plate
A. 0.3 d B. 0.43 d 70. If a rolled steel flat designated as 55
C. 0.5 d D. 0.53 d I.S.F. 12 mm is used as lacing, then
Ans. D. minimum radius of gyration will be
for balanced R.C.C beam ______.
If we use mild steel then for fy=250 A. 3 mm B. 6 mm
Xu,max/d = .53 C. 3.46 mm D. 3.8 mm
Xu,max = .53d Ans. C.
68. If the loading on a simply supported radius of gyration, r =
prestressed concrete beam is uniformly √1/12(55×123)/(55×12)
distributed, the centroid of tendons should r= √12 = 3.46 mm.
be preferably ______.

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71. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar 75. For unstiffened flange of a beam in
with the longitudinal axis of the column flexural compression, the maximum
should preferably be between _______. allowable outstand is equal to ______.
A. 10° to 30° B. 30° to 80° A. 20 t B. 16 t
C. 40° to 70° D. 20° to 70° C. 32 t D. 14 t
Ans. C. Ans. B.
lacing bar shall be inclined at 400 to 700 to for un-stiffed flange
axis of built up member or longitudinal
The max. allowable outstand = least of
axis of the member.
16t or 200mm. whichever is less.
72. The effective length of battened
76. The problem of lateral buckling can
column is increased by _____.
arise only in those steel beams which have
A. 10% B. 7%
______.
C. 12% D. 25%
A. moment of inertia about the bending
Ans. A.
axis larger than the other
The actual length L of the compression
member should be taken as the length B. moment of inertia about the bending
from centre-to-centre of intersection of axis smaller than the other
supporting members or the cantilevered C. fully supported compression flange
length in the case of free standing struts. D. None of these
& the effective length increased by 10% Ans. B.
for battened columns. from the relation,
73. The buckling load in a steel column is P = ∏2EI/L2
_______. So the buckling is depend on moment of
A. Related to length inertia about the bending axis.
B. Directly proportional to the slenderness Lateral buckling occur when the moment
ratio of inertia about the bending axis will be
C. Inversely proportional to the smaller than other.
slenderness ratio 77. In a truss girder of a bridge, a
D. Non linearity of the slenderness ratio diagonal consists of mild steel flat 400 ISF
Ans. A. and carries a pull of 800 kN. If the gross
the buckling load, diameter of the rivets is 26mm, then the
P = ∏2EI/L2 number of rivets required in the splice is
p is inversely proportional to the square of ______.
the length L A. 6 B. 7
so, p is related to length.
C. 8 D. 9
74. And angle section can be used as
Ans. D.
purlin when slope of the roof truss is
strength of the one rivet = 2.5kb.d.t.fu/ymo
_______.
A. Between 40° and 70° Where ymo is factor of safety
B. Less than 30° Kb is least of ( P/3d0)-.25, e/3d0, 10.
C. Greater than 30° Whichever is less.
D. Less than 45° Kb = .523 & for 400 ISF t = 8mm.
Ans. B. So, strength of one rivet =
2.5×.523×26×8×400/1.25 = 87.027 kN
No of rivets = 800/87.027 = 9.1
78. Consider the following factors
A) Large number of loading cycles
B) Large variations in stress
C) Large stress concentrations
Those associated with fatigue failure would
include ________.
A. A and B B. A and C
C. B and C D. A, B and C
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Ans. D.
in case of loading, the fatigue condition
will occur when load is applied zero-to-
max-to-zero & when varying load or
stresses acting on member.
In case of stress, the fatigue condition will
occur when any tensile stress is acting on
a member & then released suddenly.
79. The device used for the easy
separation of dry dust of 10 to 100 μm
size is ______.
A. cyclone
B. gravity settling chamber
C. bag filter
D. scrubber
Ans. A.
cyclonic seperation is a method of
removing particulates from an air, gas or
liquid stream, without the use of filters,
through vortexseparation. When removing
particulate matter from liquids, a
hydrocyclone is used; while from gas, a
gas cyclone is used.
80. The velocity of exit waste gases should
be a minimum of ____ of wind speed to
prevent down draught.
1 1
A. B. 1
2 2
1 1
C. 2 D. 3
2 2
Ans. C.
the velocity of exit, ve should be the min.
of 2.5 of wind speed to prevent down
draught. It can be see in rocket in which,
Ve = me√yRTe
Where y is specific heat ratio.
81. In stone masonry, the stones are
placed in position such that the natural
bedding plane is ______.
A. normal to the direction of pressure they
carry
B. parallel to the direction of pressure they
carry
C. at 45° to the direction of pressure they
carry
D. at 60° to the direction of pressure they
carry
Ans. A.
In stone masonry, the stones are placed
normal to the loading or direction of
pressure. ( the neutral bedding plane of
masonry is normal to the loading).
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82. Slate and marble stone belong to ___.
A. igneous rocks
B. metamorphic rocks
C. sedimentary rocks
D. foliated rocks
Ans. B.
metamorphic rock- these are the
secondary rocks formed by
metamorphosis due to intense heat &
pressure below the earth’s crust. There
rocks have foliated structure & the
principal types are quartzite, slate, marble
& gneisses.
83. Find the one which is not used in
quarrying?
A. gun powder B. gun cotton
C. marble powder D. dynamite
Ans. C.
A quarry is the same thing as an open-pit
mine from which minerals are extracted.
The only non-trivial difference between
the two is that open-pit mines that
produce building materials and dimension
stone are commonly referred to as
quarries. It include the underground
quarrying for stone also. So we can not
use the marble powder.
84. Hollow bricks are generally used with
the purpose of ______.
A. reducing the cost of construction
B. providing insulation against heat
C. increasing the bearing area
D. ornamental look
Ans. B.
The air present in the hollow area of these
bricks make them thermal insulators.
They keep the interiors cool in summer
and warm in winter especially the 'clay
hollow bricks'. They also provide more
sound insulation as compared to solid
bricks.
85. The lime which has the property of
setting in water is known as ______.
A. fat lime B. Hydraulic lime
C. hydrated lime D. quick lime
Ans. B.
hydraulic lime has a property of setting &
hardening under water is made out of it. It
contains small quantities of silica &
alumina or iron oxide which are in
chemical combination with calcium oxide
content.
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86. Bullet proof glass is made of thick Ans. C.

glass sheet and a sandwiched layer of good port-land cement is fairly high C3S
_______. content for good early strength
A. steel development. The area for C3S content
B. stainless steel should be greater than 2250 cm2/gm.
C. high strength plastic 91. A document containing detailed
D. chromium plate description of all the items of work (but
Ans. C. their quantities are not mentioned)
bullet proof glass is made from together with their current rates is called
composition of two or more glasses ______.
In which one is plastic & another is soft. In
A. tender
this the plastic part of the glass
Has high strength which causes B. schedule of rates
protection. This glass expand from ¾ inch C. analysis of rate
to 5/2 inch. D. abstract estimate
87. If the rocks are formed due to Ans. B.
alteration of original structure under heat containing detailed description of all the
and excessive pressure, then they are items with their current rates
known as ______. For ex. Cement, sand, labour cost, & in a
A. igneous B. sedimentary contract setting out of the staff
C. volcanic D. metamorphic
& plant hire rates with current.
Ans. D.
metamorphic rock- these are the 92. The number of bricks required per
secondary rocks formed by cubic metre of brick masonry is ______.
metamorphosis due to intense heat & A. 480 B. 500
pressure below the earth’s crust. These C. 520 D. 540
rocks have foliated structure & the Ans. B.
principal types are quartzite, slate, marble the construction done with bricks bonded
& gneisses. together with the help of a mortar is
88. The shape of the brick gets deformed termed as brick masonry. 1 cubic meter
due to rain water falling on hot brick. This contains 500 bricks.
defect is known as ______. The Standard size of the 1st class brick is
A. chuffs B. bloating 190mm x 90mm x.
C. nodules D. lamination 90mm and motor joint should be 10mm
Ans. A. thick.
if rain water fall on a hot brick then it gets
93. In the centre line method of working
deformed & becomes defective
out volumes, for cross walls, what
So this type of defect is called chuffs.
deductions must be made from the centre
89. The operation of removal of impurities
line length at each junction?
of clay adhering to iron ore is known as
______. A. twice the breadth
A. calcination B. purification B. half the breadth
C. dressing D. refining C. 1.5 breadth
Ans. C. D. None of these
removal of impurities or dust & unwanted Ans. B.
material from the clay
This method is suitable for walls of similar
Adhering to iron ore like ferric oxide
cross sections. Here the total centre line
(Fe3O4) is known as dressing of clay
length is multiplied by breadth and depth
90. The specific surface expressed in
of respective item to get the total quantity
square cm gm of a good Portland cement
at a time. When cross walls or partitions
should not be less than ______.
or verandah walls join with main wall, the
A. 1750 B. 2000
centre line length gets reduced by half of
C. 2250 D. 2500
breadth for each junction.
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94. The volume of the cement required for
10 m3 of brickwork in 1: 6 cement mortar
is approximately equal to ______.
A. 3/7 m3 B. 3/6 m3
C. 3/4 m 3
D. 3/5 m3
Ans. A.
total volume of concrete = 1+6 = 7 m3
Volume of cement = (10-7)/7 = 3/7 m3
95. The explosive for blasting is usually
expressed in terms of ________.
A. explosive power
B. volume of earthwork that can be
blasted
C. kilograms
D. None of these
Ans. C.
amount of explosive for blasting is
measured in terms of weight per unit
volume or in kg/m3 or kg/cm3.
96. Whenever colour washing on Asbestos
Cement corrugated sheets is done, in the
estimation the plane area of the sheets is
increased by ______.
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%
Ans. D.
when colour washing on asbestos cement
sheets is done then the plane area of the
sheets increased by 20%.
After colour washing, area = area +
(20/100).
97. Which department looks after the
execution and maintenance of water
supply and sanitary works?
A. public works department
B. social welfare department
C. public health department
D. None of these
***
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Ans. C.
when the execution & maintenance of
water supply & sanitary works is done
Then after that remaining work is done by
the public health department.
98. The life of teakwood doors and
windows is usually taken to be ______.
A. 80 year B. 60 year
C. 40 year D. 20 year
Ans. C.
teak wood doors & windows has great
properties to withstand extreme climatic
conditions & it is free from knots &
shakes. It’s durability is high usually taken
as 40 years.
99. The quantity cement concrete damp-
proofing course is measured in terms of
______.
A. m B. m2
C. m 3
D. lump-sum
Ans. B.
in damp proofing course these types of
materials are used:
Stones, slates, cement concrete, blocks,
terracotta blocks, dense cement concrete,
asbestos cement concrete sheets etc. the
cement concrete measured with the unit
of m2.
100. The unit weight of R.C.C. (in kg/m3)
is ______.
A. 1200 B. 1800
C. 2400 D. 3000
Ans. C.
unit weight of concrete, according to USCS
(united states customary systems) is 2400
kg/m3 or 23.60 kN/m3. & it defines the
hoe heavy a normal reinforced concrete is.