Solutions of Mock CAT - 03 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

 Scorecard

 Accuracy

 Qs Analysis

 Booster Analysis

 Video Analysis

 Solutions

 Bookmarks

 VRC

 LRDI

 QA

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences

including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress
and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising
particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite
often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from
the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult
victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse.

Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in
hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive
than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of
worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences
can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about
their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being
believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child
custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that
interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence
as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for
the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm
and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention
helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children
by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness.

Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour
and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is
most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate.
Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the
perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm,
love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative
ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of
family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or
community but choose to use violence at home.
There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's
decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and
the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the
responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the
person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have
focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established
through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator
forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim
in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other
services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the
non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the
perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child
and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable
for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in
most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.

Q.1
Which of the following options best summarises the point that the author makes in the
passage?

a The emotional and traumatic impact on a victim of domestic violence

b The impact of domestic violence on the woman and the child

c The anatomy of violent behaviour at home

d The factors and response mechanisms related to domestic violence

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences

including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress
and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising
particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite
often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from
the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult
victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse.

Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in
hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive
than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of
worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences
can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about
their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being
believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child
custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that
interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence
as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for
the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm
and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention
helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children
by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness.

Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour
and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is
most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate.
Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the
perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm,
love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative
ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of
family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or
community but choose to use violence at home.

There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's
decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and
the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the
responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the
person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have
focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established
through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator
forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim
in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other
services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the
non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the
perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child
and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable
for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in
most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.

Q.2
It can be inferred from the passage, that

a domestic violence can be more effectively tackled if the perpetrator is counselled

in the early stages.

b perpetrators of domestic violence usually choose the time and place of attack.

c perpetrators of domestic violence can also exhibit signs of schizophrenic

behaviour.
d perpetrators of domestic violence use violence in private and not in public places.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences

including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress
and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising
particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite
often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from
the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult
victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse.

Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in
hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive
than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of
worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences
can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about
their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being
believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child
custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that
interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence
as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for
the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm
and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention
helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children
by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness.

Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour
and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is
most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate.
Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the
perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm,
love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative
ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of
family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or
community but choose to use violence at home.

There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's
decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and
the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the
responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the
person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have
focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established
through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator
forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim
in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other
services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the
non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the
perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child
and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable
for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in
most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.

Q.3
Which of the following options would the author most agree with?

a Focusing on the victim is ineffective in the quest for resolution of a domestic

violence issue.

b An incorrect assessment of the risk to the victim may allow for further acts of
violence on the same victim.

c Future acts of violence can be stopped if there is focus on the victim as well as the
perpetrator.

d Accountability in the first instance itself will be a deterrent for future acts of
domestic violence.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences

including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress
and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising
particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite
often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from
the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult
victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse.

Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in
hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive
than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of
worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences
can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about
their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being
believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child
custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that
interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence
as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for
the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm
and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention
helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children
by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness.

Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour
and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is
most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate.
Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the
perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm,
love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative
ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of
family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or
community but choose to use violence at home.

There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's
decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and
the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the
responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the
person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have
focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established
through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator
forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim
in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other
services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the
non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the
perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child
and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable
for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in
most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.

Q.4
Which one of the following options has not been mentioned as a reason to deter women
from escaping domestic violence?

a The breakdown of the woman's self-esteem.

b A perception that she is the reason for the crime against her.

c A constant need for attention from the partner even if it is in the form of violence.

d Being singled out as an 'odd one' in the community.

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers
and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and
Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu
achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this
research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in
academia.

Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the
immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as
our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the
sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach;
detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract
surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of
extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade;
knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to
assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as
yoga.

Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are
particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse
plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material
prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of
the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet,
recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and
encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual
organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people
have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement."

Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and

reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in
consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They
are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a
pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made
similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found
everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to
enumerate them here."

Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the
history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their
contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and
technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful
nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of
its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of
the Indians in all branches of knowledge."

The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it
was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the
Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process.
"Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings
happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical
skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the
discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The
Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid
"celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of
shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's
nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.

Q.5
Which of the following options would best explain the phrase "The mosaic that emerged
from this research contrasts sharply..."?

a The research led to a perspective, composed of a combination of diverse elements

that was different from the popular representation.

b The research helped establish that Hindu accounts of the ancient world are
mostly ignored by the West, or simply labelled as biased or wrong.

c The research threw light on the deeply contested nature of the adjective Hindu
and its association with a particular kind of nationalist politics.

d The research has helped establish that Hindu culture has a long and glorious
intellectual tradition.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers
and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and
Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu
achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this
research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in
academia.

Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the
immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as
our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the
sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach;
detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract
surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of
extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade;
knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to
assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as
yoga.

Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are
particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse
plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material
prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of
the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet,
recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and
encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual
organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people
have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement."

Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and

reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in
consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They
are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a
pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made
similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found
everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to
enumerate them here."

Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the
history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their
contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and
technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful
nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of
its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of
the Indians in all branches of knowledge."

The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it
was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the
Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process.
"Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings
happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical
skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the
discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The
Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid
"celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of
shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's
nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.

Q.6
Which of the following options would best explain the rationale for the second
paragraph?

a Use of examples to support the assertion that India has contributed greatly to
modern science and medicine.

b Use of examples to support the assertion that India has a setting that induces
growth and prosperity.

c Use of examples to support the thought that India's contributions have helped in
the self-growth of individuals.

d Use of examples to support the view that the Hindu race was superior to races in
other Eastern nations.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers
and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and
Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu
achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this
research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in
academia.

Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the
immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as
our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the
sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach;
detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract
surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of
extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade;
knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to
assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as
yoga.

Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are
particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse
plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material
prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of
the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet,
recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and
encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual
organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people
have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement."

Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and

reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in
consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They
are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a
pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made
similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found
everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to
enumerate them here."

Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the
history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their
contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and
technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful
nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of
its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of
the Indians in all branches of knowledge."

The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it
was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the
Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process.
"Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings
happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical
skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the
discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The
Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid
"celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of
shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's
nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.

Q.7
Based on the last paragraph, which of the following options would best explain why
debate and discussion were encouraged in India?

a It helped present an equal platform through which one could air his/her views.

b It led to the superior thinking capacity of the Hindu race.

c It helped in the intellectual and social development of the individual.

d It helped in the sharing of knowledge and understanding.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers
and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and
Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu
achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this
research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in
academia.

Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the
immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as
our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the
sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach;
detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract
surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of
extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade;
knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to
assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as
yoga.

Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are
particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse
plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material
prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of
the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet,
recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and
encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual
organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people
have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement."

Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and

reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in
consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They
are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a
pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made
similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found
everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to
enumerate them here."

Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the
history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their
contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and
technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful
nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of
its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of
the Indians in all branches of knowledge."

The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it
was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the
Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process.
"Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings
happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical
skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the
discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The
Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid
"celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of
shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's
nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.

Q.8
Which of the following options would the author most agree with?

a The term Hindus applied to the people of India and not to a specific religion or
sect.

b The use of the term Hindus may be controversial today but this was not the case
in Ancient India.

c The media has helped to bring out many negative connotations associated with
the term Hindus.

d The Hindus intellectual superiority was also helped by their inheritance of a

strong bloodline and stature.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially
deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots
attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-
perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority.

But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is

part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However,
this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing
assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the
time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise.

Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of
professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards
the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility
that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved
our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow
Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile
environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising.

In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument,"
historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the
professional press and advertising.

The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain
why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the
same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a
partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to
reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as
independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the
news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of
things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because
advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for
sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer
numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were
impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting
did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of
objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements
that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.

Q.9
Which of the following is true about advertising according to the passage?

a Advertisements generate most of the revenue needed to run a print media

agency.

b Powerful people, toward the end of the 19th century, paved the way for a medium
that promoted advertisements.

c Advertising goes hand-in-hand with a responsible press.

d Advertisers target the audience that buys opinionated news.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially
deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots
attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-
perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority.

But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is

part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However,
this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing
assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the
time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise.

Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of
professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards
the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility
that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved
our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow
Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile
environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising.

In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument,"
historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the
professional press and advertising.

The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain
why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the
same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a
partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to
reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as
independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the
news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of
things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because
advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for
sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer
numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were
impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting
did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of
objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements
that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.

Q.10
Which of the following can best be inferred from the passage?

a The author is critical of the postmodernist theory as it sways from the influence
of modernism.

b Deconstructionism will always lead to nothing as postmodernism isn't based on

any historical or philosophical narrative.

c Newspaper articles are getting smaller in comparison with the advertisements.

d A newspaper is not based on the idiosyncratic views of the editor.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially
deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots
attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-
perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority.

But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is

part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However,
this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing
assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the
time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise.

Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of
professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards
the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility
that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved
our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow
Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile
environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising.

In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument,"
historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the
professional press and advertising.

The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain
why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the
same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a
partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to
reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as
independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the
news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of
things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because
advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for
sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer
numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were
impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting
did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of
objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements
that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.
 Q.11
Which of the following is true about postmodernism according to the passage?

a Postmodernism is the resentful projection of a group of powerful people headed

by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow Wilson's Creel Committee.

b Postmodern practices do not impeach the faith of premodern times nor do they
challenge the Bible.

c Postmodernism, directly or indirectly, is the reason deconstructionism will lead to

nothing.

d Postmodernism is criticized for achieving nothing substantial, despite putting a

lot on the table.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially
deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots
attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-
perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority.

But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is

part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However,
this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing
assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the
time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise.

Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of
professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards
the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility
that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved
our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow
Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile
environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising.

In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument,"
historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the
professional press and advertising.

The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain
why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the
same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a
partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to
reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as
independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the
news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of
things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because
advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for
sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer
numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were
impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting
did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of
objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements
that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.

Q.12
Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

a Journalism has become more responsible.

b Western culture is based on a religious source code.

c Objectivity in journalism is a tricky illusion created merely for the purpose of

supporting advertisements.

d What professional journalists assume as brave and honest behaviour is

debauched by a deconstructive analysis of the thinking of the powerful people who
recognized journalism as a profession toward the end of the 19 century.
th

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

"If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art
actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide
by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of
Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly
beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny
surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several
remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also
sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this?

The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special
predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art.
Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having
permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art
world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among
the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art
entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and
Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of
imitators.

Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now
extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored
sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are
Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirror Harrogate (2014) at Kewenig
and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of
powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in
scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like
consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would
seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions,
stop worrying and love the M-bomb.

At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can
be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon
paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery
brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class.
Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art
perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the
effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art
Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold
or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of
the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes
extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99
percent?

Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner
verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor
NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and
Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of
the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police
baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's
wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of
objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of
today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th
century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the
world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.

Q.13
From the passage, it can be inferred that

a Zombie abstraction and joke paintings are new techniques of art.

b Nineteenth century art had seen a growing need for the commonplace.

c The ABMB event indicated a growing preference for art that has commercial
value.

d Artists are the backbone of the art world and it is they who should drive trends
and dictate the aesthetical understanding of their art.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

"If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art
actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide
by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of
Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly
beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny
surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several
remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also
sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this?

The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special
predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art.
Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having
permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art
world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among
the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art
entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and
Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of
imitators.

Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now
extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored
sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are
Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirror Harrogate (2014) at Kewenig
and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of
powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in
scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like
consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would
seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions,
stop worrying and love the M-bomb.

At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can
be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon
paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery
brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class.
Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art
perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the
effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art
Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold
or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of
the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes
extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99
percent?

Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner
verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor
NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and
Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of
the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police
baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's
wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of
objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of
today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th
century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the
world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.

Q.14
The author's use of the phrase 'in their plutocratic likeness' can best be summarised by
which of the following options?

a The 21st century art is based on the acceptance of art in art fairs and exhibitions.

b A growing class of art connoisseurs are naturally drawn to art that has value and
that appeals to their group, the wealthy.

c Imitation art is also fast increasing and becoming a part of the new art of the 21st
century.

d The plutocracy would prefer art that does not disengage from their lifestyle, ideas
and perspectives.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

"If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art
actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide
by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of
Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly
beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny
surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several
remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also
sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this?

The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special
predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art.
Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having
permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art
world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among
the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art
entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and
Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of
imitators.

Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now
extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored
sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are
Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirror Harrogate (2014) at Kewenig
and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of
powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in
scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like
consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would
seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions,
stop worrying and love the M-bomb.

At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can
be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon
paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery
brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class.
Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art
perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the
effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art
Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold
or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of
the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes
extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99
percent?

Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner
verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor
NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and
Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of
the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police
baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's
wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of
objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of
today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th
century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the
world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.

Q.15
From the information given in the passage, which of the following could be inferred
about the author?

a The author is himself a collector of art and disagrees with the current trend in
art.

b The author has a derogatory view of the art fair art of the 21st century.

c The author does not believe that dealer-collectors are a good influence on the art
world.

d The author feels that all those who hold the view that art is something with
permanent value are flawed.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

"If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art
actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide
by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of
Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly
beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny
surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several
remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also
sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this?

The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special
predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art.
Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having
permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art
world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among
the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art
entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and
Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of
imitators.

Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now
extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored
sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are
Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirror Harrogate (2014) at Kewenig
and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of
powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in
scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like
consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would
seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions,
stop worrying and love the M-bomb.

At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can
be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon
paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery
brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class.
Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art
perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the
effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art
Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold
or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of
the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes
extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99
percent?

Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner
verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor
NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and
Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of
the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police
baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's
wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of
objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of
today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th
century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the
world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.

Q.16
It can be inferred that the author makes references to Ferguson and the Eric Garner
verdict in order to establish that

a Miami was filled with protests on the one hand while the ABMB took place on
the other hand.

b The majority of artwork at the ABMB catered to the ideal of the megarich.

c Despite there being insubstantial art work at display in the ABMB, there were
some content-rich artists present too.

d There is a lack of involvement of the art industry at the ABMB from real world
events.
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.17
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a Magic was a science in which the Egyptians excelled; its attainment was esteemed
the highest exertion of human intellect.

b We can have no hesitation in stating that many of our superstitions may be traced
back to Egyptian religion and customs.

c The Egyptian priests, taking advantage of the people's credulity, taught that the
sun, moon, and whole hosts of heaven were endowed with intelligence, and exerted an
influence over the destinies of men; and they (the priests) pretended to work miracles,
and obtain oracles and omens.

d The Egyptians believed that the souls of men went into other bodies at death,-
such as had been virtuous going into exalted bodies, but the vicious passing into mean
reptiles and other contemptible creatures.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.18
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a Macbeth and Banquo discover the witches and salute them.

b The play is represented as beginning in an open place, where, in a thunder-storm,

three witches appear and one of them tells the other hags that she had been away killing
swine.

c They were not ignorant of the supposed virtue of the mountain ash as an antidote
against witchcraft.

d Through the women's subtlety, the fiend enters Macbeth's heart, and induces him
to form the bloody plans of removing all obstacles in the way of his obtaining the crown,
and handing it down to his descendants.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.19
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a This was only an optical delusion, but also apart from it, he blew poor Gourlay
into the air by an explosion of gunpowder, the composition and power of which were
unknown to the wizard, or to anyone except the friar.

b However, Gourlay the Wizard was an old friend of the powerful king of the realm
- Theodoric

c The master could not bear the idea of being outdone by any one and he strode the
floor in gloomy indignation.

d By means of a curious lantern, the friar made it appear that the mountain Cape-
Law was rent and divided into three parts.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.20
A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.
No one can say where the bones of Machiavelli rest, but modern Florence has decreed
him a stately cenotaph in Santa Croce, by the side of her most famous sons; recognizing
that, whatever other nations may have found in his works, Italy found in them the idea
of her unity and the germs of her renaissance among the nations of Europe. It may be
pointed out that the harsh construction of his doctrine which this sinister reputation
implies was unknown to his own day, and that the researches of recent times have
enabled us to interpret him more reasonably.

a Machiavelli always, the supreme realist, refused to write either of men or of

governments otherwise than as he found them, and he writes with such skill and insight
that his work is of abiding value.
b The Prince, Machiavelli's magnum opus, presents problems that are still
debatable and interesting, because they are the eternal problems between the ruled and
their rulers.

c Machiavelli was undoubtedly a man of great observation, acuteness, and

industry; noting with appreciative eye whatever passed before him.

d It is largely due to modern day analyses of the man and his overarching,
pragmatic philosophy that the shape of an "unholy necromancer," which so long
haunted men's vision, has begun to fade.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.21
A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.

Joan of Arc was perhaps the most wonderful person who ever lived in the world. The
story of her life is so strange that we could scarcely believe it to be true, if all that
happened to her had not been told by people in a court of law, and written down by her
deadly enemies, while she was still alive. She was burned to death when she was only
nineteen: she was not seventeen when she first led the armies of France to victory, and
delivered her country from the English. Joan was the daughter of a poor man, in a little
country village. She had never learned to read or write.

a Yet she was one of the most skilled in aiming cannons, and so great a general that
she defeated the English again and again, and her army was never beaten till her King
deserted her.

b Yet she was so wise that many learned men could not puzzle her by questions.

c Yet she was so brave that severe wounds could not stop her from leading on her
soldiers, and so tender-hearted that she would comfort the wounded English on the field
of battle, and protect them from cruelty.

d Yet she was so kind that her enemies could not find one true story to tell against
her.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b
 Q.22
Five sentences are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

1. Nearly a decade of depressed job numbers leaves some experts wondering about what
kind of damage has been wrought on career arcs, the psyche of the American worker,
and employer-employee relations.
2. The willingness to quit signals a welcome movement in the job market.
3. The resurgent quit rate-the percentage of workers leaving jobs voluntarily-may
indeed end up being cause for celebration, especially if other economic indicators rise
with it.
4. But the news isn't all good.
5. This is because it loosens up opportunities and mobility, as well as hints at increased
confidence of workers who may be leaving one job before finding another.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 32541

Q.23
Five sentences are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

1. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional

investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in.
2. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for
companies to source capital at more reasonable costs.
3. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is
known to have good corporate governance.
4. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company.
5. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a
great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 13245

Q.24
Five sentences are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.
1. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-
weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past.
2. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements.
3. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major
disruption.
4. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand
stress is critical to overall financial stability.
5. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the
availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 54123

Q.25
There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words
given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

Kennedy wants to use Digs to help build a local community, a ________ she says private
renters are denied by their insecure and _________existence.

a uniformity, idiosyncratic

b stand, erudite

c freedom, teeming

d privilege, peripatetic

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.26
The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways.
Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is
incorrect or inappropriate.

Left

a By denying us any subsidy, the state government has left us high and dry.
b He left no stone unturned in his preparations for the exam.

c The new doctor was so brilliant that she left others standing.

d The food was not bad but it left little to be desired.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.27
The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways.
Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is
incorrect or inappropriate.

Bite

a He knew if he gave up now, he would bite the dust.

b They just had to bite the bullet and get on with it, or disappear into oblivion.

c You should be careful not to bite the fingers that feed you.

d There was no need to bite his head off. He only wanted to help!

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.28
The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways.
Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is
incorrect or inappropriate.

Face

a The team won in the face of stiff competition.

b If he has anything to say, he should say it on my face.

c On the face of it, the deal was mutually beneficial for both the firms.
d Mark just pulled a face at him and walked away.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.29
Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized.
From the italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct
sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be
selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the
most appropriate one.

I. The new ships were larger than the small harbor-defense craft and harbor axillaries
(A)/auxiliaries (B) that had initially been built for defense.
II. The extraordinary growth of progressive economies defies the canons (A)/cannons
(B) of economics.
III. He took stringent measures to suppress political descent (A)/dissent (B).
IV. During the war, the army was looking for supplies of heavy ordnance (A)/ ordinance
(B).
V. Her scarf was fastened round her neck with a brooch (A)/broach (B).

a ABABA

b BBABA

c AABAB

d BABAA

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.30
Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized.
From the italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct
sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be
selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the
most appropriate one.

I. The new curtains complemented (A)/ complimented (B) the carpet very well.
II. Don't hesitate to demur (A)/demure (B) to the idea if you have any issues.
III. The Princess laid a wreath (A)/wreathe (B) at the war memorial.
IV. The students were asked to canvass (A)/canvas (B) the situation after the
celebrations were over.
V. The brothers decided to immigrate (A)/emigrate (B) to the United States.

a ABBBA

b AAAAB

c BBAAB

d BABAA

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.31
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Throughout history, various explorers have reported sightings of mermaids, the most
famous of which was Christopher Columbus.

Columbus claimed to have spotted mermaids near Haiti in 1493, which he described as
being "not as pretty as they are depicted, for somehow in the face they look like men,"
according to the American Museum of Natural History.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Columbus' claim?

a According to mythology, Mermaids have been known to exist in the waters

surrounding Haiti since 1000 BC.

b Captain John Smith was reported to have seen a big-eyed, green-haired mermaid
in 1614 off the coast of Newfoundland.

c Fossils, recently discovered near the Indian Ocean, indicate the existence of a
species that anatomically resembles legendary descriptions of mermaids.

d The mermaid has featured frequently on postage stamps from Haiti throughout
its history as a republic.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
 Q.32
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

The prevalence of respiratory and skin ailments among nail salon workers is widely
acknowledged. More uncertain, however, is their risk for direr medical issues. Some of
the chemicals in nail products are known to cause cancer; others have been linked to
abnormal fetal development, miscarriages and other harm to reproductive health. A
number of studies have also found that cosmetologists - a group that includes
manicurists, as well as hairdressers and makeup artists - have elevated rates of death
from Hodgkin’s disease, of low birth-weight babies and of multiple myeloma, a form of
cancer.

Which of the following can be logical concluded from the given paragraph.

a Some ingredients used in nail products have been tied to terminal diseases.

b Some ingredients used in nail products have been tied to cancer, miscarriages,
lung diseases and other ailments, posing threat to those who work with them everyday.

c Some ingredients used in all nail products are dangerous and should be avoided.

d Some ingredients used in nail products are a threat to those who work with them
everyday.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.33
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Assault weapons (semiautomatic firearms that have features that appear useful in
military and criminal context and rifles but unnecessary in shooting sports or self-
defence) are designed for assault; therefore, their proliferation should be prohibited by
law. Every year in the United States, 17,000 people are killed out of which 70 percent of
them are killed with guns and 20,000 people commit suicide by shooting themselves.
Murder by gunfire particularly affects children. In total, well over a million Americans
have died in this manner and 80 people continue to be shot in the US every day. So, a
ban on assault weapons is a good point to start saving lives.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument presented above?

a Deaths as a result of assault weapons are a tiny portion of the total firearms
deaths.
b To ban the weapon is unfair;we should make their license policy more strict.

c If we were to accept that self-defence is the only legitimate reason for owning a
gun then we should also be able to choose which type of gun.

d People who currently use assault weapons would resort to other types of guns
which would not fall under this ban.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.34
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Nuclear weapons are, by their very nature, indiscriminate and disproportional; any
weapon which could not possibly be used in a responsible manner should not be
permitted. Over the past fifty years, we have seen a general tendency towards limited
warfare and precision weapons, allowing military objectives to be achieved with
minimal loss of civilian life. The entire point of nuclear weapons, however, is their
massive, indiscriminate destructive power. Their use could kill tens of thousands of
civilians directly, and their catastrophic environmental after-effects would harm many
more all around the world. These effects could never be morally acceptable, particularly
as the basis of one's national security strategy. They place 'humanity and most forms of
life in jeopardy of annihilation' (Krieger, 2003). No state or leader can be entrusted,
morally, with that power and responsibility.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument presented above?

a Most leaders do not defend the nuclear weapons per se but insist that they
remain a necessary means to a peaceful end.

b The damage done by a nuclear weapon is no more indiscriminate or

disproportional than the damage potentially caused by a prolonged aerial
bombardment.

c The only effective means to deter the development of a nuclear weapon is a

nuclear weapon.

d By claiming the efficacy of nuclear weapons as a strategic deterrent, the current

nuclear powers encourage the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.

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o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : d

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 20
and 2014.

Q.35
It is known that an increase in per capita income always results in an increase in peak power
demand. If year-on-year percentage increase in per capita income is denoted by I and year-on-
PC

year percentage increase in peak power demand is denoted by I , for how many cities was (I – I
PP PC

negative when calculated over the period of 2013 and 2014?

a 0

b 1

c 2
d 3

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 20
and 2014.

Q.36
It is known that in a city each person generates the same amount of waste and for each of the fo
cities, percentage increase in waste generated per person in 2014 compared to that in 2013 is
denoted by x. The value of x for different cities is as follows:

Which of the following cities witnessed maximum percentage increase in its population in 2014
over 2013?

a Bangalore

b Chennai

c Pune

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 20
and 2014.
 Q.37
Which city witnessed the maximum percentage increase in its population in 2014 over that in
2013?

a Bangalore

b Pune

c Chennai

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 20
and 2014.
 Q.38
Over the given period, the total number of violent crimes committed in Pune and Chennai put
together was what percent of the total crimes committed in Hyderabad and Bangalore put
together?

a 64.72

b 63.98

c 65.80

d 70.20

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called
KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were
asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.

Q.39
For how many years, were the marks allotted to geometry questions lesser than those allotted to
analogies as well as arithmetic?

a 1

b 2

c 3

d None of these

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called
KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were
asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.

Q.40
Which topic accounted for the second lowest number of marks over the given period?

a Arithmetic

b Parajumbles

c Analogies

d Modern Maths

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called
KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were
asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.
 Q.41
Which year's paper had the maximum number of total questions during the given period?

a 1998

b 1999

c Both (1) and (2)

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called
KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were
asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.
 Q.42
How many of the topics witnessed positive and negative growth rates for 2000 and 2001
respectively?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 5

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars
sold in India in 2013.
 Q.43
If Hyundai sold 6000 Midsize cars in India in 2013, then the number of SUV cars sold by the
brand which had the second highest share in SUV category could not be more than

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 4500

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars
sold in India in 2013.
 Q.44
What was the ratio of the number of Honda Sedans sold to the number of Midsize cars sold in
India in 2013?

a 15 : 8

b 8 : 15

c 3 : 10

d 6:5

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars
sold in India in 2013.
 Q.45
If BMW sold 25000 cars in India in 2013, then what was the number of Sedans sold by the
brand which has the smallest share in that category?

a 1200

b 4000

c 6000

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars
sold in India in 2013.
 Q.46
Revenue earned by Maruti from Small cars was what percentage of the revenue earned by
Honda from Sedans?

a 111.1%

b 112.5%

c 87.5%

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five national selectors – S , S , S , S and S – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and
1 2 3 4 5

V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0
respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points
fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with
Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average
is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the
selectors is 14.

Additional Information:
(i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin’s Grade-Average was the
highest.
(ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of
Kohli.
(iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
(iv) S and S gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from
3 5

S and S .
3 5

(v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.

(vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
(vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.

Q.47
If the Grade Average of Zaheer was better than that of Sehwag, and all the selectors,
except one, gave higher grade to Zaheer than that to Sehwag, what was the grade given
by S to Zaheer?
1

a III

b IV

c II

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five national selectors – S , S , S , S and S – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and
1 2 3 4 5

V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0
respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points
fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with
Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average
is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the
selectors is 14.
Additional Information:
(i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin’s Grade-Average was the
highest.
(ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of
Kohli.
(iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
(iv) S and S gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from
3 5

S and S .
3 5

(v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.

(vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
(vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.

Q.48
If the Grade Average of Sehwag and Dhoni was the same, then how many different
values of Grade Average were possible for Ashwin?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 3

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five national selectors – S , S , S , S and S – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and
1 2 3 4 5

V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0
respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points
fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with
Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average
is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the
selectors is 14.

Additional Information:
(i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin’s Grade-Average was the
highest.
(ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of
Kohli.
(iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
(iv) S and S gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from
3 5

S and S .
3 5

(v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.

(vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
(vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.

Q.49
If S gave higher grade than S to both Sachin and Rohit, the sum of points given by S to
3 5 3

Uttappa, Sachin and Rohit can take how many different value?

a 5

b 6

c 4

d 9

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five national selectors – S , S , S , S and S – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and
1 2 3 4 5

V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0
respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points
fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with
Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average
is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the
selectors is 14.
Additional Information:
(i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin’s Grade-Average was the
highest.
(ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of
Kohli.
(iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
(iv) S and S gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from
3 5

S and S .
3 5

(v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.

(vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
(vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.

Q.50
How many different values of Grade Average are possible for Zaheer?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 3

Direction for question 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and
Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of
the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their
owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not
necessarily in the given order.

Some additional information is given below:

I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.

II. The Collie stood first.
III. Max stood second.
IV. Jack is an Airedale.
V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.

Q.51
The first rank was obtained by

a Ms Anubhuti's dog

b Ms Rakhi's dog

c Max

d Jack

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Direction for question 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and
Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of
the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their
owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not
necessarily in the given order.

Some additional information is given below:

I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.

II. The Collie stood first.
III. Max stood second.
IV. Jack is an Airedale.
V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.

Q.52
The breed of Ms. Suchita's dog was

a Collie

b Boxer

c Airedale

d Dobermann

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Direction for question 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and
Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of
the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their
owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not
necessarily in the given order.

Some additional information is given below:

I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.

II. The Collie stood first.
III. Max stood second.
IV. Jack is an Airedale.
V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.

Q.53
In which of the following statements, are the dogs correctly listed in the descending
order of their rank (highest rank to lowest rank)?
I. Kelly; the Airedale; Ms Anubhuti's dog
II. The boxer; Ms Suchita's dog; Jack
III. Ms Anubhuti's dog; the Airedale; Lad

a I only

b II only
c III only

d I and III

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Direction for question 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and
Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of
the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their
owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not
necessarily in the given order.

Some additional information is given below:

I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.

II. The Collie stood first.
III. Max stood second.
IV. Jack is an Airedale.
V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.

Q.54
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
A. Max is a boxer.
B. The Doberman is Lad.
C. Jack wins the third prize.

a A and B

b A and C

c A, B and C

d B and C

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Direction for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents -
Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays
exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and
Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton.

Some additional information is given below:

(i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
(ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
(iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
(iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
(v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
(vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
(vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
(viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that
of those sitting on his/her left.

Q.55
Based on the given information which of the following can be determined uniquely?

a The game played by father

b Who plays badminton

c Who is sitting at the middle

d Who plays cricket

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Direction for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents -
Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays
exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and
Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton.

Some additional information is given below:

(i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
(ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
(iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
(iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
(v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
(vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
(vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
(viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that
of those sitting on his/her left.

Q.56
If the elder son plays basketball, which game does younger son play?

a Cricket

b Badminton

c Tennis

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Direction for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents -
Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays
exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and
Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton.

Some additional information is given below:

(i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
(ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
(iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
(iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
(v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
(vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
(vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
(viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that
of those sitting on his/her left.

Q.57
Which of the following statements will be required to determine the game played by
father?

a Younger son plays badminton

b Daughter plays tennis

c Daughter plays cricket

d No additional information is required

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Direction for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents -
Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays
exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and
Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton.

Some additional information is given below:

(i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
(ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
(iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
(iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
(v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
(vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
(vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
(viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that
of those sitting on his/her left.

Q.58
Sitting position of how many of them can be determined uniquely?

a 2

b 3

c 1

d All of them

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu,
Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time.
To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different
cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a
different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following
additional information is given about them.
I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the
cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither
Vijender nor Gorkhi.
V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi.
VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with
a different drink.

Q.59
Who among the following cannot be the person who gave a treat at CCD?
I. Babbu
II. Sonu
III. Abhinav
IV. Vijender

a I and III

b II, III and IV

c Only IV

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu,
Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time.
To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different
cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a
different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following
additional information is given about them.
I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the
cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither
Vijender nor Gorkhi.
V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi.
VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with
a different drink.

Q.60
If Anurag treated his friends with Cold Coffee, then with which drink did Sonu treat his
friends?

a Vodka

b Milk

c Fruit juice

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu,
Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time.
To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different
cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a
different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following
additional information is given about them.
I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the
cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither
Vijender nor Gorkhi.
V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi.
VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with
a different drink.

Q.61
Which drink was served at Barista?

a Pepsi
b Fruit Juice

c Cold Coffee

d Milk

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu,
Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time.
To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different
cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a
different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following
additional information is given about them.
I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the
cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither
Vijender nor Gorkhi.
V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi.
VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with
a different drink.

Q.62
How many of the following cafeterias could be the one in which Tinkle could give a
treat?
I. Mocha
II. Mojo
III. CCD

a I and II

b I and III

c II and III

d I, II and III

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and
white balls.
I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25),
you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has",
said one of the friends.

Q.63
The number of balls with the three friends put together cannot be more than

a 12

b 19

c 24

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and
white balls.
I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25),
you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has",
said one of the friends.

Q.64
Who is the speaker?
a Saptarsh

b Rushat

c Trivendra

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and
white balls.
I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25),
you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has",
said one of the friends.

Q.65
The number of balls with Saptarsh cannot be more than

a 3

b 9

c 6

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and
white balls.
 I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25),
you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has",
said one of the friends.

Q.66
How many balls does Rushat have?

a 8

b 12

c 4

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Sec 3

Q.67
The price of an article was first increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%. If the
final price became Rs. 20, then the initial price (in Rs.) of the article was

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
 Q.68
If f(x) = max {x – 4, –4x, 4x}, then find the minimum value of f(x).
2

a –4

b –2

c 1

d 0

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.69
There is an isosceles right-angled triangle, the length of whose sides are 4, 4 and 4√2
units. Find the minimum length of the cut, which can divide the triangle into 2 parts of
equal area.

a 2√2 units

b 2√ 5units

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.70
If the difference between the number of arrangements of 3 items out of a certain
number of dissimilar items and the number of selections of three items from the same
number of dissimilar items exceeds 100, what is the least value of the number of
dissimilar items?

a 5

b 6
c 7

d 9

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.71
The product of three positive integers is 6 times their sum. One of the integers is equal
to the sum of the other two. Find the sum of all distinct possible products of these three
integers.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 336

Q.72
Ramu has a gift shop, where he keeps a few similar articles. He observes that when
number of units of an article sold on a day increases, the profit that he makes per
article, on that day, decreases. Ramu, who is an expert mathematician, has also
identified that when he sells (x + 2) articles in a day, he earns a profit per article of Rs.
(12 – 3x). What can be his maximum profit (in Rs.) on any given day?

a 12

b 27

c 6

d depends on x

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.73

What is the sum of the series upto 14th term?

a

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.74
Four spherical balls are kept in a conical flask, as shown in the figure below, in such a
way that each of the two balls in the middle touches the ball above and the ball below it,
and all balls touch the lateral surface of the cone. Which of the following can be radii (in
units) of the spheres, from the smallest to the largest?

a 2, 4, 6, 8

b 2, 6, 10, 15

d
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.75
ABCD is a square. Points P, Q, R and S are on sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
The square PQRS is formed by joining the points P, Q, R and S respectively. If the area
of square PQRS is 5/8th the area of ABCD and AP < PB, find the ratio of AP : PB.

a 3:8

b 1:3

c 3:5

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.76
A die is rolled three times. What is the probability that the number that turns up in the
second roll is more than that which turns up in the first roll and the number that turns
up in the third roll is more than that which turns up in the second roll?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.77
V is a natural number below 1100 which has 32 divisors. Find the sum of the digits of
'V'.

a 9

b 18

c 12

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.78
In a nautanki party of 60 friends, 20% of the friends cannot sing, 80% of the friends
can dance and 50% of them can do mimicry. What can be the maximum number of
friends who can sing, dance and mimic?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 30

Q.79
A right circular cone is cut into five slices, by making four cuts, each of which is parallel
to its base. Heights of all the slices are equal. By what percentage is the volume of the
middle-most slice lesser than the volume of the largest slice?

a 82.4%

b 41.3%

c 68.9%

d 55.3%

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
 Q.80
The percentage volumes of alcohol in three solutions – S1, S2 and S3 – form a geometric
progression in that order. If we mix the first, second and third solutions in the ratio 2 : 3
: 4, we obtain a solution containing 32% alcohol. If we mix them in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1, we
obtain a solution containing 22% alcohol. What is the percentage of alcohol in S1?

a 6%

b 12%

c 18%

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.81
P × P × P × P × P × P × P = 360360, where
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Natural
Number, P + P + P = 14 and P < 20. If the product of P , P and P is an odd number,
1 2 5 7 5 6 7

then what is the value of (P + P + P )? 5 6 7

a 39

b 33

c 31

d Not unique

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.82
Find the dimension of the cube of maximum possible volume that can be placed inside a
hollow cone with base diameter 12 cm and height 8 cm.

a 4.8 cm
b

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.83
The sum of 1 + 3x + 6x + 10x + 15x ..... to infinity, |x| being less than 1, is:
2 3 4

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.84
In ABC, having G as its orthocenter, D is the midpoint of BC. Also, the area of ABC
is five times the area of GDC and ABC = 60°. If the minimum distance between any
point on BC and point A is 10 cm, find the length of GC? (G lies within ABC)

b 4 cm

c 8 cm
d

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.85
A boy has two bags namely P1 and P2. P1 contains 3 Red and 2 Blue balls. P2 contains 2
Red and 3 Blue balls. A ball is picked from P1 and put into P2. Then a ball is picked
from P2 and put into P1. What is the probability that the Red-Blue composition of balls
remains unchanged in the two bags?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.86
What is the value of (a + c) if (a × c × ac = ccc) where, a and c are non-zero single digit
numbers and ac is a 2 digit number whose tens digit is a and unit digit is c?

a 11

b 10

c 12

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : b

Q.87
A number is formed by writing all the integral multiples of 3 between 1 and 200, side by
side in ascending order. What is the 100th digit of the number from the left end?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 1

Q.88
If S stands for the sum of the first r terms of an Arithmetic Progression, then S :(S – S )
r 3r 2r r

is equal to

b 3r

c 3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.89

Ram and Kanti working together can complete a job in Ram started
working alone and quit the job after completing 1/3rd of it, and then Kanti completed
the remaining work. They took 25 days to complete the work in this manner. How many
days could Kanti have taken to complete the job working alone?

a 21

b 23

c 27
d 29

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.90
The number of solution(s) of the simultaneous equations V = 3log K and V = log (3K)
e e

is/are

a Three

b One

c Two

d Zero

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.91
There are 98 given points on a circle. Amar, Akbar and Anthony start playing a game
by drawing a chord, one by one, by joining any two of the points which have not yet
been joined together. The game ends when all such points have been joined
exhaustively. The winner is the one who draws the last chord. If Anthony starts the
game, followed by Akbar, and then Amar, then who will win?

a Amar

b Akbar

c Anthony

d Data Insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
 Q.92
Last year I visited the Royal Enfield showroom on Diwali eve. I asked the price of a
bullet, and the salesman replied, "the list price is Rs.1,20,000, however it is available

at discount with Rs.20,000 down payment and 3 equal installments payable

annually at 20% rate of interest per annum". The amount that I have to pay at the end
of each year is approximately

a Rs.46,080

b Rs.39,778

c Rs.38,779

d Rs.37,978

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.93
Two cyclists are travelling at 3 km/hr and 10 km/hr around a circular track. What
should be the ratio of number of distinct points that they would meet on that track if
they first travel 10 rounds in same direction and then 10 rounds in opposite direction?

a 7 : 13

b 3 : 10

c 3:7

d 30 : 13

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.94
A circle of radius 6 cm is cut into 6 sectors, all of which subtend equal angles at the
centre. The area (in cm ) of the largest circle that can be drawn inside each of these
2

sectors is
a 3

b 4

c 6

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.95
Let n be a positive integer not divisible by 5. Which of the following numbers must leave
1 as remainder when divided by 5 ?

a n 2

b n 4

c n 6

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.96
In the given figure, ABCD is a square, and P, Q, R and S are the mid-points of AB, BC,
CD and AD respectively. Find the ratio of the area of the shaded region to the area of
the square ABCD.
a 1:3

b 1:4

c 1:5

d 1:6

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.97
How many points with integral coordinates are there inside a triangle, of area 250 sq
units, that is right angled at (0,0) and has a vertex at (25,0)?

a 228

b 227

c 225

d 226

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.98
Mohan and Rakesh are two friends. Mohan lives in 'Villa-Kila' and Rakesh lives in
'Killa-Vila'. One day, Rakesh invited Mohan to his 'Killa-Vila' for lunch. Mohan took
his car out and started his journey towards Rakesh's house. Rakesh also took his bike
out and started travelling towards Mohan's house to receive his guest. When they met,
they found that each of them had covered the same distance. However, Rakesh took 2
hours more than Mohan to do so. Without wasting any time they started moving
towards 'Killa-Vila' at their respective speeds. Mohan, upon reaching 'Killa-Vila',
discovered that Rakesh is far behind him and thus he went to his Uncle's residence,
which was 20 km ahead of 'Killa-Vila' on the same road. His uncle was not at home,
hence he immediately turned back towards 'Killa-Vila’ and finally, they reached 'Killa-
Vila' simultaneously. After spending 1 hour at 'Killa-Vila', Mohan returned to his house
and noticed that his journey took a total of 19 hours, including his stay at ‘Killa-Vila’.
What distance did Mohan travel throughout the journey?
a 240 km

b 180 km

c 360 km

d 200 km

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.99
Find the number of solutions of the equation log (x + 5) = 6 - x.
2

a 0

b 1

c 2

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.100
In the figure given below, triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle, with centre O. PC is a
tangent to the circle at point C. If DP = 5 cm, find the length (in cm) of OD.
a

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Correct Answer : c