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2013

1. What are the factors of retention of upper denture??


A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Amount of saliva & quality
C. Correct position of the teeth and ridge
D. Intimate contact of the prosthesis with the ridge
E. All of the above

2. What is the area of secondary retention upper edentulous jaw??


A. Ruge
B. Buccal aspect of the ridge
C. The area tuberosity
D. Palatal aspect of the ridge

3. What is the advantage of using copper ring when taking an impression??


A. Brings the impression material to the finish line (finish line is captured
accurately with this technique)
B. The method is suitable for all impression material
C. Verification of the finish line with the cutting the edges of the ring
D. Allows the accuracy of the impression (this is not an advantage, any impression
material can be accurate enough)

4. When planning any bridge we must take into account the periodontal support of the
teeth (Ante's low). All of these cases do NOT apply Antes’ Law but only one of them can
be applied clinically with good prognosis. Which one is it?
A. If the wisdom tooth roots are converging 14***18 (BAD CHOICE)
B. long root of 13 and 17 has flared roots 13***17 (GOOD CHOICE)
C. If the lateral has a wide root 11,12****17 (BAD CHOICE)
D. 13**16 (BEST CHOICE)
E. 22***13 (BAD CHOICE)

P.S. This is a problematic question. Because it asks you to pick the bridge that does NOT
apply to Ante’s Law but has a good prognosis.
This example is written in Schillinburg page.110 and it quotes: That 13**16 does not
apply Ante’s Law but it is a predictable bridge with a good prognosis.
5. Difference in thermal expansion coefficients between the metal to porcelain in PFM
crowns form a connection (adhesion) type:
A. Mechanical connection as a result of microscopic penetration
B. Chemical connection (Van Der Waal)
C. Mechanical connection as a result of stress (pressure)
D. Chemical connection between ionic bonds
E. Chemical connection (linking covalent)
The answer is in Shillinburg page 456

6. When constructing a complete denture, what is the effect of steep condylar guidance
(steep slope of the articular eminence)?
A. the cusps will be steeper
B. Monson curve will be greater
C. Bigger Free Way Space
D. Will not affect the occlusion
E. the cusps will be shallow

7. When preparing a complete denture, what movement would you ask your patient to
perform to get the effect of the temporomandibular raphe (ligament)?
A. Lateral movements of the jaws
B. Maximum mouth opening
C. open mouth to 2 cm
D. Closing the mouth

8. Upon setting the teeth for a complete denture, what do you do if you get a separation
between the posterior teeth when performing protrusion?
A. Reduce the condylar guidance
B. Reduce the compensating curves
C. Reduce the anterior guidance (to make it shallow)
D. Reduce the masticatory curve
E. Reduce the height (steepness) of the cusps
9. Which occlusion type we are interested to present in a complete denture?
A. simultaneous contacts between all the teeth in all the movements to get
the best maximum stability of the denture
B. Canine guidance to prevent TMJ disorders
C. Full contact between the teeth only on protrusion, to get a good retention for the
upper denture
D. Contacts between the lower supporting cusps and the upper guiding plane in the
working side

10. Polysulfide Impressions can be disinfected using:


A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Gluter-aldehyde
C. Iodophores
D. Gluter-aldehyde phenolic
E. All of the above

11. What is the finish line of choice for a gold crown?


A. Shoulder
B. Chamfer
C. Butt joint
D. Shoulder with bevel

12. Initial (primary) carries lesion was found distal to tooth 34 while preparing 35 for a
crown. In which stage of treatment can you treat this lesion?
A. In the Initial treatment phase (always remove carries before)
B. In the re-evaluation phase
C. In the Follow-up phase
D. As a part of a maintenance therapy

13. What gives the best prognosis for a fixed partial denture (bridge)?
A. Long Span between the prepared teeth
B. Occluso-gingival short teeth
C. Steep (deep) curve of Spee
D. Occluso-ginigval long teeth
E. Shallow (flat) curve of Spee
14. (Ferrule Effect) concept refers to?
A. Sealing of dentinal tubules with calcium oxalate which affects the bonding
B. A high crown that does not fit the margins because of the viscous cement
C. A processed surface of titanium implants with hydroxyapatite crystals
D. Resistance of wedging forces with a crown surrounding healthy tooth
material with a previously placed custom made post

15. Rapid removal of the tray containing an elastomeric impression material from the
patients’ mouth can cause:
((‫ و ليس اخراجها قبل‬,‫القصد في السؤال الحركة[ السريعة[ عند اخراج المادة[ بعد ما تنشف بالكامل‬
‫)ما تنشف‬
A. Polymer chains can go back to normal stage (before Insertion in the mouth)
B. Increase the dimensional distortion of the material
C. Decreases the tearing resistance of the material
E. The materials’ characteristics does not change

16. Self-Etch Bonding agents:


A. It should be applied in multiple layers and then rinsed to allow the primer to
evaporate
B. The acid in this bond can cause post-operative sensitivity
C. It has reported less post-operative sensitivity
D. Bonding strength is weak if compared with the total-etch technique

17. What is correct regarding the hardness of a material?


A. Determined with a universal loading machine
B. Material X is examined under the pressure of material Y
D. Determined by a diamond placed against this material

18. The polymerization of additional silicone:


A. Every 2 molecules of the monomer connect as a side effect of the adding process
B. In the polymerization a double bond will be open to connection
C. Has the same characteristics of polysulfide
D. In the polymerization the double bond will close
19. What is the main reason for METAL deformation?
A. Presence of POINT DEFECTS
B. Presence of GRAIN BOUNDARIES
C. Pollution by GRAIN BOUNDARIES
D. MACROSCOPIC DEFECT

20. What is preferable to do to lengthen the working time of ZPC (zinc phosphate
cement)?
A. Fast mixing
B. Add water
C. To use a thick and warm glass mixing pad
D. To use a thick and cold glass mixing pad

2010

1. Articulation and occlusion, are synonyms?


A. yes
B. yes if the IC = RC
C. There is a difference when there is natural upper teeth and lower full denture
D. No, Occlusion is dynamic
P.S.: I have absolutely no idea what is the meaning of this question. All I know is that
this is the right answer according to students in Hadassa

2. Which is correct about PRP (Physiologic rest position)?


A. Variable (changes) throughout the individuals’ life in different situations
B. Measured while the patient is in supine position
C. Measured when the patient is sitting upright and relaxed
D. A+B are correct
E. A+C are correct
3. Which is NOT correct about VDR (vertical dimension at rest)?
A. Can be measured with patient sitting in a 45 degrees angle (always 90)
B. can be measured while the patient is standing
C. Wax bites can help in the measurement
D. Old dentures can help in the measurement

4. When do you use a retraction cord?


A. Using a C2 bur in the buccal side (light chamfer)
B. Using a C3 bur in the buccal side (heavy chamfer)
C. Using a C3 bur in equigingival or subgingival preparation
C. Using E4 bur with a bevel subgingival

5. What happens if we add water to ZPC?


A. Slower setting time
B. faster setting of the cement
C. There is no difference in setting time
D. Longer working time

6. Why it is important that compound impression material have a low thermal


conductivity?
A. To have low elasticity and make it hard to remove from undercuts
B. To shorten the working time (it has a long working time)
C. To increase the tearing strength
D. To prevent the distortion of the material while taking it out from the
patients’ mouth

7. What is true about thermoplastic polymer?


A. May exist in a crystal state or glass state
B. Can breakdown from polymers to monomers and vise-versa
C. Can melt and re-harden
D. All true

8. When raising the temperature, difference between polyetheres and additional silicone?
A. Working time lengthens only polyether
B. Longer working time only additional silicone
C. Both longer working time
D. Both shorter working time

9. What caused fracture in the center of an upper denture?


A. Excessive release of buccal frenum
B. Excessive release of incisive papilla
C. Excessive release of the buccal flanges
D. Alveolar bone resorption in the posterior region with time

10. What is the disadvantage of cement composite resin when cementing a PFM crown?
A. High viscosity.
B. Difficult to remove excess
C. Short working time
D. All true

11. What muscle does NOT raise a lower denture?


A. Masseter.
B. Buccinator
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Genioglossus

12. If the patient complains of the upper full denture falling when masticating food. What
would you do?
A. Add material to the posterior palatal seal
B. Selective Grinding of the denture
C. Relining
D. Ask the patient to buy denture glue
E. Do a new denture

13. Which cement does not function with the mechanical interlocking principle alone?
A. ZPC
B. Resin cement
C. GIC
D. None of the above
14. What helps for the resistance of a prepared tooth for a crown?
A. Preparing vertical fissures in the proximal walls
B. Preparing vertical fissures in the axial walls
C. A preparation that is not too round
D. deepening of the central fossa

15. What is the difference between the upper major connector to lower major connector?
Answer: The lower connector does not support the prostheses

16. What is the advantage of an intercorwn connector to a retentive clasp?


A. Esthetics
B. Retention
C. Support

17. There are dental materials which are characterized by their ability to release fluoride
and absorb fluoride. Sort in descending order the materials that have a greater capacity
to absorb fluoride: Compomer, GIC, Resin modified GIC, Composite
Answer: GIC > RMGI > compomer > composite

18. Which muscle is mainly active in mouth opening?


A. Suprahyoid
B. Infrahyoid
B. Medial Pterygoid
D. Lateral Pterygoid

19. A woman brings her father for you to do a complete denture for him. He did not own
a denture for the past 20 years. He did one 5 years ago but he never used them. What is
the right thing to do in this situation?
A. Do not construct a denture if the patient does not want it
B. Do not construct a denture even if the patient wants it
C. Construct a denture because this is what his daughter wants
D. Construct an overdenture on implants. Because it has higher success rates
20. What is the main function of the REST (RPD)?
A. Prevents lateral movements
B. Support
C. Direct retention
D. Indirect retention

21. Which of these teeth can be prepared for a fixed partial denture (bridge)?
A. Root canal treated tooth without a post and core
B. Root canal treated tooth with a post and core
C. Natural tooth
D. All of the above
E. B+C are correct

22. How much would you remove occlusaly to prepare a tooth for a porcelain crown?
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm

22. With what would you take a primary impression for a complete denture?
A. Stock tray, Alginate
B. Special tray, alginate
C. Special tray, polymer
D. Stock tray, polymer

23. When can you perform the altered cast technique?


A. Upper arch Kennedy class III
B. Upper arch Kennedy class I
C. Lower arch Kennedy class I
D. Lower arch Kennedy class I + III

24. Which of these impression materials is most sensitive to water?


A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Additional silicone
D. Polyethylene

25. When do you use a full-coverage (major connector type in RPD) in the upper arch?
A. All the molars and premolars are missing
B. All the premolars + 1st molars are missing
C. It is the most common major connector used
D. Never use it

26. In the time that you want to cement a crown you found a miss fitting part in the
finish line (no marginal integrity). What would you do?
A. Fill the gap with a restorative material
B. Cement it, because the cement itself would fill the gap
C. Take a new impression
D. Ask the technician to fill this gap himself

27. What is the advantage of PVS “polyvinyl siloxane” = additional silicone, over other
impression materials?
A. Good detail reproduction and dimensional stability up to 48 hours
B. Dimensional stability up to 7 days
C. Biocompatible
D. Antibacterial
E. Good resistance while taking them out from the mouth and in humidity

28. What is the type of finish line that should be performed in the furcation area?
Answer: Knife edge

29. Pick two statements that are connected?


A. Protrusion & condylar guidance angel
B. Pure rotation & incisal guidance

30. What is NOT a function of the wax rims (in complete dentures)?
A. Determining the centric relation ‫רישום יחס מרכזי‬
B. Midline, Canine lines and smile line
C. Choice of size and shape of teeth
D. Creating a bilateral balanced occlusion
E. placing of the arch according to the lips, cheeks and tongue

31. How do you set up the VDO (vertical dimension at occlusion)?


A. Mark 2 dots: one fixed on the maxilla and the other moving on the mandible
B. In the CR (centric relation)
C. In the centric occlusion
D. With the help of muscles of mastication
D. A + C

32. What is the advantage of replacing an amalgam filling with a porcelain inlay?
A. Esthetics
B. Biocompatibility
C. Less bacterial adherence (plaque formation)
D. All of the above

33. Which of these muscles mainly moves the lower denture?


A. Styloglousses
B. Buccinator
C. Massator
D. Mentalis

34. Determining the occlusal plane while constructing a complete denture is done by?
A. Campers plane
B. Frankfort’s plane
C. Tragus-Canthus line
D. Midline of the face and the smile line

35. Frenectomy of the anterior and buccal lower lesions in a patient wearing a lower
complete denture is done in which of these cases?
A. Height of the frenum reaches the height of the alveolar ridge
B. If the patient asks you to do it
C. Do not do a frenetomy as long as it does not interfere with speech
D. Do not do a frenectomy without deepening the sulcus
36. After extracting all the teeth in the lower arch, how long would you wait before
constructing a lower full denture?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 18 months
E. 24 months

37. What is the most important character needed in a noble alloy to be used in a PFM?
A. Ability to connect to porcelain by forming the oxide layer
B. The thermal expansion is equivalent to porcelain
C. Melting temperature is equivalent to porcelain
D. The biocompatibility is lower than that of porcelain

38. What is the main function of the reciprocal arm on a tooth level?
A. To resist the dislodging forces of the denture
B. To resist the sinking of the denture
C. To resist the retentive arm
D. To strengthen the minor connector

39. What is the main function of the temporary base and wax rim in the making of an
RPD?

A. Creating the inter-arch occlusal relationship

B. Creating the final inter-arch relationship

C. Setting of teeth

E. For the patient to adapt to the new denture

F. A+C are correct

40. In a posterior Maryland bridge, the micromechanical bond is achieved by?

A. Preparing the teeth to receive the wings

B. Preparing vertical fissures in the proximal walls


C. Preparing vertical fissures in the lingual walls

D. A+B are correct

E. A+C are correct

41. The ideal incisal preparation in an all-ceramic crown would be?

A. 0.3 mm

B. 1 mm

C. 2 mm

D. 3 mm

42. You made a gold-veneer crown with buccal acrylic facing. In the delivery you
noticed that there is NO interproximal contact points. What is the right thing to do?

A. Ask the technician to add acryl or composite in the proximal surfaces of the crown

B. Cement the crown and wait for the teeth to move and close the gap with time

C. Ask the technician to add gold to the proximal surfaces

D. Ask the technician to remove the acrylic facing, add gold to the
proximal surfaces and do a try in session

E. Create the contact points using amalgam fillings in the neighboring teeth

43. A young woman came to your clinic complaining of pain in her posterior left side
near her ear that began 3 days ago. Before 2 days it became difficult to open her
mouth. 1 day ago she did not sleep. What is your diagnosis?

A. Myofacial pain (chronic usually)

B. Problems in TMJ (usually does not cause trismus)

C. Pulpitis

D. Pericoronitis
44. While preparing a 2 mm whole for placing a pin inside the dentine. You felt that
the pin is pushed easily inside the tooth beyond 2 mm. What do you think
happened?

A. The diameter of the bur is larger than the pins’ diameter

B. The pin went into the PDL

C. There is a problem in the pin

45. What is the advantage of FLOURIDE-FLUX use in the soldering of the cobalt-
chromium?

A. Better flow ability

B. Better wettability of the surface

C. Less acidity of the chromiums’ surface

46. To make sure your implant has osseointegrated in the alveolar bone:

Wait MONTHS before loading it

47. You made multiple RCTs for a patient that has no money to continue his
treatment and crown them all. What would you advise him to do?

A. At least crown tooth no. 15 (because it is the weakest tooth in the mouth and
would break easily after RCT)

2011

1. What is the tensional strength in MPas of GIC (glass ionomer cement)?


A. 1-3 MPa
B. 12-14 MPa
C. 22-24 MPa
D. 32-36 MPa
2. A denture broke and you managed to fix it. The patient came back to you
complaining that it is not comfortable to wear anymore. What is the minimal
treatment that you can do to him?
A. Tell him “adapt to it”
B. Do a new denture
C. Do relining
D. Do rebasing

3. Appearance of inflammation under the pontic of a bridge can be due to?


A. The shape of pontic doesn't match the tissue
B. There is space between the tissue and the pontic
C. The patient has a disease with the collagen fibers
D. A+ B

4. How does the metal fuse to porcelain in PFM crowns?


A. Chemical (the metal forms an oxide layer) which connects to porcelain
B. Physical (mechanical connection via sandblasting the metal)
C. Hydrogen (ionic binding)
D. A + B

5. Polysulfide:
A. Bad dimensional stability because it loses water with time
B. Needs a special tray
C. Hydrophilic
D. A + B

6. Which contacts should a cantilever pontic have with the opposing teeth?
A. IC (intercuspation) + lateral movements
B. contacts in IC with NO lateral movements
C. NO contacts in IC + NO contacts in lateral movements
D. No contacts in IC + contacts in lateral movements

7. Upon examining the occlusion of a patient with a new crown on a mandibular molar, a
steep condylar guidance angle was registered compared with the patients’ mouth without
the new crown. What do you see while trying to fix this problem (balancing the
occlusion)?
A. Interference in protrusion
B. Loss of vertical dimension
C. Interference in retrusion
D. A + B

8. After preparing a 3-unit bridge you find it hard to insert it. What could the cause be?
A. There is no path of insertion
B. the spacer is thick
C. Small occluso-gingival height
D. All of the above

9. Which cement is recommended to use when you have non-vital tooth (crown
cementation)?
A. ZPC (zinc phosphate cement) because of the high success rates
B. GIC, because it has a high tensile strength

10. If you have a missing 36 in a patient who has no carries. What is the proper
treatment?
A. Implant + Crown
B. 2 implants + crowns
C. Bridge 37*35
D. There is no need to replace it

11. You had to extract tooth no.14 and there is no chance to place an implant instead.
How would you replace it?
A. Bridge: *15 + rest on 13
B. Bridge: 15*13
C. Bridge: *15 with 14 as a cantilever
D. Bridge: 16, 15 *(14 cantilever)
P.S. according to Shillinburg the answer is D. It is not B because the canine is not a good
choice to place under a bridge. It is preferable that it stays intact and guide the mandible
(canine guidance)

12. How do you determine the VDO (vertical dimension at occlusion)?


A. One fixed point on the maxilla and another moving point on the mandible
B. Centric occlusion
C. Centric relation
D. A+B
C. A+C

13. Polysulfide?
A. Does not have a good dimensional stability because it loses water with time
B. Needs a special tray
C. Hydrophilic
D. A+B

14. Cement crown with temporary cementation to examine?


A. Retention
B. Finish line.
C. Give time to gingiva to form
D. To check aesthetic.
E. All exept A

15. As a result of injury of which muscle does the jaw moves to the right?
A. Injury to left lateral pterygoid
B. Injury to right lateral pterygoid

16. Which type of GOLD you should NOT be used to cast crowns?
A. Type l
B. Type ll
C. Type lll
D. Type lV

17. You got a prepared RPD from laboratory, the first thing you check is?
A. The stop is not covered with acryl
B. Polishing
C. Suitable frame to the metallic framework
18.Increased vertical dimension can cause?
A. Injury to the supporting tissue
B. Atrophy of muscles/lower muscle tone
C. Less retention
D. Smaller naso-labial angel
E. No trauma at all.

19. What is true about Free Way Space?


A. Increase by forward movement of the head.
B. Increases by backward movement of the head
C. Doesn't change backward movement of the head

2012

1. What is true about the RPD?


A. Impossible to have only one guiding plane
B. Retention arm cannot be present without a reciprocal arm
C. There cannot be only one rest
D. All the of the above are correct

2. Which muscle does not open the mouth?


A. Temporalis
B. Mylohyoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Anterior digastric

3. In a class I patient, Tooth no. 28 has over erupted about 2.5 mm. In which of these
movements would you find a problem?
A. Retrusion
B. Protrusion
C. Lateral-protrusion
D. A+C are correct
4. In ADHESION, what is the definition of contact angel?
A. The contact between two cemented surfaces
B. The wettability of a material to a surface
C. Describes the surface energy of a materials surface

5. Contraindication for an immediate denture?


A. Uncontrolled diabetes
B. Coagulation diseases
C. Parkinson’s
D. Osteitis deformans

6. Which one of these anatomical land marks is considered the posterior seal/border for
a lower complete denture?
A. Retromolar pad
B. Palatoglussus
C. Massater
D. Fovea palatine

7. The FOVEA PALATINE?


A. Is a landmark that transmits to the posterior border (inside) of a denture
B. A landmark for the posterior border of the denture
C. Had no relation to the upper denture

8. Denture stomatitis?
A. Burning sensation and painful usually
B. Asymptomatic
C. Can be treated with anti-fungal medications

9. What is the YIELD STRENGTH?


A. Irreversible plastic deformation from minimal stress
B. Irreversible plastic deformation from maximal stress
C. Force that breaks the material from minimal stress
D. Force that breaks the material from maximal stress
10. What is true about the IC (intercuspation) position?
A. Affected by opening muscles of mastication
B. Affected by the closing muscles of mastication
C. Affected by the teeth position/ teeth tilting/faulty teeth positions
D. Does not change

11. What is correct regarding the water/gypsum ratio?


A. High water/gypsum ratio can cause less porosity in the gypsum
B. Small water/gypsum ratio can cause more porosity in the gypsum
C. High water/gypsum ratio causes more porosity in the gypsum
D. the ratio does not affect the gypsum

12. You got a PFM crown from the lab with the porcelain bisque stage (a stage where
you try in the porcelain without the glaze) and the crown does not enter all the way to
the finish line. But when you examined the metal try in it was fit. What could be the
reason here?
A. Bubbles inside the metal
B. Remaining cement on the tooth
C. Porcelain was added excessively on the area of the finish line
D. B+C are correct

2/2015

1. Which movement of the posterior teeth _ (FOA) functional outer aspect usually
doesn't participate?
A. Jaw movement "working side"
B. Jaw movement "non-working side"
C. Protrusion movement
D. Lateral protrusion
2. Internal derangement with reduction in the left TMJ?
A. Limited mouth opening, no problem on closure
B. Mouth opening deviation to the right
C. Click on opening, not on closure
D. Pain on opening mouth

3. Upon examination of occlusion of a patient you discovered contacts on non-working


side that didn't cause disruption on the working side. How would you define it?
A. Working interference.
B. Working balance.
C. Non-working interference.
D. Non-working contact
E. Non-working balance

4.Registration of RCP (retruded contact position) done by?


A. Opposing teeth in contact
B. Face bow
C. Determination of condylar guidance angle on both sides
D. Maximum mouth opening
E. Minimum opening possible here without contact between the teeth

5. Posterior bite collapse?


A. Is a term that shows a lack of posterior support with mobility and
expansion of anterior guidance
B. Lack of both jaws posterior teeth
C. Tilting of third and second molars after premature loss of first molar
D. Only in situation with there is a lack of periodontal support
E. Seen only in young patients with replacing teeth

6. Patient with angle class l, the upper 16 tooth with excessive eruption due to
premature tooth 46 loss. The state may cause occlusal interference between tooth 16
and opposing when?
A. Retrusive movement
B. Working movement
C. Non-working movement
D. Intercuspal occlusion state
7. Determining the level of occlusion during the preparation of a complete denture is
done by?
A. Checking the occlusion
B. Frankfort plane
C. Campers plane
D. Until the middle of the face, the smile line

8. What is achieved from temporary denture bases with wax rims?


A. To determine the inter-arch relationship (between the 2 jaws)
B. To determine the intra-arch relationship (between teeth in the same jaw)

9. What is purpose of the indirect retainer in removable partial dentures?


A. Improve the support
B. Improve stability
C. Prevention of denture submerge into tissues
D. Direct distribution of forces

10. What is the most reliable way to pick the size of teeth for a denture?
A. Age and sex of the patient
B. Shape of the residual ridge
C. The patient should choose his own teeth
D. the technician should choose the size of teeth
E. Pre-extraction models

11. What is achieved by the border molding session for a denture?


A. More Support
B. More Retention
C. Better occlusion
D. Better phonetics

12. What could cause Angular Chelitis?


A. Loss of VD
B. Bigger VD
C. Occlusion
D. Candida
P.S. Even if the patient suffers from candida, he will not get angular chelitis if the VD is
correct. Only when the VD is lost or decreased angular chelitis can develop.

13. How do you determine the VDR (vertical dimension at rest) in a complete denture?
A. There should be a 3cm space between teeth
B. Ask the patient to open his mouth wide
C. The patient resting with the upper wax rim in his mouth
D. The anterior wax rims should be in contact but posterior there is space

14. A lower over-denture on implants cannot be supported by a bar when?


A. The implants are too small
B. The tongue is too large
C. The lip is too short
D. There is a muscle atrophy

15. Which part of a CR-Co RPD has the potential to be broken the most?
A. Occlusal rest
B. Reciprocal arm
C. Retentive arm
D. Proximal plate

16. What is the main difference between the upper major connector (in RPD) and the
lower major connector?
A. The upper major connector can increase the retention
B. The upper major connector should be thicker than the lower
C. The lower major connector does not give support like the upper
D. The lower major connector is only to help in the design

17. What is the function of Ditching?


A. To remove the excess of the impression material from the die
B. To remove the excess of gypsum from the die
C. To mark the finish line on the die
D. To mark the gingival margins on the die
18. What is the main function of the indirect retainer in RPD?
A. To increase retention
B. better seating of the RPD
C. Prevent the sinking of the denture
D. Distribution of forces

19. Indirect retainer is usually seen in?


A. All Classes of Kennedy
B. Any case with a long span
C. Class I Kennedy only
D. Class I and Class II Kennedy cases

20. What should you first check in a special tray (to do a complete denture) after
receiving it from the lab?
A. Ask if the primary impression was poured in the first 2 hours, if not it
should stayed in the fridge
B. The acryl used for the special tray is dimensionally not stable with temperature
C. The tray should be 1.5 mm short at the edges with 3 tissue-stoppers
D. The tray should fit the cast perfectly with the relief of undercuts
P.S. It does not matter if the tray is 1.5 short for border molding, with stoppers or not as
long as the primary impression with alginate was not poured immediately. If the
impression was distorted then the special tray will not fit the patient. Though C seems to
be the right answer here!

21. What are the muscles connected to the Pterygomandibular raphe?


A. Buccinator + Stylopharengeous
B. Buccinator and Superior Constrictor
3. Glosspalatinus and Tensor Veli Palati
4. Levator Veli Palati and Palatopharingeus

22. What is the main function of the lateral pterygoid?


A. Mouth opening
B. Mouth Closing
C. Balances the medial pterygoid in mouth opening
D. Does not open or close the mouth
23. A 40 year old woman comes to your clinic for a check-up. She did not visit a dentist
for the past 7 years. After examination you found that teeth 47 and 48 are missing. What
is your treatment plan to replace them?
A. 2 Implants and 2 crowns
B. 1 implant and 1 crown
C. After examination you found that there is no interference functionally. You
can leave it like this
D. You should do any type of prostheses because tooth no.17 may over erupt

24. What is NOT a function of the temporary crown?


A. To protect the prepared tooth from external stimuli
B. To keep the tooth in its place regarding inter-arch space
C. Allow the dentist to check the width of the permanent crown
D. To give a correct inter-arch relationship (bite)

25. A young patient with Angel class II, has no carries, how would you treat a missing 36
in his mouth?
A. 1 implant + 1 crown
B. 2 implants + 2 crowns
C. Bridge 35*37
D. No need to replace it

26. In which case should you choose a screw-retained implant?


A. Small inter-arch space
B. Big inter-arch space
C. The implant connector is equigingival
D. The implant connector is supragingival

In a case where the gingival level is higher6 mm the implants head, which kind of .27
?prosthesis would you choose
A. Cemented prosthesis
B. Screw-retained prostheses
C. Removable prostheses
D. Telescopic Prostheses

An implant replacing tooth no.11 with a 15 degree angulation. Which kind of .28
?prostheses would you choose for it
A. Cemented crown on an abutment
B. Screw-retained crown
C. Removable prostheses is only acceptable
D. Cannot do any prosthetic replacement

?When do use the Altered Cast technique .29


Answer: Lower Kennedy class I and class II

What is the main disadvantage of using auto-polymerizing acryl for relining a .30
?complete denture
Answer: Loss of adhesion (does not adhere to the acryl of the denture)

?What do you gain from border molding .31


A. More support
B. More retention
C. Better occlusion
D. Better Functioning dentures

?A material with “high modulus of elasticity” means .32


A. Very elastic like rubber
B. Stiff/tough like glass
C. Deformed/elongated when force is applies and can return to the normal stage
after removal of this force/stimulus
D. Deformed when the force is applies and can NOT go back to normal

?The elasticity of an impression material is defined as .33


A. Good flowability and low viscosity
B. Slow setting and provides a dynamic impression
C. Does not deform easily in response to a major force
D. Goes back to its original shape after removal of the force

2014

?Pure rotational movement (Hinge movement) can be achieved only by .1


A. Free mouth opening for 2-2.5 cm
B. All the way through maximum mouth of the patient
C. Working side movement in the working condyle
D. None of the above

2. The upper head of the lateral pterygoid is connected to?


A. Neck of condyle only
B. Neck of condyle and disk
C. Disk only
E. Lateral pterygoid plate

3. When balancing the occlusion of a complete denture you had no problem in the
centric relation but you found an interference between the buccal cusps of tooth 46 in
the working side. What should you do?
A. Remove from the lower buccal cusps
B. Remove from the upper buccal cusps
C. Remove from the upper palatal cusps
D. Remove from the lower lingual cusps
4. Denture Stomatitis mostly occurs in patient who?
A. Small VDO
B. Abraded and worn-out teeth
C. Smokers
D. Alcohol drinkers
E. Sleeps with the denture at night

5. When constructing a complete denture, which movement would you ask the patient to
perform to register the effect of the pterygomandibular raphe?
A. Lateral movements
B. Maximum mouth opening
C. Closing the mouth
D. There is no need to register the pterygomandibular raphe upon constructing a
complete denture

?Using a full-coverage major connector in the upper arch .6


A. Done specially to cases with missing bilateral molars and premolars
B. Done specially to cases with missing premolars and first molars only
C. Is the most common major connector used in upper RPD
D. Not preferable to use

?What should the dentist do if he faces a problem seating a FPD .7


A. Should consult with the technician and ask him to redo the FPD
B. Consult with the technician or a colleague and act accordingly (fix it on your own)
C. Send the patient to the technician and he will fix the problem
D. Ask the technician to come to the clinic and fix the FPD under my supervision

?What is the first thing you do after taking an impression for a FPD in the lower arch .8
A. Take an impression of the upper jaw
B. Remove the excess of the impression material from between the teeth
C. Cement the crown

:Posselt’s envelope, encludes all EXCEPT .9


Answer: Lateral movements from IC/RC

?What is the most closing state between the jaws .10


A. Intercuspal position
B. Rest position
C. Edge to edge position
D. Postural position

?How do you treat the distal saddles when constructing an RPD .11
Answer: exactly like treating a complete denture case

?What is the line connecting the ALA NASI (of the nose) to TRAGUS (of the ear) .12
Answer: Campers’ plane
2009

1. What is the advantage of sand blasting?


A. Increase surface area
B. Reduce surface energy
C. Increase retention
D. Increase wetting angle

3. In articulator there is interference on the non-working side, in the patient mouth there
is not?
A. Problem on IC registration
B. Problem on CR registration
C. Condylar guidance angle is shallow in relation to mouth (shallow condylar
angle) - It means that the condylar guidance angle in the patients mouth is steep and in
the articulator is less steep or shallow
D. Condylar inclination steep in relation to patient mouth (steep condylar angle)

4. Which is not parallel to the plane of the upper ridge?


A. Frankfort plane
B. Camper line, ala-tragus line.
C. The line between pupils
D. The line between corners of the mouth

5. Overbite is small, overjet is big, what will cause interference in movement?


A. Deep curve of Spee
B. Increased Bennett angle in the frontal plane
C. Over eruption of upper 6 due to extraction of extraction of lower 6
D. Steep condylar guidance angel
E. B+C+D

7. To which structure does the lateral pterygoid attach?


A. Genial Tubercle
B. Angular process
C. Coronoid process
D. Condyle
E. Mylohiod line

8. What is the treatment of choice for Angular Chelitis?


A. Local electro-surgery
B. Antibiotic topical crème/ointment
C. Chlorhexidine mouth wash
D. Antibiotic and steroid containing crème
E. Anti-viral crème/ointment

9. Which muscle is not supplied by the fifth nerve?


A. Massater
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Buccinator

10. What is the function of the temporomandibular ligament?


A. Prevents excessive retrusive movements
B. Prevents excessive lateral movements
C. Prevents excessive mesial movements (of condyle)
D. Prevents excessive rotational movements
E. A+C+D are correct

11. Which of these occlusal factors is/are NOT stable?


A. Bennett angel
B. Freeway space
C. Rest position
D. Centric relation
E. B+C are correct

12. A canine guidance in an Angel Class I relationship should be between?


A. Cusp Ridge of lower canine with the cingulum of upper canine
B. Mesial fossa of lower canine with cingulum of upper canine
C. Distal fossa of lower canine with mesial inner incline of upper canine
D. tip of cusp of lower canine with the lingual ridge of upper canine

13. The soldering in Post soldering is characterized?


A. Melting temperature higher than that required for the Opaque
B. Melting temperature higher than that required for the alloy
C. Melting temperature lower than all the components of the bridge
D. The bridge cannot be soldered after it is ready

14. While examining a study model you found a wear facet on the mesio-lingual cusp of
tooth no. 36. What could be the reason?
A. Retrusive movement
B. Movement between the retruded contact position to intercuspal position
C. Working side movement
D. Latero-protrusive movements
E. A+C are correct

15. The goal from doing REMOUNT in complete denture is to solve which problems?
A. Pressure on residual ridges
B. Over extension of the denture
C. Occlusal interferences
D. Faulty esthetics
E. Faulty setting of teeth

16. The impression material used for a final impression for a lower mobile residual ridge
should be?
A. Low viscosity + high flowability
B. High viscosity + low flowability
C. Hydrophilic
D. Hydrophobic
E. There is no importance regarding the viscosity and flowability

17. The main factor for the retention of the lower complete denture is?
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Peripheral Seal
D. Surface tension
E. Muscular control

18. An upper complete denture broke in half to 2 pieces. What is the least thing you
could do?
A. Send the denture to the technician
B. Send the patient with the denture to the technician
C. Send the technician to the patient
D. Take an impression with the denture inside the mouth and send it to the technician
E. Renew the denture

19. The choice for the size of denture teeth is best done by?
A. Face shape, age and sex of the patient
B. Shape of the residual ridge
C. The shape of teeth available on a study model before extracting them
D. A+B are correct
20. Which phenomenon is not related to “Combination Syndrome”?
A. Papillary hyperplasia
B. A resorbed pre-maxilla
C. Non balanced occlusion
D. Flaring of upper anterior teeth
E. Resorption of lower posterior two saddles

21. The use of alginate impression with a custom made tray for RPD fabrication is
allowed in which situation?
A. Kennedy class I with all the molars missing
B. Kennedy class I with one modification
C. Kennedy class III with missing bilateral premolars and one molar
D. Kennedy class IV
E. All of the answers are correct

22. The term retention in FPD is defined as the resistance to which direction?
A. Long axis of the tooth
B. Path of insertion
C. Finish line preparation
D. A+B are correct

23. The reduction of 0.5 mm of a tooth for a PFM crown would cause?
A. Thin metal and thin porcelain
B. Over-contoured crown
C. Good color matching
D. A+C are correct
E. A+B are correct

24. The edges of the crown are apical to the post and core because:
A. Increases the chance of tooth survival
B. Decreases the chance of marginal leakage to core/tooth interface
C. Decreases the chance of secondary carries
D. Decreases the chance of tooth cracks
E. All of the above are correct

25. The function of the tooth TRANSFER is/are?


A. Bite registration
B. Transfers the gingival status
C. Verifies the accuracy of the impression
D. A+C are correct
E. A+B are correct

26. The importance of having a VENT in a custom made post?


A. Allows the excess of the cement to go out
B. Prevents the hydrostatic back pressure
C. Allows complete seating of the post and core
D. Prevents root splitting
E. All of the above are correct

27. What is true about choosing the color of the porcelain in a PFM crown?
A. High VALUE is more suitable for old patients
B. the HUE can be changed with external stains
C. Adding translucent porcelain would increase the VALUE
D. None of the above is correct

28. The SILANES are components that are used to create a bond:
A. Between filler particles and the composite matrix
B. Between amalgam and composite
C. Between porcelain and composite
D. Between 4-META and composite
E. A+C are correct

Random

In Try-In phase of porcelain (BISQUE), the crown should be seated in its place passively.
If the crown doesnt sit completely till the finish line, what is the most common cause?
A. Positive bubbles on the inner surface of the casting
B. Inadequate impression.
C. Late pouting of the impression.
D. Over-contoured proximal surfaces

P.S. BISQUE is a term that refers to the porcelain crowns before the glazing. You can try
it in the patients mouth to check the occlusion and fit and then send it to glazing.

What is the disadvantage of built metal in denture?


A. Low thermal conductivity.
B. TISSUE TOLERANCE low.
C. Heavy weight of the prosthesis.
D. Disturbance in speech because of the large volume

What diffuses from porcelain to zirconium in a porcelain fused to zircon crown?


A. Oxygen
B. Aluminum
C. Silica
D. Yttrium

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