ENGLISH ~ HINDI ——" | 13-15 | Code Roll No. [a[ris]) l#lolele | ba SCOR J Booklet Number fiver der wa war SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST * (For Students of Class X) Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 100 1 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet. 1. Answers are to be give on a separate answer sheet, 2, There are 100 questions in this test, All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 40 belong to Sciences, 41 to 60 pertain to Mathematics and 61 10 100 are on Social Science subjects 3. Please follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for marking the answers. 4. Write your eight-digit Roll Number as allotted to you in the admission card very clearly on the test-booklet and darken the appropriate circles on the answer sheet as per instructions given. 3. Write down and darken Booklet Number in the appropriate circles on the answer sheet as per instructions given. 6. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited and all questions carry equal marks, you should make the best use of it by not spending to ‘mach time on any one question. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet bbut not on the answer sheeU/loose paper 8. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 9. THERE WILL BE A DEDUCTION OF 1/3 MARKS FOR EVERY WRONG ANSWER AND NO MARKS WILL BE DEDUCTED FOR UNATTEMPTED QUESTIONS. 10, Please return only the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test. 11. English, version of the question paper will be considered as final in case of any dispute arising out of variation in translation Please turn over the page and start answering immediately after you are asked to do so. 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Involuntary and multinucleated 2,, Unbranched and uninucleated “3% Cylindrical and uninucleated 4. Unbranched and involuntary 3, From the given figure identify the part of human brain controlling most of the involuntary actions: Lava wi & a8 gy oe ore at oer oH ae ats ers F carn oy viet fea Water 8 grat freran gfe thi? 1 2, 3, fareatien + aigdiarea 4, wafen #7 1 2. 3. Sere wa UR 4 fru my faa Yona aie ose am at Tear Wt ation feast st fife a zi » 1. A&B x BEC 3. C&D 4. D&A 1. A&B 2. B&C 3. C&D 4. D&A4. An animal kept in a jar has the following features. I. Itis bilaterally symmetrical. I. Ithas coelomic cavity. IIL. The body is segmented. IV. It has jointed appendages. To which phylum does the animal belong to? he Arthropoda @ Annelida 3. Platyhelminthes 4. Mollusca 5, Read the following statements and select the correet option. STATEMENT I: Nostoc and Bacteria are prokaryotes. STATEMENT i: Spirogyra are fungi Penicillium and J Only Statement is true. 2 Statement If is true GO Both Statements | and Il are true. 4. Both Statements I and Il are false. 6. You find a herbaceous flowering plant 2 in your school garden having r vith parallel venation. Choose the correct additional features the given plant would be possessing, 1. ithas no secondary vascular tissues. Il. Its flower possesses three sepals. IIL. It possesses tap rootsp IV. Its embryo has 2 cotyledons ~~ WV Land I 2. Land Tl? $. Uand IV 4um ae A Ta ig & fra ae B: 1 eat waite feared @1 IL, gaat 3g am aiets 21 Ii, saan wi seas 21 IV.3a4 ofa sain ag aq fra ween A anat 2? 1, sraister 2. wiiferet 3. weitere 4, alereaT 5. fra wet at vist sit ofa feared a wr Fifa) wm i: dete stay (axifer) weft ti Bee Lh: Seafeeren we eager aH tH trast He Lae él ae Sars th marl eri ae FI wearer sre Bi aye 1 eam goa a ae areca BH 1. gaat Ben ae eH 1V.ee% yr 2 cise er 1 3. WIV 4,7. Vatieties of vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli and caulliflower have been produced from a wild cabbage species. Such process of producing new varieties of living organisms is called 1, Natural selection X% Artificial selection 3, Speciation 4, Genetic drift 8, Which of the following are pairs of analogous organs? m L., Forelimbs of horse — Wings of bat ( Wings of bat ~ Wings of butterfly IL. Forelimbs of horse - Wings of butterfly 1 GV. Wings of bird — Wings of bat 1, Vand It Z Hand iV 3. Mand 1V 4, Wand Itt 0) 9. Which of the following organisms is used tr as a biopest 1. Azolla a 2. Anabaena 3._ Rhizobium (WS Trichoderma 10. A tall plant (I'T) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt). All Fi plants showed tall phenotype. Which of the following correctly defines ‘atest cross? 1, TT@) xT) Te (Fi) x TP) 3 Ww) Tr) 4. THE) nP) 7. tert et ge feet sa cari, avi TSR wei we sire ht at fee S Tar Uti a an fret sa rt i viva si aa wet F? 1 2. 3. ala sere 4, 8. fs a ata are sie aI gy 2? 1 we & ame - weg & va Il, wes & va - facet & va IL we & sare - fret & va IV.vet & va - qaIeg & va 1 in 2. av 3. Iw IV 4. Ia TIL 9. Fe A era sta Seieaaet st we . TT) * Te) Te(F) Te) . th) * TEP) Te (Ry) = (P) Sone11 Which one of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct? L. Leishmania — Sleeping sickness? Il. Nematode — Elephantiasis IIL. Trypanosoma ~ Kala azar ® IV. Staphylococcus ~ Acne 118 2,0 & I IM&IV 4. HT &1V 12 Pancreatic juice contains more than one enzyme. Which among the following combination is comect? 1. pepsin and lipase. 2. amylase and pepsin. 3. pepsin and trypsin. <4 trypsin and lipase. 13. You discover 2 new species of a plant. You also discover that it produces motile sperms and dominant generation has diploid cells. it belongs to 1, Bryophyte & Angiosperm 3. Gymnosperm 4. Pleridophyte 14, At every 20 minutes, one bacterium divides into two. How many bacteria will be produced after two hours, if one starts with 10 bacteria? 1. 2x10. 2,25 * 10° TF 26 10 4. 2x 10° 1 fa a ae a rene Gi oat oe a stam FH 2? 1. Gemntren - Fara mate UL Saas - wets I. feetaha - Fre ST IV. Sarciaies - Here (TR) L1&ll 2.1& I 3.18 1V 4.1 & IV 1. arnt wa Fae at ae Gees FT A a stam waters #2 13, sm ww AS Ge te aT aie a 14, stam wees 20 frei a oa fasten cam $1 am va 10 warms & ye et a wat yeaa Prat stay ses Br? 2x 10_ 2% x 10° 2x10 28 x 10°“ais a aa a 15, The metal (M) forms an oxide, M,0, ‘The formula of its nitride will be 1. M,N, a MN 3. M,N 4. MN, 16. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following is a solution? 1. Milk 2. Smoke 30 Brass ‘4. Face Cream 17. 1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen atoms in the solution is 12.405%10° 4 1240510 6.02210" 4. 6.022%107 18. C1 and *7Cl are the two isotopes of chlorine, in the ratio 3:1 respectively. If the isotope ratio is reversed, the average atomic mass of chlorine will be ~ 1, 35.00 Zo 35.5u 3. 36.0u 4, 36.5u 15, ] NAM) wT siaaRs, M,0, Frat 8 ee REE Hl BA A EPI? MLN, MN M,N peNe 16.3 7 we ae vee aT seit fram ete mM at aT 17. && tet F 1.80 g TART Ft 36.00 ¢ Fa H aera far A sake station wast A ga sen Pert @? 1. 12.405x10% 12.405x10 3. 6.022102 4. 6.02210 18, °Cl war “Cl aati ost areas %, oT wera: 3:1 aga Ft aie aaeaiiai a1 aaa vee fear ome at ae a itera xeaars em 1, 35.0u 2. 35.Su 3. 36.0u 4, 36.50solution will pun red by an f moderate reactivity is X’. Gn heating in into its oxide *Y" and a ing ‘Y’ and *X’ M? is produced. *X’ ly are- prous sulphi uulphide, *Y’= cupric phide, “Y” = sodium *y’ = calcium hite and diamond are different 19, frafafad 8 8 fred veta fread om tet faeraa ore TEM? 1. Sefer tftee 2 wee 3, Fifsan webs 4, tite aces Um aoe XS aera attra are ] wg Miter # “x at ag at saftett Fm wa Tae aise ‘YF viata a om @ sit um te freed t1 ‘Y ait «xX! st we Ba TH eGR SM? sq wes thet 81x? ai YE: B 1, SX) = age Bers, ‘Y= age aieas ‘x! = aqufen wens, “Y= aah 2 ares XC = difeas seas, Y= oie TES Xx! = fears wens, Y= Sire aires ai tit & vers F a-a Far PeaEA Sten Be BI oar a gas tat th 4. tome & sifee otk tarhe 7 a far ta Fi22. The functional groups present in the 22. 4h faq ay aiff 9 aaa @ ware following compound are — aye saftert #7 oO C—on o-—-C—En lI ° 1, alcohol, ketone and ester 1, Genter, wet WS TR 2 ester and carboxylic acid 2. WR aria ar 3. carboxylic acid and ketone 3. mrifrafes ora wa aie 4, ester and alcohol 4. WL teeter 23. A part of the modem periodic table is 23. Yfre arad are a1 ee um ae fear presented below in which the alphabets wa @ feed aet & wie aie & cent represent the symbols of elements. Err yefefa fare ae #1 oad rot a sriad Table am a Sean Het EC aa Ft fe Prafefar Group] 1] 2] 14] 15] 6] 17 42 gedaton shite stam 22 | ie Group | 1] 2] 14 Jas] is] 17 Periods | Nii |; a Periody > | 2 MQ Period \| le as ala R M[Q La_fel fi ts a) fala & |e G x 4 e| [2] T 3 G L x Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict which of the following is a covalent compound ~ ud ROE 0 1. RQ. 2. ATP F 4, 2. AT 3 39 na 3 19 IX, 4. IX,24. A compound *X” reacts with a compound *Y°, to produce a colourless and odourless gas. The gas tums lime water milky When *X° reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated HSOs, a sweet smelling substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound ie 1. CHO 2 CoH,02 3. CHO 4, CoHeO2 25. The schematic diagram is given below. Heat AQ eee (solid) Coo (vapour) (vapour) Hieat | NaOH (aa) HCL Ho Etaa) c—— p —— aide (Gas) ‘Shake well solution) Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 1. Aand E are chemically same. 2. Aand D are chemically same. <2 D and E are chemically same 4. Cand E are chemically same. 26. Which of the following is a feasible reaction? 1, Ba(s) +K2SOx (aq) > BaSOs(aq) + 2K(s) <2 Zn(s) + 2AgNOs (aq) > Zn(NOs)(09) +2Ag(s) > 3. Mg (s) + NazSOx(aq) > MgSO, (aq) +2Na(s) 4. Cu(s) + MgSOs(aq) > C 8) 10, (aq) 24 ier OC aie arr “y? et afi oT we ten at ted fe wd 81 ae te Sat a go wt Ah ti va Xk ae meas at ¥ shat a Ate a wa afafern wen @ at we Be aren weed saat i ats “x? a ay BA 1. CH, 2. CoHsO2 3. CoH BaSO, (aq) + 2K (s) 2. Zn(s) + 2AGNOs(aq) > Zn(NOs)> (aq) +2Ag(s) 3. Mg (s) + Na2SOu (ag) > MgSO« (aq) + + MgSOa(aq) —> CuSO, (aq) +aqagaaa 1 +2K (aa) at )+ 27, Some ice pieces kept at a temperature -5°C are heated gradually to 100°C in a beaker. The temperatures of the contents are plotted against time. The correct plot ise CaM W dat 4 we ae H Ge are at eR 100°C ara aa ne fart ara amit & ama Ao ang & ara vfad a are A faq #1 ere a at ae a-aT @? 1. 4 1 g 100°C + 100° £ g ; i 5 aoc -44°e é 3 sfore = 5°C -$°C a fl Ey gt 100°C ay 7 100°C £ g E 5% ZX 4 3 S a= 4100 °¢ +t 100 2¢ Tim = ee 4 4 4 S tlie ’ -{1002¢ i : 3s - °c £ $C $C § Time—> as28. The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown below: f t Velocity | q 1 pee Time—> Which one of the following graphs represents the acceleration (a) - time (0) graph for the above motion? “ot t a aa st 3 a — 29. To read a poster on a wall, person with defective vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4 m from the poster. A person with normal vision can read the poster from a distance of 2.0 m. Which one of the following lens may be used to correct the defective vision? 1. A concave lens of 0.5 D 2. A concave lens of 1.0 D 3° A concave lens of 2.0 D 4. A-convex lens of 2.0 D 28, feet we ter ata ata feat five wr ange ore at eater a @: ara > frafefias arei 4 a aaa we ya aft a FAO (a) - THA(s) aH aI Prefea sea 2? 0 aa tee oe re Se tein aie he wt avis ax eat 2? 1. 0S Dam saa ae30, A ball released from rest at time = 0 bits the ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity 5 m s” and reaches the top at 1= 1.5 s, What is the net displacement of the ball from its initial position after 1558? (g=10 ms*) A 125m 2. 3.75m 3. 5.00 m 4, 625m 31. A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed of water from the jet is *v the diameter of the jet is ‘d? and the density of water is * p then the force exerted on the wall by the jet of water is 1 i d'po & a re : Avi Qe 2 ap ee 4 eaten 3. =& sos 4. 2a pv 30. 31. wa = 0% for 4 op ae ie at a caudt #1 ag ses ego amar Sms! & an a edt t ait p-issaatt a wget @115 sf wa ae wm aT amnfisen feafa a 42 faearaa aa 2? (g=10 ms”) ve Fi fret Sf ora ei steita vias owe fet abe can a cre a cafe sa st ae st ae Sp’, er a Te 7%, a aa a om 1. 3d’pv iE 2. Za pvt 47 Z poy 3. +d’ pu’ qiP32, Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and, 32. eh A SB fare FOI WAU: 8 kg AK 2 kg respectively, lie on a horizontal 2 kg @, ate 4 wi agen feat aa | frictionless surface as shown in the sia ys wa tl re feet Aiea: figure. They are pushed by a horizontally ayy 15 Naa 8 weet TH a sB . applied force of 15 N. The force exerted Be SAH ots we Fat ET? | by Bon Ais | 15N : y 8ke ig 2k PIVIATTIT? 1, 15N s 1, 15N LX 3.0N eb 2. 3.0N 3. 4.5N 3. 45N 4. 6.0N 4. 60N 33. A beaker half-filled with water is putona 33, 3&1 @ amt wt feet stare wi feet ier platform balance which is then set to Wawa a ee az frm zero. A 800 g mass is immersed partially am #1 faa 4 zaig san fret 8002 * in water using a spring balance as shown fee a wari ga Ht we a aa A in the figure. If the spring balance reads ifr 6a 2 Sato rH 1 ae aa FARE 300 g, what will be the reading on the aM FI TaTF 3002 2, a dee ge platform balance? aaate =r On? F34, An object falls a distance H in 50s when 34, 28 ait dropped on the surface of the earth. How AH sd fem @ gt fis at awh a aa Hes aq : long would it take for the same object to ys & fra 4 fern wa ee fall through the same distance on the iin fame er ait fem yea st ger surface of a planet whose mass and radius Haat ti are twice that of the earth? (Neglect air resistance.) A 35.48 1. 35.48 2. 50.08 2. 500s 3. 10.78 3. 70.78 4, 100.05 4. 100.0s | 35. A source produces sound waves under 35, FE Wit Fa & Hiew ah ae I wT tH | water, Waves travel through water and ae mt aa Aor ak og A wae act then into air. Which of the following teams wmamamanusa statements about the frequency (f ) and we at ) ate mente (A) & fare a | the wavelength (A) is correct as sound want zat passes from water to air? ued GH, Fremains unchanged but 2 decreases/ 1. f ofan wil t wey A wet . ‘@ fremains unchanged but 2 increases. 2. f waftafia cet t wey A aad & ee 3. Aremains unchgitged but f decreases. 3. 4 areftatiia teat & weg f meat t am 4. remains unghanked but 4, A arefeatia wet 8 wy f watt increases. 36, The diameter of a wire is reduced to 36, FRAT aN H Sra Hl law Herm sa AT one-fifth of its original value by am an 1/5 Ta aR fear win #1 afk aK aT stretching it. If its initial resistance is R, antes vite R @, a ame at wei ah what would be its resistance after eam waar vinde fear eh? reduction of the diameter?, % he i ae = mh ary 1 yh et 625 Os | 625 ya oe R why 8 25 5 + 3. 25R 3. 25R 625R 4. 625R37. An object of mass ‘m’ moving along a straight line with a velocity ‘w’ collides with a heavier mass ‘M’ and gets embedded into it. If the compound system of mass (m + M) keeps moving in the same direction then which of the given options is true? 1, The kinetic energies before and after collision are same. ? 2. The kinetic energy after collision is F(veme. 3. There will be a loss of kinetic energy iP equal i te 2 (+m) (There will bea loss of kinetic eneray 1_Mm_, equal to = ————— 2(M+m) 5, 38, A vessel is filled with oil as shown in the diagram. A ray of light from point O at the bottom of vessel is incident on the oil - ait interface at point P and grazes the surface along PQ. The refractive index of the oil is close to — Tem = L141 A 2.1.50 WW 1.63 4.1.73 37. feat we ter & aaa aw a TRA eras wr aie five “Me soma & fet snide ow 3 ae | rat G1 ae (m + M) FR SI ae ea | prom set fem Y nfa ae wate, tT feat wat ar aT Paaed wet 8? 1. weg 8 a oe Wear ofis sat FAR wet @ em Lal 1.50 1.63 173 aver isaqdad4 a aia 4 ate 39. A charged rticle placed in an electri ‘ field falls from rest through a distance d j in time 1. If the charge on the particle is | doubled, the time of fall through the same j distance will be 1 2 aT aid 40. AB is a long wire carrying a current /;, and PQRS is a rectangular loop carrying current J; (as shown in the figure). Which among the following statements are correct? @ Am PQ will get attracted to wire AB and the atm RS will get repelled from wire AB. (b) Arm PQ will get repelled from wire AB and arm RS attracted to wire AB. (©) Forees on the arms PQ and RS will be ‘unequal and opposite. (@) Forces on the arms QR znd SP will be zer0, 1. only (a) 2. (b) and (c) (a) and (c) (b) and (@) SMONERI7—SAT—( 39, frei faga da Hen ete fae ondine em faunen 8 ara 6 Hoare att d aa ae Zé) af an atte st Sap at fer a, at Fa an gt oa ae A fee are a — 2 te 4 q 40. faa H ewig sqaR- AB #e cen oF. Fama wig ure J, wanted at wtf, ae PORS we staan wer @ fred ate ar ama J; verted et wet #1 ® “| | | wa ote fee 1 Herd a wha Set (@) 7 AB ym PO wi vires Sei (b) 7 AB YST RS a arafia zen qT PQ wi viata att (c) Fast QR att SPW et ae aaa (a) FISH QR SH SPH wh wa EP Ta TAT RS 1. FFA (@) (b) aie (o) (©)41, The sum of all the possible remainders, which can be obtained when the cube of a natural number is divided by 9, is wean 1 2. 3, x eye a polynomial p(x) is divided by the remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by x — 3, the remainder is 5. If 1(x) is the remainder when p(x) is divided by (c-1) (x3), then the value of r (-2) is 2 -1 0 4 pee 43. For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations in two variables will have infinitely many solutions? pxt3y-(p-3)=0 12x +py—p=0 ae 6 e_2- 2. -6 i Y 3.0 2 4.2 = 44. Two quadratic equations x7 -bx+6=0 and x*-6x+c=0 have a common root. If the remaining roots of the first and second equations are positive integers and are in the ratio 3:4 respectively, then the ‘common root is w ae 41. feet wep de FO AAT wa a wai at set aya vow ar ar * wipe waa 42, 3A TH AER pla) FH 1S TT fee aT, wa wea 3 tf mp) x33 oer fear sr &, aa daw 5 i ale p(x) I pe) Cee dived r(x), tr (2) aI at - 1, 2 2, -1 a 4. Bol 43. p% fea an & fee fa te art few arena a ora Ba a ore Te wT? px+3y-(p-3)=0 12x+py-p=0 44.2 fear atte} x? -bx + 6=0 at Vabxee=0 HI UH ye sHaiS ti ae vest att gat wate a wa ae TTT qpis @ sik aH: 34% am az, a suas ye - 1 2. 4 16 ‘SIOSNERI7—SAT—(Hindi)—28 Rarer eee eR' ; \ m 45. First term of an arithmetic progression 45. am is 2. If the sum of its first five terms is equal to one-fourth of the sum of the next five terms, then the sum of its first 30 terms is, s 4a. 1. 2670 (wa td) 2p Gear ) 27 2610 1 i 3. -2520 yA = (42d 4, -2550 ay as nz, 44 af | & A circle C is drawn inside a square S so 46. aa that the four sides of § are tangents to C. An equilateral triangle T is drawn i C with its vertices on C. If the s times the area of T, then the value of k 4g C44 Ba x (32) ow (48) -8 hs, Gh, WE ee 47, Let AP be a diameter of a circle of radius rand PT be the tangent to the circle at the point P such that the line AT intersects ait thecircle at B. If PT = 8 units and BT = 4 fy am tls, then ris equal to = 4B units /o— ita 2. 4 units / < t : re BY 4. Sunits 1 fingi}—28 47, fat ani dt a1 ven 9% 2 #1 ae cae wor via yet ar ain gach amt wa wd & ah a cached 8, at rae wer 30 vet wr ame - 2670 2610 520 2550 fart +i So sit ue aa C FH yan Gt val @ fe S at ant gard C at ent tent #1 C # ait wm aray frye T re yen wim wa @ fe sae vit CH fem @) a SH aapa T & daya ak qn @, atk at i Pw PT tal AT ga at 8 eae ait48. If the quadratic equation x’ +6x+72=0 hhas two distinct integer roots, then the number of all possible values for b is 1. 12 D> CE? 2.9 - 3. 15 b- 2g >0 4. 18 vope 49. If the area of a square inscribed in a semicircle is 2em?, then the area of the square inscribed in a full circle of the same radius is 1. Som? 2. 100m? 3. 5¥2 om? 4, 25cm? 50 If the discriminants of two quadratic equations are equal and the equations have a common root 1, then the other roots 1. are either equal or their sum is 2. hhave to be always equal. are either equal or their sum is 1 . have their sum equal to | 51. Three circular wires are attached in series such that, if one wire is rotated, other two also get rotated, If the diameter of a wire is YG times that of immediate left wire and the left most wire rotates at the speed of 32 revolutions per minute, then the number of revolutions made by right most wire per minute will be 1, 40 2. 49 3. 50 4. 60 18 48. fe fear TH x +x 472-08 Ft ype yet. ao Bet ae pt Br eee 50 2% 2 feat wate a fafa seat t aa & wie Soe sears yr 1 8a at RT . 1, at awax @ a Sra a 2 zt 2. wa aur tA afc 3. Wat wae & a seer aT 1 FI 4. ara 1 aT a 51.07 FaaR oh UH geen Fw eR a 7 ¢ fe ak ww wy aM td ofan we ti aie GH OR aT OTE aes, fram ag oi aw fot : wae ag ait aren ok 32 ahora aaa @ ya @, tae a ska wa wa fare fam my afta 1 we eh 2 40 49 50 60 aepeyf} 52. ae itd, . Positive integers from 1 Let ABC be an equilateral t the co-ordinates of A are (1,2) co-ordinates of B are (2,-1), then 1, C cannot lie in the first quadrant, .2/C cannot lie in the second quadrant. 3. Cisthe origin 4. Ccannot li the third quadrant. . Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape structure from 400 wooden cubes of unit volume cach. If the sides of the solid brick have the ratio 1:2:3, then the maximum number of cubes, which ean be used, will be 400 288 300 384 to 21 are arranged in 3 groups of 7 integers each, in some particular order. Then the highest possible mean of the medians of these 3 groups is 1. 16 12.5 u 14 On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit number N, we get th remainder in each case. digits of Nis 10 u 12 B same The sum of the 52. 55. 1 9 21 ae & ome ist at art viiay fa ABC we TAA faqs 21 af A & free (1, 2) t ar Be freee (2, i) ta C yas agete A fers set ei aaa . Cita agate 4 fee vet at wean CApRig 81 Crim again 4 fea aa at war Fae wae saree art 400 THSt a a we da f & aren #1 Ae ST ale ) of ga ata fat yore a aqTa 123 2, & win fer a aed at wt a at Fe Crt — 400 288 300 384 Pune a4 aH ist 3 wept Fou faa wat wafer fea vit ti a att eagt eral a afeaas dag apa @ — Ey 1. 16 % jin 3 4. 14 feat 3-sistg N Sem gro 2272 ae 875 FT sm 33% of yele een a ga Wea WT tit GN & set ar ar - 10 u 12 1356. 57. A line J passing through the origin makes an angle @ with positive direction of axis such that sin =2 The co-ordinates of the point, which lies in the fourth quadrant at a unit distance from the origin and on perpendicular to f, are G4) 2 (5-4) 3. (3,-4) 4. (4,3) The value(s) of =k for which x? 45kxe+k? +5. is exactly divisible by x+2_ but not by x+3 is (are) ae % 3 8) 49 4.9 . If cos* 0+sin? @ = mn, then 1, lsms<2 2. dsms1 56. Ferd @ sat aM ae TH TH I, 1-H ai ware fee a sit O ee va sat & fe sin 0=2 ti 3a fig % Pee, ot aqui 4 qefag a va ate eo aia 1a dia tear & fer @, fr - sik a (&) an, faa (fk) fee SaSketk 45 seaste fas @ x42 A ued x43 8 fanma aet ft, fre & (H) - a Sn 1 2 a 58, af% cos‘ @+sin’ O=m @, Tt 1 in g A S — 82. Which one of the following island is closest to the equator? 1. Minicoy 2. Car Nicobar }, Little Nicobar Y Great Nicobar 83. Which of the following characteristics are true about plantation agriculture? 1. Generally plantation agriculture is considered as an example of subsistence farming Il, Generally single crop is grown on Jarge area in plantation agriculture, IIL It has an interface of agriculture and industry. IV. It uses capital intensive inputs. 1. Land IV 2, Mand IV % |, Mand Ut Gf Il, and IV 83. tm gfe 8 wate frefofer Far 7 fasiward Het @? L aaa: dom pie at sifaetasia gl UH STE AAT STAT Bl IL. aaa: am aia Aue wae a fay! aaa orn oe tt Ti, ae sie wa setT a ats ar BET 2 IV. gaa meat pt freer ar saan ten 8 airy msikiv 1, 1 aii 11 1 iI Bee $4, Match List-l (Vegetation zones) with 84, aferet 1 (arerfa ata) sel aiferar Il (aitac List-Il (Mean Annual Temperature afte ama sen) a are faenet ae fet Range) and select the correct answer wa Se ar ya aed BU ae SK aT aA using the code given below. afer pee List It attetat 1 Careata Witeret (ater (Vegetation Zones) | _ (Mean Annual + ee orate) ‘Temperature Range) | aH Ste A [Alpine JI. _| Above 24°C Lees ate a B. | Temperate T. | ircw2ec Wir Sievig ieee C. | Tropical Til. | Below 7C [o] sar wrote [ME [roe ae D. | Sub-tropical | IV. | PCwWITC : We. [rewire 1. Ad, Bl, CI, DAV 1 Ad I, D-IV 2, Adil, B-l, C-1V, D-Il 2. V. D-Il J AAI, BAY, C-, D-IL 3 D-ll 4. Ad, Bell, C-Ill, D-IV 4. Ad, Bll, C-Ill, D+ 2985, ‘In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme.’ Which of the following statement concerning democracy in India best reflects this? 1. The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the political party possessing a majority in the Lok Sabha. “4. An assembly of elected representatives exercises political authority on behalf of the people. 3. In case of a difference between the two Houses of Parliament, the final decision is taken in a joint session of the two Houses. 4. The permanent executive has more powers than the political executive, 86. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj Institutions after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992 are false? 1. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in the elected bodies of the Panchayati Raj Institutions, Il. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are supervised by the Election Commission of India. UL. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are held regularly after every five years IV. Half of the seats in ail the States are reserved for women. 1. Cand HIT 2. Land It 3. IM and IV. W Ihand IV 30 85, 86, — aia 4 area BT seat Taighe | Wt one cone one 4, ra fe ag frees Fa Shar fray Wa Fe Bi fas aaa 8? 1. & a ces, weet a free ao di sere sa wstfee | aegataenterr wet | 1, | eigen or Parliamentary ‘of America deta Republic Vin France [ aE 1, AV, B+, C-Il, D-V XZ AAV, B-l, C-Il, D-III 3. A-V, BV, C-Il, D-II 4. A-V, BAL, C-lll, D-IV 88. Which of the following statements about the federal system in India are true? 1. The Constitution of India provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the State Governments, “ Il. Both the Union and Governments can residuary subjects. Ill. The Parliament cannot on its own change the power-sharing arrangement between the Union and the State Governments./ IV. The High Courts have no role in resolving disputes about the division of powers between the Union and the State Governments. the State legislate on 1, Land It 2, 1, ULand IV &% 1, land IV 4, I,Iand IV ‘SIOSNERI7—SAT—{Hindi)—3 ALIV, B-l, C-II, D-V AV, B-I, C-Il, D-II ALY, B-IV, C-II, D-IT A-V, B-ll, C-Ill, D-IV eyepe 88. Ra at ata cae & yan 4a fieifefad 4a aha a wan we 2? 1 ara & afaae a sar ed ah arta wat wy aeeni & ata See ora a dears frat 2 0, ata gen wear want dei ft ‘safe’ fara (ta fara sh oe cor wa aT a fret at ast a ae ®) % fem aT wad FI Les a wa wed & ae a Wafer eaara a ARC HT SE serch ae i ae emt Na a wa want & aa afar Soya 9 seq dA ae fart a Wer 8 see are at Fe afar wet eth Lait 11, 10 IV Luaiiv LITsity bene89. Which of the following group of States / Union Territories have only one Lok Sabha constituency? 1. Arunachal Lakshadweep 2. Goa, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry Pradesh, Sikkim, | 3. a 90. Which of the following statements best reflects the ‘socialist’ feature of the Preamble to the Constitution of India? 1. There are no unreasonable restrictions con how the citizens express their thoughts. W The traditional social inequalities have to be abolished. 3. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities. |. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.- 91, Which of the following statements about the Indian judiciary is true? 1. India has an integrated judiciary. ‘The Judiciary in India is subordinate to the Executive.P X The Supreme Court is more powerful than Parliament. 4. The Chief Justice of India appointed by the Prime MinistersP 99. Frafefad Fa a a wel) aero wi & we F aa we daa Frater-aia 2? 1, sreoreer weer, Farrar, ere 2. ta, Ferra, aisar wen Frater an-ayE 3. audine, fata, frais 4, afin, cM ua TR Bact, FEAT 90, sea & aaa a seca fare ag STATE’ we @ frets Hoa shea a wfafafaa area &? 1, anet at aaite afaeas we afer ‘ain at org at 2. wes anne ferrell em 3, arnfa-antties favamai a ae act a fre rere ae, far fe eM sell eafiea aa Frafad Fe 4, fret anes wt ora amie & ara ht waaeR Fe ET Ae @ fren 1. sata ares & fara A frefefat wat 3-8 am we a a? 1. ara #1 aeraferen wats BI 2. era A arate, ariatee & sri ce Si09NER/17—SAT—(Hindi) 38EE Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the Right to Education? u Right to Equality 30% Right to Freedom @f Cultural and Educational Rights ‘4. Right to Constitutional Remedies 92. 93. Which of the following is NOT an | indicator of economic development? 1. Increased per capita income 2. Decreased infant mortality 3. Increased life expectancy at birth \aH Decreased women participation in job market. az 4 a 94, The poverty line in Dinanagar is set at %100 per capita per day. Five Hundred people live in Dinanagar of whom 50 earn %30 per capita per day and another 25 earn %80 per capita per day each. Everybody else earn more than 7100 per day per capita. What is the minimum amount that the government of Dinanagar will have to spend to completely eradicate poverty? 1. 3000 %, 73500 3. 74000 4, %4500 95. The local telephone company sells me a landline connection only if [ purchase a handset from them as well. Which of the following rights does this practice violate under the Consumer Protection Act 1986? 1. Right to represent 2._ Right to information 13 Right to choose 4. Right to seek redressal 150? vi) 98 92. 8 8 pofefer wifes afer Fa am 4 caterer fare a sift Pres 8? Barat aT fTaTE 1 2. 3 4, Saree A pat Ten Z100 ht vata iar 2 dam F500 cin wea &, for A a 50 cafen fafa <30 Fae F atte 25 cir wales 280 wad #1 Sr at cin afer T1004 afer ward 81 wet Frateat wt eet ta a ex on & fay SHR FI Fa a TAIT an 2 ao few ort ae wel A? 1, 73000 2. %3500 3. % 4000 4. ©4500 zara Serpe (eam) Fer WR eeeTe ten mt oh oa 4 aiegr a 7a fh sat 8 Gas) save ear saPaFaA 1986 & sina ae eae aH a afer A seein amt 2? 1. wiafifira a srftrre 2. Gar ar AA 3, A HT Sa 4, BANA WA aT SARE96. Match List-l (Type of Unemployment) with List-Il (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes given below List-I List-IT (Type of (Characteristics) Unemployment) A.| Seasonal i. | Occurs during boom or recession in the economy [Frictional [i [An absence of | demand for a certain type of workers ©) Disguised Ti | Occurs when moving from one job to another D.| Structural IV.| Actual contribution by the additional labour is nil © | Cyclical —[V. | fob opportunities during certain | months in the ear Mf AN, B-lll, CAV, D-Il, El 2. AIV, B-V, C-HIl, D-I, E-II 3. Ad, B-ll, C-IIl, D-IV, E-V 4 BAV, C-ill, DI, E 97. Suppose Indian Farmers sell wheat at %50 per kg and the international price of wheat is 40 per kg. What is the minimum rate of import duty Government of India must impose on imported wheat so that it does not adversely affect Indian farmers in the domestic market? 1. 10% 2. 20% 97. ea wi (ater & ( fagrrart) war) A] ae L [ae aden aa | stead a irk t B. | ini UL, | feet faery wen a aft / email fere ain 3 ttt ©) wen [Uae ae a ae daa cated ¥ orn t D. | sears |. | atten afieel mr fear ay arate aime Ie es t © aaa V. [rae sae, a a wo taht a fret t A-V, B-IIl, C-IV, D-ll, E- A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-I, Acl, B-Il, C-I, D-1V, E- AV, B-IV, C-II, D-H, E-1 PEN ri wife fe unite fra 750 ofa fam, wie wg ded & she A an sitet Wet 40 vf fem @1 ma aR at amie a ow fer =H ar yew fruit aon area ate gaat stg are F anata fear vx aera 4 42? 10% 20% 25% 30%98. The wage rate of a worker in a country is %300 per day. Which of these person(s) would you consider unemployed? A. Ramu is willing to work at %300 a day, but cannot find work. B. Suresh is willing to work only at 2400 a day or more, and cannot find work. C. Shanti stays at home because she has young children to look after. WW Ramu 2. Suresh 3. Ramu and Suresh 4. Ramu and Shanti 99. Which of the following can be used as collateral in Indian banks to borrow money? 1. Bank Passbook 2. Credit Card 12° Own House 4. Passport 98. 99, > = 9100, ‘The total agricultural land in a village is 1200 hectares. This is distributed among 320 families who form four groups in the following patter. It is assumed that the land is distributed equally within each group. Identify the group of small farmers. Group | Number of | Total amount of land Families | owned and operated by each group inhectares) x 100 300 B 180 300 € 30 300 D To 300 ind. UB Ie 4D 100, feet aia A qe ait ath 1200 tae #1 we aff 320 viari 4 famfaa ¢ at fe ae feu my tad & agen an wai A we zi art a er @ fe ae fe vere aye A ae wi 8 feat ti 4 a oe fear + Wye a wa aR | atten at | ger ahh st ew aE wom ue t aft fre wr & at art t | (tear) a 100 300 B 180 300 c 30 300 D 10 300 LA 2B 4. .¢ 4D