SAT Practice Test 1 Combined PDF

SAT Practice Test #1
IMPORTANT REMINDERS
A No. 2 pencil is required for the test. Sharing any questions with anyone
Do not use a mechanical pencil or pen. is a violation of Test Security
and Fairness policies and may result
in your scores being canceled.
This cover is representative of what you’ll see on test day.
THIS TEST BOOK MUST NOT BE TAKEN FROM THE ROOM. UNAUTHORIZED
REPRODUCTION OR USE OF ANY PART OF THIS TEST BOOK IS PROHIBITED.
© 2015 The College Board. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
Test begins on the next page.
1 1
Reading Test
65 M I NU TES, 5 2 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
DIRECTIONS
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following Akira was waiting in the entry. He was in his early
.......................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage. twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black

This passage is from Lydia Minatoya, The Strangeness of
25 military-style uniform of a student. As he
Beauty. ©1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a
1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the
House of Fuji, a noble family. other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening
surface of the courtyard’s rain-drenched paving
Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was 30 stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.
that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his “Madame,” said Akira, “forgive my disruption,
mother to speak to his father to approach a but I come with a matter of urgency.”
Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive? His voice was soft, refined. He straightened and
5 He came on a winter’s eve. He pounded on the stole a deferential peek at her face.
door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda, 35 In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity.
so at first Chie thought him only the wind. The maid Chie felt herself starting to like him.
knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, “Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely
the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a your business can wait for a moment or two.”
10 calling card to the drawing room, for Chie. “I don’t want to trouble you. Normally I would
Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she 40 approach you more properly but I’ve received word
was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at of a position. I’ve an opportunity to go to America, as
a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt dentist for Seattle’s Japanese community.”
spread over the sides of the table so their legs were “Congratulations,” Chie said with amusement.
15 tucked inside with the heat. “That is an opportunity, I’m sure. But how am I
“Who is it at this hour, in this weather?” Chie 45 involved?”
questioned as she picked the name card off the Even noting Naomi’s breathless reaction to the
maid’s lacquer tray. name card, Chie had no idea. Akira’s message,
“Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College,” she read. delivered like a formal speech, filled her with
20 Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft maternal amusement. You know how children speak
intake of air. 50 so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about
“I think you should go,” said Naomi. things that have no importance in an adult’s mind?
That’s how she viewed him, as a child.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

2 CO NTI N U E
1 1
It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1
Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts
55 needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no Which choice best describes what happens in the
effort to find her a husband. passage?
Akira blushed. A) One character argues with another character
“Depending on your response, I may stay in who intrudes on her home.
Japan. I’ve come to ask for Naomi’s hand.” B) One character receives a surprising request from
60 Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night. another character.
“Does Naomi know anything of your . . .
ambitions?” C) One character reminisces about choices she has
“We have an understanding. Please don’t judge made over the years.
my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I D) One character criticizes another character for
65 ask directly because the use of a go-between takes pursuing an unexpected course of action.
much time. Either method comes down to the same
thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your
consent, I become Naomi’s yoshi.* We’ll live in the 2
House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to
Which choice best describes the developmental
70 America, to secure a new home for my bride.”
pattern of the passage?
Eager to make his point, he’d been looking her full
in the face. Abruptly, his voice turned gentle. “I see A) A careful analysis of a traditional practice
I’ve startled you. My humble apologies. I’ll take no B) A detailed depiction of a meaningful encounter
more of your evening. My address is on my card. If
C) A definitive response to a series of questions
75 you don’t wish to contact me, I’ll reapproach you in
two weeks’ time. Until then, good night.” D) A cheerful recounting of an amusing anecdote
He bowed and left. Taking her ease, with effortless
grace, like a cat making off with a fish.
“Mother?” Chie heard Naomi’s low voice and 3
80 turned from the door. “He has asked you?” As used in line 1 and line 65, “directly” most
The sight of Naomi’s clear eyes, her dark brows nearly means
gave Chie strength. Maybe his hopes were
preposterous. A) frankly.
“Where did you meet such a fellow? Imagine! He B) confidently.
85 thinks he can marry the Fuji heir and take her to C) without mediation.
America all in the snap of his fingers!”
Chie waited for Naomi’s ripe laughter. D) with precision.
Naomi was silent. She stood a full half minute
looking straight into Chie’s eyes. Finally, she spoke.
90 “I met him at my literary meeting.” 4
Naomi turned to go back into the house, then Which reaction does Akira most fear from Chie?
stopped.
“Mother.” A) She will consider his proposal inappropriate.
“Yes?” B) She will mistake his earnestness for immaturity.
95 “I mean to have him.” C) She will consider his unscheduled visit an
* a man who marries a woman of higher status and takes her
imposition.
family’s name
D) She will underestimate the sincerity of his
emotions.

3 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
5 9
Which choice provides the best evidence for the Why does Akira say his meeting with Chie is
answer to the previous question? “a matter of urgency” (line 32)?
A) Line 33 (“His voice . . . refined”) A) He fears that his own parents will disapprove of
B) Lines 49-51 (“You . . . mind”) Naomi.
C) Lines 63-64 (“Please . . . proposal”) B) He worries that Naomi will reject him and marry
someone else.
D) Lines 71-72 (“Eager . . . face”)
C) He has been offered an attractive job in another
country.
6 D) He knows that Chie is unaware of his feelings for
Naomi.
In the passage, Akira addresses Chie with
A) affection but not genuine love.
B) objectivity but not complete impartiality. 10
C) amusement but not mocking disparagement. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
D) respect but not utter deference. answer to the previous question?
A) Line 39 (“I don’t . . . you”)
B) Lines 39-42 (“Normally . . . community”)
7
C) Lines 58-59 (“Depending . . . Japan”)
The main purpose of the first paragraph is to
D) Lines 72-73 (“I see . . . you”)
A) describe a culture.
B) criticize a tradition.
C) question a suggestion.
D) analyze a reaction.
8
As used in line 2, “form” most nearly means
A) appearance.
B) custom.
C) structure.
D) nature.

4 CO NTI N U E
1 1
Questions 11-21 are based on the following spend with how much recipients will appreciate the
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. gift (the more expensive the gift, the stronger a
gift-recipient’s feelings of appreciation). Although a
This passage is adapted from Francis J. Flynn and Gabrielle 45 link between gift price and feelings of appreciation
S. Adams, "Money Can't Buy Love: Asymmetric Beliefs about might seem intuitive to gift-givers, such an
Gift Price and Feelings of Appreciation." ©2008 by Elsevier assumption may be unfounded. Indeed, we propose
Inc.
that gift-recipients will be less inclined to base their
Every day, millions of shoppers hit the stores in feelings of appreciation on the magnitude of a gift
full force—both online and on foot—searching 50 than givers assume.
frantically for the perfect gift. Last year, Americans Why do gift-givers assume that gift price is closely
Line spent over $30 billion at retail stores in the month of linked to gift-recipients’ feelings of appreciation?
5 December alone. Aside from purchasing holiday Perhaps givers believe that bigger (i.e., more
gifts, most people regularly buy presents for other expensive) gifts convey stronger signals of
occasions throughout the year, including weddings, 55 thoughtfulness and consideration. According to
birthdays, anniversaries, graduations, and baby Camerer (1988) and others, gift-giving represents a
showers. This frequent experience of gift-giving can symbolic ritual, whereby gift-givers attempt to signal
10 engender ambivalent feelings in gift-givers. Many their positive attitudes toward the intended recipient
relish the opportunity to buy presents because and their willingness to invest resources in a future
gift-giving offers a powerful means to build stronger 60 relationship. In this sense, gift-givers may be
bonds with one’s closest peers. At the same time, motivated to spend more money on a gift in order to
many dread the thought of buying gifts; they worry send a “stronger signal” to their intended recipient.
15 that their purchases will disappoint rather than As for gift-recipients, they may not construe smaller
delight the intended recipients. and larger gifts as representing smaller and larger
Anthropologists describe gift-giving as a positive 65 signals of thoughtfulness and consideration.
social process, serving various political, religious, and The notion of gift-givers and gift-recipients being
psychological functions. Economists, however, offer unable to account for the other party’s perspective
20 a less favorable view. According to Waldfogel (1993), seems puzzling because people slip in and out of
gift-giving represents an objective waste of resources. these roles every day, and, in some cases, multiple
People buy gifts that recipients would not choose to 70 times in the course of the same day. Yet, despite the
buy on their own, or at least not spend as much extensive experience that people have as both givers
money to purchase (a phenomenon referred to as and receivers, they often struggle to transfer
25 ‘‘the deadweight loss of Christmas”). To wit, givers information gained from one role (e.g., as a giver)
are likely to spend $100 to purchase a gift that and apply it in another, complementary role (e.g., as
receivers would spend only $80 to buy themselves. 75 a receiver). In theoretical terms, people fail to utilize
This ‘‘deadweight loss” suggests that gift-givers are information about their own preferences and
not very good at predicting what gifts others will experiences in order to produce more efficient
30 appreciate. That in itself is not surprising to social outcomes in their exchange relations. In practical
psychologists. Research has found that people often terms, people spend hundreds of dollars each year on
struggle to take account of others’ perspectives— 80 gifts, but somehow never learn to calibrate their gift
their insights are subject to egocentrism, social expenditures according to personal insight.
projection, and multiple attribution errors.
35 What is surprising is that gift-givers have
considerable experience acting as both gift-givers and
gift-recipients, but nevertheless tend to overspend
each time they set out to purchase a meaningful gift.
In the present research, we propose a unique
40 psychological explanation for this overspending
problem—i.e., that gift-givers equate how much they

5 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Givers’ Perceived and Recipients’ 13
Actual Gift Appreciations
The authors indicate that people value gift-giving
7.00 because they feel it
A) functions as a form of self-expression.
Mean appreciation
6.50
B) is an inexpensive way to show appreciation.
6.00
C) requires the gift-recipient to reciprocate.
5.50 D) can serve to strengthen a relationship.
5.00
14
4.50
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
0 answer to the previous question?
giver recipient A) Lines 10-13 (“Many . . . peers”)
Role B) Lines 22-23 (“People . . . own”)
less expensive gift C) Lines 31-32 (“Research . . . perspectives”)
more expensive gift D) Lines 44-47 (“Although . . . unfounded”)
15
The “social psychologists” mentioned in paragraph 2
11
(lines 17-34) would likely describe the “deadweight
The authors most likely use the examples in lines 1-9 loss” phenomenon as
of the passage (“Every . . . showers”) to highlight the A) predictable.
A) regularity with which people shop for gifts. B) questionable.
B) recent increase in the amount of money spent on C) disturbing.
gifts.
D) unprecedented.
C) anxiety gift shopping causes for consumers.
D) number of special occasions involving
gift-giving. 16
The passage indicates that the assumption made by
gift-givers in lines 41-44 may be
12
A) insincere.
In line 10, the word “ambivalent” most nearly means
B) unreasonable.
A) unrealistic.
C) incorrect.
B) conflicted.
D) substantiated.
C) apprehensive.
D) supportive.

6 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
17 20
Which choice provides the best evidence for the The graph following the passage offers evidence that
answer to the previous question? gift-givers base their predictions of how much a gift
A) Lines 53-55 (“Perhaps . . . consideration”) will be appreciated on
B) Lines 55-60 (“According . . . relationship”) A) the appreciation level of the gift-recipients.
C) Lines 63-65 (“As . . . consideration”) B) the monetary value of the gift.
D) Lines 75-78 (“In . . . relations”) C) their own desires for the gifts they purchase.
D) their relationship with the gift-recipients.
18
21
As it is used in line 54, “convey” most nearly means
A) transport. The authors would likely attribute the differences in
gift-giver and recipient mean appreciation as
B) counteract. represented in the graph to
C) exchange. A) an inability to shift perspective.
D) communicate. B) an increasingly materialistic culture.
C) a growing opposition to gift-giving.
19 D) a misunderstanding of intentions.
The authors refer to work by Camerer and others
(line 56) in order to
A) offer an explanation.
B) introduce an argument.
C) question a motive.
D) support a conclusion.

7 CO NTI N U E
1 1
Questions 22-31 are based on the following long molecule many different permutations are
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. possible, and it therefore seems likely that the precise
This passage is adapted from J. D. Watson and F. H. C. Crick,
sequence of bases is the code which carries the
“Genetical Implications of the Structure of Deoxyribonucleic 45 genetical information. If the actual order of the bases
Acid.” ©1953 by Nature Publishing Group. Watson and Crick on one of the pair of chains were given, one could
deduced the structure of DNA using evidence from Rosalind write down the exact order of the bases on the other
Franklin and R. G. Gosling’s X-ray crystallography diagrams one, because of the specific pairing. Thus one chain
of DNA and from Erwin Chargaff’s data on the base is, as it were, the complement of the other, and it is
composition of DNA. 50 this feature which suggests how the deoxyribonucleic
The chemical formula of deoxyribonucleic acid acid molecule might duplicate itself.
(DNA) is now well established. The molecule is a The table shows, for various organisms, the percentage of
very long chain, the backbone of which consists of a each of the four types of nitrogenous bases in that
Line regular alternation of sugar and phosphate groups. organism’s DNA.
5 To each sugar is attached a nitrogenous base, which
can be of four different types. Two of the possible Base Composition of DNA
bases—adenine and guanine—are purines, and the
other two—thymine and cytosine—are pyrimidines. Percentage of base
So far as is known, the sequence of bases along the
in organism’s DNA
10 chain is irregular. The monomer unit, consisting of
phosphate, sugar and base, is known as a nucleotide. Organism adenine guanine cytosine thymine
The first feature of our structure which is of (%) (%) (%) (%)
biological interest is that it consists not of one chain,
but of two. These two chains are both coiled around Maize 26.8 22.8 23.2 27.2
15 a common fiber axis. It has often been assumed that Octopus 33.2 17.6 17.6 31.6
since there was only one chain in the chemical
Chicken 28.0 22.0 21.6 28.4
formula there would only be one in the structural
unit. However, the density, taken with the X-ray Rat 28.6 21.4 20.5 28.4
evidence, suggests very strongly that there are two. Human 29.3 20.7 20.0 30.0
20 The other biologically important feature is the
manner in which the two chains are held together. Grasshopper 29.3 20.5 20.7 29.3
This is done by hydrogen bonds between the bases. Sea urchin 32.8 17.7 17.3 32.1
The bases are joined together in pairs, a single base
Wheat 27.3 22.7 22.8 27.1
from one chain being hydrogen-bonded to a single
25 base from the other. The important point is that only Yeast 31.3 18.7 17.1 32.9
certain pairs of bases will fit into the structure. E. coli 24.7 26.0 25.7 23.6
One member of a pair must be a purine and the other
a pyrimidine in order to bridge between the two Adapted from Manju Bansal, “DNA Structure: Revisiting the
chains. If a pair consisted of two purines, for Watson-Crick Double Helix.” ©2003 by Current Science Association,
30 example, there would not be room for it. Bangalore.
We believe that the bases will be present almost
entirely in their most probable forms. If this is true,
the conditions for forming hydrogen bonds are more
restrictive, and the only pairs of bases possible are:
35 adenine with thymine, and guanine with cytosine.
Adenine, for example, can occur on either chain; but
when it does, its partner on the other chain must
always be thymine.
The phosphate-sugar backbone of our model is
40 completely regular, but any sequence of the pairs of
bases can fit into the structure. It follows that in a

8 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
22 25
The authors use the word “backbone” in lines 3 The authors’ main purpose of including the
and 39 to indicate that information about X-ray evidence and density is to
A) only very long chains of DNA can be taken from A) establish that DNA is the molecule that carries
an organism with a spinal column. the genetic information.
B) the main structure of a chain in a DNA molecule B) present an alternate hypothesis about the
is composed of repeating units. composition of a nucleotide.
C) a chain in a DNA molecule consists entirely of C) provide support for the authors’ claim about the
phosphate groups or of sugars. number of chains in a molecule of DNA.
D) nitrogenous bases form the main structural unit D) confirm the relationship between the density of
of DNA. DNA and the known chemical formula of DNA.
23 26
A student claims that nitrogenous bases pair Based on the passage, the authors’ statement “If a
randomly with one another. Which of the following pair consisted of two purines, for example, there
statements in the passage contradicts the student’s would not be room for it” (lines 29-30) implies that a
claim? pair
A) Lines 5-6 (“To each . . . types”) A) of purines would be larger than the space
B) Lines 9-10 (“So far . . . irregular”) between a sugar and a phosphate group.
C) Lines 23-25 (“The bases . . . other”) B) of purines would be larger than a pair consisting
of a purine and a pyrimidine.
D) Lines 27-29 (“One member . . . chains”)
C) of pyrimidines would be larger than a pair of
purines.
24 D) consisting of a purine and a pyrimidine would be
larger than a pair of pyrimidines.
In the second paragraph (lines 12-19), what do the
authors claim to be a feature of biological interest?
A) The chemical formula of DNA 27
B) The common fiber axis The authors’ use of the words “exact,” “specific,” and
C) The X-ray evidence “complement” in lines 47-49 in the final paragraph
D) DNA consisting of two chains functions mainly to
A) confirm that the nucleotide sequences are known
for most molecules of DNA.
B) counter the claim that the sequences of bases
along a chain can occur in any order.
C) support the claim that the phosphate-sugar
backbone of the authors’ model is completely
regular.
D) emphasize how one chain of DNA may serve as a
template to be copied during DNA replication.

9 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
28 30
Based on the table and passage, which choice gives According to the table, which of the following pairs
the correct percentages of the purines in yeast DNA? of base percentages in sea urchin DNA provides
A) 17.1% and 18.7% evidence in support of the answer to the previous
question?
B) 17.1% and 32.9%
A) 17.3% and 17.7%
C) 18.7% and 31.3%
B) 17.3% and 32.1%
D) 31.3% and 32.9%
C) 17.3% and 32.8%
D) 17.7% and 32.8%
29
Do the data in the table support the authors’
31
proposed pairing of bases in DNA?
A) Yes, because for each given organism, the Based on the table, is the percentage of adenine in
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage each organism’s DNA the same or does it vary, and
of thymine, and the percentage of guanine is which statement made by the authors is most
closest to the percentage of cytosine. consistent with that data?
B) Yes, because for each given organism, the A) The same; “Two of . . . pyrimidines” (lines 6-8)
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage B) The same; “The important . . . structure”
of guanine, and the percentage of cytosine is (lines 25-26)
closest to the percentage of thymine. C) It varies; “Adenine . . . thymine” (lines 36-38)
C) No, because for each given organism, the D) It varies; “It follows . . . information”
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage (lines 41-45)
of thymine, and the percentage of guanine is
closest to the percentage of cytosine.
D) No, because for each given organism, the
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage
of guanine, and the percentage of cytosine is
closest to the percentage of thymine.

10 CO NTI N U E
1 1
Questions 32-41 are based on the following talk of fashions—men’s and women’s. We are here,
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage. on the bridge, to ask ourselves certain questions.
This passage is adapted from Virginia Woolf, Three Guineas.
And they are very important questions; and we have
©1938 by Harcourt, Inc. Here, Woolf considers the situation very little time in which to answer them. The
of women in English society. 50 questions that we have to ask and to answer about
that procession during this moment of transition are
Close at hand is a bridge over the River Thames, so important that they may well change the lives of
an admirable vantage ground for us to make a all men and women for ever. For we have to ask
survey. The river flows beneath; barges pass, laden ourselves, here and now, do we wish to join that
Line with timber, bursting with corn; there on one side are 55 procession, or don’t we? On what terms shall we join
5 the domes and spires of the city; on the other, that procession? Above all, where is it leading us, the
Westminster and the Houses of Parliament. It is a procession of educated men? The moment is short; it
place to stand on by the hour, dreaming. But not may last five years; ten years, or perhaps only a
now. Now we are pressed for time. Now we are here matter of a few months longer. . . . But, you will
to consider facts; now we must fix our eyes upon the 60 object, you have no time to think; you have your
10 procession—the procession of the sons of educated battles to fight, your rent to pay, your bazaars to
men. organize. That excuse shall not serve you, Madam.
There they go, our brothers who have been As you know from your own experience, and there
educated at public schools and universities, are facts that prove it, the daughters of educated men
mounting those steps, passing in and out of those 65 have always done their thinking from hand to
15 doors, ascending those pulpits, preaching, teaching, mouth; not under green lamps at study tables in the
administering justice, practising medicine, cloisters of secluded colleges. They have thought
transacting business, making money. It is a solemn while they stirred the pot, while they rocked the
sight always—a procession, like a caravanserai cradle. It was thus that they won us the right to our
crossing a desert. . . . But now, for the past twenty 70 brand-new sixpence. It falls to us now to go on
20 years or so, it is no longer a sight merely, a thinking; how are we to spend that sixpence? Think
photograph, or fresco scrawled upon the walls of we must. Let us think in offices; in omnibuses; while
time, at which we can look with merely an esthetic we are standing in the crowd watching Coronations
appreciation. For there, trapesing along at the tail and Lord Mayor’s Shows; let us think . . . in the
end of the procession, we go ourselves. And that 75 gallery of the House of Commons; in the Law Courts;
25 makes a difference. We who have looked so long at let us think at baptisms and marriages and funerals.
the pageant in books, or from a curtained window Let us never cease from thinking—what is this
watched educated men leaving the house at about “civilization” in which we find ourselves? What are
nine-thirty to go to an office, returning to the house these ceremonies and why should we take part in
at about six-thirty from an office, need look passively 80 them? What are these professions and why
30 no longer. We too can leave the house, can mount should we make money out of them? Where in
those steps, pass in and out of those doors, . . . make short is it leading us, the procession of the sons of
money, administer justice. . . . We who now agitate educated men?
these humble pens may in another century or two
speak from a pulpit. Nobody will dare contradict us
35 then; we shall be the mouthpieces of the divine 32
spirit—a solemn thought, is it not? Who can say
whether, as time goes on, we may not dress in The main purpose of the passage is to
military uniform, with gold lace on our breasts, A) emphasize the value of a tradition.
swords at our sides, and something like the old
40 family coal-scuttle on our heads, save that that B) stress the urgency of an issue.
venerable object was never decorated with plumes of C) highlight the severity of social divisions.
white horsehair. You laugh—indeed the shadow of D) question the feasibility of an undertaking.
the private house still makes those dresses look a
little queer. We have worn private clothes so
45 long. . . . But we have not come here to laugh, or to

11 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
33 36
The central claim of the passage is that Woolf indicates that the procession she describes in
A) educated women face a decision about how to the passage
engage with existing institutions. A) has come to have more practical influence in
B) women can have positions of influence in recent years.
English society only if they give up some of their B) has become a celebrated feature of English public
traditional roles. life.
C) the male monopoly on power in English society C) includes all of the richest and most powerful
has had grave and continuing effects. men in England.
D) the entry of educated women into positions of D) has become less exclusionary in its membership
power traditionally held by men will transform in recent years.
those positions.
37
34
Woolf uses the word “we” throughout the passage answer to the previous question?
mainly to A) Lines 12-17 (“There . . . money”)
A) reflect the growing friendliness among a group B) Lines 17-19 (“It . . . desert”)
of people.
C) Lines 23-24 (“For . . . ourselves”)
B) advance the need for candor among a group of
people. D) Lines 30-34 (“We . . . pulpit”)
C) establish a sense of solidarity among a group of
people.
D) reinforce the need for respect among a group of
people.
35
According to the passage, Woolf chooses the setting
of the bridge because it
A) is conducive to a mood of fanciful reflection.
B) provides a good view of the procession of the
sons of educated men.
C) is within sight of historic episodes to which she
alludes.
D) is symbolic of the legacy of past and present sons
of educated men.

12 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
38 40
Woolf characterizes the questions in lines 53-57 Which choice most closely captures the
(“For we . . . men”) as both meaning of the figurative “sixpence” referred
A) controversial and threatening. to in lines 70 and 71?
B) weighty and unanswerable. A) Tolerance
C) momentous and pressing. B) Knowledge
D) provocative and mysterious. C) Opportunity
D) Perspective
39
41
answer to the previous question? The range of places and occasions listed in
A) Lines 46-47 (“We . . . questions”) lines 72-76 (“Let us . . . funerals”) mainly serves to
emphasize how
B) Lines 48-49 (“And . . . them”)
A) novel the challenge faced by women is.
C) Line 57 (“The moment . . . short”)
B) pervasive the need for critical reflection is.
D) Line 62 (“That . . . Madam”)
C) complex the political and social issues of the
day are.
D) enjoyable the career possibilities for women are.

13 CO NTI N U E
1 1
Questions 42-52 are based on the following Companies are eyeing the iron, silicon, and
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passages. aluminium in lunar soil and asteroids, which could
Passage 1 is adapted from Michael Slezak, “Space Mining:
be used in 3D printers to make spare parts or
the Next Gold Rush?” ©2013 by New Scientist. Passage 2 is machinery. Others want to turn space dirt into
from the editors of New Scientist, “Taming the Final 45 concrete for landing pads, shelters, and roads.
Frontier.” ©2013 by New Scientist. Passage 2
Passage 1 The motivation for deep-space travel is shifting
Follow the money and you will end up in space. from discovery to economics. The past year has seen
That’s the message from a first-of-its-kind forum on a flurry of proposals aimed at bringing celestial riches
mining beyond Earth. down to Earth. No doubt this will make a few
Line Convened in Sydney by the Australian Centre for 50 billionaires even wealthier, but we all stand to gain:
5 Space Engineering Research, the event brought the mineral bounty and spin-off technologies could
together mining companies, robotics experts, lunar enrich us all.
scientists, and government agencies that are all But before the miners start firing up their rockets,
working to make space mining a reality. we should pause for thought. At first glance, space
The forum comes hot on the heels of the 55 mining seems to sidestep most environmental
10 2012 unveiling of two private asteroid-mining firms. concerns: there is (probably!) no life on asteroids,
Planetary Resources of Washington says it will and thus no habitats to trash. But its consequences
launch its first prospecting telescopes in two years, —both here on Earth and in space—merit careful
while Deep Space Industries of Virginia hopes to be consideration.
harvesting metals from asteroids by 2020. Another 60 Part of this is about principles. Some will argue
15 commercial venture that sprung up in 2012, that space’s “magnificent desolation” is not ours to
Golden Spike of Colorado, will be offering trips to despoil, just as they argue that our own planet’s poles
the moon, including to potential lunar miners. should remain pristine. Others will suggest that
Within a few decades, these firms may be glutting ourselves on space’s riches is not an
meeting earthly demands for precious metals, such as 65 acceptable alternative to developing more sustainable
20 platinum and gold, and the rare earth elements vital ways of earthly life.
for personal electronics, such as yttrium and History suggests that those will be hard lines to
lanthanum. But like the gold rush pioneers who hold, and it may be difficult to persuade the public
transformed the western United States, the first space that such barren environments are worth preserving.
miners won’t just enrich themselves. They also hope 70 After all, they exist in vast abundance, and even
25 to build an off-planet economy free of any bonds fewer people will experience them than have walked
with Earth, in which the materials extracted and through Antarctica’s icy landscapes.
processed from the moon and asteroids are delivered There’s also the emerging off-world economy to
for space-based projects. consider. The resources that are valuable in orbit and
In this scenario, water mined from other 75 beyond may be very different to those we prize on
30 worlds could become the most desired commodity. Earth. Questions of their stewardship have barely
“In the desert, what’s worth more: a kilogram of gold been broached—and the relevant legal and regulatory
or a kilogram of water?” asks Kris Zacny of framework is fragmentary, to put it mildly.
HoneyBee Robotics in New York. “Gold is useless. Space miners, like their earthly counterparts, are
Water will let you live.” 80 often reluctant to engage with such questions.
35 Water ice from the moon’s poles could be sent to One speaker at last week’s space-mining forum in
astronauts on the International Space Station for Sydney, Australia, concluded with a plea that
drinking or as a radiation shield. Splitting water into regulation should be avoided. But miners have much
oxygen and hydrogen makes spacecraft fuel, so to gain from a broad agreement on the for-profit
ice-rich asteroids could become interplanetary 85 exploitation of space. Without consensus, claims will
40 refuelling stations. be disputed, investments risky, and the gains made
insecure. It is in all of our long-term interests to seek
one out.

14 CO NTI N U E
1 1
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
42 46
In lines 9-17, the author of Passage 1 mentions What function does the discussion of water in
several companies primarily to lines 35-40 serve in Passage 1?
A) note the technological advances that make space A) It continues an extended comparison that begins
mining possible. in the previous paragraph.
B) provide evidence of the growing interest in space B) It provides an unexpected answer to a question
mining. raised in the previous paragraph.
C) emphasize the large profits to be made from C) It offers hypothetical examples supporting a
space mining. claim made in the previous paragraph.
D) highlight the diverse ways to carry out space D) It examines possible outcomes of a proposal put
mining operations. forth in the previous paragraph.
43 47
The author of Passage 1 indicates that space mining The central claim of Passage 2 is that space mining
could have which positive effect? has positive potential but
A) It could yield materials important to Earth’s A) it will end up encouraging humanity’s reckless
economy. treatment of the environment.
B) It could raise the value of some precious metals B) its effects should be thoughtfully considered
on Earth. before it becomes a reality.
C) It could create unanticipated technological C) such potential may not include replenishing key
innovations. resources that are disappearing on Earth.
D) It could change scientists’ understanding of D) experts disagree about the commercial viability
space resources. of the discoveries it could yield.
44 48
Which choice provides the best evidence for the As used in line 68, “hold” most nearly means
answer to the previous question? A) maintain.
A) Lines 18-22 (“Within . . . lanthanum”) B) grip.
B) Lines 24-28 (“They . . . projects”) C) restrain.
C) Lines 29-30 (“In this . . . commodity”) D) withstand.
D) Lines 41-44 (“Companies . . . machinery”)
45
As used in line 19, “demands” most nearly means
A) offers.
B) claims.
C) inquiries.
D) desires.

15 CO NTI N U E
1 1
.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
49 51
Which statement best describes the relationship Which choice provides the best evidence for the
between the passages? answer to the previous question?
A) Passage 2 refutes the central claim advanced in A) Lines 60-63 (“Some . . . pristine”)
Passage 1. B) Lines 74-76 (“The resources . . . Earth”)
B) Passage 2 illustrates the phenomenon described C) Lines 81-83 (“One . . . avoided”)
in more general terms in Passage 1.
D) Lines 85-87 (“Without . . . insecure”)
C) Passage 2 argues against the practicality of the
proposals put forth in Passage 1.
D) Passage 2 expresses reservations about 52
developments discussed in Passage 1.
Which point about the resources that will be highly
valued in space is implicit in Passage 1 and explicit in
Passage 2?
50
A) They may be different resources from those that
The author of Passage 2 would most likely respond to are valuable on Earth.
the discussion of the future of space mining in
lines 18-28, Passage 1, by claiming that such a future B) They will be valuable only if they can be
harvested cheaply.
A) is inconsistent with the sustainable use of space
resources. C) They are likely to be primarily precious metals
and rare earth elements.
B) will be difficult to bring about in the absence of
regulations. D) They may increase in value as those same
resources become rare on Earth.
C) cannot be attained without technologies that do
not yet exist.
D) seems certain to affect Earth’s economy in a
negative way.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

16
No Test Material On This Page
2 2
Writing and Language Test
DIRECTIONS
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

...................................................................................................................................
Whey to Go
Greek yogurt—a strained form of cultured
yogurt—has grown enormously in popularity in the
United States since it was first introduced in the country
in the late 1980s.
From 2011 to 2012 alone, sales of Greek yogurt in the
US increased by 50 percent. The resulting increase in
Greek yogurt production has forced those involved in the
business to address the detrimental effects that the
yogurt-making process may be having on the
environment. Fortunately, farmers and others in the

18 CO NTI N U E
2 2
Greek yogurt business have found many methods of
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1
controlling and eliminating most environmental threats. A) NO CHANGE
B) defeat
Given these solutions as well as the many health benefits
C) outperform
of the food, the advantages of Greek yogurt 1 outdo the
D) outweigh
potential drawbacks of its production.
[1] The main environmental problem caused by the 2
production of Greek yogurt is the creation of acid whey Which choice provides the most relevant detail?
as a by-product. [2] Because it requires up to four times A) NO CHANGE
B) supplement and convert it into gas to use as fuel
more milk to make than conventional yogurt does, Greek in electricity production.
yogurt produces larger amounts of acid whey, which is C) supplement, while sweet whey is more desirable
as a food additive for humans.
difficult to dispose of. [3] To address the problem of
D) supplement, which provides an important
disposal, farmers have found a number of uses for acid element of their diet.
whey. [4] They can add it to livestock feed as a protein
2 supplement, and people can make their own 3
A) NO CHANGE
Greek-style yogurt at home by straining regular yogurt.
B) can pollute waterway’s,
[5] If it is improperly introduced into the environment, C) could have polluted waterways,
acid-whey runoff 3 can pollute waterways, depleting D) has polluted waterway’s,
’
the oxygen content of streams and rivers as it
decomposes. [6] Yogurt manufacturers, food 4
A) NO CHANGE
4 scientists; and government officials are also
B) scientists: and
working together to develop additional solutions for
C) scientists, and
reusing whey. 5 D) scientists, and,
5
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) after sentence 1.
C) after sentence 2.
D) after sentence 3.

19 CO NTI N U E
2 2
6 Though these conservation methods can be
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
6
costly and time-consuming, they are well worth the The writer is considering deleting the underlined
sentence. Should the writer do this?
effort. Nutritionists consider Greek yogurt to be a healthy
A) Yes, because it does not provide a transition
food: it is an excellent source of calcium and protein, from the previous paragraph.
serves 7 to be a digestive aid, and 8 it contains few B) Yes, because it fails to support the main
argument of the passage as introduced in the
calories in its unsweetened low- and non-fat forms. first paragraph.
Greek yogurt is slightly lower in sugar and carbohydrates C) No, because it continues the explanation of how
acid whey can be disposed of safely.
than conventional yogurt is. 9 Also, because it is more D) No, because it sets up the argument in the
concentrated, Greek yogurt contains slightly more paragraph for the benefits of Greek yogurt.
protein per serving, thereby helping people stay

7
A) NO CHANGE
B) as
C) like
D) for
8
A) NO CHANGE
B) containing
C) contains
D) will contain
9
A) NO CHANGE
B) In other words,
C) Therefore,
D) For instance,

20 CO NTI N U E
2 2
10 satiated for longer periods of time. These health
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
10
benefits have prompted Greek yogurt’s recent surge in A) NO CHANGE
B) fulfilled
popularity. In fact, Greek yogurt can be found in an
C) complacent
increasing number of products such as snack food and
D) sufficient
frozen desserts. Because consumers reap the nutritional
benefits of Greek yogurt and support those who make 11
and sell 11 it, therefore farmers and businesses should A) NO CHANGE
B) it, farmers
continue finding safe and effective methods of producing
C) it, so farmers
the food.
D) it: farmers

21 CO NTI N U E
2 2
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage
...............................................................................................................................
12
and supplementary material.
Which choice most accurately and effectively
represents the information in the graph?
Dark Snow A) NO CHANGE
Most of Greenland’s interior is covered by a thick B) to 12 degrees Fahrenheit.
C) to their lowest point on December 13.
layer of ice and compressed snow known as the
D) to 10 degrees Fahrenheit and stay there for
Greenland Ice Sheet. The size of the ice sheet fluctuates months.
seasonally: in summer, average daily high temperatures
in Greenland can rise to slightly above 50 degrees
Fahrenheit, partially melting the ice; in the winter, the
sheet thickens as additional snow falls, and average daily
low temperatures can drop 12 to as low as 20 degrees.
Average Daily High and Low Temperatures Recorded

at Nuuk Weather Station, Greenland (1961—1990)
Mar 5 Jun 10 Sep 8 Dec 13

60
Temperature (°F)
50 45° 45°
40
30 35° 38° 26°
20°
20
19°
10
12°
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
average daily high
average daily low
Adapted from WMO. ©2014 by World Meteorological Organization.

22 CO NTI N U E
2 2
Typically, the ice sheet begins to show evidence of
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
13
thawing in late 13 summer. This follows several weeks of Which choice most effectively combines the two
sentences at the underlined portion?
higher temperatures. 14 For example, in the summer of
A) summer, following
2012, virtually the entire Greenland Ice Sheet underwent B) summer, and this thawing follows
thawing at or near its surface by mid-July, the earliest C) summer, and such thawing follows
date on record. Most scientists looking for the causes of D) summer and this evidence follows
the Great Melt of 2012 have focused exclusively on rising

14
temperatures. The summer of 2012 was the warmest in
A) NO CHANGE
170 years, records show. But Jason 15 Box, an associate B) However,
professor of geology at Ohio State believes that another C) As such,
factor added to the early 16 thaw; the “dark snow” D) Moreover,
problem.
15
A) NO CHANGE
B) Box an associate professor of geology at
Ohio State,
C) Box, an associate professor of geology at
Ohio State,
D) Box, an associate professor of geology, at
Ohio State
16
A) NO CHANGE
B) thaw; and it was
C) thaw:
D) thaw: being

23 CO NTI N U E
2 2
According to Box, a leading Greenland expert,
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
17
tundra fires in 2012 from as far away as North America A) NO CHANGE
B) soot
produced great amounts of soot, some 17 of it drifted
C) of which
over Greenland in giant plumes of smoke and then
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
18 fell as particles onto the ice sheet. Scientists have long
known that soot particles facilitate melting by darkening 18
snow and ice, limiting 19 it’s ability to reflect the Sun’s A) NO CHANGE
rays. As Box explains, “Soot is an extremely powerful B) falls
C) will fall
light absorber. It settles over the ice and captures the
D) had fallen
Sun’s heat.” The result is a self-reinforcing cycle. As the
ice melts, the land and water under the ice become 19
exposed, and since land and water are darker than snow, A) NO CHANGE
the surface absorbs even more heat, which 20 is related B) its
C) there
to the rising temperatures.
D) their
20
Which choice best completes the description of a
self-reinforcing cycle?
A) NO CHANGE
B) raises the surface temperature.
C) begins to cool at a certain point.
D) leads to additional melting.

24 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
[1] Box’s research is important because the fires of 21
2012 may not be a one-time phenomenon. [2] According A) NO CHANGE
B) itself,
to scientists, rising Arctic temperatures are making
C) itself, with damage and
northern latitudes greener and thus more fire prone. D) itself possibly,
[3] The pattern Box observed in 2012 may repeat
21 itself again, with harmful effects on the Arctic 22
ecosystem. [4] Box is currently organizing an expedition To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 4
should be placed
to gather this crucial information. [5] The next step for
A) where it is now.
Box and his team is to travel to Greenland to perform B) after sentence 1.
direct sampling of the ice in order to determine just how C) after sentence 2.
much the soot is contributing to the melting of the ice D) after sentence 5.
sheet. [6] Members of the public will be able to track his

team’s progress—and even help fund the
expedition—through a website Box has created. 22

25 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
23
A) NO CHANGE
Coworking: A Creative Solution B) was promptly worn
C) promptly wore
When I left my office job as a website developer at a
D) wore
small company for a position that allowed me to work
full-time from home, I thought I had it made: I gleefully
24
traded in my suits and dress shoes for sweatpants and A) NO CHANGE
slippers, my frantic early-morning bagged lunch packing B) colleagues were important for sharing ideas.
for a leisurely midday trip to my refrigerator. The novelty C) ideas couldn’t be shared with colleagues.
D) I missed having colleagues nearby to consult.
of this comfortable work-from-home life, however,
23 soon got worn off quickly. Within a month, I found
25
myself feeling isolated despite having frequent email and A) NO CHANGE
instant messaging contact with my colleagues. Having B) about
become frustrated trying to solve difficult problems, C) upon
D) for
24 no colleagues were nearby to share ideas. It was
during this time that I read an article 25 into coworking
spaces.

26 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The article, published by Forbes magazine, explained 26
that coworking spaces are designated locations that, for a A) NO CHANGE
B) equipment, such as:
fee, individuals can use to conduct their work. The spaces
C) equipment such as:
are usually stocked with standard office 26 equipment, D) equipment, such as,
such as photocopiers, printers, and fax machines. 27 In
these locations, however, the spaces often include small 27
meeting areas and larger rooms for hosting presentations. A) NO CHANGE
B) In addition to equipment,
28 The cost of launching a new coworking business in
C) For these reasons,
the United States is estimated to be approximately
D) Likewise,
$58,000.
28
The writer is considering deleting the underlined
sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
A) Kept, because it provides a detail that supports
the main topic of the paragraph.
B) Kept, because it sets up the main topic of the
paragraph that follows.
C) Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph’s main
focus with a loosely related detail.
D) Deleted, because it repeats information that has
been provided in an earlier paragraph.

27 CO NTI N U E
2 2
What most caught my interest, though, was a
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
29
quotation from someone who described coworking At this point, the writer wants to add specific
information that supports the main topic of the
spaces as “melting pots of creativity.” The article refers to paragraph.
a 2012 survey in which 29 64 percent of respondents Perceived Effect of Coworking on Business Skills
noted that coworking spaces prevented them from
positive impact negative impact
completing tasks in a given time. The article goes on to
suggest that the most valuable resources provided by ideas relating 74%
to business 2%
coworking spaces are actually the people 30 whom use
creativity 71%
them. 3%
ability to focus 68%

12%
completing tasks 64%
in a given time 8%
standard of work 62%

3%
Adapted from “The 3rd Global Coworking Survey.” ©2013 by
Deskmag.
Which choice most effectively completes the

sentence with relevant and accurate information
based on the graph above?
A) NO CHANGE
B) 71 percent of respondents indicated that using a
coworking space increased their creativity.
C) respondents credited coworking spaces with
giving them 74 percent of their ideas relating to
business.
D) respondents revealed that their ability to focus
on their work improved by 12 percent in a
coworking space.
30
A) NO CHANGE
B) whom uses
C) who uses
D) who use

28 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
[1] Thus, even though I already had all the 31
equipment I needed in my home office, I decided to try The writer wants to add the following sentence to the
paragraph.
using a coworking space in my city. [2] Because I was
After filling out a simple registration form and
specifically interested in coworking’s reported benefits taking a quick tour of the facility, I took a seat at
related to creativity, I chose a facility that offered a bright, a table and got right to work on my laptop.
The best placement for the sentence is immediately
open work area where I wouldn’t be isolated.
A) before sentence 1.
[3] Throughout the morning, more people appeared.
B) after sentence 1.
[4] Periods of quiet, during which everyone worked C) after sentence 2.
independently, were broken up occasionally with lively D) after sentence 3.
conversation. 31
I liked the experience so much that I now go to the 32
A) NO CHANGE
coworking space a few times a week. Over time, I’ve
B) colleagues;
gotten to know several of my coworking 32 colleagues: C) colleagues,
another website developer, a graphic designer, a freelance D) colleagues
writer, and several mobile app coders. Even those of us
who work in disparate fields are able to 33 share advice 33
A) NO CHANGE
and help each other brainstorm. In fact, it’s the diversity
B) give some wisdom
of their talents and experiences that makes my coworking C) proclaim our opinions
colleagues so valuable. D) opine

29 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
34
A) NO CHANGE
The Consolations of Philosophy B) For example,
C) In contrast,
Long viewed by many as the stereotypical useless
D) Nevertheless,
major, philosophy is now being seen by many students
and prospective employers as in fact a very useful and
35
practical major, offering students a host of transferable A) NO CHANGE
skills with relevance to the modern workplace. 34 In B) speaking in a more pragmatic way,
broad terms, philosophy is the study of meaning and the C) speaking in a way more pragmatically,
D) in a more pragmatic-speaking way,
values underlying thought and behavior. But 35 more
pragmatically, the discipline encourages students to
36
analyze complex material, question conventional beliefs, A) NO CHANGE
and express thoughts in a concise manner. B) teaches
Because philosophy 36 teaching students not what C) to teach
D) and teaching
to think but how to think, the age-old discipline offers
consistently useful tools for academic and professional
37
achievement. 37 A 1994 survey concluded that only
Which choice most effectively sets up the
18 percent of American colleges required at least one information that follows?
A) Consequently, philosophy students have been
philosophy course. 38 Therefore, between 1992 and
receiving an increasing number of job offers.
1996, more than 400 independent philosophy B) Therefore, because of the evidence, colleges
increased their offerings in philosophy.
departments were eliminated from institutions.
C) Notwithstanding the attractiveness of this course
of study, students have resisted majoring in
philosophy.
D) However, despite its many utilitarian benefits,
colleges have not always supported the study of
philosophy.
38
A) NO CHANGE
B) Thus,
C) Moreover,
D) However,

30 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
More recently, colleges have recognized the 39
practicality and increasing popularity of studying Which choice most effectively combines the
sentences at the underlined portion?
philosophy and have markedly increased the number of
A) writing as
philosophy programs offered. By 2008 there were B) writing, and these results can be
817 programs, up from 765 a decade before. In addition, C) writing, which can also be
the number of four-year graduates in philosophy has D) writing when the results are
grown 46 percent in a decade. Also, studies have found

40
that those students who major in philosophy often do
A) NO CHANGE
better than students from other majors in both verbal B) have scored
reasoning and analytical 39 writing. These results can be C) scores
measured by standardized test scores. On the Graduate D) scoring
Record Examination (GRE), for example, students

41
intending to study philosophy in graduate school 40 has
A) NO CHANGE
scored higher than students in all but four other majors. B) students majoring
These days, many 41 student’s majoring in C) students major
philosophy have no intention of becoming philosophers; D) student’s majors
instead they plan to apply those skills to other disciplines.

42
Law and business specifically benefit from the
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
complicated theoretical issues raised in the study of following sentence.
philosophy, but philosophy can be just as useful in The ancient Greek philosopher Plato, for example,
engineering or any field requiring complex analytic skills. wrote many of his works in the form of dialogues.
Should the writer make this addition here?
42 That these skills are transferable across professions
A) Yes, because it reinforces the passage’s main
point about the employability of philosophy
majors.
B) Yes, because it acknowledges a common
counterargument to the passage’s central claim.
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus by
introducing a new idea that goes unexplained.
D) No, because it undermines the passage’s claim
about the employability of philosophy majors.

31 CO NTI N U E
2 2
43 which makes them especially beneficial to
.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
43
twenty-first-century students. Because today’s students A) NO CHANGE
B) that
can expect to hold multiple jobs—some of which may not
C) and
even exist yet—during 44 our lifetime, studying
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
philosophy allows them to be flexible and adaptable.
High demand, advanced exam scores, and varied 44
professional skills all argue for maintaining and A) NO CHANGE
enhancing philosophy courses and majors within B) one’s

C) his or her
academic institutions.
D) their
STOP

32
3 3
Math Test – No Calculator
For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.
s√2
r c 2x 60° s 45°
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w

V = wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

34 CO NTI N U E
3 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1 3
x−1 On Saturday afternoon, Armand sent m text
If = k and k = 3, what is the value of x ? messages each hour for 5 hours, and Tyrone sent p
3
text messages each hour for 4 hours. Which of the
A) 2 following represents the total number of messages
B) 4 sent by Armand and Tyrone on Saturday afternoon?
C) 9 A) 9mp
D) 10
B) 20mp
C) 5m + 4p
D) 4m + 5p
2
For i = −1 , what is the sum (7 + 3i ) + (−8 + 9i) ?
A) −1 + 12i 4
B) −1 − 6i Kathy is a repair technician for a phone company.
C) 15 + 12i Each week, she receives a batch of phones that need
D) 15 − 6i repairs. The number of phones that she has left to fix
at the end of each day can be estimated with the
equation P = 108 − 23d, where P is the number of
phones left and d is the number of days she has
worked that week. What is the meaning of the
value 108 in this equation?
A) Kathy will complete the repairs within 108 days.
B) Kathy starts each week with 108 phones to fix.
C) Kathy repairs phones at a rate of 108 per hour.
D) Kathy repairs phones at a rate of 108 per day.

35 CO NTI N U E
3 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
5 7
r ⎞N
2 2 2 2 2 2
(x y − 3y + 5xy ) − (− x y + 3xy − 3y ) ⎛ r ⎞⎛
⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎜1 + ⎟⎟
Which of the following is equivalent to the ⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠⎜⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠
m= N P
expression above? ⎛ r ⎞
⎜⎜1 + ⎟⎟ −1
⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠
A) 4x 2y 2
The formula above gives the monthly payment m
B) 8xy 2 − 6y 2 needed to pay off a loan of P dollars at r percent
annual interest over N months. Which of the
C) 2x 2y + 2xy 2
following gives P in terms of m, r, and N ?
D) 2x 2y + 8xy 2 − 6y 2
⎛ r ⎞⎛ r ⎞N
⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎜⎜1 + ⎟⎟
⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠
A) P = N m
⎛ r ⎞
⎜⎜1 + ⎟⎟ − 1
⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠
⎛ r ⎞N
⎜⎜1 + ⎟⎟ − 1
⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠
6 B) P = N m
⎛ r ⎞⎛ r ⎞
h = 3a + 28.6 ⎜⎜ ⎟⎜1 + ⎟⎟
⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎟⎠⎜⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎠
A pediatrician uses the model above to estimate the
height h of a boy, in inches, in terms of the boy’s
age a, in years, between the ages of 2 and 5. Based ⎛ r ⎞
C) P = ⎜⎜ ⎟m
⎜⎝ 1,200 ⎟⎟⎠
on the model, what is the estimated increase, in
inches, of a boy’s height each year?
A) 3
B) 5.7
C) 9.5 ⎛ 1,200 ⎞
D) P = ⎜⎜ ⎟m
D) 14.3 ⎜⎝ r ⎟⎟⎠

36 CO NTI N U E
3 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
8 11
a 4b b = 2.35 + 0.25x
If = 2, what is the value of ?
b a c = 1.75 + 0.40x
A) 0 In the equations above, b and c represent the price
B) 1 per pound, in dollars, of beef and chicken,
C) 2 respectively, x weeks after July 1 during last
summer. What was the price per pound of beef when
D) 4 it was equal to the price per pound of chicken?
A) $2.60
B) $2.85
C) $2.95
D) $3.35
9
3x + 4y = −23
2y − x = −19
What is the solution (x, y ) to the system of equations
above? 12
A) (−5, −2)
A line in the xy-plane passes through the origin and
B) (3, −8)
1
C) (4, −6) has a slope of . Which of the following points lies
7
D) (9, −6)
on the line?
A) (0, 7)
B) (1, 7)
C) (7, 7)
D) (14, 2)
10
g (x ) = ax 2 + 24
For the function g defined above, a is a constant
and g(4) = 8. What is the value of g(−4) ?
A) 8
B) 0
C) −1
D) −8

37 CO NTI N U E
3 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
13 15
If x > 3, which of the following is equivalent If (ax + 2)(bx + 7) = 15x 2 + cx + 14 for all values of
x, and a + b = 8, what are the two possible
1
to 1 1 ? values for c ?
+
x+2 x+3 A) 3 and 5
B) 6 and 35
2x + 5 C) 10 and 21
A) 2
x + 5x + 6 D) 31 and 41
x 2 + 5x + 6
B)
2x + 5
C) 2x + 5
D) x 2 + 5x + 6
14
8x
If 3x − y = 12 , what is the value of y ?
2
A) 212
B) 44
C) 82
D) The value cannot be determined from the
information given.

38 CO NTI N U E
3 3
7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 16–20, solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.

39 CO NTI N U E
3 3
.......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
16 18
If t > 0 and t 2 − 4 = 0 , what is the value of t ? x + y = −9

x + 2y = −25
According to the system of equations above, what is
the value of x ?
17
A
19
In a right triangle, one angle measures x°, where

4
sin x ° = . What is cos(90° − x °) ?
x feet D 5
B
E
C
20
A summer camp counselor wants to find a length, x,
If a = 5 2 and 2a = 2x , what is the value of x ?
in feet, across a lake as represented in the sketch
above. The lengths represented by AB, EB, BD, and
CD on the sketch were determined to be 1800 feet,
1400 feet, 700 feet, and 800 feet, respectively.
Segments AC and DE intersect at B, and ∠ AEB
and ∠ CDB have the same measure. What is the
value of x ?
STOP

40
4 4
Math Test – Calculator
For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.
s√2
r c 2x 60° s 45°
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w

V = wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

42 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1 3
John runs at different speeds as part of his training s t
program. The graph shows his target heart rate at
different times during his workout. On which 1
interval is the target heart rate strictly increasing then
strictly decreasing?
2
m
Target heart rate (beats per minute)
160
120 In the figure above, lines A and m are parallel and

lines s and t are parallel. If the measure of ∠1 is
35° , what is the measure of ∠2 ?
80 A) 35°
B) 55°
40 C) 70°
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 D) 145°
Time (minutes)
A) Between 0 and 30 minutes
B) Between 40 and 60 minutes
C) Between 50 and 65 minutes
D) Between 70 and 90 minutes
4
If 16 + 4x is 10 more than 14, what is the
value of 8x ?
A) 2
B) 6
2 C) 16
If y = kx , where k is a constant, and y = 24 when D) 80
x = 6 , what is the value of y when x = 5 ?
A) 6
B) 15
C) 20
D) 23

43 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
5 6
Which of the following graphs best shows a strong
1 decagram = 10 grams
negative association between d and t ?
1,000 milligrams = 1 gram
A) t
A hospital stores one type of medicine in 2-decagram
containers. Based on the information given in the
box above, how many 1-milligram doses are there in
one 2-decagram container?
d
A) 0.002
B) t B) 200
C) 2,000
D) 20,000
C) t
D) t

44 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
7 8
Rooftop Solar Panel For what value of n is n − 1 + 1 equal to 0 ?
Installations in Five Cities
9 A) 0
8 B) 1
7 C) 2
6 D) There is no such value of n.
5
4
3
2
1
0
A B C D E
City
The number of rooftops with solar panel installations

in 5 cities is shown in the graph above. If the total
number of installations is 27,500, what is an
appropriate label for the vertical axis of the graph?
A) Number of installations (in tens)
B) Number of installations (in hundreds)
C) Number of installations (in thousands)
D) Number of installations (in tens of thousands)

45 CO NTI N U E
4 4
▼
..............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
11
Questions 9 and 10 refer to the following information.
Which of the following numbers is NOT a solution
a = 1,052 + 1.08t of the inequality 3x − 5 ≥ 4x − 3 ?
The speed of a sound wave in air depends on the air A) −1
temperature. The formula above shows the relationship
B) −2
between a, the speed of a sound wave, in feet per second,
and t, the air temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit (°F). C) −3
D) −5
9
Which of the following expresses the air temperature
in terms of the speed of a sound wave?
a − 1,052
A) t =
1.08
12
a + 1,052
B) t = Number of Seeds in Each of 12 Apples
1.08
Number of apples 5
1,052 − a 4
C) t = 3
1.08
2
1.08 1
D) t =
a + 1,052 0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Number of seeds
Based on the histogram above, of the following,

which is closest to the average (arithmetic mean)
number of seeds per apple?
10 A) 4
At which of the following air temperatures will the B) 5
speed of a sound wave be closest to 1,000 feet per C) 6
second?
D) 7
A) −46°F
B) −48°F
C) −49°F
D) −50°F

46 CO NTI N U E
4 4
13
Course
Algebra
Algebra I Geometry Total
II
Gender Female 35 53 62 150
Male 44 59 57 160
Total 79 112 119 310
A group of tenth-grade students responded to a survey that asked which math course they were currently enrolled in.
The survey data were broken down as shown in the table above. Which of the following categories accounts for
approximately 19 percent of all the survey respondents?
A) Females taking Geometry
B) Females taking Algebra II
C) Males taking Geometry
D) Males taking Algebra I
...................................................................................................................................................................................
14
Lengths of Fish (in inches)

8 9 9 9 10 10 11
11 12 12 12 12 13 13
13 14 14 15 15 16 24
The table above lists the lengths, to the nearest inch,

of a random sample of 21 brown bullhead fish. The
outlier measurement of 24 inches is an error. Of the
mean, median, and range of the values listed, which
will change the most if the 24-inch measurement is
removed from the data?
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) They will all change by the same amount.

47 CO NTI N U E
4 4
▼
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
16
Which of the following represents the relationship
Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following between h and C ?
information.
Total Cost of Renting A) C = 5h

C a Boat by the Hour
3
20 B) C = h+5
4
18
16
Total cost (dollars)
C) C = 3h + 5
14
12
D) h = 3C
10
8
6
▲
4
2
0 h
0 1 2 3 4 5
Time (hours)
The graph above displays the total cost C, in dollars, of

renting a boat for h hours.
17
y
15
What does the C-intercept represent in the graph?
A) The initial cost of renting the boat y = f(x)
B) The total number of boats rented
C) The total number of hours the boat is rented 1
D) The increase in cost to rent the boat for each x
O 1
additional hour
The complete graph of the function f is shown in the

xy-plane above. For what value of x is the value of
f (x ) at its minimum?
A) −5
B) −3
C) −2
D) 3

48 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
18 19
y < −x + a A food truck sells salads for $6.50 each and drinks for
y > x+b $2.00 each. The food truck’s revenue from selling a
total of 209 salads and drinks in one day was
In the xy-plane, if (0, 0) is a solution to the system of $836.50. How many salads were sold that day?
inequalities above, which of the following
A) 77
relationships between a and b must be true?
B) 93
A) a > b C) 99
B) b > a D) 105
C) a > b
D) a = − b

49 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
20 21
Alma bought a laptop computer at a store that gave a Dreams Recalled during One Week
20 percent discount off its original price. The total
amount she paid to the cashier was p dollars, None 1 to 4 5 or more Total
including an 8 percent sales tax on the discounted Group X 15 28 57 100
price. Which of the following represents the original
price of the computer in terms of p ? Group Y 21 11 68 100
Total 36 39 125 200
A) 0.88p
The data in the table above were produced by a sleep
p researcher studying the number of dreams people
B) recall when asked to record their dreams for one
0.88
week. Group X consisted of 100 people who
observed early bedtimes, and Group Y consisted of
C) (0.8)(1.08) p
100 people who observed later bedtimes. If a person
is chosen at random from those who recalled
p at least 1 dream, what is the probability that the
D)
(0.8)(1.08) person belonged to Group Y ?
68
A)
100
79
B)
100
79
C)
164
164
D)
200

50 CO NTI N U E
4 4
▼
Questions 22 and 23 refer to the following information.
Annual Budgets for Different Programs in Kansas, 2007 to 2010
Year
Program
2007 2008 2009 2010
Agriculture/natural resources 373,904 358,708 485,807 488,106
Education 2,164,607 2,413,984 2,274,514 3,008,036
General government 14,347,325 12,554,845 10,392,107 14,716,155
Highways and transportation 1,468,482 1,665,636 1,539,480 1,773,893
Human resources 4,051,050 4,099,067 4,618,444 5,921,379
Public safety 263,463 398,326 355,935 464,233
The table above lists the annual budget, in thousands of dollars, for each of six different state
programs in Kansas from 2007 to 2010.
.....................................................................................................................................
22 23
Which of the following best approximates the Of the following, which program’s ratio of its
average rate of change in the annual budget for 2007 budget to its 2010 budget is closest to the
agriculture/natural resources in Kansas from 2008 to human resources program’s ratio of its 2007 budget
2010 ? to its 2010 budget?
A) $50,000,000 per year A) Agriculture/natural resources
B) $65,000,000 per year B) Education
C) $75,000,000 per year C) Highways and transportation
D) $130,000,000 per year D) Public safety

51 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
24 26
Katarina is a botanist studying the production of
Which of the following is an equation of a circle in pears by two types of pear trees. She noticed that
Type A trees produced 20 percent more pears
the xy-plane with center (0, 4) and a radius with than Type B trees did. Based on Katarina’s
observation, if the Type A trees produced 144 pears,
⎛4 ⎞ how many pears did the Type B trees produce?
endpoint ⎜⎜ , 5⎟⎟ ?
⎜⎝ 3 ⎟⎠
A) 115
25 B) 120
A) x 2 + ( y − 4)2 =
9 C) 124
25 D) 173
B) x 2 + ( y + 4)2 =
9
5
C) x 2 + ( y − 4)2 =
3
3
D) x 2 + ( y + 4)2 =
5
27
A square field measures 10 meters by 10 meters.
Ten students each mark off a randomly selected
region of the field; each region is square and has side
lengths of 1 meter, and no two regions overlap. The
students count the earthworms contained in the soil
25 to a depth of 5 centimeters beneath the ground’s
surface in each region. The results are shown in the
h = − 4.9t 2 + 25t table below.
The equation above expresses the approximate
Number of Number of
height h, in meters, of a ball t seconds after it is Region Region
earthworms earthworms
launched vertically upward from the ground with an
A 107 F 141
initial velocity of 25 meters per second. After
approximately how many seconds will the ball hit the B 147 G 150
ground? C 146 H 154
D 135 I 176
A) 3.5 E 149 J 166
B) 4.0
C) 4.5 Which of the following is a reasonable
approximation of the number of earthworms to a
D) 5.0
depth of 5 centimeters beneath the ground’s surface
in the entire field?
A) 150
B) 1,500
C) 15,000
D) 150,000

52 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
28 30
y y
20 y = x2 – 2x – 15
II I
15
x
10
III IV 5
x
–5 – 4 –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
–5
–10
If the system of inequalities y ≥ 2x + 1 and
–15
1 A
y> x − 1 is graphed in the xy-plane above, which – 20
2
quadrant contains no solutions to the system?
Which of the following is an equivalent form of the
A) Quadrant II equation of the graph shown in the xy-plane above,
B) Quadrant III from which the coordinates of vertex A can be
identified as constants in the equation?
C) Quadrant IV
D) There are solutions in all four quadrants. A) y = (x + 3)(x − 5)
B) y = (x − 3)(x + 5)
C) y = x(x − 2) − 15
D) y = (x − 1)2 − 16
29
For a polynomial p(x ) , the value of p(3) is −2.
Which of the following must be true about p(x ) ?
A) x − 5 is a factor of p(x ) .
B) x − 2 is a factor of p(x ) .
C) x + 2 is a factor of p(x ) .
D) The remainder when p(x ) is divided
by x − 3 is −2.

53 CO NTI N U E
4 4
7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 31–38, solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.

54 CO NTI N U E
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
31 33
Wyatt can husk at least 12 dozen ears of corn per Number of Portable Media Players
hour and at most 18 dozen ears of corn per hour. Sold Worldwide Each Year from 2006 to 2011
Based on this information, what is a possible amount
of time, in hours, that it could take Wyatt to husk 180
Number sold (millions)

72 dozen ears of corn? 160
140
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
32 Year
The posted weight limit for a covered wooden bridge
in Pennsylvania is 6000 pounds. A delivery truck
that is carrying x identical boxes each weighing According to the line graph above, the number of
14 pounds will pass over the bridge. If the combined portable media players sold in 2008 is what fraction
weight of the empty delivery truck and its driver is of the number sold in 2011 ?
4500 pounds, what is the maximum possible value
for x that will keep the combined weight of the
truck, driver, and boxes below the bridge’s posted
weight limit?
34
A local television station sells time slots for programs
in 30-minute intervals. If the station operates
24 hours per day, every day of the week, what is the
total number of 30-minute time slots the station can
sell for Tuesday and Wednesday?

55 CO NTI N U E
4 4
▼
.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
35
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following
information.
Jessica opened a bank account that earns 2 percent

8 yards interest compounded annually. Her initial deposit was
$100, and she uses the expression $100(x )t to find the
value of the account after t years.
37
A dairy farmer uses a storage silo that is in the shape
of the right circular cylinder above. If the volume of What is the value of x in the expression?
the silo is 72π cubic yards, what is the diameter of
the base of the cylinder, in yards?
38
Jessica’s friend Tyshaun found an account that earns
36 2.5 percent interest compounded annually. Tyshaun
made an initial deposit of $100 into this account at
1 the same time Jessica made a deposit of $100 into her
h(x ) = 2
(x − 5) + 4(x − 5) + 4 account. After 10 years, how much more money will
For what value of x is the function h above Tyshaun’s initial deposit have earned than Jessica’s
undefined? initial deposit? (Round your answer to the nearest
cent and ignore the dollar sign when gridding your
response.)
STOP

56
YOUR NAME (PRINT)
LAST FIRST MI
TEST CENTER
NUMBER NAME OF TEST CENTER ROOM NUMBER
general directions
– You may work on only one section at a time.
– If you finish a section before time is called, check the codes below are unique to your test book.
your work on that section. You may NOT turn to any copy them on your answer sheet in boxes 8 and 9 and fill
other section. in the corresponding circles exactly as shown.
Marking answers TEST ID

9 (Copy from back of test book.)
– Be sure to mark your answer sheet properly.
COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF
INCOMPLETE MARKS
– You must use a No. 2 pencil. 8 FORM CODE
– Carefully mark only one answer for each question. (Copy and grid as on
back of test book.)
– Make sure you fill the entire circle darkly and
completely.
A A A A 0 0 0
– Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet.
B B B B 1 1 1
– If you erase, do so completely. Incomplete erasures may C C C C 2 2 2
be scored as intended answers. D D D D 3 3 3
– Use only the answer spaces that correspond to the E E E E 4 4 4
question numbers. F F F F 5 5 5
G G G G 6 6 6
H H H H 7 7 7
Using YoUr test Book I I I I 8 8 8
– You may use the test book for scratch work, but you J J J J 9 9 9
will not receive credit for anything that you write in your K K K K
L L L L
test book.
M M M M
– After time has been called, you may not transfer N N N N
answers from your test book to your answer sheet or fill O O O O
in circles. P P P P
– You may not fold or remove pages or portions of a page Q Q Q Q

R R R R
from this book, or take the book or answer sheet from
S S S S
the testing room.
T T T T
U U U U
scoring V V V V
Follow this link for more
– For each correct answer, you receive one point. W W W W
X X X X information on scoring
– You do not lose points for wrong answers; therefore,
Y Y Y Y your practice test:
you should try to answer every question even if you are
not sure of the correct answer.
Z Z Z Z
www.sat.org/scoring
Ideas contained in passages for this test, some of which are excerpted or adapted from
5KSA09 published material, do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.
SAT Practice Essay #1
®
DIRECTIONS REMINDERS
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively — Do not write your essay in
you can read and comprehend a passage and write an essay this booklet. Only what you
analyzing the passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate write on the lined pages of
that you have read the passage carefully, present a clear and your answer booklet will be
logical analysis, and use language precisely. evaluated.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer — An off-topic essay will not
booklet; except for the Planning Page of the answer booklet, be evaluated.
you will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins,
and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that Follow this link for more
people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read information on scoring
what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing your practice test:
is legible to those readers. www.sat.org/scoring
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay

This cover is representative
in response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
of what you’ll see on test day.
THIS TEST BOOKLET MUST NOT BE TAKEN FROM THE ROOM. UNAUTHORIZED
REPRODUCTION OR USE OF ANY PART OF THIS TEST BOOKLET IS PROHIBITED.
© 2015 The College Board. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
As you read the passage below, consider how Jimmy Carter uses
• evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.

• reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.
• stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to emotion,
to add power to the ideas expressed.
Adapted from former US President Jimmy Carter, Foreword to Arctic National

Wildlife Refuge: Seasons of Life and Land, A Photographic Journey by
Subhankar Banerjee. ©2003 by Subhankar Banerjee.
1 The Arctic National Wildlife Refuge stands alone as America’s last truly great
wilderness. This magnificent area is as vast as it is wild, from the windswept coastal
plain where polar bears and caribou give birth, to the towering Brooks Range where
Dall sheep cling to cliffs and wolves howl in the midnight sun.
2 More than a decade ago, [my wife] Rosalynn and I had the fortunate opportunity to
camp and hike in these regions of the Arctic Refuge. During bright July days, we
walked along ancient caribou trails and studied the brilliant mosaic of wildflowers,
mosses, and lichens that hugged the tundra. There was a timeless quality about this
great land. As the never-setting sun circled above the horizon, we watched muskox,
those shaggy survivors of the Ice Age, lumber along braided rivers that meander
toward the Beaufort Sea.
3 One of the most unforgettable and humbling experiences of our lives occurred on the
coastal plain. We had hoped to see caribou during our trip, but to our amazement, we
witnessed the migration of tens of thousands of caribou with their newborn calves. In
a matter of a few minutes, the sweep of tundra before us became flooded with life,
with the sounds of grunting animals and clicking hooves filling the air. The dramatic
procession of the Porcupine caribou herd was a once-in-a-lifetime wildlife spectacle.
We understand firsthand why some have described this special birthplace as
“America’s Serengeti.”
4 Standing on the coastal plain, I was saddened to think of the tragedy that might occur
if this great wilderness was consumed by a web of roads and pipelines, drilling rigs
and industrial facilities. Such proposed developments would forever destroy the
wilderness character of America’s only Arctic Refuge and disturb countless numbers
of animals that depend on this northernmost terrestrial ecosystem.
5 The extraordinary wilderness and wildlife values of the Arctic Refuge have long been
recognized by both Republican and Democratic presidents. In 1960, President
Dwight D. Eisenhower established the original 8.9 million-acre Arctic National
Wildlife Range to preserve its unique wildlife, wilderness, and recreational values.
Twenty years later, I signed the Alaska National Interest Lands Conservation Act,
monumental legislation that safeguarded more than 100 million acres of national
parks, refuges, and forests in Alaska. This law specifically created the Arctic National
Wildlife Refuge, doubled the size of the former range, and restricted development in
areas that are clearly incompatible with oil exploration.
6 Since I left office, there have been repeated proposals to open the Arctic Refuge
coastal plain to oil drilling. Those attempts have failed because of tremendous
opposition by the American people, including the Gwich’in Athabascan Indians of
Alaska and Canada, indigenous people whose culture has depended on the Porcupine
caribou herd for thousands of years. Having visited many aboriginal peoples around
the world, I can empathize with the Gwich’ins’ struggle to safeguard one of their
precious human rights.
7 We must look beyond the alleged benefits of a short-term economic gain and focus
on what is really at stake. At best, the Arctic Refuge might provide 1 to 2 percent of
the oil our country consumes each day. We can easily conserve more than that
amount by driving more fuel-efficient vehicles. Instead of tearing open the heart of
our greatest refuge, we should use our resources more wisely.
8 There are few places on earth as wild and free as the Arctic Refuge. It is a symbol of
our national heritage, a remnant of frontier America that our first settlers once called
wilderness. Little of that precious wilderness remains.
9 It will be a grand triumph for America if we can preserve the Arctic Refuge in its
pure, untrammeled state. To leave this extraordinary land alone would be the greatest
gift we could pass on to future generations.
Write an essay in which you explain how Jimmy Carter builds an argument to
persuade his audience that the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge should not be
developed for industry. In your essay, analyze how Carter uses one or more of
the features listed in the box above (or features of your own choice) to
strengthen the logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your
analysis focuses on the most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Carter’s claims, but
rather explain how Carter builds an argument to persuade his audience.
YOUR NAME (PRINT)
LAST FIRST MI
TEST CENTER
NUMBER NAME OF TEST CENTER ROOM NUMBER
Ideas contained in the passage for this test, which is excerpted or adapted from
5LS05E published material, do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.
Answer Explanations
®
© 2015 The College Board. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. 5KSA09
Answer Explanations
Section 1: Reading Test

QUESTION 1.
Choice B is the best answer. In the passage, a young man (Akira) asks a
mother (Chie) for permission to marry her daughter (Naomi). The request
was certainly surprising to the mother, as can be seen from line 47, which
states that prior to Akira’s question Chie “had no idea” the request was coming.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage depicts two characters engaged

in a civil conversation, with Chie being impressed with Akira’s “sincerity”
and finding herself “starting to like him.” Choice C is incorrect because
the passage is focused on the idea of Akira’s and Naomi’s present lives and
possible futures. Choice D is incorrect because the interactions between
Chie and Akira are polite, not critical; for example, Chie views Akira with
“amusement,” not animosity.
QUESTION 2.
Choice B is the best answer. The passage centers on a night when a young
man tries to get approval to marry a woman’s daughter. The passage includes
detailed descriptions of setting (a “winter’s eve” and a “cold rain,” lines 5-6);
character (Akira’s “soft, refined” voice, line 33; Akira’s eyes “sh[ining] with
sincerity,” line 35); and plot (“Naomi was silent. She stood a full half minute
looking straight into Chie’s eyes. Finally, she spoke,” lines 88-89).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage focuses on a nontraditional mar-

riage proposal. Choice C is incorrect because the passage concludes without
resolution to the question of whether Akira and Naomi will receive permis-
sion to marry. Choice D is incorrect because the passage repeatedly makes
clear that for Chie, her encounter with Akira is momentous and unsettling,
as when Akira acknowledges in line 73 that he has “startled” her.
1
QUESTION 3.
Choice C is the best answer. Akira “came directly, breaking all tradition,”
(line 1) when he approached Chie and asked to marry her daughter, and he
“ask[ed] directly,” without “a go-between” (line 65) or “mediation,” because
doing otherwise would have taken too much time.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in these contexts, “directly” does

not mean in a frank, confident, or precise manner.
QUESTION 4.
Choice A is the best answer. Akira is very concerned Chie will find his mar-
riage proposal inappropriate because he did not follow traditional protocol and
use a “go-between” (line 65). This is clear in lines 63-64, when Akira says to
Chie “Please don’t judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal.”
Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Akira

worries that Chie will mistake his earnestness for immaturity. Choice C is incor-
rect because while Akira recognizes that his unscheduled visit is a nuisance, his
larger concern is that Chie will reject him due to the inappropriateness of his
proposal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that
Akira worries Chie will underestimate the sincerity of his emotions.
QUESTION 5.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 63-64, Akira says to Chie, “Please
don’t judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal.” This reveals
Akira’s concern that Chie may say no to the proposal simply because Akira
did not follow traditional practices.
Choices A, B, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice A is incorrect because line 33 merely describes
Akira’s voice as “soft, refined.” Choice B is incorrect because lines 49-51
reflect Chie’s perspective, not Akira’s. Choice D is incorrect because lines
71-72 indicate only that Akira was speaking in an eager and forthright matter.
QUESTION 6.
Choice D is the best answer because Akira clearly treats Chie with respect,
including “bow[ing]” (line 26) to her, calling her “Madame” (line 31), and
looking at her with “a deferential peek” (line 34). Akira does not offer Chie
utter deference, though, as he asks to marry Naomi after he concedes that he
is not following protocol and admits to being a “disruption” (line 31).
Choice A is incorrect because while Akira conveys respect to Chie, there is

no evidence in the passage that he feels affection for her. Choice B is incor-
rect because neither objectivity nor impartiality accurately describes how
Akira addresses Chie. Choice C is incorrect because Akira conveys respect
to Chie and takes the conversation seriously.
2
QUESTION 7.
Choice D is the best answer. The first paragraph (lines 1-4) reflects on how
Akira approached Chie to ask for her daughter’s hand in marriage. In these
lines, the narrator is wondering whether Chie would have been more likely
to say yes to Akira’s proposal if Akira had followed tradition: “Akira came
directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he
asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a go-between—would
Chie have been more receptive?” Thus, the main purpose of the first para-
graph is to examine why Chie reacted a certain way to Akira’s proposal.
Choice A is incorrect because the first paragraph describes only one aspect of
Japanese culture (marriage proposals) but not the culture as a whole. Choice B
is incorrect because the first paragraph implies a criticism of Akira’s individual
marriage proposal but not the entire tradition of Japanese marriage proposals.
Choice C is incorrect because the narrator does not question a suggestion.
QUESTION 8.
Choice B is the best answer. In line 1, the narrator suggests that Akira’s
direct approach broke “all tradition.” The narrator then wonders if Akira had
“followed form,” or the tradition expected of him, would Chie have been
more receptive to his proposal. In this context, following “form” thus means
following a certain tradition or custom.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “form” does not
mean the way something looks (appearance), the way it is built (structure),
or its essence (nature).
QUESTION 9.
Choice C is the best answer. Akira states that his unexpected meeting with
Chie occurred only because of a “matter of urgency,” which he explains as “an
opportunity to go to America, as dentist for Seattle’s Japanese community”
(lines 41-42). Akira decides to directly speak to Chie because Chie’s response
to his marriage proposal affects whether Akira accepts the job offer.
Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Akira is

worried his parents will not approve of Naomi. Choice B is incorrect because
Akira has “an understanding” with Naomi (line 63). Choice D is incorrect;
while Akira may know that Chie is unaware of his feelings for Naomi, this is
not what he is referring to when he mentions “a matter of urgency.”
QUESTION 10.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 39-42, Akira clarifies that the “mat-
ter of urgency” is that he has “an opportunity to go to America, as dentist
for Seattle’s Japanese community.” Akira needs Chie’s answer to his marriage
proposal so he can decide whether to accept the job in Seattle.
3
Choices A, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice A is incorrect because in line 39 Akira apologizes
for interrupting Chie’s quiet evening. Choice C is incorrect because lines
58-59 address the seriousness of Akira’s request, not its urgency. Choice D
is incorrect because line 73 shows only that Akira’s proposal has “startled”
Chie and does not explain why his request is time-sensitive.
QUESTION 11.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 1-9 include examples of how many
people shop (“millions of shoppers”), how much money they spend (“over
$30 billion at retail stores in the month of December alone”), and the many
occasions that lead to shopping for gifts (“including weddings, birthdays,
anniversaries, graduations, and baby showers.”). Combined, these examples
show how frequently people in the US shop for gifts.
Choice B is incorrect because even though the authors mention that

“$30 billion” had been spent in retail stores in one month, that figure is
never discussed as an increase (or a decrease). Choice C is incorrect because
lines 1-9 provide a context for the amount of shopping that occurs in the US,
but the anxiety (or “dread”) it might cause is not introduced until later in the
passage. Choice D is incorrect because lines 1-9 do more than highlight the
number of different occasions that lead to gift-giving.
QUESTION 12.
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 9-10 state “This frequent experience
of gift-giving can engender ambivalent feelings in gift-givers.” In the sub-
sequent sentences, those “ambivalent” feelings are further exemplified as
conflicted feelings, as shopping is said to be something that “[m]any relish”
(lines 10-11) and “many dread” (line 14).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “ambivalent” does

not mean feelings that are unrealistic, apprehensive, or supportive.
QUESTION 13.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the authors clearly state that
some people believe gift-giving can help a relationship because it “offers a
powerful means to build stronger bonds with one’s closest peers.”
Choice A is incorrect because even though the authors state that some
shoppers make their choices based on “egocentrism,” (line 33) there is
no evidence in the passage that people view shopping as a form of self-
expression. Choice B is incorrect because the passage implies that shopping
is an expensive habit. Choice C is incorrect because the passage states that
most people have purchased and received gifts, but it never implies that peo-
ple are required to reciprocate the gift-giving process.
4
QUESTION 14.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the authors suggest that people
value gift-giving because it may strengthen their relationships with others:
“Many relish the opportunity to buy presents because gift-giving offers a
powerful means to build stronger bonds with one’s closest peers.”
Choices B, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice B is incorrect because lines 22-23 discuss how
people often buy gifts that the recipients would not purchase. Choice C is
incorrect because lines 31-32 explain how gift-givers often fail to consider
the recipients’ preferences. Choice D is incorrect because lines 44-47 suggest
that the cost of a gift may not correlate to a recipient’s appreciation of it.
QUESTION 15.
Choice A is the best answer. The “deadweight loss” mentioned in the second
paragraph is the significant monetary difference between what a gift-giver
would pay for something and what a gift-recipient would pay for the same
item. That difference would be predictable to social psychologists, whose
research “has found that people often struggle to take account of others’
perspectives—their insights are subject to egocentrism, social projection,
and multiple attribution errors” (lines 31-34).
Choices B, C, and D are all incorrect because lines 31-34 make clear that
social psychologists would expect a disconnect between gift-givers and gift-
recipients, not that they would question it, be disturbed by it, or find it sur-
prising or unprecedented.
QUESTION 16.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 41-44 suggest that gift-givers assume
a correlation between the cost of a gift and how well-received it will be:
“. . . gift-givers equate how much they spend with how much recipients will
appreciate the gift (the more expensive the gift, the stronger a gift-recipient’s
feelings of appreciation).” However, the authors suggest this assumption may
be incorrect or “unfounded” (line 47), as gift-recipients “may not construe
smaller and larger gifts as representing smaller and larger signals of thought-
fulness and consideration” (lines 63-65).
Choices A, B, and D are all incorrect because the passage neither states
nor implies that the gift-givers’ assumption is insincere, unreasonable, or
substantiated.
QUESTION 17.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 63-65 suggest that the assumption made
by gift-givers in lines 41-44 may be incorrect. The gift-givers assume that
recipients will have a greater appreciation for costly gifts than for less costly
5
gifts, but the authors suggest this relationship may be incorrect, as gift-
recipients “may not construe smaller and larger gifts as representing smaller
and larger signals of thoughtfulness and consideration” (lines 63-65).
Choices A and D are incorrect because lines 53-55 and 75-78 address the
question of “why” gift-givers make specific assumptions rather than address-
ing the validity of these assumptions. Choice B is incorrect because lines
55-60 focus on the reasons people give gifts to others.
QUESTION 18.
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 53-55 state that “Perhaps givers believe
that bigger (i.e., more expensive) gifts convey stronger signals of thought-
fulness and consideration.” In this context, saying that more expensive gifts
“convey” stronger signals means the gifts send, or communicate, stronger
signals to the recipients.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, to “convey” some-

thing does not mean to transport it (physically move something), coun-
teract it (act in opposition to something), or exchange it (trade one thing
for another).
QUESTION 19.
Choice A is the best answer. The paragraph examines how gift-givers
believe expensive gifts are more thoughtful than less expensive gifts and
will be more valued by recipients. The work of Camerer and others offers
an explanation for the gift-givers’ reasoning: “gift-givers attempt to signal
their positive attitudes toward the intended recipient and their willingness to
invest resources in a future relationship” (lines 57-60).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the theory articulated by Camerer

and others is used to explain an idea put forward by the authors (“givers
believe that bigger . . . gifts convey stronger signals”), not to introduce an
argument, question a motive, or support a conclusion.
QUESTION 20.
Choice B is the best answer. The graph clearly shows that gift-givers believe
that a “more valuable” gift will be more appreciated than a “less valuable
gift.” According to the graph, gift-givers believe the monetary value of a gift
will determine whether that gift is well received or not.
Choice A is incorrect because the graph does not suggest that gift-givers are
aware of gift-recipients’ appreciation levels. Choices C and D are incorrect
because neither the gift-givers’ desire for the gifts they purchase nor the gift-
givers’ relationship with the gift-recipients is addressed in the graph.
6
QUESTION 21.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 69-75 explain that while people are often
both gift-givers and gift-receivers, they struggle to apply information they
learned as a gift-giver to a time when they were a gift-receiver: “Yet, despite the
extensive experience that people have as both givers and receivers, they often
struggle to transfer information gained from one role (e.g., as a giver) and
apply it in another, complementary role (e.g., as a receiver).” The authors sug-
gest that the disconnect between how much appreciation a gift-giver thinks a
gift merits and how much appreciation a gift-recipient displays for the gift may
be caused by both individuals’ inability to comprehend the other’s perspective.
Choices B and C are incorrect because neither the passage nor the graph
addresses the idea that society has become more materialistic or that there is
a growing opposition to gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect because the pas-
sage emphasizes that gift-givers and gift-recipients fail to understand each
other’s perspective, but it offers no evidence that the disconnect results only
from a failure to understand the other’s intentions.
QUESTION 22.
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 2-4 of the passage describe DNA as
“a very long chain, the backbone of which consists of a regular alternation of
sugar and phosphate groups.” The backbone of DNA, in other words, is the
main structure of a chain made up of repeating units of sugar and phosphate.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage describes DNA on the molecular

level only and never mentions the spinal column of organisms. Choice C is
incorrect because the passage describes the backbone of the molecule as
having “a regular alternation” of sugar and phosphate, not one or the other.
Choice D is incorrect because the nitrogenous bases are not the main struc-
tural unit of DNA; rather, they are attached only to the repeating units of sugar.
QUESTION 23.
Choice D is the best answer. The authors explain that hydrogen bonds join
together pairs of nitrogenous bases, and that these bases have a specific
structure that leads to the pairing: “One member of a pair must be a purine
and the other a pyrimidine in order to bridge between the two chains” (lines
27-29). Given the specific chemical properties of a nitrogenous base, it
would be inaccurate to call the process random.
Choice A is incorrect because lines 5-6 describe how nitrogenous bases

attach to sugar but not how those bases pair with one another. Choice B is
incorrect because lines 9-10 do not contradict the student’s claim. Choice C
is incorrect because lines 23-25 describe how the two molecules’ chains are
linked, not what the specific pairing between nitrogenous bases is.
7
QUESTION 24.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 12-14 the authors state: “the first fea-
ture of our structure which is of biological interest is that it consists not of
one chain, but of two.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because lines 12-14 explicitly state that it is
the two chains of DNA that are of “biological interest,” not the chemical
formula of DNA, nor the common fiber axis those two chains are wrapped
around. Choice C is incorrect because, while the X-ray evidence did help
Watson and Crick to discover that DNA consists of two chains, it was not
claimed to be the feature of biological interest.
QUESTION 25.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 12-14 the authors claim that DNA mol-
ecules appear to be comprised of two chains, even though “it has often been
assumed . . . there would be only one” (lines 15-17). The authors support this
claim with evidence compiled from an X-ray: “the density, taken with the X-ray
evidence, suggests very strongly that there are two [chains]” (lines 18-19).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the authors mention density and
X-ray evidence to support a claim, not to establish that DNA carries genetic
information, present a hypothesis about the composition of a nucleotide, or
confirm a relationship between the density and chemical formula of DNA.
QUESTION 26.
Choice B is the best answer. The authors explain that “only certain pairs of
bases will fit into the structure” (lines 25-26) of the DNA molecule. These
pairs must contain “a purine and the other a pyrimidine in order to bridge
between the two chains” (lines 27-29), which implies that any other pairing
would not “fit into the structure” of the DNA molecule. Therefore, a pair
of purines would be larger than the required purine/pyrimidine pair and
would not fit into the structure of the DNA molecule.
Choice A is incorrect because this section is not discussing the distance

between a sugar and phosphate group. Choice C is incorrect because the
passage never makes clear the size of the pyrimidines or purines in relation
to each other, only in relation to the space needed to bond the chains of
the DNA molecule. Choice D is incorrect because the lines do not make an
implication about the size of a pair of pyrimidines in relation to the size of a
pair consisting of a purine and a pyrimidine.
QUESTION 27.
Choice D is the best answer. The authors explain how the DNA molecule
contains a “precise sequence of bases” (lines 43-44), and that the authors can
use the order of bases on one chain to determine the order of bases on the
8
other chain: “If the actual order of the bases on one of the pair of chains were
given, one could write down the exact order of the bases on the other one,
because of the specific pairing. Thus one chain is, as it were, the comple-
ment of the other, and it is this feature which suggests how the deoxyribo-
nucleic acid molecule might duplicate itself ” (lines 45-51). The authors use
the words “exact,” “specific,” and “complement” in these lines to suggest that
the base pairings along a DNA chain is understood and predictable, and may
explain how DNA “duplicate[s] itself ” (line 51).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that most nucle-
otide sequences are known. Choice B is incorrect because these lines are not
discussing the random nature of the base sequence along one chain of DNA.
Choice C is incorrect because the authors are describing the bases attached
only to the sugar, not to the sugar-phosphate backbone.
QUESTION 28.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 6-7 state that “Two of the possible bases—
adenine and guanine—are purines,” and on the table the percentages of ade-
nine and guanine in yeast DNA are listed as 31.3% and 18.7% respectively.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not state the percentages
of both purines, adenine and guanine, in yeast DNA.
QUESTION 29.
Choice A is the best answer. The authors state: “We believe that the bases
will be present almost entirely in their most probable forms. If this is true,
the conditions for forming hydrogen bonds are more restrictive, and the only
pairs of bases possible are: adenine with thymine, and guanine with cytosine”
(lines 31-35). The table shows that the pairs adenine/thymine and guanine/
cytosine have notably similar percentages in DNA for all organisms listed.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the choice of “Yes” is correct, the explana-

tion for that choice misrepresents the data in the table. Choices C and D are
incorrect because the table does support the authors’ proposed pairing of
nitrogenous bases in DNA molecules.
QUESTION 30.
Choice A is the best answer because it gives the percentage of cytosine
(17.3%) in sea urchin DNA and the percentage of guanine (17.7%) in sea
urchin DNA. Their near similar pairing supports the authors’ proposal that
possible pairings of nitrogenous bases are “adenine with thymine, and gua-
nine with cytosine” (line 35).
Choices B, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice B (cytosine and thymine), Choice C (cytosine and
adenine), and Choice D (guanine and adenine) are incorrect because they
show pairings of nitrogenous bases that do not compose a similar percent-
age of the bases in sea urchin DNA. 9
QUESTION 31.
Choice D is the best answer. The table clearly shows that the percentage of ade-
nine in each organism’s DNA is different, ranging from 24.7% in E.coli to 33.2%
in the octopus. That such a variability would exist is predicted in lines 41-43,
which states that “in a long molecule many different permutations are possible.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because the table shows that the percentage of
adenine varies between 24.7% and 33.2% in different organisms. Choice C is
incorrect because lines 36-38 state that adenine pairs with thymine but does
not mention the variability of the base composition of DNA.
QUESTION 32.
Choice B is the best answer. In this passage, Woolf asks women a series of
questions. Woolf wants women to consider joining “the procession of edu-
cated men” (lines 56-57) by becoming members of the workforce. Woolf
stresses that this issue is urgent, as women “have very little time in which to
answer [these questions]” (lines 48-49).
Choice A is incorrect because Woolf argues against the tradition of only

“the sons of educated men” (lines 82-83) joining the workforce. Choice C is
incorrect because Woolf is not highlighting the severity of social divisions
as much as she is explaining how those divisions might be reduced (with
women joining the workforce). Choice D is incorrect because Woolf does
not question the feasibility of changing the workforce dynamic.
QUESTION 33.
Choice A is the best answer. Throughout the passage, Woolf advocates for
more women to engage with existing institutions by joining the workforce:
“We too can leave the house, can mount those steps [to an office], pass in
and out of those doors, . . . make money, administer justice . . .” (lines 30-32).
Woolf tells educated women that they are at a “moment of transition” (line 51)
where they must consider their future role in the workforce.
Choice B is incorrect because even though Woolf mentions women’s tradi-

tional roles (lines 68-69: “while they stirred the pot, while they rocked the
cradle”), she does not suggest that women will have to give up these traditional
roles to gain positions of influence. Choice C is incorrect because though
Woolf wonders how “the procession of the sons of educated men” impacts
women’s roles, she does not argue that this male-dominated society has had
grave and continuing effects. Choice D is incorrect because while Woolf sug-
gests educated women can hold positions currently held by men, she does not
suggest that women’s entry into positions of power will change those positions.
QUESTION 34.
Choice C is the best answer. Woolf uses the word “we” to refer to herself
and educated women in English society, the “daughters of educated men”
10
(line 64). Woolf wants these women to consider participating in a chang-
ing workforce: “For there, trapesing along at the tail end of the procession
[to and from work], we go ourselves” (lines 23-24). In using the word “we”
throughout the passage, Woolf establishes a sense of solidarity among edu-
cated women.
Choice A is incorrect because Woolf does not use “we” to reflect on whether
people in a group are friendly to one another; she is concerned with generat-
ing solidarity among women. Choice B is incorrect because though Woolf
admits women have predominantly “done their thinking” within traditional
female roles (lines 64-69), she does not use “we” to advocate for more can-
dor among women. Choice D is incorrect because Woolf does not use “we”
to emphasize a need for people in a group to respect one other; rather, she
wants to establish a sense of solidarity among women.
QUESTION 35.
Choice B is the best answer. Woolf argues that the “bridge over the River
Thames, [has] an admirable vantage ground for us to make a survey” (lines 1-3).
The phrase “make a survey” means to carefully examine an event or activity.
Woolf wants educated women to “fix [their] eyes upon the procession—the
procession of the sons of educated men” (lines 9-11) walking to work.
Choice A is incorrect because while Woolf states the bridge “is a place to
stand on by the hour dreaming,” she states that she is using the bridge “to
consider the facts” (lines 6-9). Woolf is not using the bridge for fanciful
reflection; she is analyzing “the procession of the sons of educated men”
(lines 10-11). Choice C is incorrect because Woolf does not compare the
bridge to historic episodes. Choice D is incorrect because Woolf does not
suggest that the bridge is a symbol of a male-dominated past, but rather that
it serves as a good place to watch men proceed to work.
QUESTION 36.
Choice D is the best answer. Woolf writes that the men who conduct the
affairs of the nation (lines 15-17: “ascending those pulpits, preaching, teach-
ing, administering justice, practising medicine, transacting business, mak-
ing money”) are the same men who go to and from work in a “procession”
(line 10). Woolf notes that women are joining this procession, an act that
suggests the workforce has become less exclusionary: “For there, trapesing
along at the tail end of the procession, we go ourselves” (lines 23-24).
Choice A is incorrect because the procession is described as “a solemn sight

always” (lines 17-18), which indicates that it has always been influential.
Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not indicate that this proces-
sion has become a celebrated feature of English life. Choice C is incorrect
because the passage states only that the procession is made up of “the sons of
educated men” (lines 10-11).
11
QUESTION 37.
Choice C is the best answer, as lines 23-24 suggest that the workforce has
become less exclusionary. In these lines Woolf describes how women are
joining the male-dominated procession that travels to and from the work
place: “For there, trapesing along at the tail end of the procession, we go
ourselves.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-
dence for the answer to the previous question. Choice A is incorrect because
lines 12-17 describe the positions predominantly held by men. Choice B is
incorrect because lines 17-19 use a metaphor to describe how the proces-
sion physically looks. Choice D is incorrect because lines 30-34 hypothesize
about future jobs for women.
QUESTION 38.
Choice C is the best answer. Woolf characterizes the questions she asks in
lines 53-57 as significant (“so important that they may well change the lives
of all men and women for ever,” lines 52-53) and urgent (“we have very little
time in which to answer them,” lines 48-49). Therefore, Woolf considers the
questions posed in lines 53-57 as both momentous (significant) and press-
ing (urgent).
Choice A is incorrect because Woolf characterizes the questions as urgent

and important, not as something that would cause controversy or fear.
Choice B is incorrect because though Woolf considers the questions to be
weighty (or “important”), she implies that they can be answered. Choice D
is incorrect because Woolf does not imply that the questions are mysterious.
QUESTION 39.
Choice B is the best answer. The answer to the previous question shows
how Woolf characterizes the questions posed in lines 53-57 as momentous
and pressing. In lines 48-49, Woolf describes these questions as “important,”
or momentous, and states that women “have very little time in which to
answer them,” which shows their urgency.
Choices A, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choices A and D are incorrect because lines 46-47 and
line 62 suggest that women need to think about these questions and not offer
trivial objections to them. Choice C is incorrect because line 57 character-
izes only the need for urgency and does not mention the significance of the
questions.
QUESTION 40.
Choice C is the best answer. Woolf writes that women “have thought”
while performing traditional roles such as cooking and caring for children
12
(lines 67-69). Woolf argues that this “thought” has shifted women’s roles in
society and earned them a “brand-new sixpence” that they need to learn how
to “spend” (lines 70-71). The “sixpence” mentioned in these lines is not a literal
coin. Woolf is using the “sixpence” as a metaphor, as she is suggesting women
take advantage of the opportunity to join the male-dominated workforce.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context, “sixpence” does

not refer to tolerance, knowledge, or perspective.
QUESTION 41.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 72-76, Woolf repeats the phrase “let
us think” to emphasize how important it is for women to critically reflect on
their role in society. Woolf states this reflection can occur at any time: “Let
us think in offices; in omnibuses; while we are standing in the crowd watch-
ing Coronations and Lord Mayor’s Shows; let us think . . . in the gallery of
the House of Commons; in the Law Courts; let us think at baptisms and
marriages and funerals.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in lines 72-76 Woolf is not empha-
sizing the novelty of the challenge faced by women, the complexity of social
and political issues, or the enjoyable aspect of women’s career possibilities.
QUESTION 42.
Choice B is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 identifies specific
companies such as the “Planetary Resources of Washington,” “Deep Space
Industries of Virginia,” and “Golden Spike of Colorado” to support his ear-
lier assertion that there are many interested groups “working to make space
mining a reality” (line 8).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the author of Passage 1 does not
mention these companies to profile the technological advances in space
mining, the profit margins from space mining, or the diverse approaches to
space mining.
QUESTION 43.
Choice A is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 explicitly states that
one benefit to space mining is access to precious metals and earth elements:
“within a few decades, [space mining] may be meeting earthly demands for
precious metals, such as platinum and gold, and the rare earth elements vital
for personal electronics, such as yttrium and lanthanum” (lines 18-22).
Choice B is incorrect because Passage 1 does not suggest that precious met-
als extracted from space may make metals more valuable on Earth. Choice C
and Choice D are incorrect because Passage 1 never mentions how space
mining could create unanticipated technological innovations or change sci-
entists’ understanding of space resources.
13
QUESTION 44.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 18-22 suggest that space mining may
help meet “earthly demands for precious metals . . . and the rare earth ele-
ments vital for personal electronics.” In this statement, the author is stat-
ing materials (“metals,” “earth elements”) that may be gathered as a result of
space mining, and that these materials may be important to Earth’s economy.
Choices B, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to
the previous question. Choice B is incorrect because lines 24-28 focus on
an “off-planet economy” but never address positive effects of space mining.
Choice C is incorrect because lines 29-30 suggest the relative value of water
found in space. Choice D is incorrect because lines 41-44 state that space
mining companies hope to find specific resources in lunar soil and asteroids
but do not address how these resources are important to Earth’s economy.
QUESTION 45.
Choice D is the best answer. The author suggests in lines 19-22 that space
mining may meet “earthly demands for precious metals, such as platinum
and gold, and the rare earth elements vital for personal electronics.” In this
sentence, “earthly demands” suggests that people want, or desire, these pre-
cious metals and rare earth elements.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context “demands” does

not mean offers, claims, or inquiries.
QUESTION 46.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 29-30 introduce the idea that water
mined in space may be very valuable: “water mined from other worlds could
become the most desired commodity.” Lines 35-40 support this assertion by
suggesting how mined space water could be used “for drinking or as a radia-
tion shield” (lines 36-37) or to make “spacecraft fuel” (line 38).
Choice A is incorrect because the comparison in the previous paragraph (the

relative value of gold and water to someone in the desert) is not expanded
upon in lines 35-40. Choice B is incorrect because the question asked in the
previous paragraph is also answered in that paragraph. Choice D is incorrect
because no specific proposals are made in the previous paragraph; rather, an
assertion is made and a question is posed.
QUESTION 47.
Choice B is the best answer. The author of Passage 2 recognizes that
space mining may prove beneficial to humanity, stating that “we all stand
to gain: the mineral bounty and spin-off technologies could enrich us all”
(lines 50-52). The author also repeatedly mentions that space mining should
be carefully considered before it is implemented: “But before the miners
14
start firing up their rockets, we should pause for thought” (lines 53-54); “But
[space mining’s] consequences—both here on Earth and in space—merit
careful consideration” (lines 57-59).
Choice A is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 concedes that “space

mining seems to sidestep most environmental concerns” (lines 55-56) but
does not imply that space mining will recklessly harm the environment,
either on Earth or in space. Choice C is incorrect because the author of
Passage 2 does not address any key resources that may be disappearing on
Earth. Choice D is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 admits that
“resources that are valuable in orbit and beyond may be very different to
those we prize on Earth” (lines 74-76) but does not mention any disagree-
ment about the commercial viabilities of space mining discoveries.
QUESTION 48.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 60-66, the author presents some envi-
ronmental arguments against space mining: “[space] is not ours to despoil”
and we should not “[glut] ourselves on space’s riches.” The author then sug-
gests that these environmental arguments will be hard to “hold,” or maintain,
when faced with the possible monetary rewards of space mining: “History
suggests that those will be hard lines to hold . . .” (line 68).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “hold” does not
mean grip, restrain, or withstand.
QUESTION 49.
Choice D is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 is excited about the
possibilities of space mining and how it can yield valuable materials, such
as metals and elements (lines 19-20 and lines 41-42), water ice (line 35),
and space dirt (line 44). The author of Passage 2, on the other hand, recog-
nizes the possible benefits of space mining but also states that space mining
should be thoughtfully considered before being implemented. Therefore, the
author of Passage 2 expresses some concerns about a concept discussed in
Passage 1.
Choice A is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 does not refute the
central claim of Passage 1; both authors agree there are possible benefits to
space mining. Choice B is incorrect because the author of Passage 1 does
not describe space mining in more general terms than does the author of
Passage 2. Choice C is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 is not sug-
gesting that the space mining proposals stated in Passage 1 are impractical.
QUESTION 50.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 18-28, the author of Passage 1 describes
many of the possible economic benefits of space mining, including the
15
building of “an off-planet economy” (line 25). The author of Passage 2 warns
that there may be ramifications to implementing space mining and building
an “emerging off-world economy” (line 73) without regulation: “But miners
have much to gain from a broad agreement on the for-profit exploitation of
space. Without consensus, claims will be disputed, investments risky, and
the gains made insecure” (lines 83-87).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the author of Passage 2 does

not suggest that the benefits to space mining mentioned in lines 18-28 of
Passage 1 are unsustainable, unachievable, or will negatively affect Earth’s
economy. Rather, the author recognizes the benefits of space mining but
advocates for the development of regulation procedures.
QUESTION 51.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 85-87, the author of Passage 2 states
that the future of space mining will prove difficult without regulations
because “claims will be disputed, investments risky, and the gains made
insecure.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-
dence for the answer to the previous question. Choice A is incorrect because
lines 60-63 present some environmental concerns toward space mining.
Choice B is incorrect because lines 74-76 focus on how space mining may
discover valuable resources that are different from the ones found on Earth.
Choice C is incorrect because lines 81-83 simply describe one person’s
objections to the regulation of the space mining industry.
QUESTION 52.
Choice A is the best answer because both Passage 1 and Passage 2 indi-
cate a belief that the resources most valued in space may differ from those
most valued on our planet. Passage 2 says this explicitly in lines 74-76: “The
resources that are valuable in orbit and beyond may be very different to
those we prize on Earth.” Meanwhile Passage 1 suggests that water mined
from space may be more valuable than metals or other earth elements when
creating an “off-plant economy” (lines 25-30).
Choice B is incorrect because neither passage discusses, either implicitly or

explicitly, the need for space mining to be inexpensive. Choice C is incor-
rect because Passage 2 does not specifically identify precious metals or rare
earth elements but instead focuses on theoretical problems with space min-
ing. Choice D is incorrect because diminishing resources on Earth is not
discussed in Passage 2.
16
Section 2: Writing and Language Test
QUESTION 1.
Choice D is the best answer because “outweigh” is the only choice that
appropriately reflects the relationship the sentence sets up between “advan-
tages” and “drawbacks.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each implies a competitive rela-

tionship that is inappropriate in this context.
QUESTION 2.
Choice B is the best answer because it offers a second action that farmers
can undertake to address the problem of acid whey disposal, thus support-
ing the claim made in the previous sentence (“To address the problem of
disposal, farmers have found a number of uses for acid whey”).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer examples of how
farmers could make use of acid whey.
QUESTION 3.
Choice A is the best answer because it results in a sentence that is gram-
matically correct and coherent. In choice A, “waterways,” the correct plural
form of “waterway,” conveys the idea that acid whey could impact multiple
bodies of water. Additionally, the compound verb “can pollute” suggests that
acid whey presents an ongoing, potential problem.
Choices B and D are incorrect because both use the possessive form of
“waterway.” Choice C is incorrect because it creates an unnecessary shift in
verb tense. The present tense verb “can pollute” should be used instead, as it
is consistent with the other verbs in the paragraph.
QUESTION 4.
Choice C is the best answer because it utilizes proper punctuation for items
listed in a series. In this case those items are nouns: “Yogurt manufacturers,
food scientists, and government officials.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because both fail to recognize that the items
are a part of a series. Since a comma is used after “manufacturers,” a semi-
colon or colon should not be used after “scientists.” Choice D is incorrect
because the comma after “and” is unnecessary and deviates from grammati-
cal conventions for presenting items in a series.
QUESTION 5.
Choice C is the best answer because sentence 5 logically links sentence 2,
which explains why Greek yogurt production yields large amounts of acid
17
whey, and sentence 3, which mentions the need to dispose of acid whey
properly.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each would result in an illogical

progression of sentences for this paragraph. If sentence 5 were left where it is
or placed after sentence 3, it would appear illogically after the discussion of
“the problem of disposal.” If sentence 5 were placed after sentence 1, it would
illogically discuss “acid-whey runoff ” before the mention of acid whey being
“difficult to dispose of.”
QUESTION 6.
Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph includes several ben-
efits of consuming Greek yogurt, particularly in regard to nutrition and sat-
isfying hunger, to support the sentence’s claim that the conservation efforts
are “well worth the effort.” This transition echoes the passage’s earlier claim
that “the advantages of Greek yogurt outweigh the potential drawbacks of its
production.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they inaccurately describe the

sentence in question.
QUESTION 7.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a grammatically standard
preposition that connects the verb “serves” and noun “digestive aid” and
accurately depicts their relationship.
Choice A is incorrect because the infinitive form “to be” yields a grammati-
cally incorrect verb construction: “serves to be.” Choices C and D are incor-
rect because both present options that deviate from standard English usage.
QUESTION 8.
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a verb tense that is consistent
in the context of the sentence. The choice is also free of the redundant “it.”
Choice A is incorrect because the subject “it” creates a redundancy. Choices

B and D are incorrect because they present verb tenses that are inconsistent
in the context of the sentence.
QUESTION 9.
Choice A is the best answer because it properly introduces an additional
health benefit in a series of sentences that list health benefits. “Also” is the
logical and coherent choice to communicate an addition.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none of the transitions they offer
logically fits the content that precedes or follows the proposed choice.
18
QUESTION 10.
Choice A is the best answer because “satiated” is the only choice that com-
municates effectively that Greek yogurt will satisfy hunger for a longer
period of time.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is improper usage in this con-
text. A person can be “fulfilled” spiritually or in other ways, but a person who
has eaten until he or she is no longer hungry cannot be described as fulfilled.
Neither can he or she be described as being “complacent” or “sufficient.”
QUESTION 11.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a syntactically coherent and
grammatically correct sentence.
Choices A and C are incorrect because the adverbial conjunctions “there-

fore” and “so,” respectively, are unnecessary following “Because.” Choice D is
incorrect because it results in a grammatically incomplete sentence (the part
of the sentence before the colon must be an independent clause).
QUESTION 12.
Choice B is the best answer because the graph clearly indicates that, on March 5,
average low temperatures are at their lowest point: 12 degrees Fahrenheit.
Choice A is incorrect because the phrase “as low as” suggests that the tem-
perature falls no lower than 20 degrees Fahrenheit, but the chart shows that
in January, February, and March, the temperature frequently falls below that
point. Choices C and D are incorrect because the information each provides
is inconsistent with the information on the chart.
QUESTION 13.
Choice A is the best answer because it concisely combines the two sen-
tences while maintaining the original meaning.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is unnecessarily wordy, thus

undermining one purpose of combining two sentences: to make the phras-
ing more concise.
QUESTION 14.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a conjunctive adverb that
accurately represents the relationship between the two sentences. “However”
signals an exception to a case stated in the preceding sentence.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each provides a transition that

does not accurately represent the relationship between the two sentences,
and as a result each compromises the logical coherence of these sentences.
19
QUESTION 15.
Choice C is the best answer because it provides commas to offset the non-
restrictive modifying clause “an associate professor of geology at Ohio State.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides punctuation that

does not adequately separate the nonrestrictive modifying clause about
Jason Box from the main clause.
QUESTION 16.
Choice C is the best answer because the colon signals that the other factor
that contributed to the early thaw is about to be provided.
Choice A is incorrect because it results in a sentence that deviates from

grammatical standards: a semicolon should be used to separate two inde-
pendent clauses, but in choice A the second clause only has a subject, not
a verb. Choice B is incorrect because it is unnecessarily wordy. Choice D is
incorrect because “being” is unnecessary and creates an incoherent clause.
QUESTION 17.
Choice C is the best answer because it provides the correct preposition
(“of ”) and relative pronoun (“which”) that together create a dependent
clause following the comma.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each results in a comma splice.

Two independent clauses cannot be joined with only a comma.
QUESTION 18.
Choice A is the best answer because the verb tense is consistent with the
preceding past tense verbs in the sentence, specifically “produced” and
“drifted.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each utilizes a verb tense that is
not consistent with the preceding past tense verbs in the sentence.
QUESTION 19.
Choice D is the best answer because “their” is the possessive form of a plu-
ral noun. In this case, the noun is plural: “snow and ice.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because the possessive pronoun must refer
to a plural noun, “snow and ice,” rather than a singular noun. Choice C is
incorrect because “there” would result in an incoherent sentence.
QUESTION 20.
Choice D is the best answer. The preceding sentences in the paragraph have
established that a darker surface of soot-covered snow leads to more melting
20
because this darker surface absorbs heat, whereas a whiter surface, free of soot,
would deflect heat. As the passage points out, exposed land and water are also
dark and cannot deflect heat the way ice and snow can. Only choice D reflects
the self-reinforcing cycle that the preceding sentences already imply.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the information each provides

fails to support the previous claim that the “result” of the soot “is a self-
reinforcing cycle.”
QUESTION 21.
Choice B is the best answer because it is free of redundancies.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each of the three presents a

redundancy: Choice A uses “repeat” and “again”; Choice C uses “damage”
and “harmful effects”; and Choice D uses “may” and “possibly.”
QUESTION 22.
Choice D is the best answer because sentence 5 describes the information
Box seeks: “to determine just how much the soot is contributing to the melt-
ing of the ice sheet.” Unless sentence 4 comes after sentence 5, readers will
not know what the phrase “this crucial information” in sentence 4 refers to.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each results in an illogical sen-

tence progression. None of the sentences that would precede sentence 4 pro-
vides details that could be referred to as “this crucial information.”
QUESTION 23.
Choice D is the best answer because it is free of redundancies and offers the
correct form of the verb “wear” in this context.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because all three contain a redundancy.

Considering that “quickly” is a fixed part of the sentence, choice A’s “soon”
and choice B and C’s “promptly” all result in redundancies. Choices A and B
are also incorrect because each uses an incorrect form of the verb.
QUESTION 24.
Choice D is the best answer because it is the only choice that provides a
grammatically standard and coherent sentence. The participial phrase
“Having become frustrated. . .” functions as an adjective modifying “I,” the
writer.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each results in a dangling modi-

fier. The participial phrase “Having become frustrated . . .” does not refer
to choice A’s “no colleagues,” choice B’s “colleagues,” or choice C’s “ideas.”
As such, all three choices yield incoherent and grammatically incorrect
sentences.
21
QUESTION 25.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides the correct preposition in
this context, “about.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each provides a preposition that

deviates from correct usage. One might read an article “about” coworking
spaces but not an article “into,” “upon,” or “for” coworking spaces.
QUESTION 26.
Choice A is the best answer because it provides the correct punctuation for
the dependent clause that begins with the phrase “such as.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each presents punctuation that

deviates from the standard way of punctuating the phrase “such as.” When
“such as” is a part of a nonrestrictive clause, as it is here, only one comma is
needed to separate it from the main independent clause.
QUESTION 27.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a transitional phrase, “In
addition to equipment,” that accurately represents the relationship between
the two sentences connected by the transitional phrase. Together, the sen-
tences describe the key features of coworking spaces, focusing on what the
spaces offer (equipment and meeting rooms).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each provides a transition that

does not accurately represent the relationship between the two sentences.
QUESTION 28.
Choice C is the best answer because the sentence is a distraction from the
paragraph’s focus. Nothing in the paragraph suggests that the cost of setting
up a coworking business is relevant here.
Choices A and D are incorrect because neither accurately represents the

information in the paragraph. Choice B is incorrect because it does not
accurately represent the information in the next paragraph.
QUESTION 29.
Choice B is the best answer because it logically follows the writer’s preced-
ing statement about creativity and accurately represents the information in
the graph.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they present inaccurate and

unsupported interpretations of the information in the graph. In addition,
none of these choices provides directly relevant support for the main topic
of the paragraph.
22
QUESTION 30.
Choice D is the best answer because it provides a relative pronoun and verb
that create a standard and coherent sentence. The relative pronoun “who”
refers to the subject “the people,” and the plural verb “use” corresponds
grammatically with the plural noun “people.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because “whom” is the relative pronoun used
to represent an object. The noun “people” is a subject performing an action
(using the coworking space). Choices B and C are also incorrect because
they display a form of the verb “to use” that does not correspond to the plu-
ral noun “people.”
QUESTION 31.
Choice C is the best answer because the proposed sentence offers a neces-
sary and logical transition between sentence 2, which introduces the facility
the writer chose, and sentence 3, which tells what happened at the facility
“Throughout the morning.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each would result in an illogical

progression of sentences.
QUESTION 32.
Choice A is the best answer because the punctuation it provides results in
a grammatically standard and coherent sentence. When an independent
clause is followed by a list, a colon is used to link the two.
Choice B is incorrect because the punctuation creates a fragment (a semi-

colon should be used to link two independent clauses). Choice C is incor-
rect because its use of the comma creates a series in which “several of my
coworking colleagues” are distinguished from the “website developer” and
others, although the logic of the sentence would suggest that they are the
same. Choice D is incorrect because it lacks the punctuation necessary to
link the independent clause and the list.
QUESTION 33.
Choice A is the best answer because it provides a phrase that is consistent
with standard English usage and also maintains the tone and style of the
passage.
Choice B is incorrect because “give some wisdom” deviates from stan-

dard English usage and presents a somewhat colloquial phrase in a text
that is generally free of colloquialisms. Choices C and D are incorrect
because both are inconsistent with the tone of the passage as well as its
purpose. The focus of the paragraph is on sharing, not on proclaiming
opinions.
23
QUESTION 34.
Choice A is the best answer because it offers a phrase that introduces a basic
definition of philosophy and thereby fits the sentence.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each offers a transition that does
not suit the purpose of the sentence.
QUESTION 35.
Choice A is the best answer because it offers the most succinct comparison
between the basic definition of philosophy and the fact that students can
gain specific, practical skills from the study of philosophy. There is no need
to include the participle “speaking” in this sentence, as it is clear from con-
text that the writer is offering a different perspective.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide options that are
unnecessarily wordy.
QUESTION 36.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a verb that creates a gram-
matically complete, standard, and coherent sentence.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each results in a grammatically
incomplete and incoherent sentence.
QUESTION 37.
Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively sets up the informa-
tion in the following sentences, which state that (according to information
from the 1990s) “only 18 percent of American colleges required at least one
philosophy course,” and “more than 400 independent philosophy depart-
ments were eliminated” from colleges. These details are most logically linked
to the claim that “colleges have not always supported the study of philosophy.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these effectively sets up
the information that follows, which is about colleges’ failure to support the
study of philosophy.
QUESTION 38.
Choice C is the best answer because it provides a transition that logically
connects the information in the previous sentence to the information in this
one. Both sentences provide evidence of colleges’ lack of support of philoso-
phy programs, so the adverb “Moreover,” which means “In addition,” accu-
rately captures the relationship between the two sentences.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each presents a transition that
does not accurately depict or support the relationship between the two sen-
tences. The second sentence is not a result of the first (“Therefore,” “Thus”),
and the sentences do not provide a contrast (“However”).
24
QUESTION 39.
Choice A is the best answer because it succinctly expresses the idea that
“students who major in philosophy often do better . . . as measured by stan-
dardized test scores.”
Choices B and D are incorrect because they introduce a redundancy and

a vague term, “results.” The first part of the sentence mentions a research
finding or conclusion but does not directly address any “results,” so it is
confusing to refer to “these results” and indicate that they “can be” or “are
measured by standardized test scores.” The best way to express the idea is
simply to say that some students “often do better” than some other students
“in both verbal reasoning and analytical writing as measured by standard-
ized test scores.” Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication that
multiple criteria are used to evaluate students’ “verbal reasoning and analyti-
cal writing”: test scores and something else. Only test scores are mentioned.
QUESTION 40.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides subject-verb agreement and
thus creates a grammatically correct and coherent sentence.
Choice A is incorrect because the verb “has scored” does not correspond
with the plural subject “students.” Similarly, Choice C is incorrect because
the verb “scores” would correspond with a singular subject, but not the plu-
ral subject present in this sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it results
in a grammatically incomplete and incoherent sentence.
QUESTION 41.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a coherent and grammati-
cally standard sentence.
Choices A and D are incorrect because both present “students” in the pos-
sessive form, whereas the sentence establishes “students” as the subject
(“many students . . . have”). Choice C is incorrect because the verb form it
proposes results in an incomplete and incoherent sentence.
QUESTION 42.
Choice C is the best answer because it accurately depicts how inserting this
sentence would affect the overall paragraph. The fact that Plato used the dia-
logue form has little relevance to the preceding claim about the usefulness of
a philosophy background.
Choices A and B are incorrect because the proposed sentence interrupts the
progression of reasoning in the paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because, as
with Choice A, Plato’s works have nothing to do with “the employability of
philosophy majors.”
25
QUESTION 43.
Choice D is the best answer because it creates a complete and coherent
sentence.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each inserts an unnecessary rela-

tive pronoun or conjunction, resulting in a sentence without a main verb.
QUESTION 44.
Choice D is the best answer because it provides a possessive pronoun that is
consistent with the sentence’s plural subject “students,” thus creating a gram-
matically sound sentence.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each proposes a possessive pro-

noun that is inconsistent with the plural noun “students,” the established
subject of the sentence.
Section 3: Math Test — No Calculator

QUESTION 1.
Choice D is correct. Since k = 3, one can substitute 3 for k in the equa-
tion _ x − 
1   x − 
 = k, which gives _
1   x − 
 = 3. Multiplying both sides of _
1 
 = 3
3 3 3
by 3 gives x − 1 = 9 and then adding 1 to both sides of x − 1 = 9 gives x = 10.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the result of subtracting 1 from

the value and dividing by 3 is not the given value of k, which is 3.
QUESTION 2.
Choice A is correct. To calculate (7 + 3i) + (−8 + 9i), add the real parts of
each complex number, 7 + (−8) = −1, and then add the imaginary parts,
3i + 9i = 12i. The result is −1 + 12i.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and likely result from common errors that
arise when adding complex numbers. For example, choice B is the result of
adding 3i and −9i, and choice C is the result of adding 7 and 8.
QUESTION 3.
Choice C is correct. The total number of messages sent by Armand
is the 5 hours he spent texting multiplied by his rate of texting:
m texts/hour × 5 hours = 5m texts. Similarly, the total number of messages
sent by Tyrone is the 4 hours he spent texting multiplied by his rate of tex-
ting: p texts/hour × 4 hours = 4p texts. The total number of messages sent
by Armand and Tyrone is the sum of the total number of messages sent by
Armand and the total number of messages sent by Tyrone: 5m + 4p.
26
Choice A is incorrect and arises from adding the coefficients and multiplying
the variables of 5m and 4p. Choice B is incorrect and is the result of multiply-
ing 5m and 4p. The total number of messages sent by Armand and Tyrone
should be the sum of 5m and 4p, not the product of these terms. Choice D is
incorrect because it multiplies Armand’s number of hours spent texting by
Tyrone’s rate of texting, and vice versa. This mix-up results in an expression
that does not equal the total number of messages sent by Armand and Tyrone.
QUESTION 4.
Choice B is correct. The value 108 in the equation is the value of P in
P = 108 − 23 d when d = 0. When d = 0, Kathy has worked 0 days that week.
In other words, 108 is the number of phones left before Kathy has started
work for the week. Therefore, the meaning of the value 108 in the equation
is that Kathy starts each week with 108 phones to fix because she has worked
0 days and has 108 phones left to fix.
Choice A is incorrect because Kathy will complete the repairs when P = 0.

108
Since P = 108 − 23d, this will occur when 0 = 108 − 23d or when d =  _ , 
23
not when d = 108. Therefore, the value 108 in the equation does not repre-
sent the number of days it will take Kathy to complete the repairs. Choices C
and D are incorrect because the number 23 in P = 108 − 23P = 108 indicates
that the number of phones left will decrease by 23 for each increase in the
value of d by 1; in other words, that Kathy is repairing phones at a rate of
23 per day, not 108 per hour (choice C) or 108 per day (choice D).
QUESTION 5.
Choice C is correct. Only like terms, with the same variables and exponents,
can be combined to determine the answer as shown here:
(x2y − 3y2 + 5xy2) − (−x2y + 3xy2 − 3y2)

= (x2y − (−x2y)) + (−3y2 − (−3y2)) + (5xy2 − 3xy2)
= 2x2y + 0 + 2xy2
= 2x2y + 2xy2
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and are the result of common calculation
errors or of incorrectly combining like and unlike terms.
QUESTION 6.
Choice A is correct. In the equation h = 3a + 28.6, if a, the age of the
boy, increases by 1, then h becomes h = 3(a + 1) + 28.6 = 3a + 3 + 28.6 =
(3a + 28.6) + 3. Therefore, the model estimates that the boy’s height increases
by 3 inches each year.
Alternatively: The height, h, is a linear function of the age, a, of the boy. The
coefficient 3 can be interpreted as the rate of change of the function; in this
27
case, the rate of change can be described as a change of 3 inches in height for
every additional year in age.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and are likely to result from common
errors in calculating the value of h or in calculating the difference between
the values of h for different values of a.
QUESTION 7.
Choice B is correct. Since the right-hand side of the equation is P times the
(  ) ( 
 _
r
1,200 )
      1 +  _
1,200
r N
     
( 
expression , multiplying both sides of the equation by
)
1 +  _
1,200
r N
      − 1
(  1 +  _
)
1,200
r N
      − 1
(  ) ( 
the reciprocal of this expression results in m = P.
 _
r
1,200 )
      1 +  _
1,200
r N
     
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and are likely the result of conceptual or
computation errors while trying to solve for P.
QUESTION 8.
a b 1
Choice C is correct. Since  _ = 2, it follows that  _  =  _  . Multiplying both sides
b a 2
b 4b
( a )
of the equation by 4 gives 4  _   =  _  = 2.
a
4b a
Choice A is incorrect because if  _ _
a   = 0, then  b  would be undefined.
4b a
Choice B is incorrect because if  _ _
a   = 1, then  b = 4. Choice D is incorrect
4b a
  a   = 4, then  _ = 1.
because if _
b
QUESTION 9.
Choice B is correct. Adding x and 19 to both sides of 2y − x = −19
gives x = 2y + 19. Then, substituting 2y + 19 for x in 3x + 4y = −23 gives
3(2y + 19) + 4y = −23. This last equation is equivalent to 10y + 57 = −23.
Solving 10y + 57 = −23 gives y = −8. Finally, substituting −8 for y in
2y − x = −19 gives 2(−8) − x = −19, or x = 3. Therefore, the solution (x, y) to
the given system of equations is (3, −8).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because when the given values of x and y
are substituted in 2y − x = −19, the value of the left side of the equation does
not equal −19.
QUESTION 10.
Choice A is correct. Since g is an even function, g(−4) = g(4) = 8.
Alternatively: First find the value of a, and then find g(−4). Since g(4) = 8,
28 substituting 4 for x and 8 for g(x) gives 8 = a(4)2 + 24 = 16a + 24. Solving this
last equation gives a = −1. Thus g(x) = −x2 + 24, from which it follows that
g(−4) = −(−4)2 + 24; g(−4) = −16 + 24; and g(−4) = 8.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because g is a function and there can only
be one value of g(−4).
QUESTION 11.
Choice D is correct. To determine the price per pound of beef when it was
equal to the price per pound of chicken, determine the value of x (the num-
ber of weeks after July 1) when the two prices were equal. The prices were
equal when b = c; that is, when 2.35 + 0.25x = 1.75 + 0.40x. This last equation
0.60
is equivalent to 0.60 = 0.15x, and so x =  _  = 4. Then to determine b, the
0.15
price per pound of beef, substitute 4 for x in b = 2.35 + 0.25x, which gives
b = 2.35 + 0.25(4) = 3.35 dollars per pound.
Choice A is incorrect. It results from using the value 1, not 4, for x in

b = 2.35 + 0.25x. Choice B is incorrect. It results from using the value 2,
not 4, for x in b = 2.35 + 0.25x. Choice C is incorrect. It results from using
the value 3, not 4, for x in c = 1.75 + 0.40x.
QUESTION 12.
Choice D is correct. Determine the equation of the line to find the relation-
ship between the x- and y-coordinates of points on the line. All lines through
the origin are of the form y = mx, so the equation is y =  _ 1   x. A point lies on
7
1  of its x-coordinate.
the line if and only if its y-coordinate is  _ Of the given
7  1 _
choices, only choice D, (14, 2), satisfies this condition: 2 =    (14).
7
Choice A is incorrect because the line determined by the origin (0, 0) and (0, 7) is
the vertical line with equation x = 0; that is, the y-axis. The slope of the y-axis is
undefined, not _ 1 . Therefore, the point (0, 7) does not lie on the line that passes
7 1 . Choices B and C are incorrect because neither of the
the origin and has slope _
7 1   the value of the x-coordinate.
ordered pairs has a y-coordinate that is _
7
QUESTION 13.
1 (x + 2)(x + 3)
Choice B is correct. To rewrite , multiply by .
 _ 1     
1    +  _ (x + 2)(x + 3)
x+2 x+3
(x + 2)(x + 3)
This results in the expression , which is equivalent to the
(x + 3) + (x + 2)
expression in choice B.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and could be the result of common alge-
braic errors that arise while manipulating a complex fraction.
QUESTION 14.
8 x
Choice A is correct. One approach is to express  _y   so that the numerator
2
and denominator are expressed with the same base. Since 2 and 8 are both 29
8x (23)x
powers of 2, substituting 23 for 8 in the numerator of  _y    gives  _    , which
2 2y
can be rewritten as _
3x
23x   have
 2 y  . Since the numerator and denominator of  _
2 2y
a common base, this expression can be rewritten as 23x−y. It is given that
3x − y = 12, so one can substitute 12 for the exponent, 3x − y, giving that the
8x
expression _ y   is equal to 212.
2
Choices B and C are incorrect because they are not equal to 212. Choice D is
8x
incorrect because the value of  _    can be determined.
2y
QUESTION 15.
Choice D is correct. One can find the possible values of a and b in
(ax + 2)(bx + 7) by using the given equation a + b = 8 and find-
ing another equation that relates the variables a and b. Since
(ax + 2)(bx + 7) = 15x2 + cx + 14, one can expand the left side of the equation
to obtain abx2 + 7ax + 2bx + 14 = 15x2 + cx + 14. Since ab is the coefficient of
x2 on the left side of the equation and 15 is the coefficient of x2 on the right
side of the equation, it must be true that ab = 15. Since a + b = 8, it follows
that b = 8 − a. Thus, ab = 15 can be rewritten as a(8 − a) = 15, which in turn
can be rewritten as a2 − 8a + 15 = 0. Factoring gives (a − 3)(a − 5) = 0. Thus,
either a = 3 and b = 5, or a = 5 and b = 3. If a = 3 and b = 5, then (ax + 2)
(bx + 7) = (3x + 2)(5x + 7) = 15x2 + 31x + 14. Thus, one of the possible val-
ues of c is 31. If a = 5 and b = 3, then (ax + 2)(bx + 7) = (5x + 2)(3x + 7) =
15x2 + 41x + 14. Thus, another possible value for c is 41. Therefore, the two
possible values for c are 31 and 41.
Choice A is incorrect; the numbers 3 and 5 are possible values for a and
b, but not possible values for c. Choice B is incorrect; if a = 5 and b = 3,
then 6 and 35 are the coefficients of x when the expression (5x + 2)(3x + 7)
is expanded as 15x2 + 35x + 6x + 14. However, when the coefficients of x
are 6 and 35, the value of c is 41 and not 6 and 35. Choice C is incorrect; if
a = 3 and b = 5, then 10 and 21 are the coefficients of x when the expression
(3x + 2)(5x + 7) is expanded as 15x2 + 21x + 10x + 14. However, when the
coefficients of x are 10 and 21, the value of c is 31 and not 10 and 21.
QUESTION 16.
The correct answer is 2. To solve for t, factor the left side of t2 − 4 = 0, giv-
ing (t − 2)(t + 2) = 0. Therefore, either t − 2 = 0 or t + 2 = 0. If t − 2 = 0, then
t = 2, and if t + 2 = 0, then t = −2. Since it is given that t > 0, the value of t
must be 2.
Another way to solve for t is to add 4 to both sides of t2 − 4 = 0, giving t2 = 4.

Then, taking the square root of the left and the right side of the equation
_
   = ±2. Since it is given that t > 0, the value of t must be 2.
gives t = ±√4 
30
QUESTION 17.
The correct answer is 1600. It is given that ∠AEB and ∠CDB have the
same measure. Since ∠ABE and ∠CBD are vertical angles, they have the
same measure. Therefore, triangle EAB is similar to triangle DCB because
the triangles have two pairs of congruent corresponding angles (angle-
angle criterion for similarity of triangles). Since the triangles are similar, the
CD BD
corresponding sides are in the same proportion; thus _   x   =  _   . Substituting
EB CD _
the given values of 800 for CD, 700 for BD, and 1400 for EB in  _ BD
x    =   EB     
800 _ 700 (800)(1400)
gives  _ . Therefore, x =  _
x    =   1400       = 1600.
 
700
QUESTION 18.
The correct answer is 7. Subtracting the left and right sides of x + y = −9 from
the corresponding sides of x + 2y = −25 gives (x + 2y) − (x + y) = −25 − (−9),
which is equivalent to y = −16. Substituting −16 for y in x + y = −9 gives
x + (−16) = −9, which is equivalent to x = −9 − (−16) = 7.
QUESTION 19.
4
The correct answer is  _  or 0.8. By the complementary angle relationship
5
4  .
for sine and cosine, sin(x°) = cos(90° − x°). Therefore, cos(90° − x°) =  _
5
4  or its decimal equivalent, 0.8, may be gridded as the
Either the fraction  _
5
correct answer.
Alternatively, one can construct a right triangle that has an angle of measure
4  , as shown in the figure below, where sin(x°) is equal
x° such that sin(x°) =  _
5 4  .
to the ratio of the opposite side to the hypotenuse, or  _
5
90 – x
5 4
x 90°
Since two of the angles of the triangle are of measure x° and 90°, the third
angle must have the measure 180° − 90° − x° = 90° − x°. From the figure,
cos(90° − x°), which is equal to the ratio of the adjacent side to the hypot-
4  .
enuse, is also  _
5
QUESTION 20.
_ _
The correct answer is 100. Since a = 5√2      for a in
   , one can substitute 5√2 
_ _ _ _ _
2a =_√2     x, giving 10√2     x. Squaring each side of 10√2 
    = √2     x gives
    = √2 
_ _ _
 x
(10√2   )  2 = (√2 
  )2, which simplifies to (10)2 (√2   x
  )  2 = (√2 
  )2, or 200 = 2x. This gives
_
_
x = 100. Checking x = 100 _
in the_original_ equation gives _ _
2(5√2   _
   ) = √(2)(100) , 
which is true since 2(5√2     ) = 10√2 
    and √  
(2)(100)   = (√2 
   )(√100 
   ) = 10√2     .
31
Section 4: Math Test — Calculator
QUESTION 1.
Choice B is correct. On the graph, a line segment with a positive slope rep-
resents an interval over which the target heart rate is strictly increasing as
time passes. A horizontal line segment represents an interval over which
there is no change in the target heart rate as time passes, and a line seg-
ment with a negative slope represents an interval over which the target heart
rate is strictly decreasing as time passes. Over the interval between 40 and
60 minutes, the graph consists of a line segment with a positive slope fol-
lowed by a line segment with a negative slope, with no horizontal line seg-
ment in between, indicating that the target heart rate is strictly increasing
then strictly decreasing.
Choice A is incorrect because the graph over the interval between 0 and
30 minutes contains a horizontal line segment, indicating a period in
which there was no change in the target heart rate. Choice C is incorrect
because the graph over the interval between 50 and 65 minutes consists of
a line segment with a negative slope followed by a line segment with a pos-
itive slope, indicating that the target heart rate is strictly decreasing then
strictly increasing. Choice D is incorrect because the graph over the interval
between 70 and 90 minutes contains horizontal line segments and no seg-
ment with a negative slope.
QUESTION 2.
Choice C is correct. Substituting 6 for x and 24 for y in y = kx gives 24 = (k)(6),
which gives k = 4. Hence, y = 4x. Therefore, when x = 5, the value of y is
(4)(5) = 20. None of the other choices for y is correct because y is a function of
x, and so there is only one y-value for a given x-value.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is the result of using 6 for y

and 5 for x when solving for k. Choice B results from using a value of 3 for k
when solving for y. Choice D results from using y = k + x instead of y = kx.
QUESTION 3.
Choice D is correct. Consider the measures of ∠3 and ∠4 in the figure below.
s t
1

2 4 3
m
32
The measure of ∠3 is equal to the measure of ∠1 because they are corre-
sponding angles for the parallel lines  and m intersected by the transversal
line t. Similarly, the measure of ∠3 is equal to the measure of ∠4 because
they are corresponding angles for the parallel lines s and t intersected by
the transversal line m. Since the measure of ∠1 is 35°, the measures of
∠3 and ∠4 are also 35°. Since ∠4 and ∠2 are supplementary, the sum of
the measures of these two angles is 180°. Therefore, the measure of ∠2 is
180° − 35° = 145°.
Choice A is incorrect because 35° is the measure of ∠1, and ∠1 is not con-
gruent to ∠2. Choice B is incorrect because it is the measure of the com-
plementary angle of ∠1, and ∠1 and ∠2 are not complementary angles.
Choice C is incorrect because it is double the measure of ∠1.
QUESTION 4.
Choice C is correct. The description “16 + 4x is 10 more than 14” can be
written as the equation 16 + 4x = 10 + 14, which is equivalent to 16 + 4x = 24.
Subtracting 16 from each side of 16 + 4x = 24 gives 4x = 8. Since 8x is 2 times
4x, multiplying both sides of 4x = 8 by 2 gives 8x = 16. Therefore, the value
of 8x is 16.
Choice A is incorrect because it is the value of x, not 8x. Choices B and D

are incorrect; those choices may be a result of errors in rewriting 16 + 4x =
10 + 14. For example, choice D could be the result of subtracting 16 from the
left side of the equation and adding 16 to the right side of 16 + 4x = 10 + 14,
giving 4x = 40 and 8x = 80.
QUESTION 5.
Choice D is correct. A graph with a strong negative association between
d and t would have the points on the graph closely aligned with a line that
has a negative slope. The more closely the points on a graph are aligned with
a line, the stronger the association between d and t, and a negative slope
indicates a negative association. Of the four graphs, the points on graph
D are most closely aligned with a line with a negative slope. Therefore, the
graph in choice D has the strongest negative association between d and t.
Choice A is incorrect because the points are more scattered than the
points in choice D, indicating a weak negative association between d and t.
Choice B is incorrect because the points are aligned to either a curve or pos-
sibly a line with a small positive slope. Choice C is incorrect because the
points are aligned to a line with a positive slope, indicating a positive asso-
ciation between d and t.
33
QUESTION 6.
Choice D is correct. Since there are 10 grams in 1 decagram, there are
2 × 10 = 20 grams in 2 decagrams. Since there are 1,000 milligrams in
1 gram, there are 20 × 1,000 = 20,000 milligrams in 20 grams. Therefore,
20,000 1-milligram doses of the medicine can be stored in a 2-decagram
container.
Choice A is incorrect; 0.002 is the number of grams in 2 milligrams. Choice B is

incorrect; it could result from multiplying by 1,000 and dividing by 10 instead
of multiplying by both 1,000 and 10 when converting from decagrams to mil-
ligrams. Choice C is incorrect; 2,000 is the number of milligrams in 2 grams, not
the number of milligrams in 2 decagrams.
QUESTION 7.
Choice C is correct. Let x represent the number of installations that each
unit on the y-axis represents. Then 9x, 5x, 6x, 4x, and 3.5x are the num-
ber of rooftops with solar panel installations in cities A, B, C, D, and E,
respectively. Since the total number of rooftops is 27,500, it follows that
9x + 5x + 6x + 4x + 3.5x = 27,500, which simplifies to 27.5x = 27,500. Thus,
x = 1,000. Therefore, an appropriate label for the y-axis is “Number of instal-
lations (in thousands).”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may result from errors when setting
up and calculating the units for the y-axis.
QUESTION 8.
Choice D is correct. If the value of |n − 1| + 1 is equal to 0, then |n − 1| + 1 = 0.
Subtracting 1 from both sides of this equation gives |n − 1| = −1. The expres-
sion |n − 1| on the left side of the equation is the absolute value of n − 1,
and the absolute value can never be a negative number. Thus |n − 1| = −1
has no solution. Therefore, there are no values for n for which the value of
|n − 1| + 1 is equal to 0.
Choice A is incorrect because |0 − 1| + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2, not 0. Choice B is incor-

rect because |1 − 1| + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1, not 0. Choice C is incorrect because
|2 − 1| + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2, not 0.
QUESTION 9.
Choice A is correct. Subtracting 1,052 from both sides of the equa-
tion a = 1,052 + 1.08t gives a − 1,052 = 1.08t. Then dividing both sides of
a − 1,052
a − 1,052 = 1.08t by 1.08 gives t = _
   . 
 
1.08
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and could arise from errors in rewriting
a = 1,052 + 1.08t. For example, choice B could result if 1,052 is added to the
34
left side of a = 1,052 + 1.08t and subtracted from the right side, and then
both sides are divided by 1.08.
QUESTION 10.
Choice B is correct. Substituting 1,000 for a in the equation a = 1,052 + 1.08t
−52
gives 1,000 = 1,052 + 1.08t, and thus t =  _   ≈ − 48.15. Of the choices given,
1.08
−48°F is closest to −48.15°F. Since the equation a = 1,052 + 1.08t is linear,
it follows that of the choices given, −48°F is the air temperature when the
speed of a sound wave is closest to 1,000 feet per second.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect, and might arise from errors in

−52
calculating   _   or in rounding the result to the nearest integer. For exam-
1.08
ple, choice C could be the result of rounding −48.15 to −49 instead of −48.
QUESTION 11.
Choice A is correct. Subtracting 3x and adding 3 to both sides of
3x − 5 ≥ 4x − 3 gives −2 ≥ x. Therefore, x is a solution to 3x − 5 ≥ 4x − 3 if and
only if x is less than or equal to −2 and x is NOT a solution to 3x − 5 ≥ 4x − 3 if
and only if x is greater than −2. Of the choices given, only −1 is greater than
−2 and, therefore, cannot be a value of x.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is a value of x that is less than
or equal to −2 and, therefore, could be a solution to the inequality.
QUESTION 12.
Choice C is correct. The average number of seeds per apple is the total
number of seeds in the 12 apples divided by the number of apples, which
is 12. On the graph, the horizontal axis is the number of seeds per apple
and the height of each bar is the number of apples with the correspond-
ing number of seeds. The first bar on the left indicates that 2 apples have
3 seeds each, the second bar indicates that 4 apples have 5 seeds each,
the third bar indicates that 1 apple has 6 seeds, the fourth bar indicates
that 2 apples have 7 seeds each, and the fifth bar indicates that 3 apples
have 9 seeds each. Thus, the total number of seeds for the 12 apples
is (2 × 3) + (4 × 5) + (1 × 6) + (2 × 7) + (3 × 9) = 73, and the average
73
number of seeds per apple is  _  = 6.08. Of the choices given, 6 is closest
12
to 6.08.
Choice A is incorrect; it is the number of apples represented by the tallest

bar but is not the average number of seeds for the 12 apples. Choice B is
incorrect; it is the number of seeds per apple corresponding to the tallest
bar, but is not the average number of seeds for the 12 apples. Choice D is
incorrect; a student might choose this by correctly calculating the average
number of seeds, 6.08, but incorrectly rounding up to 7.
35
QUESTION 13.
Choice C is correct. From the table, there was a total of 310 survey respondents,
19
and 19% of all survey respondents is equivalent to _      × 310 = 58.9 respon-
100
dents. Of the choices given, 59, the number of males taking geometry, is clos-
est to 58.9 respondents.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the number of males taking

geometry is closer to 58.9 than the number of respondents in each of these
categories.
QUESTION 14.
Choice C is correct. The range of the 21 fish is 24 − 8 = 16 inches, and
the range of the 20 fish after the 24-inch measurement is removed is
16 − 8 = 8 inches. The change in range, 8 inches, is much greater than the
change in the mean or median.
Choice A is incorrect. Let m be the mean of the lengths, in inches, of the

21 fish. Then the sum of the lengths, in inches, of the 21 fish is 21m. After
the 24-inch measurement is removed, the sum of the lengths, in inches, of
the remaining 20 fish is 21m − 24, and the mean length, in inches, of these
24 − m
20 fish is  21m
_ − 24 
, which is a change of  _
   inches. Since m must be
  
20 20
between the smallest and largest measurements of the 21 fish, it follows that
8 < m < 24, from which it can be seen that the change in the mean, in inches,
24 − 8 _
is between  24
_ −  
24 
 = 0 and  _    4
 =     , and so must be less than the change
20 20 5
in the range, 8 inches. Choice B is incorrect because the median length
of the 21 fish is the length of the 11th fish, 12 inches. After removing the
24-inch measurement, the median of the remaining 20 lengths is the average
of the 10th and 11th fish, which would be unchanged at 12 inches. Choice
D is incorrect because the changes in the mean, median, and range of the
measurements are different.
QUESTION 15.
Choice A is correct. The total cost C of renting a boat is the sum of the initial
cost to rent the boat plus the product of the cost per hour and the num-
ber of hours, h, that the boat is rented. The C-intercept is the point on the
C-axis where h, the number of hours the boat is rented, is 0. Therefore, the
C-intercept is the initial cost of renting the boat.
Choice B is incorrect because the graph represents the cost of renting only
one boat. Choice C is incorrect because the total number of hours of rental is
represented by h-values, each of which corresponds to the first coordinate of
a point on the graph. Choice D is incorrect because the increase in cost for
each additional hour is given by the slope of the line, not by the C-intercept.
36
QUESTION 16.
Choice C is correct. The relationship between h and C is represented by any
equation of the given line. The C-intercept of the line is 5. Since the points
8−5 _ 3
(0, 5) and (1, 8) lie on the line, the slope of the line is _
     =     = 3. Therefore,
1−0 1
the relationship between h and C can be represented by C = 3h + 5, the
slope-intercept equation of the line.
Choices A and D are incorrect because each uses the wrong values for both
the slope and intercept. Choice B is incorrect; this choice would result from
computing the slope by counting the number of grid lines instead of using
the values represented by the axes.
QUESTION 17.
Choice B is correct. The minimum value of the function corresponds to the
y-coordinate of the point on the graph that is the lowest along the vertical
or y-axis. Since the grid lines are spaced 1 unit apart on each axis, the lowest
point along the y-axis has coordinates (−3, −2). Therefore, the value of x at
the minimum of f(x) is −3.
Choice A is incorrect; −5 is the smallest value for an x-coordinate of a point

on the graph of f, not the lowest point on the graph of f. Choice C is incor-
rect; it is the minimum value of f, not the value of x that corresponds to the
minimum of f. Choice D is incorrect; it is the value of x at the maximum
value of f, not at the minimum value of f.
QUESTION 18.
Choice A is correct. Since (0, 0) is a solution to the system of inequalities,
substituting 0 for x and 0 for y in the given system must result in two true
inequalities. After this substitution, y < −x + a becomes 0 < a, and y > x + b
becomes 0 > b. Hence, a is positive and b is negative. Therefore, a > b.
Choice B is incorrect because b > a cannot be true if b is negative and a

is positive. Choice C is incorrect because it is possible to find an example
where (0, 0) is a solution to the system, but |a| < |b|; for example, if a = 6 and
b = −7. Choice D is incorrect because the equation a = −b could be true, but
doesn’t have to be true; for example, if a = 1 and b = −2.
QUESTION 19.
Choice B is correct. To determine the number of salads sold, write and solve
a system of two equations. Let x equal the number of salads sold and let y
equal the number of drinks sold. Since the number of salads plus the num-
ber of drinks sold equals 209, the equation x + y = 209 must hold. Since each
37
salad cost $6.50, each soda cost $2.00, and the total revenue was $836.50, the
equation 6.50x + 2.00y = 836.50 must also hold. The equation x + y = 209 is
equivalent to 2x + 2y = 418, and subtracting each side of 2x + 2y = 418 from
the respective side of 6.50x + 2.00y = 836.50 gives 4.5x = 418.50. Therefore,
418.50
the number of salads sold, x, was x =  _   = 93.
4.50
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and could result from errors in writing the
equations and solving the system of equations. For example, choice C could
have been obtained by dividing the total revenue, $836.50, by the total price
of a salad and a soda, $8.50, and then rounding up.
QUESTION 20.
Choice D is correct. Let x be the original price of the computer, in dollars.
The discounted price is 20 percent off the original price, so x − 0.2x = 0.8x is
the discounted price, in dollars. The tax is 8 percent of the discounted price,
so 0.08(0.8x) is the tax on the purchase, in dollars. The price p, in dollars,
that Alma paid the cashiers is the sum of the discounted price and the tax:
p = 0.8x + (0.08)(0.8x) which can be rewritten as p = 1.08(0.8x). Therefore,
p
the original price, x, of the computer, in dollars, can be written as _
       
(0.8)(1.08)
in terms of p.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect; each choice either switches the roles
of the original price and the amount Alma paid, or incorrectly com-
bines the results of the discount and the tax as 0.8 + 0.08 = 0.88 instead of
as (0.8)(1.08).
QUESTION 21.
Choice C is correct. The probability that a person from Group Y who recalled
at least 1 dream was chosen from the group of all people who recalled at
least 1 dream is equal to the number of people in Group Y who recalled at
least 1 dream divided by the total number of people in the two groups who
recalled at least 1 dream. The number of people in Group Y who recalled
at least 1 dream is the sum of the 11 people in Group Y who recalled 1 to
4 dreams and the 68 people in Group Y who recalled 5 or more dreams:
11 + 68 = 79. The total number of people who recalled at least 1 dream is
the sum of the 79 people in Group Y who recalled at least 1 dream, the 28
people in Group X who recalled 1 to 4 dreams, and the 57 people in Group
X who recalled 5 or more dreams: 79 + 28 + 57 = 164. Therefore, the prob-
79
ability is  _   .
164
Choice A is incorrect; it is the number of people in Group Y who recalled
5 or more dreams divided by the total number of people in Group Y. Choice
B is incorrect; it uses the total number of people in Group Y as the denomi-
nator of the probability. Choice D is incorrect; it is the total number of peo-
ple in the two groups who recalled at least 1 dream divided by the total num-
38
ber of people in the two groups.
QUESTION 22.
Choice B is correct. The average rate of change in the annual budget for
agriculture/natural resources from 2008 to 2010 is the total change from to
2008 to 2010 divided by the number of years, which is 2. The total change
in the annual budget for agriculture/natural resources from 2008 to 2010 is
488,106 − 358,708 = 129,398, in thousands of dollars, so the average change
in the annual budget for agriculture/natural resources from 2008 to 2010
$129,398,000
is   __    = $64,699,000 per year. Of the options given, this average
 
2
rate of change is closest to $65,000,000 per year.
Choices A and C are incorrect; they could result from errors in setting up or
calculating the average rate of change. Choice D is incorrect; $130,000,000 is
the approximate total change from 2008 to 2010, not the average change from
2008 to 2010.
QUESTION 23.
Choice B is correct. The human resources budget in 2007 was
4,051,050 thousand dollars, and the human resources budget in 2010
was 5,921,379 thousand dollars. Therefore, the ratio of the 2007 bud-
get to the 2010 budget is slightly greater than  _ 2  . Similar estimates for
4   =  _
6 3
agriculture/natural resources give a ratio of the 2007 budget to the 2010
3
budget of slightly greater than  _  ; for education, a ratio of slightly greater
4
2  ; for highways and transportation, 5
than  _ a ratio of slightly less than  _  ; and
3 5 6
for public safety, a ratio of slightly greater than  _  . Therefore, of the given
9
choices, education’s ratio of the 2007 budget to the 2010 budget is closest to
that of human resources.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the 2007 budget to 2010 budget
ratio for each of these programs in these choices is further from the corre-
sponding ratio for human resources than the ratio for education.
QUESTION 24.
Choice A is correct. The equation of a circle can be written as (x − h)2 +
(y − k)2 = r2 where (h, k) are the coordinates of the center of the circle and
r is the radius of the circle. Since the coordinates of the center of the circle
are (0, 4), the equation is x2 + (y − 4)2 = r2, where r is the radius. The radius
of the circle is the distance from the center, (0, 4), to the given endpoint of a
( )
radius,  _
3 ( )
4  − 0 2 + (5 − 4)2 =  _
4  , 5 . By the distance formula, r2 =  _
3
25
9
 .  Therefore,
25
an equation of the given circle is x2 + (y − 4)2 =  _ . 
9
Choice B is incorrect; it results from the incorrect equation (x + h)2 +
(y + k)2 = r2. Choice C is incorrect; it results from using r instead of r2 in the
equation for the circle. Choice D is incorrect; it results from using the incor-
rect equation (x + h)2 + (y + k)2 =  _ 1  .
r 39
QUESTION 25.
Choice D is correct. When the ball hits the ground, its height is 0 meters.
Substituting 0 for h in h = −4.9t2 + 25t gives 0 = −4.9t2 + 25t, which can
be rewritten as 0 = t(−4.9t + 25). Thus, the possible values of t are t = 0
25
and t =  _   ≈ 5.1. The time t = 0 seconds corresponds to the time the ball
4.9
is launched from the ground, and the time t ≈ 5.1 seconds corresponds to
the time after launch that the ball hits the ground. Of the given choices,
5.0 seconds is closest to 5.1 seconds, so the ball returns to the ground
approximately 5.0 seconds after it is launched.
Choice A, B, and C are incorrect and could arise from conceptual or compu-
tation errors while solving 0 = −4.9t2 + 25t for t.
QUESTION 26.
Choice B is correct. Let x represent the number of pears produced by the
Type B trees. Then the Type A trees produce 20 percent more pears than x,
which is x + 0.20x = 1.20x pears. Since Type A trees produce 144 pears, the
144   = 120. Therefore, the Type B trees
equation 1.20x = 144 holds. Thus x =  _
1.20
produced 120 pears.
Choice A is incorrect because while 144 is reduced by approximately 20 per-

cent, increasing 115 by 20 percent gives 138, not 144. Choice C is incorrect;
it results from subtracting 20 from the number of pears produced by the
Type A trees. Choice D is incorrect; it results from adding 20 percent of the
number of pears produced by Type A trees to the number of pears produced
by Type A trees.
QUESTION 27.
Choice C is correct. The area of the field is 100 square meters. Each 1-meter-
by-1-meter square has an area of 1 square meter. Thus, on average, the earth-
worm counts to a depth of 5 centimeters for each of the regions investigated
by the students should be about  _1    of the total number of earthworms to
100
a depth of 5 centimeters in the entire field. Since the counts for the smaller
regions are from 107 to 176, the estimate for the entire field should be
between 10,700 and 17,600. Therefore, of the given choices, 15,000 is a rea-
sonable estimate for the number of earthworms to a depth of 5 centimeters
in the entire field.
Choice A is incorrect; 150 is the approximate number of earthworms

in 1 square meter. Choice B is incorrect; it results from using 10 square
meters as the area of the field. Choice D is incorrect; it results from using
1,000 square meters as the area of the field.
40
QUESTION 28.
Choice C is correct. To determine which quadrant does not contain any solu-
tions to the system of inequalities, graph the inequalities. Graph the inequal-
ity y ≥ 2x + 1 by drawing a line through the y-intercept (0, 1) and the point
1 x − 1 by drawing a dashed line through
(1, 3), and graph the inequality y >  _
2
the y-intercept (0, −1) and the point (2, 0), as shown in the figure below.
y y > 2x + 1
1
II I y > x–1
2
x
III IV
The solution to the system of inequalities is the intersection of the shaded regions
above the graphs of both lines. It can be seen that the solutions only include
points in quadrants I, II, and III and do not include any points in quadrant IV.
Choices A and B are incorrect because quadrants II and III contain solu-
tions to the system of inequalities, as shown in the figure above. Choice D is
incorrect because there are no solutions in quadrant IV.
QUESTION 29.
Choice D is correct. If the polynomial p(x) is divided by x − 3, the result
p(x) r
can be written as  _    = q(x) +  _     , where q(x) is a polynomial and r
x−3 x−3
is the remainder. Since x − 3 is a degree 1 polynomial, the remainder
is a real number. Hence, p(x) can be written as p(x) = (x − 3)q(x) + r,
where r is a real number. It is given that p(3) = −2 so it must be true that
−2 = p(3) = (3 − 3)q(3) + r = (0)q(3) + r = r. Therefore, the remainder when
p(x) is divided by x − 3 is −2.
Choice A is incorrect because p(3) = −2 does not imply that p(5) = 0.

Choices B and C are incorrect because the remainder −2 or its negative, 2,
need not be a root of p(x).
QUESTION 30.
Choice D is correct. Any quadratic function q can be written in the form
q(x) = a(x − h)2 + k, where a, h, and k are constants and (h, k) is the vertex of
the parabola when q is graphed in the coordinate plane. (Depending on the
41
sign of a, the constant k must be the minimum or maximum value of q, and
h is the value of x for which a(x − h)2 = 0 and q(x) has value k.) This form
can be reached by completing the square in the expression that defines q.
The given equation is y = x2 − 2x − 15, and since the coefficient of x is −2,
the equation can be written in terms of (x − 1)2 = x2 − 2x + 1 as follows:
y = x2 − 2x − 15 = (x2 − 2x + 1) − 16 = (x − 1)2 − 16. From this form of the
equation, the coefficients of the vertex can be read as (1, −16)
Choices A and C are incorrect because the coordinates of the vertex A do

not appear as constants in these equations. Choice B is incorrect because it is
not equivalent to the given equation.
QUESTION 31.
The correct answer is any number between 4 and 6, inclusive. Since Wyatt
can husk at least 12 dozen ears of corn per hour, it will take him no more
72
than  _   5 6 hours to husk 72 dozen ears of corn. On the other hand, since
12
Wyatt can husk at most 18 dozen ears of corn per hour, it will take him
72
at least  _   5 4 hours to husk 72 dozen ears of corn. Therefore, the possi-
18
ble times it could take Wyatt to husk 72 dozen ears of corn are 4 hours to
6 hours, inclusive. Any number between 4 and 6, inclusive, can be gridded as
the correct answer.
QUESTION 32.
The correct answer is 107. Since the weight of the empty truck and its driver
is 4500 pounds and each box weighs 14 pounds, the weight, in pounds, of
the delivery truck, its driver, and x boxes is 4500 + 14x. This weight is below
the bridge’s posted weight limit of 6000 pounds if 4500 + 14x < 6000. That
1500 1  . Since the number
inequality is equivalent to 14x ≤ 1500 or x <  _   = 107  _
14 7
of packages must be an integer, the maximum possible value for x that will
keep the combined weight of the truck, its driver, and the x identical boxes
below the bridge’s posted weight limit is 107.
QUESTION 33.
5
The correct answer is  _  or .625. Based on the line graph, the number of
8
portable media players sold in 2008 was 100 million, and the number of
portable media players sold in 2011 was 160 million. Therefore, the number
100 million
of portable media players sold in 2008 is _
   of the portable media
 
160 million
5 5
players sold in 2011. This fraction reduces to  _  . Either   _  or its decimal
8 8
equivalent, .625, may be gridded as the correct answer.
QUESTION 34.
The correct answer is 96. Since each day has a total of 24 hours of time
42 slots available for the station to sell, there is a total of 48 hours of time slots
available to sell on Tuesday and Wednesday. Each time slot is a 30-minute
interval, which is equal to a  _ 1  -hour interval. Therefore, there are a total
2
__ 48 hours
of        = 96 time slots of 30 minutes for the station to sell on
1  hours/time slot
 _
2
Tuesday and Wednesday.
QUESTION 35.
The correct answer is 6. The volume of a cylinder is πr2h, where r is the
radius of the base of the cylinder and h is the height of the cylinder. Since
the storage silo is a cylinder with volume 72π cubic yards and height 8 yards,
it is true that 72π = πr2(8), where r is the radius of the base of the cylinder,
in yards. Dividing both sides of 72π = πr2(8) by 8π gives r2 = 9, and so the
radius of base of the cylinder is 3 yards. Therefore, the diameter of the base
of the cylinder is 6 yards.
QUESTION 36.
The correct answer is 3. The function h(x) is undefined when the denomi-
nator of   __
  
1    is equal to zero. The expression (x − 5)2 +
(x − 5)2 + 4(x − 5) + 4
4(x − 5) + 4 is a perfect square: (x − 5)2 + 4(x − 5) + 4 = ((x − 5) + 2)2, which
can be rewritten as (x − 3)2. The expression (x − 3)2 is equal to zero if and
only if x = 3. Therefore, the value of x for which h(x) is undefined is 3.
QUESTION 37.
The correct answer is 1.02. The initial deposit earns 2 percent inter-
est compounded annually. Thus at the end of 1 year, the new value of the
account is the initial deposit of $100 plus 2 percent of the initial deposit:
$100 +  _2    ($100) = $100(1.02). Since the interest is compounded annually,
100
the value at the end of each succeeding year is the sum of the previous
year’s value plus 2 percent of the previous year’s value. This is again equiva-
lent to multiplying the previous year’s value by 1.02. Thus, after 2 years, the
value will be $100(1.02)(1.02) = $100(1.02)2; after 3 years, the value will be
$100(1.02)3; and after t years, the value will be $100(1.02)t. Therefore, in the
formula for the value for Jessica’s account after t years, $100(x)t, the value of
x must be 1.02.
QUESTION 38.
The correct answer is 6.11. Jessica made an initial deposit of $100 into her
account. The interest on her account is 2 percent compounded annually, so
after 10 years, the value of her initial deposit has been multiplied 10 times
by the factor 1 + 0.02 = 1.02. Hence, after 10 years, Jessica’s deposit is worth
$100(1.02)10 = $121.899 to the nearest tenth of a cent. Tyshaun made an ini-
tial deposit of $100 into his account. The interest on his account is 2.5 per-
cent compounded annually, so after 10 years, the value of his initial deposit 43
has been multiplied 10 times by the factor 1 + 0.025 = 1.025. Hence, after
10 years, Tyshaun’s deposit is worth $100(1.025)10 = $128.008 to the nearest
tenth of a cent. Hence, Jessica’s initial deposit earned $21.899 and Tyshaun’s
initial deposit earned $28.008. Therefore, to the nearest cent, Tyshaun’s ini-
tial deposit earned $6.11 more than Jessica’s initial deposit.
44
Scoring Your
®
Congratulations on completing an SAT® practice test. To score your test, use these instructions
and the conversion tables and answer key at the end of this document.
Scores Overview
The redesigned SAT will provide more information about your learning by reporting more
scores than ever before. Each of the redesigned assessments (SAT, PSAT/NMSQT®, PSAT™ 10,
and PSAT™ 8/9) will report test scores and cross-test scores on a common scale. Additionally,
subscores will be reported to provide additional diagnostic information to students, educators,
and parents. For more details about scores, visit collegereadiness.collegeboard.org/sat/scores.
The practice test you completed was written by the College Board’s Assessment Design &
Development team using the same processes and review standards used when writing the
actual SAT. Everything from the layout of the page to the construction of the questions accurately
reflects what you’ll see on test day.
How to Calculate Your Practice Test Scores
GET SET UP
 You’ll need the answer sheet that you bubbled in while taking the practice test. You’ll also
need the conversion tables and answer key at the end of this document.
 Using the answer key, count up your total correct answers for each section. You may want
to write the number of correct answers for each section at the bottom of that section in the
answer key.
 Using your marked-up answer key and the conversion tables, follow the directions to get all
of your scores.
SAT Practice Test #1 Created 8/4/2015 1

GET SECTION AND TOTAL SCORES
Your total score on the SAT practice test is the sum of your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing
Section score and your Math Section score. To get your total score, you will convert what we call
the “raw score” for each section — the number of questions you got right in that section — into
the “scaled score” for that section, then calculate the total score.
GET YOUR EVIDENCE-BASED READING AND WRITING SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score (it’s on a scale of 200–800)
by first determining your Reading Test score and your Writing and Language Test score. Here’s how:
 Count the number of correct answers you got on Section 1 (the Reading Test). There is no
penalty for wrong answers. The number of correct answers is your raw score.
 Go to Raw Score Conversion Table 1: Section and Test Scores on page 7. Look in the “Raw Score”
column for your raw score, and match it to the number in the “Reading Test Score” column.
 Do the same with Section 2 to determine your Writing and Language Test score.
 Add your Reading Test score to your Writing and Language Test score.
 Multiply that number by 10. This is your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score.
EXAMPLE: Keisha answered 29 of the 52 questions correctly on the SAT Reading Test and
20 of the 44 questions correctly on the SAT Writing and Language Test. Using the table on page
7, she calculates that she received an SAT Reading Test score of 27 and an SAT Writing and
Language Test score of 23. She adds 27 to 23 (gets 50) and then multiplies by 10 to determine
her SAT Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score of 500.
GET YOUR MATH SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Math Section score (it’s on a scale of 200–800).
 Count the number of correct answers you got on Section 3 (Math Test — No Calculator) and
Section 4 (Math Test — Calculator). There is no penalty for wrong answers.
 Add the number of correct answers you got on Section 3 (Math Test — No Calculator) and
Section 4 (Math Test — Calculator).
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 1: Section and Test Scores to turn your raw score into your
Math Section score.
GET YOUR TOTAL SCORE

Add your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score to your Math Section score. The
result is your total score on the SAT Practice Test, on a scale of 400–1600.

GET SUBSCORES
Subscores provide more detailed information about your strengths in specific areas within
literacy and math. They are reported on a scale of 1–15.
HEART OF ALGEBRA
The Heart of Algebra subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that focus on linear
equations and inequalities.
 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
Math Test – No Calculator: Questions 1; 3-4; 6; 9; 11-12; 18
Math Test – Calculator: Questions 4; 8; 10-11; 15-16; 18-19; 28; 31-32
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores on page 8 to determine your Heart of Algebra
subscore.
PROBLEM SOLVING AND DATA ANALYSIS

The Problem Solving and Data Analysis subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that
focus on quantitative reasoning, the interpretation and synthesis of data, and solving problems
in rich and varied contexts.
Math Test – No Calculator: No Questions
Math Test – Calculator: Questions 1-2; 5-7; 12-14; 17; 20-23; 26-27; 33-34
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Problem Solving and Data
Analysis subscore.
PASSPORT TO ADVANCED MATH

The Passport to Advanced Math subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that focus
on topics central to the ability of students to progress to more advanced mathematics, such
as understanding the structure of expressions, reasoning with more complex equations, and
interpreting and building functions.
Math Test – No Calculator: Questions 5; 7-8; 10; 13-16; 20
Math Test – Calculator: Questions 9; 25; 29-30; 36-38
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Passport to Advanced
Math subscore.

EXPRESSION OF IDEAS
The Expression of Ideas subscore is based on questions from the Writing and Language Test that
focus on topic development, organization, and rhetorically effective use of language.
Writing and Language Test: Questions 1-2; 5-6; 9-10; 12-14; 20-23; 27-29; 31; 33-35; 37-39; 42
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Expression of Ideas subscore.
STANDARD ENGLISH CONVENTIONS

The Standard English Conventions subscore is based on questions from the Writing and
Language Test that focus on sentence structure, usage, and punctuation.
Writing and Language Test: Questions 3-4; 7-8; 11; 15-19; 24-26; 30; 32; 36; 40-41; 43-44
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Standard English
Conventions subscore.
WORDS IN CONTEXT
The Words in Context subscore is based on questions from both the Reading Test and the Writing
and Language Test that address word/phrase meaning in context and rhetorical word choice.
Reading Test: Questions 3; 8; 12; 18; 22; 27; 34; 40; 45; 48
Writing and Language Test: Questions 1; 10; 13; 21; 23; 33; 35; 39
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Words in Context subscore.
COMMAND OF EVIDENCE
The Command of Evidence subscore is based on questions from both the Reading Test and the
Writing and Language Test that ask you to interpret and use evidence found in a wide range of
passages and informational graphics, such as graphs, tables, and charts.
Reading Test: Questions 5; 10; 14; 17; 19; 23; 28-29; 37; 39
Writing and Language Test: Questions 2; 6; 12; 20; 28-29; 37; 42
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Command of Evidence
subscore.

GET CROSS-TEST SCORES
The new SAT also reports two cross-test scores: Analysis in History/Social Studies and Analysis
in Science. These scores are based on questions in the Reading, Writing and Language, and Math
Tests that ask students to think analytically about texts and questions in these subject areas.
Cross-test scores are reported on a scale of 10–40.
ANALYSIS IN HISTORY/SOCIAL STUDIES
Reading Test: Questions 11-21; 32-41
Writing and Language Test: Questions 1-2; 5-6; 9-10
Math Test – No Calculator: Questions 7, 11
Math Test – Calculator: Questions 7; 22-23; 33; 37-38
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 3: Cross-Test Scores on page 9 to determine your Analysis
in History/Social Studies cross-test score.
ANALYSIS IN SCIENCE
Reading Test: Questions 22-31; 42-52
Writing and Language Test: Questions 12-14; 20-22
Math Test – No Calculator: Question 6
Math Test – Calculator: Questions 6; 9; 14; 21; 25-27
 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 3: Cross-Test Scores to determine your Analysis in Science
cross-test score.

SAT Practice Test #1: Worksheets
ANSWER KEY
Reading Test Answers Writing and Language Test Answers
1 B 12 B 23 D 34 C 45 D 1 D 12 B 23 D 34 A
2 B 13 D 24 D 35 B 46 C 2 B 13 A 24 D 35 A
3 C 14 A 25 C 36 D 47 B 3 A 14 B 25 B 36 B
4 A 15 A 26 B 37 C 48 A 4 C 15 C 26 A 37 D
5 C 16 C 27 D 38 C 49 D 5 C 16 C 27 B 38 C
6 D 17 C 28 C 39 B 50 B 6 D 17 C 28 C 39 A
7 D 18 D 29 A 40 C 51 D 7 B 18 A 29 B 40 B
8 B 19 A 30 A 41 B 52 A 8 C 19 D 30 D 41 B
9 C 20 B 31 D 42 B 9 A 20 D 31 C 42 C
10 B 21 A 32 B 43 A 10 A 21 B 32 A 43 D
11 A 22 B 33 A 44 A 11 B 22 D 33 A 44 D
READING TEST WRITING AND

RAW SCORE LANGUAGE TEST
(NUMBER OF RAW SCORE
CORRECT ANSWERS) (NUMBER OF
CORRECT ANSWERS)
Math Test Math Test

No Calculator Answers Calculator Answers
1 D 11 D 1 B 11 A 21 C 31 Any number between 4-6, inclusive

2 A 12 D 2 C 12 C 22 B 32 107
3 C 13 B 3 D 13 C 23 B 33 5/8 or 0.625
4 B 14 A 4 C 14 C 24 A 34 96
5 C 15 D 5 D 15 A 25 D 35 6
6 A 16 2 6D 16 C 26 B 36 3
7 B 17 1600 7 C 17 B 27 C 37 1.02
8C 18 7 8 D 18 A 28 C 38 6.11
9B 19 4/5 or 0.8 9 A 19 B 29 D
10 A 20 100 10 B 20 D 30 D
MATH TEST MATH TEST

NO CALCULATOR CALCULATOR
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE
(NUMBER OF (NUMBER OF
CORRECT ANSWERS) CORRECT ANSWERS)

RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE 1 SECTION AND TEST SCORES
Raw Math Writing and Raw Math Writing and
Score Reading Score Reading Test
Section Language Section Language
(# of correct Test Score (# of correct Score
answers) Score Test Score answers) Score Test Score
0 200 10 10 30 530 28 29
1 200 10 10 31 540 28 30
2 210 10 10 32 550 29 30
3 230 11 10 33 560 29 31
4 240 12 11 34 560 30 32
5 260 13 12 35 570 30 32
6 280 14 13 36 580 31 33
7 290 15 13 37 590 31 34
8 310 15 14 38 600 32 34
9 320 16 15 39 600 32 35
10 330 17 16 40 610 33 36
11 340 17 16 41 620 33 37
12 360 18 17 42 630 34 38
13 370 19 18 43 640 35 39
14 380 19 19 44 650 35 40
15 390 20 19 45 660 36
16 410 20 20 46 670 37
17 420 21 21 47 670 37
18 430 21 21 48 680 38
19 440 22 22 49 690 38
20 450 22 23 50 700 39
21 460 23 23 51 710 40
22 470 23 24 52 730 40
23 480 24 25 53 740
24 480 24 25 54 750
25 490 25 26 55 760
26 500 25 26 56 780
27 510 26 27 57 790
28 520 26 28 58 800
29 520 27 28
CONVERSION EQUATION 1 SECTION AND TEST SCORES

Convert
Ú
READING TEST READING TEST
RAW SCORE SCORE
(0-52) (10-40)
Convert
Ú + = x 10 =
WRITING AND WRITING AND READING TEST READING AND EVIDENCE-BASED
LANGUAGE TEST LANGUAGE SCORE WRITING READING AND WRITING
RAW SCORE TEST SCORE (10-40) TEST SCORE SECTION SCORE
(0-44) (10-40) (20-80) (200-800)
+ = Convert
Ú + =
MATH TEST MATH TEST MATH SECTION MATH SECTION EVIDENCE-BASED TOTAL SAT
NO CALCULATOR CALCULATOR RAW SCORE SCORE READING AND WRITING SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0-58) (200-800) SECTION SCORE (400-1600)
(0-20) (0-38) (200-800)

RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE 2 SUBSCORES
Raw Standard Problem
Score Expression Heart of Passport to Words in Command of
English Solving and
(# of correct of Ideas Algebra Advanced Math Context Evidence
answers) Conventions Data Analysis
0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1
2 1 1 2 2 5 2 2
3 2 2 3 3 6 3 3
4 3 2 4 4 7 4 4
5 4 3 5 5 8 5 5
6 5 4 6 6 9 6 6
7 6 5 6 7 10 6 7
8 6 6 7 8 11 7 8
9 7 6 8 8 11 8 8
10 7 7 8 9 12 8 9
11 8 7 9 10 12 9 10
12 8 8 9 10 13 9 10
13 9 8 9 11 13 10 11
14 9 9 10 12 14 11 12
15 10 10 10 13 14 12 13
16 10 10 11 14 15 13 14
17 11 11 12 15 14 15
18 11 12 13 15 15
19 12 13 15
20 12 15
21 13
22 14
23 14
24 15
CONVERSION EQUATION 2 SUBSCORES
Convert Convert Convert

Ú Ú Ú
HEART OF ALGEBRA HEART OF ALGEBRA EXPRESSION EXPRESSION COMMAND OF COMMAND OF
RAW SCORE SUBSCORE OF IDEAS OF IDEAS EVIDENCE EVIDENCE
(0-19) (1-15) RAW SCORE SUBSCORE RAW SCORE SUBSCORE
(0-24) (1-15) (0-18) (1-15)
Convert Convert Convert

Ú Ú Ú
PROBLEM PROBLEM STANDARD ENGLISH STANDARD ENGLISH WORDS IN WORDS IN
SOLVING AND DATA SOLVING AND DATA CONVENTIONS CONVENTIONS CONTEXT CONTEXT
ANALYSIS RAW SCORE ANALYSIS SUBSCORE RAW SCORE SUBSCORE RAW SCORE SUBSCORE
(0-17) (1-15) (0-20) (1-15) (0-18) (1-15)
Convert
Ú
PASSPORT TO PASSPORT TO
ADVANCED MATH ADVANCED MATH
RAW SCORE SUBSCORE
(0-16) (1-15)

RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE 3 CROSS-TEST SCORES
Raw Analysis in History/ Raw Analysis in History/
Score Analysis in Science Score Analysis in Science
Social Studies Social Studies
(# of correct Cross-Test Score (# of correct Cross-Test Score
answers) Cross-Test Score answers) Cross-Test Score
0 10 10 18 28 26
1 10 11 19 29 27
2 11 12 20 30 27
3 12 13 21 30 28
4 14 14 22 31 29
5 15 15 23 32 30
6 16 16 24 32 30
7 17 17 25 33 31
8 18 18 26 34 32
9 20 19 27 35 33
10 21 20 28 35 33
11 22 20 29 36 34
12 23 21 30 37 35
13 24 22 31 38 36
14 25 23 32 38 37
15 26 24 33 39 38
16 27 24 34 40 39
17 28 25 35 40 40
CONVERSION EQUATION 3 CROSS-TEST SCORES
Analysis in History/Social Studies Analysis in Science
Test Questions Raw Score Questions Raw Score
Reading Test 11-21; 32-41 22-31; 42-52
Writing and
1-2; 5-6; 9-10 12-14; 20-22
Language Test
Math Test
7, 11 6
No Calculator
Math Test
7; 22-23; 33; 37-38 6; 9; 14; 21; 25-27
Calculator
Total
Convert Convert
Ú Ú
ANALYSIS IN HISTORY/ ANALYSIS IN HISTORY/ ANALYSIS IN SCIENCE ANALYSIS IN SCIENCE
SOCIAL STUDIES SOCIAL STUDIES RAW SCORE CROSS-TEST SCORE
RAW SCORE CROSS-TEST SCORE (0-35) (10-40)
(0-35) (10-40)

SAT Practice Test 1 Combined PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SAT Practice Test 1 Combined PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SAT Practice Test #1

This cover is representative of what you’ll see on test day.

passage. twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

protein per serving, thereby helping people stay

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Average Daily High and Low Temperatures Recorded

Mar 5 Jun 10 Sep 8 Dec 13

Adapted from WMO. ©2014 by World Meteorological Organization.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

the Great Melt of 2012 have focused exclusively on rising

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

sheet. [6] Members of the public will be able to track his

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

ability to focus 68%

standard of work 62%

Which choice most effectively completes the

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

grown 46 percent in a decade. Also, studies have found

Record Examination (GRE), for example, students

instead they plan to apply those skills to other disciplines.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

enhancing philosophy courses and majors within B) one’s

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

If t > 0 and t 2 − 4 = 0 , what is the value of t ? x + y = −9

In a right triangle, one angle measures x°, where

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

1. The use of a calculator is permitted.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

120 In the figure above, lines A and m are parallel and

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.