SPOOKY FILE

1. A normal stimulated salivary flow rate for an adult patient should be

A- .01 mL per minute
B- 0.1 mL per minute
C- 1.0 mL per minute 
D- 10 mL per minute

2. Which of the following premolars is most likely to have three canals?

A- Maxillary first 
B- Maxillary second
C- Mandibular first
D- Mandibular second

3. The decision to replace an existing amalgam restoration should be made

as soon as the restoration exhibits
A- Creep
B- Recurrent caries 
C- Corrosion and tarnish
D- Ditching around occlusal margings

4. Surgical flap access therapy is indicated and most beneficial when used
A- For those early to moderate defects not resolved with initial
therapy
B- As the initial treatment for patients having extremely heavy subgingival
calculus
C- To eliminate pocketing more rapidly so the patient can proceed with
treatment
D- To improve plaque control effectiveness in patients having difficult
achieving good plaque control
5. A child’s behavior problem can be managed by desensitization if the
basis of the problem is
A- Pain
B- Fear 
C- Emotional
D- The parents

6. Drug-induced hypnosis can be produced by depressing which of the

following?
A- Cerebellum
B- Hypothalamus 
C- limbic system 
D- Reticular activating system

7. - Which of the following represents the best way to increase a patient’s

pain tolerance?
A- Stress that pain does not signify damage
B- Tell the patient that the procedure will be completed soon
C- Tell the patient that he/she should be able to tolerate the pain
D- Increase the patient’s sense of control over the denture of the pain

8. Informed consent reflects which of the following ethical principles?

A- Justice
B- Autonomy 
C- Beneficence
D- Nonmaleficense
9. Which of the following most closely resembles normal parotid gland
histologically?
A- Pleomorphic adenoma
B- Monomorphic adenoma 
C- Acinic cell carcinoma 
D- Adenoid cystic carcinoma

10. A developmentally-disabled patient should be treated with

A- Flattery
B- Deference
C- Consistency
D- Permissiveness

11. Auxiliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as

boxes and grooves should ideally be located?
A- Facially
B- Lingually
C- Occlusally
D- Proximally

12. What is the easiest method for examining a 12-month-old child?

A- Child in the dental chair and parent at chairside
B- Parent in the dental chair and the child sitting on parent’s lap
C- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position whit the child’s head
on dentist’s lap
D- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head on
parent’s lap
13. Which of the following has been most strongly implicated in the cause
of aphthous stomatitis?
A- Cytomegalovirus
B- Allergy to tomatoes
C- Herpes simplex virus 
D- Staphylococcal organisms
E- Human leukocyte antigens

14. Which of the following explains why the fovea palatini are not used as
landmarks for determining the precise posterior border of maxillary denture
base?
A- They have no relation to the vibrating line area
B- They are inconsistent in their relationship to the vibrating line
C- They are opening of mucous glands that should not be covered y
the denture border
D- They are located on the horizontal hard palate

15.Phenytoin is most often recommended for controlling which of the

following seizures?
A- Status epilepticus
B- Tonic-clonic (grand mal) 
C- Absence epilepsy (petit mal)
D- Myoclonic seizure in childhood

16. A dental office employee wishes to verify that instruments have been
sterilized. Which of the following methods is most accurate?
A- Place indicator tape on the instruments 
B- Use biological monitors
C- Examine the sterilizer packages for color changes
D- Observe the temperature gauge on the sterilizing unit
17. If a particular test is to correctly identify 95 out of 100 existing disease
cases, then that test would have a
A- Specificity of 95%
B- Sensitivity of 95%
C- Positive predictive value of 95%
D- Validity of 95%

18. Which of the following directly image the TMJ disc?

A- TMJ tomography 
B- TMJ arthrography
C- Panoramic radiography
D- Transcranial radiography
E- Magnetic resonance imaging

19. A patient with Stage I medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw

(MRONJ) with exposed bone in the maxilla is best treated with
A- Radiation therapy
B- Hyperbaric oxygen 
C- Debridement of the area
D- Chlorhexidine rinses

20. Disadvantages of oral sedation include which of the following?

A- Multiple drugs needed for proper sedation
B- High incidence and severity of adverse reactions 
C- Unpredictable absorption of drugs from the GI tract
D- Short duration of action

21. Which of the following might precipitate an asthma attack?

A- Narcotic analgesics
B- Nonsteroidal antiinflamatory drugs 
C- Corticosteroids
D- Sympathomimetic amines
22. - Which of the following would be LEAST likely to lead to the
development of root surface caries on facial surfaces?
A- Low salivary flow
B- Elevated levels of sucrose consumption 
C- Streptococcus sanguis dominating adjacent plaque
D- History of head/neck radiation therapy

23. The water supply of a community has 0.28 ppm fluoride. Which of the
following procedures is appropiate for a 4-year-old child exhibiting
moderate caries risk?
A- Prescribing a fluoride mouthrinse
B- Prescribing a systemic fluoride supplement 
C- Applying fluoride topically at each visit
D- Additional fluoride is unnecessary

24. A 65-year-old white male smokes 2 packs of cigarretes per day. He had
a heart attack six weeks ago and continues to have chest pains even while
at rest. He is transported to the office by wheelchair because be becomes
extremely short of breath with even mild exertion. The physical status that
best describes the above patients is
A- P.S.I
B- P.S.II 
C- P.S.III
D- P.S.IV

25. What is the minimum amount of bone needed between 2 adjacent

implants?
A- 1mm
B- 2mm
C- 3mm 
D- 4mm
26. A dentist has planned in-office-bleaching and porcelain laminate
veneers for a patient’s maxillary anterior teeth. What would be the best
sequence of treatment?
A- Bleaching, 2 week delay, tooth preparation, bonding procedures 
B- Bleaching and tooth preparation, 2-5 day delay, bonding procedures
C- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bleaching, and bonding procedures
D- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bonding, and then bleaching
procedures

27. Which of the following statements is true about setting expansion of

plaster, stone, and improved stone (Type IV)?
A- The setting expansion of improved stone is the highest
B- Increasing the spatulation decreases expansion 
C- Increasing the water/power ratio decreases the setting expansion
D- Adding water to surface during setting decreases expansion

28. Which of the following is the most reliable method for determining the
pulp responsiveness of a tooth with a full coverage crown?
A- Radiographic examination
B- Electric pulp test
C- Thermal test 
D- Palpation

29. Which of the following type(s) of amalgam alloy provide the best clinical
durability?
A- High copper spherical only
B- Conventional spherical only
C- High cooper admixture and high cooper spherical 
D- High cooper admixture and conventional spherical
30. A displaced fracture of the mandible courses from the angle to the third
molar. This fracture is potencially difficult to treat with a closed reduction
because of
A- Injury to the neurovascular bundle
B- Malocclusion secondary to the injury
C- Compromise of the blood supply to the mandible
D- Distraction of the fracture segments by muscle pull

31. A 14-year-old female has gingival tissues that bleed easily on gentle
probing. The color of the gingiva ranges from light red to magenta. Probing
depths range from 1 - 3mm. Some of the interdental papillae are swollen.
Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Gingivitis 
B- Localized aggressive periodontitis
C- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

32. During clinical evaluation of a complete crown on a mandibular right

first molar, a premature contact causes the mandible to deviate to the
patient’s left. One would expect to see the interfering contact marked on
which surfaces of the crown?
A- Mesial marginal ridge
B- Buccal inclines
C- Mesial inclines
D- Lingual inclines

33. Mandibular hypoplasia, coloboma of the lower eyelid, and

malformations of the prinna of the ear are fracture of which of the following
diseases?
A- Apert Syndrome
B- Cleidocranial dysplasia
C- Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins Syndrome) 
D- Crouzon syndrome (craniofacial dysostosis)
34. The purpose of scaling is to remove acquired deposits on the teeth.
Scaling can be performed on both enamel and root surfaces
A- Both statements are true
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false 
D- The first statement is false, the second is true

35. What percent of hydrogen peroxide should be used for debriding and
intraoral wound?
A- 3 percent 
B- 10 percent
C- 20 percent
D- 37 percent

36. The mother of an 8-year-old patient insists on staying in the room

during treatment. In the past, she seemed to be very overprotective of her
child with her body language and comments. Which were disruptive to
treatment. How could the dentist best address this patient’s mother?
A- “You seem really concerned, perhaps you need to be talking with
someone about this”
B- I know you care, however you are causing your child to be more upset,
no less”
C- “I’m sorry, but I need you to stay in the waiting room so we can get
his work done”
D- “I know you are concerned. Please stay in the room, and try to be as
positive and quiet as possible”

37. A ‘W” in front of the rubber dam clamp number indicates that the rubber
dam clamp
A- Is made from work-hardened metal
B- Has a non-reflective surface
C- Has a wing
D- Is wingless
38. - A dentist will make impressions for a patient who has an excessive
salivary flow. To decrease the flow, this dentist might appropriately
prescribe which of the following drugs?
A- Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) 
B- Salsalate (Disalcid)
C- Pilocarpine (Salagen)
D- Neostigmine (Prostigmin)

39. The best time perform oral surgery on a patient receiving dialysis 3
times per week is
A- Day of dialysis
B- 1 day before dialysis
C- 1 day after dialysis 
D- 2 days after dialysis
40. Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first
premolars perforate through the lingual cortex to the
A- Pterygomaxillary space
B- Submental space
D- Submandibular space

41. Which of the following factors does NOT impact the development of
xerostomia in an aging population?
A- Chronological age
B- Medications 
C- Radiation therapy to the head and neck
D- Systemic disease

42. Which of the following is an indication for removal of a maxillary torus

to fabrication of a maxillary denture?
A- Inadequate inter-arch space exists
B- Tissue covering torus is thin
C- It interferes with posterior palatal seal 
D- Denture is to be placed immediately
43. A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular
third molar. In what direction would the canal appear to move on a
radiograph, if the X-ray tube were moved inferiorly (i.e., if the x-ray beam
were pointing superiorly)?
A- Apically
B- Mesially
C- Distally
D- Occusally

44. What is the most common side effect when administering nitrous oxide
and oxygen?
A- Allergic reaction
B- Respiratory depression
C- Tachycardia
D- Nausea

45. Which of the following will allow transillumination of the light throughout
the crown?
A- Crack extending into denting
B- Crown-to-root fracture
C- Craze line 
D- Split tooth

46. Which of the following study designs is the best suited to control for
both known and unknown confounders?
A- Case-control study 
B- Cross-sectional study
C- Cohort study
D- Randomized clinical trial

47. Which permanent teeth are least often congenitally missing?

A- Lateral incisors
B- Canines 
C- Premolars
D- Third molars
 48. Each of the following is a common cause of denture gagging EXCEPT
one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A- Inadequate posterior palatal seal
B- Excessive vertical dimension
C- Bulkiness of denture
D- Excessive anterior guidance

50. Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients

A- With anxiety
B- With special health care needs
C- With profound local anesthesia
D- In the first trimester of pregnancy

51. Which of the following is a interference during working movements for a

posterior complete crown restoration?
A- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of
maxillary teeth
B- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of
maxillary teeth
C- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of
maxillary teeth
D- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines
of maxillary teeth

52. Which of the following represents the 3 essential factors for the
initiation of the carious lesion?
A- Bacteria, polysaccharides, and enamel
B- Bacteria, suitable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth 
C- Lactobacilli, easily fermentable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth
D- Lactobacilli, suitable substrate, and enamel
 53. A 55-year-old male patient, who is currently prescribed warfarin
(Coumadin) 5 mg daily, requires surgical therapy. What is the most
appropiate pre-surgical laboratory test?
A- Fibrinogen time
B- Partial thromboplastin time
C- International normalized ratio 
D- Bleeding time

54. Causality (cause and effect) may NOT be inferred from which of the
following studies?
A- Cross-sectional 
B- Cohort
C- Case-control
D- Clinical trial

55. One advantage of using a fiber-reinforced post for restoring an

endodontically treated tooth is that it
A- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to stainless steel
B- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to dentin 
C- Is highly radiopaque and easy to visualize on a radiograph
D- Is stronger and more resistant to fracture than a cast metal post

56. Dental phobia is classified as a personality disorder

Dental anxiety can result from the pairing of previously innocuous stimuli
with an unpleasant experience
A- Both statements are true 
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true
 57. At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of inches, the exposure time for
a film is 0.5 seconds. In the same situation, which of the following should
represent the exposure time at 16 inches?
A- 0.25 seconds
B- 1.0 second 
C- 2.0 seconds
D- 4.0 seconds
0.5~4=2

58. Which hematologic disorder represents a malignancy of plasma cell

origin?
A- Burkitt lymphoma
B- Hemophilia
C- Thalassemia
D- Multiple myeloma

59. In which of the following mandibular fracture cases should the

intermaxillary fixation be released earliest?
A- A high condylar fracture
B- A fracture through the site of an impacted third molar 
C- An angle fracture and contralateral parasymphyseal fracture
D- A jaw in which the treatment has been delayed by the management of
other injuries

60. A panoramic radiograph of a 55-year-old female reveals generalized

widening of the periodontal ligament space and bilateral resorption of the
mandibular angles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Fibrous dysplasia
B- Progressive systemic sclerosis 
C- Osteosarcoma
D- Marfan syndrome
 61. A new patient presents with severe chronic periodontitis and has a
history of two heart attacks. The patient is not sure when the heart attacks
occurred or the severity. The dentist’s next step in treatment should be to
A- Complete gross scaling to decrease the bacterial load
B- Have the patient rinse with chlorhexidine gluconate (Peridex)
C- Request a consult from the patient’s physician prior to any
treatment 
D- Confine the treatment to simple restorative procedures

62. Plaque microorganisms produce extra-cellular substances that

separate one bacterial cell from another and that form a matrix for further
plaque accumulation. This “matrix” is made up of dextrans and
A- Levans 
B- Mucoproteins
C- Disaccharides
D- Monosaccharides

63. In which of the following mandibular fracture cases should the

intermaxillary fixation be released earliest?
A- A high condylar fracture
B- A fracture through the site of an impacted third molar 
C- An angle fracture and contralateral parasymphyseal fracture
D- A jaw in which the treatment has been delayed by the management of
other injuries

64. Which of the following is most likely the major consideration prior to
performing a gingivectomy?
A- Amount of attachment loss
B- Measurement probe depth
C- Level of the alveolar crest 
D- Width of the attached gingiva
65. Which of the following is most likely the major consideration prior to
performing a gingivectomy?
A- Amount of attachment loss
B- Measurement probe depth
C- Level of the alveolar crest 
D- Width of the attached gingiva

66. Excessive trituration of amalgam should be avoided because it will

A- Cause excessive expansion 
B- Cause the amalgam to set prematurely
C- Remain soft for too long
D- Cause the amalgam to lose its anatomy in 24 hours

67. Excessive trituration of amalgam should be avoided because it will

A- Cause excessive expansion 
B- Cause the amalgam to set prematurely
C- Remain soft for too long
D- Cause the amalgam to lose its anatomy in 24 hours

68. The most dominant emotional factor in management of 4-to-6-year-old

children is fear of
A- Pain
B- The unknown 
C- The dentist
D- Being separated from parents

69. The most dominant emotional factor in management of 4-to-6-year-old

children is fear of
A- Pain
B- The unknown 
C- The dentist
D- Being separated from parents
70. Which of the following substances is contraindicated for a patient taking
ginseng?
A- Penicillin
B- Digitalis
C- Aspirin 
D- Alcohol

71. Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate,
they are consistent. This test has high
A- Generalizability
B- Specificity 
C- Reliability 
D- Validity

72.- Adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often have problems

with home oral hygiene regimens. The MOST effective management plan is
to
A- Educate the patient about the importance of oral hygiene when wearing
braces 
B- Develop a plan of contingent reinforcement for brushing and flossing
C- Refuse to continue treatment unless oral hygiene improves
D- Have parents remind adolescents to brush
E- Provide limited praise for small progress made at each visit

73. What is the LEAST likely reason for postoperative sensitivity after a
Class I occlusal composite restoration is placed?
A- Gap formation which allows bacterial penetration into the dentin tubules
B- Gap formation which allows an outward flow of fluid from through the
dentin tubules 
C- Direct toxic effects of a 15 second acid etc on the pulp
D- Cuspal deformation due to contraction forces of polymerization
shrinkage
74. Subgingival margin of crown is indicated when
A- Surrounding soft tissue is thick bio-type
B- Porcelain laminate veneer is planned
C- An all-ceramic crown is planned
D- Cemental hypersensitive is suspected

75. Pain referred to the ear derives most often from which teeth?
A- Maxillary molars
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular molars 
D- Mandibular premolars

76. Subgingival margin of crown is indicated when

A- Surrounding soft tissue is thick bio-type
B- Porcelain laminate veneer is planned
C- An all-ceramic crown is planned
D- Cemental hypersensitive is suspected

77. What is the LEAST likely reason for postoperative sensitivity after a
Class I occlusal composite restoration is placed?
A- Gap formation which allows bacterial penetration into the dentin tubules
B- Gap formation which allows an outward flow of fluid from through the
dentin tubules 
C- Direct toxic effects of a 15 second acid etc on the pulp
D- Cuspal deformation due to contraction forces of polymerization
shrinkage

78. Most dens invaginatus defects are found in which of the following types
of teeth?
A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Maxillary lateral incisor 
C- Mandibular first premolar
D- Maxillary first premolar
79. Which teeth are the most susceptible to recurrence of periodontal
disease after active periodontal treatment is completed?
A- Maxillary premolars because of lateral occlusal forces
B- Mandibular premolars because of non-working interferences
C- Maxillary molars becauses of anatomy of their furcations 
D- Mandibular molars because of increased number of cervical enamel
projections

80. Patients with low health literacy are

A- Less likely to ask questions during their dental visits
B- More likely to fail to show for dental appointments 
C- Likely to look over written materials and say they don’t understand
D- High school graduates

81. Which of the following represents the most significant finding regarding
ectodermal dysplasia?
A- Multiple osteomas
B- Supernumerary teeth
C- Multiple impacted teeth 
D- Sparse hair

82. What is the indicated treatment for a primary molar with a carious pulp
exposure and a furcation radiolucency?
A- Formocresol pulpotomy
B- Indirect pulp cap
C- Extraction 
D- Direct pulp cap

83., Compared with high noble alloys for metal-ceramic restorations, base
metal alloys are best used for which of the following?
A- Optimum esthetics
B- Single crowns 
C- Long-span bridges 
D- Patients with allergies to metals
84. Regeneration of the periodontal attachment apparatus include
A- Cementum, bone, and periodontal ligament
B- Dentin, cementum, and periodontal ligament
C- Cementum, junctional epitelium, and bone 
D- Junctional epithelium, gingival fibers, and periodontal ligament

85. Which of the following is NOT true regarding paraphrasing?

A- Paraphrasing is restating the patient’s views in one’s own words
B- Paraphrasing is agreeing with and accepting the other person’s
position
C- The secret to good paraphrasing is voicing patient values 
D- Paraphrasing is attempt to understand and acknowledge another’s
perspective

86. The pathogenic microorganisms of chronic periodontitis includes each

of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Porphyromonas gingivalis
B- Prevotella intermedia 
C- Tannerella forsythensis
D- Actinomyces viscosus

87. Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in Which of
the following locations?
A- Tongue
B- Posterior maxilla
C- Posterior mandible
D- Floor of the mouth

88. A 16-year-old patient has a long history of mild pain in the area of the
mandibular left first molar. Radiographs reveal deep caries in the tooth with
an irregular radiopaque lesion apical to the mesial root. 
Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Periradicular granuloma
B- Condensing osteitis
C- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
D- Periapical cyst
89. Distinctly blue color of the sclera is a feature of Which of the following
conditions?
A- Gardner syndrome
B- Osteogenesis imperfecta 
C- Hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
D- Stuge-weber angiomatosis

90. Glossitis and angular cheilitis are oral manifestations of what type of
nutrient deficiency?
A- Calcium
B- Vitamin D
C- Iron 
D- Zinc

91. Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in Which of
the following locations?
A- Tongue
B- Posterior maxilla
C- Posterior mandible
D- Floor of the mouth

92. Which of the following is the single most important factor affecting
pulpal response to tooth preparation?
A- Heat 
B- Remaining dentin thickness
C- Desiccation
D- Invasion of bacteria

93. Leukemia is suspected when a patient demonstrates which of the

following sighs or symptoms?
A- Red sclera
B- Pale conjuntivea 
C- Splinter hemorrhage under the finger nails
D- Spontaneous gingival bleeding
94. Beclomathasone (Beconase AQ) is used for bronchial asthma because
it
A- Has a short duration of action
B- Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors in the lung
C- Produces little adrenal suppression when administered by inhalation
D- Is only effective orally
E- Is less potent than cortisol

95. Which of the following contributes most to a successful pulp capping

procedure?
A- An isolated field
B- Absence of bleeding
C- An exposure of less than 0.75 mm
D- Use of calcium hydroxide

96. A patient has a severe tooth-size/arch-length discrepancy in the

maxillary arch. Which of the patient’s permanent maxillary teeth are most
likely to be blocked out of the arch?
A- Canines
B- First premolars
C- Second premolars
D- Second molars

97. For a prominent maxillary frenun accompanied by large midline

diastema, treatment should be
A- Immediate, when the problem is identified
B- Delayed until treatment centrals and laterals erupt
C- Delayed until centrals, laterals and canines have erupted
D- Started once all permanent teeth have erupted
98.  What percent of hydrogen peroxide should be used for debriding and
intraoral wound?
A- 3 percent 
B- 10 percent
C- 20 percent
D- 37 percent

99. Disadvantages of oral sedation include which of the following?

A- Multiple drugs needed for proper sedation
B- High incidence and severity of adverse reactions 
C- Unpredictable absorption of drugs from the GI tract
D- Short duration of action

100. Which of the following factors does NOT impact the development of
xerostomia in an aging population?
A- Chronological age
B- Medications 
C- Radiation therapy to the head and neck
D- Systemic disease

101. Informed consent reflects which of the following ethical principles?

A- Justice
B- Autonomy 
C- Beneficence
D- Nonmaleficense

102.  Which of the following type(s) of amalgam alloy provide the best
clinical durability?
A- High copper spherical only
B- Conventional spherical only
C- High cooper admixture and high cooper spherical 
D- High cooper admixture and conventional spherical

103. Mandibular hypoplasia, coloboma of the lower eyelid, and

malformations of the prinna of the ear are feature of which of the following
diseases?
A- Apert Syndrome
B- Cleidocranial dysplasia
C- Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins Syndrome) 
D- Crouzon syndrome (craniofacial dysostosis)
104. The most common form of periodontal disease seen in school-aged
children is
A- Aggressive periodontitis
B- Marginal gingivitis
C- Primary herpetic gigivostomatitis
D- Gingival hyperplasia

105. Which permanent teeth are least often congenitally missing?

A- Lateral incisors
B- Canines 
C- Premolars
D- Third molars

106. The water supply of a community has 0.28 ppm fluoride. Which of the
following procedures is appropiate for a 4-year-old child exhibiting
moderate caries risk?
A- Prescribing a fluoride mouthrinse
B- Prescribing a systemic fluoride supplement 
C- Applying fluoride topically at each visit
D- Additional fluoride is unnecessary

107. Phenytoin is most often recommended for controlling which of the

following seizures?
A- Status epilepticus
B- Tonic-clonic (grand mal) 
C- Absence epilepsy (petit mal)
D- Myoclonic seizure in childhood

108. Periodontal flaps are frequently extended into non-diseased areas for
adequate access to the diseased sites. These non-diseased root surfaces
are not instrumented. The flaps are returned to their previous level where
the flap collagen fibers reunite with the Sharpey’s fibers in the cementum of
the root surfaces. Which of the following types of healing is described?
A- Adhesion
B- Reattachment
C- New attachment
D- Regeneration
109. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to lead to the
development of root surface caries on facial surfaces?
A- Low salivary flow
B- Elevated levels of sucrose consumption 
C- Streptococcus sanguis dominating adjacent plaque
D- History of head/neck radiation therapy

110. A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular

third molar. In what direction would the canal appear to move on a
radiograph, if the X-ray tube were moved inferiorly (i.e., if the x-ray beam
were pointing superiorly)?
A- Apically
B- Mesially
C- Distally
D- Occusally

111.
What is the easiest method for examining a 12-month-old child?
A- Child in the dental chair and parent at chairside
B- Parent in the dental chair and the child sitting on parent’s lap
C- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position whit the child’s head
on dentist’s lap
D- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head on
parent’s lap

112. Each of the following is a common cause of denture gagging EXCEPT

one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Inadequate posterior palatal seal
B. Excessive vertical dimension
C. Bulkiness of denture
D. Excessive anterior guidance
113. Which of the following will allow transillumination of the light
throughout the crown?
A- Crack extending into denting
B- Crown-to-root fracture
C- Craze line 
D- Split tooth

114. Plaque microorganisms produce extra-cellular substances that

separate one bacterial cell from another and that form a matrix for further
plaque accumulation. This “matrix” is made up of dextrans and
A- Levans 
B- Mucoproteins
C- Disaccharides
D- Monosaccharides

115. What is the most common side effect when administering nitrous
oxide and oxygen?
A- Allergic reaction
B- Respiratory depression
C- Tachycardia
D- Nausea

116. What is the minimum amount of bone needed between 2 adjacent

implants?
A- 1mm
B- 2mm
C- 3mm 
D- 4mm

117. Which of the following statements is true about setting expansion of

plaster, stone, and improved stone (Type IV)?
A- The setting expansion of improved stone is the highest
B- Increasing the spatulation decreases expansion 
C- Increasing the water/power ratio decreases the setting expansion
D- Adding water to surface during setting decreases expansion
118.  Which of the following represents the best way to increase a patient’s
pain tolerance?
A- Stress that pain does not signify damage
B- Tell the patient that the procedure will be completed soon
C- Tell the patient that he/she should be able to tolerate the pain
D- Increase the patient’s sense of control over the denture of the pain

119. Which of the following explains why the fovea palatini are not used as
landmarks for determining the precise posterior border of maxillary denture
base?
A- They have no relation to the vibrating line area
B- They are inconsistent in their relationship to the vibrating line
C- They are opening of mucous glands that should not be covered y the
denture border
D- They are located on the horizontal hard palate

120. Which of the following is the most reliable method for determining the
pulp responsiveness of a tooth with a full coverage crown?
A- Radiographic examination
B- Electric pulp test
C- Thermal test 
D- Palpation

121. Which of the following is an indication for removal of a maxillary torus

to fabrication of a maxillary denture?
A- Inadequate inter-arch space exists
B- Tissue covering torus is thin
C- It interferes with posterior palatal seal 
D- Denture is to be placed immediately

122. A new patient presents with severe chronic periodontitis and has a
history of two heart attacks. The patient is not sure when the heart attacks
occurred or the severity. The dentist’s next step in treatment should be to
A- Complete gross scaling to decrease the bacterial load
B- Have the patient rinse with chlorhexidine gluconate (Peridex)
C- Request a consult from the patient’s physician prior to any treatment 
D- Confine the treatment to simple restorative procedures
123. Which of the following might precipitate an asthma attack?
A- Narcotic analgesics
B- Nonsteroidal antiinflamatory drugs 
C- Corticosteroids
D- Sympathomimetic amines

124. Which of the following most closely resembles normal parotid gland
histologically?
A- Pleomorphic adenoma
B- Monomorphic adenoma 
C- Acinic cell carcinoma 
D- Adenoid cystic carcinoma

125. The most dominant emotional factor in management of 4-to-6-year-old

children is fear of
A- Pain
B- The unknown 
C- The dentist
D- Being separated from parents

126. Gingivectomy is NOT indicated when the base of the pocket is located
A- Apical to the alveolar crest 
B- Below the free gingival groove
C- Coronal to the cementoenamel junction
D- Apical to the cervical convexity of the tooth crown

127. Which of the following neuralgias is correctly associated with its

cranial nerve?
A- Tic douloureux – XII
B- Bell palsy – VII 
C- Auriculotemporal syndrome – VI
D- Eagle syndrome – X
128. A furcation radiolucency in a 5-year-old child’s primary molar is most
due to
A- Trauma
B- Pulpal necrosis
C- Normal anatomy 
D- Eruption of a premolar

129. In which of the following mandibular fracture cases should the

intermaxillary fixation be released earliest?
A- A high condylar fracture
B- A fracture through the site of an impacted third molar 
C- An angle fracture and contralateral parasymphyseal fracture
D- A jaw in which the treatment has been delayed by the management of
other injuries

130. A dental office employee wishes to verify that instruments have been
sterilized. Which of the following methods is most accurate?
A- Place indicator tape on the instruments 
B- Use biological monitors
C- Examine the sterilizer packages for color changes
D- Observe the temperature gauge on the sterilizing unit

131.  A normal unstimulated salivary flow rate for an adult dentate patient
should be
A- 0.01 mL per minute
B- 0.1 mL per minute
C- 1.0 mL per minute 
D- 10.0 mL per minute

132.
In attempting to correct a single tooth anterior crossbite with a removable
appliance, Which of the following is the most important for the dentist to
consider?
A- Making periodic adjustments
B- Incorporating maximum retention
C- Patient’s overbite
D- Making sure there is adequate space
133. Which of the following represents a common side effect of the
alkylating-type anticancer drugs such as mechlorethamine (Mustargen)?
A- Ototoxicity
B- Nephrotoxicity
C- Bone marrow depression 
D- Accumulation of uric acid

134. Which of the following directly image the TMJ disc?

A- TMJ tomography 
B- TMJ arthrography
C- Panoramic radiography
D- Transcranial radiography
E- Magnetic resonance imaging

135. Excessive trituration of amalgam should be avoided because it will

A- Cause excessive expansion 
B- Cause the amalgam to set prematurely
C- Remain soft for too long
D- Cause the amalgam to lose its anatomy in 24 hours

136. Which of the following is most likely the major consideration prior to
performing a gingivectomy?
A- Amount of attachment loss
B- Measurement probe depth
C- Level of the alveolar crest 
D- Width of the attached gingiva

137. Regeneration of the periodontal attachment apparatus include

A- Cementum, bone, and periodontal ligament
B- Dentin, cementum, and periodontal ligament
C- Cementum, junctional epitelium, and bone 
D- Junctional epithelium, gingival fibers, and periodontal ligament
138. A dentist will make impressions for a patient who has an excessive
salivary flow. To decrease the flow, this dentist might appropriately
prescribe which of the following drugs?
A- Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) 
B- Salsalate (Disalcid)
C- Pilocarpine (Salagen)
D- Neostigmine (Prostigmin)

139. At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of inches, the exposure time
for a film is 0.5 seconds. In the same situation, which of the following
should represent the exposure time at 16 inches?
A- 0.25 seconds
B- 1.0 second 
C- 2.0 seconds
D- 4.0 seconds

140. A dentist has planned in-office-bleaching and porcelain laminate

veneers for a patient’s maxillary anterior teeth. What would be the best
sequence of treatment?
A- Bleaching, 2 week delay, tooth preparation, bonding procedures 
B- Bleaching and tooth preparation, 2-5 day delay, bonding procedures
C- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bleaching, and bonding procedures
D- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bonding, and then bleaching
procedures

141. A 14-year-old female has gingival tissues that bleed easily on gentle
probing. The color of the gingiva ranges from light red to magenta. Probing
depths range from 1 - 3mm. Some of the interdental papillae are swollen.
Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Gingivitis 
B- Localized aggressive periodontitis
C- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
142. A 65-year-old white male smokes 2 packs of cigarretes per day. He
had a heart attack six weeks ago and continues to have chest pains even
while at rest. He is transported to the office by wheelchair because be
becomes extremely short of breath with even mild exertion. The physical
status that best describes the above patients is
A- P.S.I
B- P.S.II 
C- P.S.III
D- P.S.IV

143. Which of the following substances is contraindicated for a patient

taking ginseng?
A- Penicillin
B- Digitalis
C- Aspirin 
D- Alcohol

144.  What is the indicated treatment for a primary molar with a carious
pulp exposure and a furcation radiolucency?
A- Formocresol pulpotomy
B- Indirect pulp cap
C- Extraction 
D- Direct pulp cap

145. The pathogenic microorganisms of chronic periodontitis includes each

of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Porphyromonas gingivalis
B- Prevotella intermedia 
C- Tannerella forsythensis
D- Actinomyces viscosus

146. Compared with high noble alloys for metal-ceramic restorations, base
metal alloys are best used for which of the following?
A- Optimum esthetics
B- Single crowns 
C- Long-span bridges 
D- Patients with allergies to metals
147.  Adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often have problems
with home oral hygiene regimens. The MOST effective management plan is
to
A- Educate the patient about the importance of oral hygiene when wearing
braces 
B- Develop a plan of contingent reinforcement for brushing and flossing
C- Refuse to continue treatment unless oral hygiene improves
D- Have parents remind adolescents to brush
E- Provide limited praise for small progress made at each visit

148. In attempting to correct a single tooth anterior crossbite with a

removable appliance, Which of the following is the most important for the
dentist to consider?
A- Making periodic adjustments
B- Incorporating maximum retention
C- Patient’s overbite
D- Making sure there is adequate space

149. Patients with low health literacy are

A- Less likely to ask questions during their dental visits
B- More likely to fail to show for dental appointments 
C- Likely to look over written materials and say they don’t understand
D- High school graduates

150. Which of the following represents the most significant finding

regarding ectodermal dysplasia?
A- Multiple osteomas
B- Supernumerary teeth
C- Multiple impacted teeth 
D- Sparse hair
151
Surgical flap access therapy is indicated and most beneficial when used
A- For those early to moderate defects not resolved with initial therapy
B- As the initial treatment for patients having extremely heavy subgingival
calculus
C- To eliminate pocketing more rapidly so the patient can proceed with
treatment
D- To improve plaque control effectiveness in patients having difficult
achieving good plaque control

152
Which of the following is NOT true regarding paraphrasing?
A- Paraphrasing is restating the patient’s views in one’s own words
B- Paraphrasing is agreeing with and accepting the other person’s position
C- The secret to good paraphrasing is voicing patient values 
D- Paraphrasing is attempt to understand and acknowledge another’s
perspective

153. The mother of an 8-year-old patient insists on staying in the room

during treatment. In the past, she seemed to be very overprotective of her
child with her body language and comments. Which were disruptive to
treatment. How could the dentist best address this patient’s mother?
A- “You seem really concerned, perhaps you need to be talking with
someone about this”
B- I know you care, however you are causing your child to be more upset,
no less”
C- “I’m sorry, but I need you to stay in the waiting room so we can get his
work done”
D- “I know you are concerned. Please stay in the room, and try to be as
positive and quiet as possible”

154. A ‘W” in front of the rubber dam clamp number indicates that the
rubber dam clamp
A- Is made from work-hardened metal
B- Has a non-reflective surface
C- Has a wing
D- Is wingless
155.  Subgingival margin of crown is indicated when
A- Surrounding soft tissue is thick bio-type
B- Porcelain laminate veneer is planned
C- An all-ceramic crown is planned
D- Cemental hypersensitive is suspected

156. Most dens invaginatus defects are found in which of the following
types of teeth?
A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Maxillary lateral incisor 
C- Mandibular first premolar
D- Maxillary first premolar

157. A panoramic radiograph of a 55-year-old female reveals generalized

widening of the periodontal ligament space and bilateral resorption of the
mandibular angles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Fibrous dysplasia
B- Progressive systemic sclerosis 
C- Osteosarcoma
D- Marfan syndrome

158.  Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a modified Widman

Flap procedure?
A- Submarginal incision
B- Replaced flap 
C- Inverse bevel incision
D- Flap margin placement at the osseous crest

159.  A developmentally-disabled patient should be treated with

A- Flattery
B- Deference
C- Consistency
D- Permissiveness
160. Which of the following is the best choice to avoid the effect of
metamerism?
A- Select a porcelain shade using light only
B- Select the shade that looks optimal under multiple light sources 
C- Avoid fluorescent lighting when selecting a porcelain shade
D- Add additional layer of opaque porcelain prior to placing body porcelain

161.  A 55-year-old male patient, who is currently prescribed warfarin

(Coumadin) 5 mg daily, requires surgical therapy. What is the most
appropiate pre-surgical laboratory test?
A- Fibrinogen time
B- Partial thromboplastin time
C- International normalized ratio 
D- Bleeding time

162. Which term refers to a physician or dentist performing an operation for

which there was no consent?
A- Assault
B- Nonmaleficence
C- Disclosure
D- Battery

163. Blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins does NOT produce which of

the following conditions?
A- Antipyresis
B- Increased gastric mucous production
C- Decreased platelet aggregation 
D- Decreased renal blood flow

164.  Leukemia is suspected when a patient demonstrates which of the

following signs or symptoms?
A- Red sclera
B- Pale conjuntiva 
C- Splinter hemorrhage under the finger nails
D- Spontaneous gingival bleeding
165. The best time perform oral surgery on a patient receiving dialysis 3
times per week is
A- Day of dialysis
B- 1 day before dialysis
C- 1 day after dialysis 
D- 2 days after dialysis

166.  Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first
premolars perforate through the lingual cortex to the
A- Pterygomaxillary space
B- Submental space
C- Sublingual space
D- Submandibular space

167. Which of the following represents the 3 essential factors for the
initiation of the carious lesion?
A- Bacteria, polysaccharides, and enamel
B- Bacteria, suitable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth 
C- Lactobacilli, easily fermentable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth
D- Lactobacilli, suitable substrate, and enamel

168. Causality (cause and effect) may NOT be inferred from which of the
following studies?
A- Cross-sectional 
B- Cohort
C- Case-control
D- Clinical trial

169. Which teeth are the most susceptible to recurrence of periodontal

disease after active periodontal treatment is completed?
A- Maxillary premolars because of lateral occlusal forces
B- Mandibular premolars because of non-working interferences
C- Maxillary molars becauses of anatomy of their furcations 
D- Mandibular molars because of increased number of cervical enamel
projections
170. What is the LEAST likely reason for postoperative sensitivity after a
Class I occlusal composite restoration is placed?
A- Gap formation which allows bacterial penetration into the dentin tubules
B- Gap formation which allows an outward flow of fluid from through the
dentin tubules 
C- Direct toxic effects of a 15 second acid etc on the pulp
D- Cuspal deformation due to contraction forces of polymerization
shrinkage

171.  Which area of the mouth has the LEAST amount of keratinized tissue
on the buccal aspect?
A- Maxillary incisors
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular incisors 
D- Mandibular premolars

172.  Pain referred to the ear derives most often from which teeth?
A- Maxillary molars
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular molars 
D- Mandibular premolars

173. During a routing examination, the dentist sees a large radiolucency at

the apex of the maxillary right first premolar. The tooth is not painful, does
not respond to pulp testing, and has no evidence of a sinus tract. The most
probable diagnosis is
A- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis 
B- Symptomatic apical periodontitis
C- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis 
D- Chronic apical abscess
174. A 32-year-old male patient reports a history of having been
hospitalized for psychiatric evaluation, and is currently taking taking lithium
carbonate on a daily basis. Which of the following diseases does this
patient most likely have?
A- Parkinsonism
B- Schizophrenia
C- Bipolar disorder 
D- Psychotic depression
E- Paranoia with delusions

175.  An edentulous patient is to be treated using maxillary and mandibular

complete dentures. The patient is healthy and the ridges are well healed. A
maxillary torus is present and extends beyond the area of the proposed
posterior palatal seal. Which of the following represents the treatment of
choice?
A- Removal of torus, followed by fabrication of maxillary and mandibular
complete dentures
B- Extension of maxillary denture base onto the moveable soft palate to
achieve adequate seal
C- Fabrication of a maxillary denture with an open/horshoe palate which
avoids the torus
D- The use of relief over the area of the torus during maxillary and
mandibular denture fabrication

176. The patient should sign the informed consent for surgery
A- At the time of filling out history and insurance forms
B- After medical history and physical examination
C- After formulation by dentist of a surgical treatment plan
D- After a full discussuion of the surgical treatment plan

177. Which of the following is the single most important factor affecting
pulpal response to tooth preparation?
A- Heat 
B- Remaining dentin thickness
C- Desiccation
D- Invasion of bacteria
178. Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in Which of
the following locations?
A- Tongue
B- Posterior maxilla
C- Posterior mandible
D- Floor of the mouth

179. Glossitis and angular cheilitis are oral manifestations of what type of
nutrient deficiency?
A- Calcium
B- Vitamin D
C- Iron 
D- Zinc

180. Distinctly blue color of the sclera is a feature of Which of the following
conditions?
A- Gardner syndrome
B- Osteogenesis imperfecta 
C- Hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
D- Stuge-weber angiomatosis

181.  A 16-year-old patient has a long history of mild pain in the area of the
mandibular left first molar. Radiographs reveal deep caries in the tooth with
an irregular radiopaque lesion apical to the mesial root. Which of the
following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Periradicular granuloma
B- Condensing osteitis
C- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
D- Periapical cyst

182. Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following interactions of

X-radiation with matter?
A- Thompson effect 
B- Pair production
C- Photoelectric effect
D- Photonuclear disintegration
183. Each of the following would be included in a differential diagnosis of
the palatal pigmentation EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A- Lentigo 
B- Melanotic macula
C- Melanocytic nevus
D- Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor

184. Paresthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve is most often seen after the
fracture of which area of the mandible?
A- Angle 
B- Condyle
C- Symphysis
D- Coronoid process

189. A patient says, “I have been avoiding coming to see you because
there is an ugly, red sor spot on the roof of my mouth”. Which of the
following responses by the dentist best exemplifies a reflective response?
A- “Has you diet changed lately”
B- “You really shouldn’t worry about it”
C- “Don’t be afraid, I’ll take a careful look” 
D- “You should have had something like that looked at right away”
E- ‘It sounds as if you’re quite concerned about this condition”

200. Which of the following is related to reciprocal anchorage in orthodontic

therapy?
A- Tipping a tooth
B- Extraoral force
C- Equal and opposite forces 
D- Bodily movement of a tooth

201. Diazepam-mediated effects include

A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation
B- Lowering seizure Threshold
C- Anterograde amnesia 
D- Analgesia
202. What is the maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen that can
be prescribed in a 24 hour time period?
A- 2.5 grams
B- 3 grams 
C- 3.5 grams
D- 4 grams

203. Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate,
they are consistent. This test has high
A- Generalizability
B- Specificity 
C- Reliability 
D- Validity