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Examveda Math
General Knowledge
General
Knowledge
5. For which of the following disciplines is 12. Habeas Corpus Act 1679
Nobel Prize awarded? A. provided facilities to a prisoner to obtain
A. Literature, Peace and Economics either speedy trial or release in bail
B. Physics and Chemistry B. states that no one was to be imprisoned
C. Physiology or Medicine without a writ or warrant stating the charge
D. All against him
Answer: Option D C. safeguarded the personal liberties of the
people against arbitrary imprisonment by the
6. Hitler party which came into power in 1933 is king's orders
known as D. All
A. Ku-Klux-Klan B. Democratic Party Answer: Option D
C. Labour Party D. Nazi Party
Answer: Option D
29. Fire temple is the place of worship of which 35. During World War II, when did Germany
of the following religion? attack France?
A. Taoism A. 1940 B. 1941
B. Shintoism C. 1942 D. 1943
C. Judaism Answer: Option A
D. Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion)
Answer: Option D 36. Frederick Sanger is a twice recipient of the
Nobel Prize for
30. Film and TV institute of India is located at A. Physics in 1956 and 1972
A. Pune (Maharashtra) B. Chemistry in 1958 and 1980
B. Pimpri (Maharashtra) C. Physics in 1903 and Chemistry in 1911
C. Perambur (Tamilnadu) D. Chemistry in 1954 and Peace in 1962
D. Rajkot (Gujarat) Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
37. The ozone layer restricts
31. Georgia, Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan A. X-rays and gamma rays
became the members of UNO in B. Visible light
A. 1991 B. 1992 C. Infrared radiation
C. 1993 D. 1994 D. Ultraviolet radiation
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
39. Euclid was 46. Escape velocity of a rocket fired from the
A. Greek mathematician earth towards the moon is a velocity to get rid of
B. Propounded the geometrical theorems the
C. Contributor to the use of deductive principles A. Centripetal force due to the earth's rotation
of logic as the basis of geometry B. Earth's gravitational pull
D. All C. Pressure of the atmosphere
Answer: Option D D. Moon's gravitational pull
Answer: Option B
40. Ecology deals with
A. Cell formation 47. GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and
B. Birds Trade) is
C. Relation between organisms and their
environment A. international agreement signed in 1947
D. Tissues between non-communist nations with the object
Answer: Option C of encouraging
B. agreement which seeks to achieve its aim by
41. Filaria is caused by arranging and encouraging bargaining with trade
A. Protozoa B. Mosquito concessi
C. Virus D. Bacteria C. Both option A and B
Answer: Option B D. None
42. Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) was Answer: Option C
established in
A. 1955 B. 1956 48. Coral reefs in India can be found in
C. 1957 D. 1958 A. Waltair B. Trivandrum
Answer: Option C C. the coast of Orissa D. Rameshwaram
Answer: Option D
43. DRDL stands for
A. Defence Research and Development
Laboratary 49. For safety, the fuse wire used in the mains
B. Differential Research and Documentation for household supply of electricity must be
Laboratary made of metal having
C. Department of Research and Development A. low specific heat B. high melting point
Laboratory C. high resistance D. low melting point
D. None Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
50. Golden Temple, Amritsar is India's
44. Who was the first Indian Chief of Army
Staff of the Indian Army ? A. largest Gurdwara
A. Gen. K.M. Cariappa B. oldest Gurudwara
B. Gen. Maharaja Rajendra Singhji C. Both option A and B are correct
C. Vice-Admiral R.D. Katari D. None
D. None Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
10. India's first Technicolor film ____ in the 18. India's tallest stone statue of the Jain sage
early 1950s was produced by ____ Gomateswara is at
A. 'Mirza Ghalib', Sohrab Modi A. New Delhi
B. 'Mirza Ghalib', Munshi Premchand B. Mandu, Madhya Pradesh
C. 'Jhansi Ki Rani', Sir Syed Ahmed C. Sravanabelagola, Karnataka
D. 'Jhansi Ki Rani', Sohrab Modi D. Mysore, Karnakata
Answer: Option D11. India has largest deposits Answer: Option C
of ____ in the world.
A. copper B. gold 19. In 1945, fifty nations met to phrase the basic
C. mica D. None charter for a world organization which would
Answer: Option C "save succeeding generations from the scourge
of war". This conference took place at
12. How many Lok Sabha seats belong to A. Yalta
Rajasthan? B. London
A. 33 B. 25 C. San Francisco
C. 31 D. 18 D. Dumbarton Oaks
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
23. How much districts are there in Punjab? 31. IDA stands for
A. 14 B. 16 A. Indian Development Agency
C. 22 D. 21 B. Industrial Development Analyses
Answer: Option C C. International Development Agency
D. None
24. India participated in Olympics Hockey in Answer: Option C
A. 1918 B. 1928
C. 1938 D. 1948 32. Indira Gandhi was assassinated in
Answer: Option B A. 1974 B. 1984
C. 1994 D. 2004
25. If force is expressed in Newton and the Answer: Option B
distance in metre, then the work done is
expressed in
A. Joule B. Kg wt m 33. India's first nuclear blast at Pokhran in
C. Kg wt D. Watt Rajasthan took place in
Answer: Option A A. 1984 B. 1974
C. 1964 D. 1954
26. How many teeth does a normal adult dog Answer: Option B
have?
A. 32 B. 34 34. How many players are there on each side in
C. 38 D. 42 the game of Basketball?
Answer: Option D A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7
27. How many red blood cells does the bone Answer: Option B
marrow produce every second?
A. 5 million B. 7 million 35. In a normal human being, how much time
C. 10 million D. 12 million does food take to reach the end of the intestine
Answer: Option C for complete absorption?
A. About 8 hours
28. How many times has Brazil won the World B. About 10 hours
Cup Football Championship?
C. About 12 hours
A. Once B. Twice
C. Four times D. Five times D. About 16 hours
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
10. Squadron leader Rakesh Sharma was India's 17. School of Aviation Medicine (Air Force) is
first man to go into space. He was ____ located at
cosmonaut to be in space in the world. A. Jalahalli B. Hyderabad
A. 12th B. 107th C. Bangalore D. Allahabad
C. 139th D. 151st Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
18. Recession is
11. Philology is the A. slowing down of economic activity over a
A. study of bones limited period
B. study of muscles B. period that results from accumulation of
C. study of architecture unsold goods, owing to fall in demand
D. science of languages C. period during which unemployment may rise
Answer: Option D and demand and output may fall, leading to
slump in trade
12. The 2006 World Cup Football Tournament D. All
held in Answer: Option D
A. China B. France
C. Brazil D. Germany 19. Sir Thomas Fearnley Cup is awarded to
Answer: Option D A. amateur athlete, not necessarily an Olympian
B. National Olympic Committee for outstanding
13. Satellite launching station is located at work
A. Sriharikotta (Andhra Pradesh) C. a club or a local sport association for
B. Salem (Tamilnadu) remarkable achievements
C. Solapur (Maharashtra) D. None
D. Warangal (Andhra Pradesh) Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
20. Pythagoras was first to ____ the universal
14. The 'Black flag' signifies validity of geometrical theorem.
A. truce B. peace A. give B. both
C. protest D. revolution/danger C. prove D. None
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
22. Oscar Awards were instituted in 29. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman is a well known
A. 1960 B. 1929 freedom fighter of
C. 1903 D. 1964 A. Bangladesh B. Pakistan
Answer: Option B C. Indonesia D. Afghanistan
Answer: Option A
23. Small amounts of iodine are necessary in our
diet to 30. s with a fixed rate of dividend that entitle
A. prevent pellagra their holders to priority payment over those who
B. stimulate pituitary gland hold ordinary s of a company are called
C. stimulate clotting of blood A. bear B. bull
D. compensate for underactive the thyroid gland C. holder D. preference s
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
24. Queensland and Northern Territory Aerial 31. Shankracharya was the founder of
Service is an International Airline of A. Jainism B. Buddhism
A. Belgium B. Afghanistan C. Arya Samaj D. Advaitic philosophy
C. Australia D. East Africa Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
32. Sculpture flourished during
25. Shaurya Chakra made up of bronze is A. Chinese civilization
awarded for B. Indus valley civilization
A. gallantry in the presence of enemy C. Egyptian civilization
B. gallantry otherwise than in the face of the D. None
enemy Answer: Option B
C. most conspicuous bravery for some act of
self sacrifice 33. Penicillin is widely used as
D. None A. an antiseptic B. an insecticide
Answer: Option B C. an antibiotic D. a disinfectant
Answer: Option C
26. Sushri Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar received
Bharath Ratna in 34. Socrates was the wisest man of the ancient
A. 2000 B. 2001 world and developed the method of enquiry and
C. 2002 D. 2003 instruction, belonged to
Answer: Option B A. Greece B. Athens
C. France D. China
27. Taoism is followed in Answer: Option B
A. Japan
B. Iran and north-west India 35. Richter scale is used for measuring
C. China, Taiwan, Nauru, Brunei, Singapore and A. density of liquid
B. humidity of air
Vietnam
C. velocity of wind
D. worldwide
D. intensity of earthquakes
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
55. The best way to tackle local environmental 62. The first launch of the missile 'Trishul' was
problems is to made in
A. use the local administrative machinery A. February, 1988
B. implement environmental laws strictly B. May, 1989
C. leave it to the local public to decide C. June, 1990
D. provide environmental education to the local D. September, 1995
people and create awareness Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
63. The corps of Military Police central school
56. The first attempt in printing was made in is situated at
England by A. Bangalore B. West Bengal
A. William Caxton B. James Watt C. Trimulgherry D. Secunderabad
C. James Arkwright D. Isaac Newton Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
26. The headquarter of ESCAP Economic and 33. The member of SEATO (South-East Asia
Social Commission for Asia are situated at Treaty Organisation) are
A. Bangkok B. Geneva A. Australia, France, New Zealand
C. Baghdad D. Santiago (Chile) B. Philippines, Thailand
Answer: Option A C. UK and USA
D. All
Answer: Option D
52. The headquarter of the Organization of 59. The headquarter of the International
Petroleum Exporting Countries are at Committee of Red Cross are at
A. Algiers B. Lagos A. Geneva B. Rome
C. Kuwait D. Vienna C. Paris D. Stockholm
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
53. The language spoken in Lakshadweep island 60. The important industries of Rajasthan are
is A. textiles and woollen
A. Malayalam B. Marathi B. sugar and cement
C. Tamil D. Kannada C. glass and zinc smelters
Answer: Option A D. All
Answer: Option D
2. The largest party of Ireland, the Ulster 9. The headquarter of Lalit Kala Academy is at
Unionist Party, endorses the Northern Ireland A. New Delhi B. Chandigarh
peace deal between British and Irish C. Pune D. Kolkata
governments in Answer: Option A
A. 1993 B. 1986
C. 1998 D. 1990 10. The headquarter of Army is situated at
Answer: Option C A. New Delhi B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata D. Chennai
3. The last ruler of the Mughal dynasty was Answer: Option A
A. Aurangzeb B. Bahadurshah Zafar
C. Jahangir D. Akbar 11. The headquarter of the International Court
Answer: Option B of Justice is at A. Geneva
B. The Hague C. Rome
4. The headquarter of the Warsaw Treaty D. Vienna
Organization were at Answer: Option B
A. Berlin B. Prague
C. Moscow D. Warsaw 12. The highest rank in Army is that of
Answer: Option C A. Brigadier B. General
C. Lieutenant General D. Major General
5. The main objective of the Department of Answer: Option B
Atomic Energy is
A. to generate safe, economic electrical power 13. The headquarter of Asian Development
from nuclear energy Bank is located in which of the following cities
B. to built research reactors and to utilize the A. Jakarta B. Singapore
radioisotopes C. Bangkok D. Manila
C. to encourage technology transfer and Answer: Option D
interaction with industry for industrial & social
developme
14. The Melghat Tiger reserve is in
D. None
Answer: Option D A. Assam B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka D. Orissa
6. The last Asian Games took Place in 2010 at Answer: Option B
A. Islamabad, Pakistan
B. Busan, South Korea 15. The legislature of Sikkim is
C. Hiroshima, Japan A. Unicameral B. Bicameral
D. Guangzhou, China C. Polycameral D. None
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
59. The ozone layer is being destroyed by 65. The red blood cells are in the
chlorofluorocarbons. In this regard which do A. Heart B. Liver
you consider as the most harmful? C. Lymph Nodes D. Bone Marrow
A. Carbon atom Answer: Option D
B. Chlorine atom
C. Fluorine atom 66. The revival work of the Olympic Games was
D. The entire compound undertaken by Baron Pierre deCoubertin after a
Answer: Option C lapse of 15 centuries. The first modern Games
were held in 1896 at
60. The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation was A. Athens B. London
created in C. Paris D. St. Louis
A. 1945 B. 1947 Answer: Option A
C. 1949 D. 1951
Answer: Option C 67. The significance of the lotus symbol is
A. culture and civilisation
61. The principal bodies of the UNO are B. peace
I.The General Assembly and the Security C. justice
Council D. sign of mourning, in protest
II.The Economic and Social Council Answer: Option A
III.International Court of Justice
IV.Trusteeship Council and secretariat 68. The number of judges is European Court of
A. I Human Rights are
B. I, II A. 5 B. 11
C. I,II,III C. 21 D. 15
D. All Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
69. The Roman governor and principal assassin
62. The name of Ronaldinho is associated with in the murder of Julies Caesar was
the game of A. Marcus Junius Brutus B. Marco Polo
A. football B. hockey C. Leon Trotsky D. Karl Markx
C. gymnastics D. badminton Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
70. The term of office of the UN Secretary-
63. The range of missile Agni is approximately General is
A. 150 km A. three years B. four years
B. 1200-2000 km C. five years D. six years
C. 500 m to 9 km Answer: Option C
D. 4 km
Answer: Option B
47. The term butterfly is associated with 55. The velocity of light was first measured by
A. kabaddi B. swimming A. Einstein B. Newton
C. boxing D. wrestling C. Romer D. Galileo
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
48. Venturi tube is used for 56. The trophies and cups awarded for cricket are
A. measuring intensity of earthquakes A. McDowell's Challenge cup and World cup
B. measuring specific gravity B. Federation cup
C. measuring density C. Moin-ud-Dowla cup and B. C. Gupta cup
D. measuring flow of a fluid D. None
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
49. Uttar Pradesh is surrounded by ___ in north 57. The third highest nation award given for
A. Nepal B. Uttrakhand distinguished service in any field is
C. Haryana and Delhi D. Rajasthan A. Padma Vibhushan B. Padma Bhushan
Answer: Option B C. Padma Shri D. Bharat Ratna
Answer: Option C
50. The theory of utilitarianism was expounded
by 58. The term used in billiards are
A. Jeremy Bentham (1748-1836) A. blocking, held ball, holding, jump ball, pivot
B. James Mill(1773-1839) B. target, field, flight, ballsege
C. Henry Sidgwick (1838-1900) C. auxiliary point system, rabbit punch, break, cut
D. All D. blank line, break, bolting, cannon, cue, hazard,
Answer: Option D in-oft
Answer: Option D
16. Under which article in 1968, the number of 22. The theory of inheritance of acquired
votes required in the Security Council to character was propounded by
convene a general conference to review the A. Charles Darwin B. Gregor Mendel
charter was increased from seven to nine? C. J.B. Lamarck D. Weismann
A. Article 81 B. Article 98 Answer: Option C
C. Article 109 D. Article 115
Answer: Option C 23. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts
because
17. The term Ground Stroke is associated with A. it has a high boiling point
which of the following games? B. it has a high dipole moment
A. Cricket C. it has a high specific heat
B. Badminton D. it has no colour
C. Tennis Answer: Option B
D. Draughts
Answer: Option C 24. Vijayalakshmi Pandit was
A. the first women minister of an Indian state
18. The type of root system of all of the (UP)
following is tap root system, except that of B. the first women to become president of the
A. mango tree UN General Assembly
B. kachnar tree C. the first Indian women Ambassador to
C. sunflower plant Moscow
D. maize plant D. All
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
19. To which of the following countries does the 25. The Territorial Army was established in
news agency Cetreko belong? A. 1962 B. 1948
A. Czechoslovakia C. 1920 D. 1953
B. Indonesia Answer: Option B
C. France
D. USA 26. Tiger Woods is associated with which of the
Answer: Option A following sports?
A. Table tennis B. Tennis
20. To produce sound it is necessary that C. Golf D. Boxing
A. the source should execute longitudinal Answer: Option C
vibrations
B. the source should execute transverse 27. The UN charter was ratified in 1945 by
vibrations A. 25 nations B. 29 nations
C. the source may execute any type of vibrations C. 33 nations D. 37 nations
D. the vibrations of source are not necessary Answer: Option B
29. The trophy know by the name of Grand Prix is 36. UNESCO (United Nations Education, Scientific
associated with and Cultural Organisation) was established in
A. table tennis A. 1919 B. 1957
B. lawn tennis C. 1945 D. 1946
C. table tennis and lawn tennis Answer: Option D
D. table tennis, lawn tennis and shooting
Answer: Option D 37. The Treaty of Versailles was signed in
A. 1917 B. 1918
30. Value Added Tax (VAT) is C. 1919 D. 1920
A. indirect tax levied at each stage of production Answer: Option C
and distribution, from the primary produce to the re
B. tax calculated on the selling price, but in 38. The temporary suspension of hostilities by
declaring the liability to the government, the seller mutual consent in order to stout a peace negotiation
is is called
C. both (a) and (b) A. arbitration B. asylum
D. None C. armistice D. apartheid
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
31. Tripura is surrounded by ____ in the east 39. The UN Flag is made up of
A. Assam B. Mizoram A. the white UN Emblem is super-imposed on a
C. both (a) and (b) D. Bangladesh light blue background
Answer: Option C B. the red UN Emblem is super-imposed on white
background
32. The trophy given for exemplary conduct C. the light blue UN Emblem is super-imposed on
displayed by an athlete during the Olympic games white background
is D. None
A. Mohammad Toher Trophy Answer: Option A
B. Count Alberto Bonacossa Trophy
C. Tokyo Trophy 40. The term used when a member of a legislature
D. None leaves his party on whose ticket he was elected to
Answer: Option C join the ruling party or the opposition, is called
33. Toxin is a poisonous substance produce by A. floor crossing B. fourth estate
A. some higher plants B. certain animals C. fifth column D. free ports
C. pathogenic bacteria D. All Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
41. The term hit wicket in cricket refers to
34. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary at Tamil Nadu A. when the bowler bowls out three batsman with
has reserves of three successive balls
A. wild ass, wolf, nilgai, chinkara B. when the batsman intercepts the ball with his leg
B. important bird sanctuary or any part of his body between the wicket
C. pantha, chital, sloth bear, wolf C. when the batsman, while hitting the ball, strikes
D. elephant, deer, wild boar, crocodile, crangetic his own wicket with his bat or body and is declare
dolphin D. None
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
47. What is the population density of Madhya 53. When does Russia celebrates its
Pradesh? Independence Day?
A. 202/sq. km B. 196/sq. km A. 14th November B. 8th October
C. 116/sq. km D. 68/sq. km C. 9th August D. 12th June
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
70. What is the range of missile 'Akash'? 4. When did Commander Robert Peary
A. 4 km B. 25 km discovered North Pole?
C. 500 m to 9 km D. 150 km A. 1904 B. 1905
Answer: Option B C. 1908 D. 1909
Answer: Option D
5. When does the Indonesian settlement in the
Malay Peninsula took place?
A. 2400 BC B. 2300 BC
C. 2200 BC D. 2100 BC
Answer: Option C
6. When did US solar system probe Voyager-
two discovered six new moons of the planet
Uranus?
A. 1986 B. 1916
C. 1946 D. 1966
Answer: Option A
7. What is the approximate area of Bihar?
A. 94,163 sq. km B. 1,35,100 sq. km
C. 3,702 sq. km D. 1,96,024 sq. km
Answer: Option A
9. When did China exploded first atomic 17. What is the literacy rate of Punjab?
device? A. 63.615 per cent B. 61.03 per cent
A. 1962 B. 1963 C. 69.95 per cent D. 65.07 per cent
C. 1964 D. 1965 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
18. What is the S.I. unit of temperature?
10. What is the population density of Nagaland? A. Kelvin B. Celsius
A. 120/sq. km B. 220/sq. km C. Centigrade D. Fahrenheit
C. 320/sq. km D. 420/sq. km Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
19. When did 19 NATO members and 11
11. When is Lal Bahadur Shastri's death 'Partners for Peace' join hands for peace plan for
anniversary? Kosovo Crisis?
A. January, 11 B. January, 20 A. 1999 B. 1989
C. January, 27 D. January, 31 C. 1979 D. 1969
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
12. When and where was basketball introduced 20. Yelena Isinbayeva is associated with which
in Olympics as a medal event? of the following games/sports?
A. 1992 at Barcilona A. Tennis B. Pole vault
B. 1928 at Paris C. Boxing D. Weightlifting
C. 1936 at Berlin Answer: Option B
D. 1900 at Athens
Answer: Option C 21. Why the Indus valley culture called
Harappan culture?
13. When did first test tube baby - Louise A. The first discovery comes from Harappa
Brown born? B. It was first discovery by a person called
A. 1939 B. 1958 Harappa
C. 1981 D. 1978 C. Harappa is the biggest site discovered so far
Answer: Option D D. Most of the valuable remains have come
from Harappa
14. What is the density of population in Answer: Option A
Chandigarh?
A. 7,902/sq. km B. 1,008/sq. km 22. What is the population of Assam?
C. 5,512/sq. km D. 2,669/sq. km A. 140/sq km B. 340/sq km
Answer: Option A C. 240/sq km D. None
Answer: Option B
15. When cream is separated from milk
A. the density of milk increases 23. What is the measurement of the badminton
B. the density of milk decreases court for singles?
C. the density of milk remains unchanged A. 13.41 m x 6.10 m B. 13.41 m x 5.18 m
D. it becomes more viscous C. 12.30 m x 7.66 m D. 12.30 m x 6.23 m
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
65. Which is the major mineral found in Punjab? 3. Which is India's largest library with a
A. Coal B. Gold collection of over 190 million volumes of
C. Salt D. Iron reading and information material?
Answer: Option C A. National Book Trust
B. National Library
66. When was Shakespeare born? C. National Educational Resource Centre
A. 1564 AD B. 1618 AD D. None
C. 1642 AD D. 1776 AD Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
4. Which of the following UN agencies has its
67. Which city in Tamil Nadu has airport? headquarters at Paris?
A. Chennai B. Triuchirapalli A. UNESCO B. ILO
C. Madurai D. All C. FAO D. IMO
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
68. Which minerals are found in Chhattisgarh? 5. Which amongst the following has the lowest
A. Iron-ore, limestone, dolomite metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (mm3/g
B. Coal, bauxite, corundum hour)?
C. Gaunet, guartz, marble, diamond A. Dog B. Elephant
D. All C. Horse D. Man
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
69. Which is post-harvest folk dance in Assam? 6. Which of the following causes Poliomyelitis?
A. Bihu B. Ojapali A. Dengue virus B. Enterovirus
C. Ankia Nat D. None C. Mumps virus D. Rhabdovirus
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
70. Which country hosted the first Asian 7. Where is the BARC's Research Centre?
Games? A. Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre, Kolkata
A. India B. Indonesia B. Nuclear Research Lab, Kashmir
C. Iran D. Malaysia C. High Altitude Research Lab, Gulmarg
Answer: Option A D. All
Answer: Option D
13. Where did last world cup soccer tournament 20. Which industries are common in Andhra
took place (2010)? Pradesh?
A. Japan and South Korea A. Cement and paper
B. France B. Asbestos and units of HMT, BHEL
C. South Africa C. Hindustan Shipyard and Bharat Dynamics
Limited
D. West Germany
D. All
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
26. When was slavery abolished in Britain? 33. When was Lord Buddha born?
A. 586 BC B. 1000 BC
A. 1830 B. 1837
C. 560 BC D. 750 BC
C. 1843 D. 1833 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
40. When was Mona Lisa painted by Leonardo 47. Which is the associated sport of Bombay
da Vinci? Gold Cup?
A. 1431 AD B. 1492 AD A. Basketball B. Weightlifting
C. 1504 AD D. 1556 AD C. Hockey D. Football
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
50. Which amongst the following mammals has the 58. Lala Lajpat Rai is also known as
highest metabolic rate in terms of oxygen A. Sher-e-PunjabB. Punjab Kesari
consumption (mm3/g hour)? C. both (a) and (b) D. None
A. Dog B. Mouse Answer: Option C
C. Rabbit D. Rat
Answer: Option B 59. Modern football is said to have evolved from
A. England B. India
51. When was Mandela inaugurated as first black C. France D. Spain
President? Answer: Option A
A. 1994 B. 1999
C. 2000 D. None 60. Nowadays many novel chemicals are being
Answer: Option A synthesized termed as xenobiotics. The unique
feature of these is what they are
52. Which among the sources of energy tapped in I.biodegradable
India has shown the largest growth till the Eighth II.non- biodegradable
plan? III.pose on environmental threat
A. Hydro B. Thermal IV.they are environment friendly
C. Gas D. Nuclear A. I, III B. II, III
Answer: Option C C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV
Answer: Option B
53. Which body of UNO gives advisory opinion on
legal matters to the bodies and special agencies of 61. Modern Indo-Aryan languages are based on an
the UNO? ancient language called
A. The Security Council A. Hindi B. Sanskrit
B. International Court of Justice C. Kannada D. Tamil
C. Trusteeship Council Answer: Option B
D. Secretariat
Answer: Option B 62. Lakshmibai National College of Physical
54. Which is the highest literary award of the Education is located at
world? A. Bhopal B. Gwalior
A. Nobel Prize B. Booker Prize C. Karnal D. Patiala
C. Pulitzer Prize D. Magsaysay Award Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
63. Malfunctioning of which of the following
55. Ms. Medha Patkar is associated with the organs causes jaundice?
A. Tehri project B. Enron project A. Stomach B. Pancreas
C. Sardar Sarovar project D. Dabhol project C. Liver D. Kidney
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
12. Mahakavi Kalidas 17. King Hammurabi raised the first army of the
A. was one of the greatest Sanskrit poet and world in
dramatist A. 2000 BC B. 1500 BC
B. lived during the region of Chandragupta C. 1480 BC D. 1027 BC
Vikaramaditya Answer: Option A
C. famous works include Shakutala,
Raghuvansha, Meghdoot and Kumara 18. National Institute of Occupation Health is
Sambahava located at
D. All A. Bangalore B. Ahmedabad
Answer: Option D C. Pune D. Mumbai
Answer: Option B
35. Of the blood groups A, B, AB and O, which 42. Judicature (High Court) of Rajasthan is at
one is transfused into a person whose blood A. Jodhpur B. Jaipur
group is A? C. Udaipur D. Jaiselmer
A. Group A only B. Group B only Answer: Option A
C. Group A and O D. Group AB only
Answer: Option C 43. Kolleru Pelicanary situated at Elluru,
Andhra Pradesh has reserves of
36. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI) A. elephant, tiger, panther, sambar
was established in B. pelicans, painted stroke
A. 1958 B. 1964 C. chital, sambar, chinkara, wild birds
C. 1973 D. 1988 D. elephant, leopard, tiger, garu, nilgai
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
39. Karl Marx's ideology advocated 46. Jeevan Rekha (Life line) express is
A. a classed unique society A. first hospital on wheels in the world
B. a united society B. first railway express
C. a classed society C. oldest train
D. None D. None
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
40. Lhasa airport at Tibet is the World's 47. Lata Mangeshkar holds the world record for
A. largest airport B. highest airport maximum number of ____
C. lowest airport D. busiest airport A. song recordings B. singing songs
Answer: Option B C. songs composing D. None
Answer: Option A
19. Which one of the following is not related to 26. The International Human Rights Convention
disarmament? adopted by the United Nations in 1990 relates to
A. SALT B. NPT A. disabled B. stateless persons
C. CTBT D. NATO C. migrant workers D. children
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
20. Which of the following describe correctly 27. Who was the first Indian to be President of
the Group of Seven Countries (G-7)? UN General Assembly?
A. They are developing countries A. Mrs. Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
B. They are industrialised countries B. Ramesh Bhandari
C. They are holding Atomic Bomb technology C. Natwar Singh
D. They are countries who can launch their own D. Krishna Menon
satellites Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
30. When was the South Asian Association for 37. Vietnam joined the U.N.O in the year
Regional Co-operation (SAARC) formed? A. 1977 B. 1970
A. 1985 B. 1982 C. 1976 D. 1974
C. 1986 D. 1987 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
38. The International Court of Justice is located
31. Which of the following is the headquarters at
of World Trade Organisation (WTO)? A. Geneva B. Hague
A. New York B. Geneva C. Amsterdam D. Vienna
C. Madrid D. Paris Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
32. The international township built near 39. Which of the following international
Pondicherry in India in coloration with organisations has started the scheme 'Partnership
UNESCO is called for Peace' for a group of nations?
A. Elbaville B. Auroville A. Organisation of Petroleum Exporting
C. Gayaville D. Broadway Countries (OPEC)
Answer: Option B B. Economic and Social Commission for Asia
and Pacific (ESCAP)
33. Which of the following is a cultural
organisation? C. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
A. UNESCO B. ILO D. Organisations of African Unity (OAU)
C. WHO D. FAO Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
40. Which of the following pairs of country and
34. The non-permanent members of the Security the purpose for which U.N. Peace Keeping
Council of the UN elected by the General Force is maintained is correctly is correctly
Assembly for two years term at present include matched?
(2-year term which begins on the January 1, A. Cyprus - to maintain peace between the two
2011) dominant ethnic groups in the country
A. Japan, India, Hungary, Venezuela B. Mozambique - To supervise a referendum
B. Morocco, Cape, Verde, Belgium, Russia C. El Salvador - to deliver humanitarian aid
C. Zimbabwe, Venezuela, India, France
D. Lebanon - For supervising a 1992 accord
D. Colombia, Germany, India, Portugal, South
Africa Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
44. Which was the first country to withdraw 51. The number of principal organs of UNO is
from CENTO? A. 3 B. 4
A. Iraq B. Afghanistan C. 5 D. 6
C. Turkey D. U.K. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
52. G-7 includes
45. First Indian to make a speech in Hindi A. South Africa B. Australia
before the UN General Assembly is C. India D. Italy
A. Moraji Desai Answer: Option D
B. A.B. Vajpayee
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri 53. INTERPOL means
D. Lal Krishna Advani A. International Political Conference
Answer: Option B B. International Criminal Police Organisation
C. None
46. When was SAARC founded? D. International Association of Police Officers
A. 1982 B. 1984 Answer: Option B
C. 1985 D. 1983
Answer: Option C 54. The headquarters of U.N. is located in
A. Rome B. Geneva
47. Which of the following is not a member of C. New York D. Washington D.C.
G-15? Answer: Option C
A. Pakistan
B. Malaysia 55. The SAARC movement was launched for
C. Indonesia A. political alliances B. regional cooperation
D. India C. cultural exchanges D. military strategy
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
61. The NAM summit which demanded 68. SAARC was founded in
expansion of the United Nations Security A. New Delhi B. Geneva
council had met at C. Dhaka D. Thimpu
A. Tehran B. Cairo Answer: Option C
C. Harare D. Jakarta
Answer: Option D 69. Which organ of United Nations has ceased
to be operational?
62. Which of the following countries is not a A. Trusteeship Council
member of a SAARC B. Secretariat
A. Sri Lanka B. Myanmar C. International Court of Justice
C. Maldives D. Bhutan D. Economic and Social Council
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
63. Where was the first ever security Council 70. The member countries of NAFTA are
Summit meeting held in early 1992? A. USA and Canada
A. New York B. USA, Canada and Mexico
B. Paris C. Canada and Mexico
C. Geneva D. USA and Mexico
D. London Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
1. India was elected as a President of General 1. The Hwang Ho River falls into:
Assembly of the United Nations in 1953. Who A. Indian Ocean B. Yellow Sea.
occupied this office on behalf of India? C. Red Sea D. Bay of China
A. S. Radha Krishnan Answer: Option B
B. Gopalswamy Iyyengar
C. V.K. Krishna Menon 2. Yokohama and Kobe are the main centres of
D. Vijayalakshmi Pandit ship building industry in:
Answer: Option D A. Japan B. South Korea
C. North Korea D. China
2. United Nations adapted a Charter of Answer: Option A
Economic Rights in the year
A. 1969 3. Cocos plate lies between:
B. 1974 A. Central America and Pacific Plate.
C. 1956 B. North America and Pacific Plate.
D. 1964 C. South America and Pacific Plate.
Answer: Option B D. None of Above.
Answer: Option A
3. Which organ of the United Nations has
ceased to be operational? 4. Brown Waterfalls are situated in:
A. Economic and Social Council A. Australia B. New Zealand
B. International Court of Justice C. Canada D. SwitSwitzerland
C. Trusteeship Council Answer: Option B
D. Secretariat
Answer: Option C 5. Mindanoo Island is located in:
A. The Indian Ocean B. North Atlantic
4. The United Nations is considered as a C. The Pacific Ocean D. South Atlantic
universal organisation. Which organ of rhe Answer: Option C
united nations fully represents the fact?
A. The Economic and Social Council 6. Upper Volta is the old name of:
B. The Security Council A. Angola B. Cape Verde
C. The Secretariat C. Burkina Faso D. Burkina
D. The General Assembly Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
7. Greenland is under the rule of:
A. Turkey B. Denmark
C. Germany D. Portugal
Answer: Option B
11. Intensity of production declines with 17. Which country is known as the "Sugar
distance from the market and the type of land Bowl" of the world?
use varies with distance from the market are the A. Cuba B. China
two basic tenets of: C. Australia D. India
A. Von Thunen’s Agriculture Location Theory. Answer: Option A
B. Environmental determinism 18. The Homolographic projection has the
C. Possibilism correct representation of
D. Probabilism A. shape B. area
Answer: Option A C. baring D. distance
Answer: Option B
12. The grasslands in Canada are known as:
A. Prairies. 19. The latitudinal differences in pressure
B. Dawns delineate a number of major pressure zones,
which correspond with
C. Pampas A. zones of climate
D. Steppes B. zones of oceans
Answer: Option A C. zones of land
D. zones of cyclonic depressions
13. India's major contacts with out-side world Answer: Option A
for the last two millennia have been by sea
there-by earning the title for India: 20. The higher the wind speed and the longer
A. The Mistress of the Eastern Seas the fetch or distance of open water across which
B. The Mistress of the Western Seas the wind blows and waves travel, the ____
C. The Mistress of the Southern Seas waves and the ____ energy they process.
D. The Mistress of the Northern Seas A. larger, more B. larger, less
Answer: Option A C. smaller, more D. smaller, less
Answer: Option A
14. The oldest rock system of the world is: 21. The hazards of radiation belts include
A. The Archaean Rock system A. deterioration of electronic circuits
B. The Zircons Rock system B. damage of solar cells of spacecraft
C. The Primitive Rock system C. adverse effect on living organisms
D. None D. All
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
25. The landmass of which of the following 33. The groundwater can become confined
continents is the least? between two impermeable layers. This type of
A. Africa B. Asia enclosed water is called
C. Australia D. Europe A. artesian
Answer: Option C B. artesian well
C. unconfined groundwater
26. Without ____ the equator would be much D. confined groundwater
hotter than it is while the poles would be much Answer: Option A
cooler.
A. latitudinal redistribution of heat
34. The largest glaciers are
B. cycle of air circulation
C. global wind pattern A. mountain glaciers
D. All are similar terms B. alpine glaciers
Answer: Option D C. continental glaciers
D. piedmont glaciers
27. The habitats valuable for commercially Answer: Option C
harvested species are called
A. coral reefs B. sea grass bed 35. The ionosphere includes
C. hot spots D. None A. mesosphere
Answer: Option B B. thermosphere
C. thermosphere and exosphere
28. Which of the following is tropical D. thermosphere, exosphere and mesosphere
grassland? Answer: Option C
A. Taiga B. Savannah
C. Pampas D. Prairies 36. The highest degree of concentration of
Answer: Option B mineral deposits are found in
A. northeastern zone
29. With the disintegration of USSR in end B. northwestern zone
1991, comprised of ____ Union Republics.
C. southern zone
A. 15 B. 10
C. 5 D. 25 D. All
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
41. The Harmattan is 47. The hot and cold deserts together occupy
A. cool, extremely dry wind that forms over the nearly ____ land area of the world.
Sahara and blows westward or south-westward A. 1/2 B. 1/4th
to the Af C. 1/3rd D. 3/4th
B. wind that blows during the dry season from Answer: Option C
December to February
C. tertiary wind that carry great quantities of 48. The highest average salinity amongst the
fine dust from the Sahara following seas is reported from
D. All A. Dead Sea B. Red Sea
Answer: Option D C. Black Sea D. Mediterranean Sea
Answer: Option A
42. The largest gold producing country in the
world is 49. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to
A. China B. Canada which of the following?
C. South Africa D. USA A. Volcanic mountains
Answer: Option A B. Residual mountains
C. Block mountains
43. The hydrological cycle is a conceptual D. Fold mountains
model that describes Answer: Option D
A. the storage of water between biosphere,
hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere 50. The heavy day soils that show significant
B. the movement of water between biosphere, expansion and contraction due to the presence or
atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere absence of moisture is called
C. both (a) and (b) A. aridsols B. vertisols
D. None C. histosols D. andisols
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
9. The latitude 'AA' on the map represents the 15. The horizontal of soil profile is composed of
A. Tropic of Cancer A. weathered parent material that is not affected
B. Tropic of Capricorn by translocation and organic modification
C. Equator B. material affected by translocation & organic
D. None modification
Answer: Option C C. unweathered bedrock
D. None
10. The largest fresh water lake of Africa, area Answer: Option A
wise is
A. lake Victoria 16. The largest city in Latin America is
B. lake Tanganyika A. Mexico city
C. lake Malawi B. Caracas
D. lake Rudot C. Rio-de-Janeiro
Answer: Option A D. Buenos Aires
Answer: Option A
11. The important mountains of Europe include
A. Andes, Alps, Pyrenees 17. The highest and lowest values of a weather
B. Alps, Carpathians, Pyrenees, Apennines element observed over the entire period of
C. Alps, Himalayas, Rock mountains record are
D. None A. extremes
Answer: Option B B. average extremes
C. absolute extremes
12. The last major glacial period began about D. relative extremes
2,000,000 years before present and is commonly Answer: Option C
known as
A. Pleistocene or ice age 18. The highest mountain peak of Oceania is
B. Paleocene or ice age A. Mt. Victoria, Papua New Guinea
C. Pliocene or ice age B. Mt. Kosciusko, Australia
D. Holocene or ice age C. Mt. Cook, South Island (New Zealand)
Answer: Option A D. Puncak Jaya, Indonesia.
Answer: Option D
44. The process of weathering results into 50. The process that involves the eroded
A. the complete loss of particular atoms or the material being dissolved and carried along in
compounds from the weathered surface water as individual ions is called
B. the addition of specific atoms or compounds A. solution B. suspension
to the weathered surface C. saltation D. traction
C. a breakdown of one mass in to two or more Answer: Option A
masses, with no chemical change in the mineral
or rock 51. The relative abundance of dissolved salts in
D. All seawater in descending order is as follows
Answer: Option D A. chlorine, sodium, sulphate, magnesium,
calcium, potassium
45. The part of continental margin that is B. sodium, chlorine, magnesium, potassium,
structurally a part of continent? sulphate, calcium
A. Continental shelf B. Continental Slope C. chlorine, magnesium, calcium, sodium,
C. both (a) and (b) D. None potassium, sulphate
Answer: Option C D. chlorine, sodium, magnesium, calcium,
potassium, sulphate
46. The original landmass, pangola split into Answer: Option A
A. Laurissa in the north and Godwanaland in the
south 52. The planets with no natural satellites
B. Laurissa in the south and Godwanaland in the (reported so far) are
north A. Mercury and Venus
C. Laurissa in the east and Godwanaland in the B. Earth and Pluto
west C. Mars and Neptune
D. Laurissa in the west and Godwanaland in the D. Jupiter and Saturn
east Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
54. The plants of which of the following crops 61. The Pyrenees mountains are located on the
are highly sensitive to frost? border between ____ and ____
A. Barely B. Cotton A. Romania, Bulgaria
C. Maize D. None B. Norway, Sweden
Answer: Option B C. Hungary, Romania
D. France, Spain
55. The religion of Afghanistan is Answer: Option D
A. Islam B. Buddhism
C. Hinduism D. Christianity 62. The process of evaporation of water in
Answer: Option A nature is one of the basic components of the
hydrological cycle. The other process that is
56. The region that has a typical dispersed rural considered to be essential for the completion of
settlement pattern is the hydrological cycle is the
A. Kerala coastal plain A. flow tide and ebb tide in a river
B. western Ganga plain B. movement of water vapour in the atmosphere
C. eastern Rajasthan C. flow of water in the sea
D. Telengana plateau D. movement of water in the water table
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
57. The reaction between compounds and 63. The ocean water is saline due to
oxygen is called A. evaporation of its surface
A. oxidation B. hydrolysis B. volume of fresh water added by rainfall
C. carbonation D. solution C. salts are already present in sea water
Answer: Option A D. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
58. The percentage of sun's radiation reflected
back into space is about 64. The platform and the basement rock together
A. 36 percent B. 47 percent form
C. 17 percent D. None A. craton B. shield
Answer: Option A C. both (a) and (b) D. None
Answer: Option A
59. The progressive wave theory regarding of
tides was put forth by 65. The process that explains the recent changes
A. R.A. Harris in the height of sea level in coastal areas of
B. Issac Newton eastern and northern Canada and Scandinavi is
C. William Whewell A. isostasy B. continental drift
D. G.B. Airy C. plate tectonics D. None
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
21. The rate at change of temperature is called 27. The Palaeozoic era starts at ____ million
A. temperature difference years ago and ends at ____ million years ago.
B. temperature gradient A. 500, 100 B. 570, 225
C. isotherm C. 470, 150 D. 470, 225
D. None Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
28. The reaction is carbonate and bicarbonate
22. The rate of infiltration normally declines ions with mineral is called
rapidly during the early part of rainstorm event A. hydrolysis B. carbonation
and reaches a constant value after several hours C. oxidation D. solution
of rainfall. The factors responsible for this Answer: Option B
phenomenon are
the filling of fine soil pores with water, which 29. The plants grown in equatorial regions
reduces capillary forces include
moistened soil, clay particles to swell and A. wheat, barley, maize
reduce the size of pores B. evergreen dense forests, rubber trees,
raindrop impact breaking up with soil clumps, groundnuts
splashing fine particles into pores C. groundnuts, soyabeens, potatoes
A. I, II B. I, III D. evergreen coniferous forests, oats, cocoa
C. II, III D. All Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
30. The process that may cause physical
23. The process where the particle moves from weathering or mechanical rupture are
the surface to the medium in quick, continuous, A. abrasion, crystallization, pressure release
repeated cycles is called B. abrasion, oxidation, hydrolysis
A. saltation B. suspension C. crystallization, carbonation, thermal
C. traction D. solution insolation
Answer: Option A D. None
Answer: Option A
24. The obscuring of one celestial body by
another, particularly that of the sun or a 31. The process of particle detach ment by
planetary satellite moving glacial ice is called
A. elliptic B. ecliptic A. plucking B. abrasion
C. eclipse D. None C. scouring D. None
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
25. The river Sutlej, on which the Bhakra Dam 32. The points in the ecliptic farthest north and
has been built, originates from south of the celestial equator are called
A. a spring in Vering A. summer and winter solstices
B. near Bara Lacha Pass in Lahul B. autumnal and vernal equinox
C. Rakas lake in Tibet C. north celestial pole and south celestial pole
D. Mansarovar lake D. None
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
15. The third world includes about 120 countries 22. The smallest glaciers are
of A. mountain or alpine glaciers
A. Asia, Africa and Central America B. continental glaciers
B. Asia, Australia and Europe C. piedmont glaciers
C. Africa, North America D. None
D. None Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
23. The time interval between one vernal
16. The smallest division of geological time equinox and the next is nearest to which of the
scale is following figures?
A. eon B. eras A. 359 days B. 361 days
C. stage D. periods C. 363 days D. 365 days
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
17. The various types of plate convergence is 24. Which of the following is measured on the
oceanic-oceanic convergence Richter scale?
oceanic-continental convergence A. Density of liquids
continental-continental convergence B. Intensity of earthquakes
A. I, II B. II, III C. Velocity of tornadoes
C. I, III D. All D. Height of mountains
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
18. The smallest state, population wise, in the 25. The term used to describe the combined
world is effect of all shortwave losses in
A. Vatican City B. Monaco A. earth scattering
C. Nauru D. Liechtenstein B. earth radiation
Answer: Option A C. earth albedo
D. None
19. The time at a place is determined by Answer: Option C
A. the parallels of longitude
B. the parallels of latitude 26. The time difference between each side of the
C. distance from equator International Date line is
D. distance from prime meridian A. 12 hours B. 24 hours
Answer: Option A C. 36 hours D. 48 hours
Answer: Option B
20. The tropical and temperate deserts of the
world, occupy nearly ____ of the land surface of 27. The soil used for cutting bricks, use in the
the worlds. construction of houses is
A. (1/4) th B. (1/3) rd A. black soil B. laterite soil
C. (1/2) D. (1/7) th C. alluvial soil D. saline and alkaline soils
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
29. The shallow seas found in the Atlantic basin 35. The soils whose parent material tend to be
include the rich in sand are
A. Caribbean sea and Mediterranean A. spodsols B. alfisols
B. Baltic and Arctic seas C. aridsols D. ultisols
C. Gulf of Mexico Answer: Option A
D. All
Answer: Option D 36. The tide produced when the moon and the
sun are at right angles to the earth, thus pulling
30. The study of human geography includes in opposite directions, is called
study of A. neap tide B. spring tide
C. diurnal tide D. ebb tide
A. human society and culture
Answer: Option A
B. behaviour and urban systems
C. economics and politics 37. The soil found in areas of heavy rainfall and
D. All high humidity, where there is good growth of
Answer: Option D vegetation is
A. peat and marshy soil
31. The snow line of the Rocky Mountains of B. saline and alkaline soil
the USA is about C. black soil
A. 3 km above sea level D. alluvial soil
B. 6 km above sea level Answer: Option A
C. it is at the sea level
D. None 38. The thickness of biosphere is
Answer: Option A A. 8-10 km above the earth's surface
B. 5-8 km above the earth's surface
32. The study of day-to-day variations in C. 5-10 km above the earth's surface
weather called is called D. 10-12 km above the earth's surface
A. climatology Answer: Option A
B. meteorology
C. cyclogenesis 39. The temperature inversion is
D. None A. whenever the normal decrease of
Answer: Option B atmospheric temperature
B. when the decrease in temperature or moisture
33. The type of soil needed for rice is or both takes place
A. clayey loam C. whenever the normal decrease of atmospheric
B. rich , muddy and saturated with water temperature or moisture or both change with
C. deep, loamy, well drained height over
D. humus, rich in Fe and potash D. All
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
4. When is the World Population Day observed? 12. The birthday of which of the leader in India
A. May 31 is observed as Children's day?
B. October 4 A. Mahatma Gandhi B. S.Radhakrishnan
C. December 10 C. Rajiv Gandhi D. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. July 11 Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
13. The United Nations declared 1993 as a year
5. January 15 is celebrated as the of the
A. Republic Day B. Ugadhi A. disabled B. forests
C. Teachers' Day D. Army Day C. girl child D. indigenous people
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
6. The centenary of Mahatma Gandhi's arrival in 14. The year 1991 was observed in India as the
South Africa was celebrated in year of
A. May 1993 B. August 1993 A. Population control B. Girl child
C. July 1993 D. September 1993 C. Literacy D. Tourism
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
7. National Maritime Day falls on 15. Which day is observed as World Food Day?
A. April 5 B. June 5 A. September 10 B. August 16
C. October 5 D. September 5 C. November 4 D. October 16
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
22. 1981 was the international year of the 30. 9th January is celebrated as
A. Disabled B. Women A. World Cancer Day
B. National Army Day
C. Children D. Blind
C. National Voters Day
Answer: Option A D. Non-Residential Indian Day
Answer: Option D
8. The book 'To Live or Not Live' was written 15. 'Mirchchhakatika' was written by
by A. Vikramaditya
A. V.S. Naipaul B. Shudraka
B. Alexandra Dumas C. Kalhana
C. George Elliot D. Banabhatta
D. Nirad C. Chaudhuri Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
16. The famous book 'Anandmath' was authored
9. In India the first television programme was by
broadcasted in A. Sarojini Naidu
A. 1959 B. 1965 B. Bankim Chandra Chottapadhya
C. 1976 D. 1957 C. Sri Aurobindo
Answer: Option A D. Rabindrnath Tagore
Answer: Option B
10. 'A Voice for Freedom' is a book written by
A. Corazon Aquino B. Nayantara Sahgal 17. Who directed the film '1942: A love story'?
C. Aung San Suu Kyi D. Benazir Bhutto A. Mahesh Bhatt
Answer: Option B B. Vidhu Vinod Chopra
C. Yash Chopra
11. Who is the father of English Poetry? D. Ketan Mehta
A. Milton B. Wordsworth Answer: Option B
C. Chaucer D. Charles Dickens
Answer: Option C 18. Who is the author of famous statement:
"That Government is the best which governs
12. The popular TV serial 'Neem ka Ped' was least"?
written by A. Herbert Spencer
A. Rahi Masoom Raza B. Harold Laski
B. Sharad Joshi C. Alexis De Tocqueville
C. Ashapurna Devi D. Henry David Thoreau
D. Harivansh Rai Bachachan Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
19. Who wrote the book 'Reminiscences of the
13. Which of the book was written by Graham Nehru Age'?
Greene? A. C.D.Deshmukh
A. O' Jerusalem B. Dr. P.C.Alexander
B. The Power and Glory C. M.O.Mathai
C. Crisis in India D. S.C.Rajagopalachari
D. Of Human Bondage Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
21. Which of the following is a biography of the 27. 'The Gathering Storm' is written by
Lady Mountbatten? A. Winston Churchill
A. Edwina Mountbatten - A Life of Her Own. B. George Washington
B. Edwina Mountbatten - Her relationship with C. Voltaire
Nehru D. Romain Rolland
C. Mountbatten Answer: Option A
D. Edwina Mountbattten
Answer: Option A 28. The television serial 'Charitraheen' is based
on the famous novel of which of the following
22. In which year was the 'All India Radio' set authors?
up? A. Rabindranath Tagore
A. 1936 B. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhaya
B. 1927 C. Tara Sankar Bandhopadhya
C. 1947 D. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
D. 1950 Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
29. The programme 'Gyan Vani' is broadcasted
23. Who directed the film 'Sardar'? by
A. Das Gupta A. Zee TV
B. Shyam Benegal B. AIR
C. Tapan Sinha C. Sony TV
D. Ketan Mehta D. Doordarshan
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
24. Who said "God helps those who help 30. Who is the author of the book 'My
themselves"? Experiments with Truth'?
A. Andre Maurois A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Andre Gide B. Michael Anderson
C. Algernon Sidney C. Winston Churchill
D. Swami Vivekananda D. Jarnes Morris
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
25. 'Alice in Wonderland' the famous TV serial 31. 'The Naked Face', a very popular book is
is based on a book written by written by
A. Father Discoste A. Dominique Lapierre
B. Thomas Hardy B. Larry Collins
C. Charles Dickens C. Sidney Sheldon
D. Lewis Caroll D. Juan Benet
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
33. The first history book was written by 39. 'Sports Channel' a monthly video magazine
A. Euclid has been launched by
B. Herodotus A. Kapil Dev
C. Aristotle B. Sunil Gavaskar
D. Julius Caesar C. Ajit Wadekar
Answer: Option B D. Nawab Pataudi
Answer: Option A
34. 'A Secular Agenda' is a book written by
A. Arun Shourie 40. The creator of 'Sherlock Holmes' was
B. Mani Shankar Aiyar A. Arthur Conan Doyle
C. Prem Shankar Jha B. Ian Fleming
D. M.J. Akbar C. Dr.Watson
Answer: Option A D. Shakespeare
Answer: Option A
35. In which language did 'Dr. Masti Venkatesh
Iyengar' write? 41. Who directed the famous TV Serial
A. Malayalam 'Tandoori Nights'?
B. Tamil A. Farukh Dhondy
C. Telugu B. Jon AMiel
D. Kannada C. Zohra Sehgal
Answer: Option D D. Saeed Jaffrey
Answer: Option B
36. The book named 'Three Decades in
Parliament' is a collection of the speeches of 42. Who is the author of book 'We Indians'?
A. A. B. Vajpayee A. Nirad C. Choudry
B. Somnath Chatterjee B. Subramaniya Swamy
C. L. K. Advani C. Khushwant Singh
D. N. G. Ranga D. Muluk Raj Anand
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
37. The famous character 'Pickwick' was created 43. Who is the author of the book - 'Preparing
by for the Twenty - First Century'?
A. Steven Spielberg A. Larry Collins
B. Leo Tolstoy B. V.S. Naipul
C. Walt Disney C. V.R. Krishna Iyer
D. Charles dickens D. Paul Kennedy
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
45. 'Neela Chand' which won the Vyas Samman 51. Who is the author of the book 'No Full Stops
for 1992 is written by in India'?
A. Shiv Prasad Singh A. Raj Mohan Gandhi
B. Subash Mukhopadhyay B. Shyam lal
C. Ram Vilas Sharma C. E.M. Forster
D. Ramakant Rath D. Mark Tully
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
46. The famous book 'Anna Karenina' written by 52. Who has written the book 'Kashmir - Behind
? the Vale'?
A. Boris Pasternak A. L. Ramdas
B. Victor Hugo B. Lt. Gen. Dipendra Singh
C. Lewis Carroll C. M. J. Akbar
D. Leo Tolstoy D. Lt. Gen. S. C. Sardeshpande
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
47. Who is the author of famous book 'The 53. Who has written the book 'The Famished
Judgement'? Road'?
A. Anthony Mascarenhasa A. Ian Austin
B. R. Vankataraman B. V.S. Naipaul
C. Kuldip Nayar C. Ben Okri
D. Janardhan Turkur D. Zola Emile
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
48. Who said "I therefore, want freedom 54. 'Eight Lives' is a book written by
immediately, this very night, before dawn, if it A. Raja Ramana
can be had"? B. Savita Ambedkar
A. Jawaharlal Nehru C. Mahesh Yogi
B. Mahatma Gandhi D. Raj Mohan Gandhi
C. Rajendra Prasad Answer: Option D
D. Nelson Mandela
Answer: Option B 55. Who is the author of the book 'Freedom
Behind Bars'?
49. Who is the author of 'Ashtadhyayi'? A. Kiran Bedi
A. Sumitranandan B. Jawaharlal Nahru
B. Raj Anand C. Sheikh Abdullah
C. Panini D. Nelson Mandela
D. Gitta Piramal Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
59. Who has won the Gyan Peeth Award for her 67. Who directed the film 'Little Buddha'?
book 'Yama'? A. Richard Attenborough
A. Maheswari Devi B. Asha Poorna Devi B. Bernardo Bertolucci
C. Amrita Preetam D. Mahadevi Verma C. Ben Johnson
Answer: Option D D. Mani Kaul
Answer: Option B
60. Which of the following Newspapers are
published in Bengali Language? 68. The controversial documentary 'Hell's
A. Lok Satta B. Pratap Angel' broadcasted by Channel 4 on
C. Din Mani D. Jugantar Independent British Television Station is based
Answer: Option D on who among the following?
A. Joseph Stalin
61. The serial 'India's Rajiv' was produced and
directed by B. Adolf Hitler
A. Simmi Garewal B. Satyajit Ray C. Mother Teresa
C. Shyam Benegal D. Mira Nair D. Saddam Hussein
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
62. The original name of 'Mahabharata' is 69. Who is the author of 'Tom Sawyer'?
A. Katha Saritsagar B. Jai Samhita A. Leo Tolstoy
C. Vrahat Katha D. Rajatarangini B. Mark Twain
Answer: Option B C. John Ruskin
D. William Shakespeare
63. 'Man without society is either a beast or a Answer: Option B
God'. Who said this?
A. Plato B. Gandhi 70. Who is the author of the book 'The Future of
C. Aristotle D. Henry Maine Freedom'?
Answer: Option C A. Richard Wolfee
B. Peter Hudson
64. Who has written the famous book 'Mankind C. Tamara Lipper
and Mother Earth'?
D. Fareed Zakaria
A. Arnold Toynbee B. Leo Tolstoy
C. John Ruskin D. Bertrand Russel Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
3. The book 'The Man who knew Infinity' by 11. What is unique about the film 'Adi
Robert Kanigel is the biography of Shankaracharya'?
A. Srinivasa Ramanujan A. It has won the National Award.
B. Sir C. V. Raman B. It is the first Bengal film.
C. Homi Bhabha C. It is the first Sanskrit film.
D. Vikram Sarabhai D. It has no female actress.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
4. Who is the author of 'Betrayal of the Defence 12. 'Crime and Punishment' was written by
Forces'? A. Fyodor Dostoevsky
A. Vishnu Bhagat B. Tarun Tejpal B. Vladimir Nabakov
C. George Fernandes D. Jaswant Singh C. Lewis Carrol
Answer: Option A D. Alexander Solzhenitsyn
Answer: Option A
5. David Copperfield is the name of
A. novel B. famous actor 13. Lala Lajpat Rai is the author of the book
C. poem D. writer A. India Divided B. Unhappy India
Answer: Option A C. Mother India D. Hind Swaraj
Answer: Option B
6. The famous book 'The Daughter of the East' is
written by 14. Who has written the book entitled 'Hind
A. Ms. Taslima Nasreen Swaraj' ?
B. Ms. Benazir Bhutto A. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Ms. Aunsan Suu Kyi
D. Ms. Bandaranaike Sirimavo B. Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: Option B C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
7. Which is not a correct combination? Answer: Option B
A. Prithivi Raj Raso - Chand Bardai
B. Idols - Sunil Gavaskar 15. The book 'Springing Tiger' was written by -
C. Midnight Children - A. Sanderson A. Hugh Toye B. Louis Fisher
D. Meghdoot - Kalidaas C. Webb Miller D. None
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
7. Professor Amartya Sen is famous in which of 14. Jamini Roy was a famous?
the fields? A. Producer B. Painter
A. Biochemistry B. Electronics C. Dancer D. Actor
C. Economics D. Geology Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
15. In which field 'Aachan Maharaj' has
8. Which of the following was Satyajit Ray distinguished himself?
associated with? A. Painting B. Drama
A. Classical music B. Commercial art C. Dance D. Vocal Music
C. Film Direction D. Classical dance Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
17. Who is well known collector of artefacts and 24. Who among the following is a social activist
curios? campaigning against child labour?
A. Wadeyar A. Baba Amte B. Shabana Amzi
B. Salar Jung C. Mira Nair D. Swami Agnivesh
C. Rabindra Nath Togore Answer: Option D
D. Motilal Nehru
Answer: Option C 25. Pandit K. G. Ginde, was well known for his
contribution in the field of?
18. Ms. Vijaya Mehta has earned distinction in A. Music B. Sanskrit
which of the field? C. Dance D. Ayurveda
A. Theatre B. Film Direction Answer: Option A
C. Classical Dance D. Journalism
Answer: Option A 26. Who fits with this description 'Indian Cotton
merchant, Banker, Congressman, a close
19. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan has distinguished associate of Mahatma Gandhi'?
himself in which of the following fields? A. M. R. Jayakar B. V. S. Sastri
A. Agriculture B. Medicine C. G. D. Birla D. Jamanlal Bajaj
C. Astrophysics D. Physics Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 27. Pandit Jasraj has established his reputation
in which of the following fields?
20. Satyen Bose has shown his excellence in A. Music B. Literature
which of the following fields? C. Sanskrit D. Dance
A. Stage Acting Answer: Option A
B. Drawing and Painting
C. Classical Dance 28. Ustad Nisar hussain Khan earned distinction
D. Motion Picture in which of the following fields?
Answer: Option D A. Vocal Music B. Instrumental music
C. Acting D. Classical dance
21. Charles Correa has distinguished himself in Answer: Option A
which of the following fields?
A. Painting B. Ballet 29. R. K. Laxman is a renowned
C. Architecture D. Western Music A. Dance master B. Writer
Answer: Option C C. Cartoonist D. Journalist
Answer: Option C
22. Who declared that his ultimate aim was to
wipe 'every tear from every eye'? 30. Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is known for his
A. Rajendra Prasad B. Sardar Patel A. work in the Chipko movement
C. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Mahatma Gandhi B. composing music for Ray's films
Answer: Option D C. being literary Secretary to R. N. Tagore
D. patenting a living organism
Answer: Option C
34. Professor Malcolm Adiseshaih had earned 42. Who headed the committee on
worldwide distinction in which of the fields? 'computerisation' in Indian Banks(1988)?
A. Literature B. Defence A. C. Rangarajan B. R.N. Malhotra
C. Economics D. Medicine C. S. Venkitramanan D. M.Narasimhan
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
35. Samantha Fox is associated with 43. Who is the famous Sarod player?
A. Politics B. Pop music A. Hari Prasad B. Zakir Hussain
C. Journalism D. Sports C. Ram Narain D. Amjad Ali Khan
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
36. Greta Garbo is associated with 44. Sanjay Dutt, a noted film actor was held
A. Classical dance B. Literature under
C. Journalism D. Acting A. TADA B. Narcotics Act
Answer: Option D C. Act 302 D. Anti - Defection Act
Answer: Option A
37. Who is the Flying Sikh of India?
A. Mohinder Singh B. Joginder Singh 45. Shovna Narayan is a reputed personality in
C. Ajit Pal Singh D. Milkha singh which of the following fields?
Answer: Option D A. Classical dance B. Literature
C. Journalism D. Classical music
38. Ben kingsley is associated with which of the Answer: Option A
following fields?
A. Politics 46. Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a renowned player
B. Social Service of
C. Sports A. Sitar B. Flute
D. Motion Pictures C. Sarod D. Tabla
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
51. Who is Tania Sachdev? 59. Who is known as the 'Lady with the Lamp'?
A. Chess player B. Cricketer A. Florence Nightingale
C. Actress D. Dancer B. Sarojini Naidu
Answer: Option A C. Indira Gandhi
D. Joan of Arc
52. Limba Ram is associated in which fields? Answer: Option A
A. Sports B. Politics
C. Social Service D. Motion Picture 60. Girilal Jain was a noted figure in which of
Answer: Option A the following fields?
A. Social Service B. Journalism
53. Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi is C. Literature D. Politics
distinguished as the first lady Answer: Option B
A. Prime minister of Bangladesh
B. Judge of Supreme Court 61. Who is Larry Pressler?
C. Judge of the High court A. Politician B. Painter
D. Governor of a state C. Actor D. Tennis player
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
54. Who is the creator of the Rock Garden in 62. Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt, who has won
Chandigarh? the prestigious 'Grammy Awards' is an exponent
A. Pupal Jayakar in which of the following musical instruments?
B. Le Corbousier A. Guitar B. Violin
C. Glen C. sarod D. Tabla
D. Nek Chand Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
3. Track and field star Carl Lewis won how 11. How long are professional Golf Tour players
many gold medals at the 1984 Olympic games? allotted per shot?
A. Two B. Three A. 45 seconds B. 25 seconds
C. Four D. Eight C. 1 minute D. 2 minutes
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
4. Which county did Ravi Shastri play for? 12. Which NBA player scored 8 points in the
A. Glamorgan B. Leicestershire final 7 seconds of a game to lead his team to
C. Gloucestershire D. Lancashire victory?
Answer: Option A A. Baron Davis
B. Kevin Garnett
5. Who was the first Indian to win the World C. Stephon Maurbury
Amateur Billiards title? D. Reggie Miller
A. Geet Sethi B. Wilson Jones Answer: Option D
C. Michael Ferreira D. Manoj Kothari
Answer: Option B 13. In the match between India and Pakistan at
Jaipur on 02-10-1983, Which new rule was
6. Who is the first Indian woman to win an introduced?
Asian Games gold in 400m run? A. Limit of overs was reduced to 50 overs
A. M.L.Valsamma B. P.T.Usha B. The rule of field restriction was taken.
C. Kamaljit Sandhu D. K.Malleshwari C. Over throw runs were batsman's score
Answer: Option C D. No-balls & wides were debited to bowlers
analysis
7. Which two counties did Kapil Dev play? Answer: Option D
A. Northamptonshire & Worcestershire
B. Northamptonshire & Warwickshire 14. The first hang gliders to be flown were
C. Nottinghamshire & Worcestershire flown in?
D. Nottinghamshire & Warwickshire A. 1600s B. 1700s
Answer: Option A C. 1800s D. 1900s
Answer: Option C
17. Mark Waugh is commonly called what? 25. Which player has scored the most runs in a
A. Afganistan B. Junior single Test innings?
C. Tugga D. Julio A. Graham Gooch B. Matthew Hayden
Answer: Option B C. Brian Lara D. Agarkar
Answer: Option C
18. India won its first Olympic hockey gold in?
A. 1928 B. 1932 26. Who was the 1st ODI captain for India?
C. 1936 D. 1948 A. Ajit Wadekar B. Bishen Singh Bedi
Answer: Option A C. Nawab Pataudi D. Vinoo Mankad
Answer: Option A
19. How many times did Geet Sethi win the
lBSF World Billiards title? 27. Where did India play its 1st one day
A. 2 B. 3 international match?
C. 4 D. 5 A. Lords B. Headingley
Answer: Option B C. Taunton D. The Oval
Answer: Option B
20. In which year did Milkha Singh win the first
National title in the 400 m race? 28. India reached the final of the Davis Cup for
A. 1955 B. 1956 the first time in?
C. 1957 D. 1970 A. 1964 B. 1966
Answer: Option C C. 1970 D. 1974
Answer: Option B
21. Who won the 1993 "King of the Ring"?
A. Owen Hart B. Bret Hart 29. The Asian Games were held in Delhi for the
C. Edge D. Mabel first time in?
Answer: Option B A. 1951 B. 1963
C. 1971 D. 1982
22. What NHL goaltender has the most career Answer: Option A
wins?
A. Grant Fuhr 30. What Australian player was known as
B. Patrick Roy 'Fruitfly' amongst the rest of the team?
C. Chris Osgood A. Geoff Lawson B. Merv Hughes
D. Mike Vernon C. Mike Veletta D. Mike Whitney
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
32. The first hand glider was designed by? 40. Which county did Sachin Tendulkar play
A. Leonardo DaVinci B. The Wright brothers for?
C. Francis Rogallo D. Galileo A. Nottinghamshire B. Yorkshire
Answer: Option A C. Lancashire D. Leicestershire
Answer: Option B
33. Which county did Sunil Gavaskar play for?
A. Somerset B. Worcestershire 41. Who did Shawn Michaels beat to win his
C. Warwickshire D. Glamorgan first Intercontinental Title?
Answer: Option A A. Bret Hart B. Marty Jannetty
C. British Bulldog D. Tito Santana
34. The 'Dronacharya Award' is given to? Answer: Option C
A. Sportsmen B. Coaches
C. Umpires D. Sports Editors 42. Where did the 1st ODI match was played in
Answer: Option B India?
A. New Delhi B. Ahmedabad
35. In which Indian state did the game of Polo C. Kolkata D. Mumbai
originate? Answer: Option B
A. Meghalaya B. Rajasthan
C. Manipur D. West Bengal 43. Who had a torrid time with Lancashire in
Answer: Option C 2000?
A. Sachin Tendulkar B. Nayan Mongia
36. What do African-American football players C. Javagal Srinath D. Saurav Ganguly
Ernie Davis, Archie Griffin, and Tony Dorsett Answer: Option D
have in common?
A. They all played for Pittsburgh 44. What is the name of the person that controls
B. They all won the Heisman Trophy a football match?
C. They all led to Super Bowl titles A. A referee B. An umpire
D. They dont have any similarity C. A spectator D. A goalkeeper
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
37. Which cricketer died on the field in 45. Former Australian captain Allan Border was
Bangladesh while playing for Abahani Club? sometimes known as "Captain Grumpy". What
A. Subhash Gupte B. M.L.Jaisimha was his other nickname?
C. Lala Amarnath D. Raman Lamba A. Abe B. Captain Junior
Answer: Option D C. AB D. Groucho
Answer: Option C
38. Which of the following is a Manipuri
version of Hockey? 46. The Indian football team made its first
A. Khong Kangjei B. Hiyang Tanaba appearance at Olympics in?
C. Yubi Lakpi D. Yubi-Lakpi A. 1936 B. 1948
Answer: Option A C. 1952 D. 1956
Answer: Option B
14. When did Sachin Tendulkar make his Test 21. The highest first wicket partnership in Test
debut? Match Cricket was between two Indians: one is
A. 1986 B. 1991 V.Mankad, who is the other?
C. 1990 D. 1989 A. Subhash Gupte B. Sunil Gavaskar
Answer: Option D C. Pankaj Roy D. Chetan Chauhan
Answer: Option C
15. Who was named India's Cricketer of the
Century by Wisden? 22. What is the middle name of Deep Dasgupta?
A. Anil Kumble A. Karan B. Jogan
B. Sachin Tendulkar C. Chandar D. Biplab
C. Kapil Dev Answer: Option D
D. Sunil Gavaskar
Answer: Option C 23. Who was named Wisden Cricketer of the
Year in 2000?
16. What were the bowling figures for Irfan A. Rahul Dravid B. Sourav Ganguly
Pathan on his ODI debut?The answer is in this C. Sachin Tendulkar D. Yuvraj Singh
form : Overs - Maidens - Runs given - Wickets Answer: Option A
taken.
A. 10 - 0 - 60 - 6 B. 10 - 0 - 61 - 0 24. What is the middle name of the world class
C. 9 - 1 - 38 - 3 D. 5 - 2 - 13 - 4 batsman Sachin Tendulkar?
Answer: Option B A. Rohan B. Ramesh
C. Rahul D. Ravi
17. What was Sachin Tendulkar's average when Answer: Option B
he made his first thousand runs in ODIs?
A. 35.83 B. 22.92 25. Which Indian batsman made his ODI debut
C. 43.87 D. 42.86 in the same match in which Kapil Dev did?
Answer: Option A A. Mohammad Azharuddin
B. Surinder Amarnath
18. Farokh Engineer played his last Test match C. Sachin Tendulkar
at his home ground.Where did he play his last D. Navjot Sidhu
Test match? Answer: Option B
A. Delhi B. Calcutta
C. Hyderabad D. Mumbai 26. Against which team did Rahul Dravid made
Answer: Option D his ODI debut?
A. Kenya B. Pakistan
19. Syed Kirmani made his ODI debut in 1976 C. Sri Lanka D. Australia
against New Zealand as a wicketkeeper. How Answer: Option C
many runs did India make in that match?
A. 254 all out B. 222/9 27. What is the middle name of the Ajith
C. 219/5 D. 154 all out Agarkar, a top class all rounder?
Answer: Option D A. Karan
B. Bhalchandra
20. How many wickets Kapil Dev had taken in C. Dalmiya
Test matches when he retired? D. Rohan
A. 450 B. 430 Answer: Option B
C. 435 D. 434
Answer: Option D
41. What was Yashpal Sharma's best score in 49. Who was the first Indian batsman to hit a
First Class Cricket? century on Test debut against England at
A. 201 not out B. 200 England's home?
C. 199 D. 153 not out A. Sachin Tendulkar
Answer: Option A B. Abbas Ali Baig
C. Kapil Dev
42. How many ODI matches had Farokh D. Wassim Jaffer
Engineer played throughout his career?
Answer: Option B
A. 5 B. 10
C. 15 D. 9
Answer: Option A 50. In which year did Ajay Jadeja make his ODI
debut?
43. What is the middle name of V.V.S. A. 1996 B. 1985
Laxman? C. 1992 D. 1991
A. Vangipurapu Venkata Sai Answer: Option C
B. Vishwanatha Venkata Sai
C. Vaidyanatha Venkata Sai 51. How many runs did Sachin Tendulkar was
D. None scored in his ODI debut?
Answer: Option A A. 140 B. 0
C. 23 D. 1
44. Where did Mahendra Singh Dhoni make his Answer: Option B
ODI debut?
A. Chittagong B. Dhaka 52. How many centuries in Tests did Sunil
C. Hyderabad D. Vishakapatnam Gavaskar bag when he retired?
Answer: Option A A. 23 B. 45
C. 34 D. 54
45. What is the middle name of Bajji (Harbhajan
Answer: Option C
Singh)?
A. Plaba B. Plaha
C. Kholi D. Asrani 53. How many fours had Yograj Singh hit
Answer: Option B throughout his Test career?
A. 10 B. 9
46. Where did Yashpal Sharma play his last C. 4 D. 1
ODI match? Answer: Option D
A. Chandigarh B. Indore
C. Delhi D. Hyderabad 54. What was the bowling figures (O-M-R-W )
Answer: Option A of Anil Kumble in his ODI debut against Sri
Lanka?
47. How many runs did VVS Laxman score in A. 1.1-0-27-0 B. 10-7-10-5
his ODI debut? C. 10-0-42-1 D. 8.2-2-33-2
A. 100 B. 1 Answer: Option C
C. 99 D. 0
Answer: Option D 55. Who was named as the Wisden Cricketer of
the Year 1980?
48. Sourav Ganguly made his Test debut in A. Madan Lal
1996.How many runs did he score in the 1st
B. Bishen Singh Bedi
innings of that match?
A. 132 B. 131 C. Sunil Gavaskar
C. 32 D. 99 D. Abbas Ali Baig
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
18. The term 'Caddle' is associates with which 26. Which of the following places is known as
sports? 'Mecca of Indian Football'?
A. Golf B. Billiards A. Kolkata B. Bombay
C. Polo D. Bridge C. Haryana D. Delhi
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
19. The state which declared 1995-1996 as the 27. The term 'Chukker' is used in
Hockey year is A. Polo B. Horse racing
A. Punjab B. Gujarat C. Wrestling D. Rifle shooting
C. Tamil Nadu D. New Delhi Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
28. The Reggio Emilia Tournament in which an
20. Wankhede Stadium is situated in (India) Indian Won early in 1992 is related to
A. Chennai B. Delhi A. Chess B. Tennis
C. Chandigarh D. Mumbai C. Golf D. Shooting
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
21. The name of Geoff Bycott is associated with 29. Levoy Burrell is associated with which
which of the following games? sports?
A. Cricket B. Golf A. Cricket B. Swimming
C. Swimming D. Boxing C. Athletics D. Boxing
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
22. What is the length of each stump in the 30. Who won the maximum number of gold
cricket? medals in Hiroshima Asian Games?
A. 35 inches B. 22 inches A. China B. India
C. 28 inches D. 33 inches C. South Korea D. Japan
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
23. Who received he Wisden Award for the 31. Bahadur Singh is famous in which of the
'Indian Cricketer of the Century' (20th Century) following?
A. Kapil Dev B. Sachin Tendulkar A. Athletics B. Swimming
C. Ajit Wadekar D. Sunil Gavaskar C. Boxing D. Weight Lifting
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
24. Who won the Grand Slam title four times 32. Kamlesh Mehta was associated with which
successively? games/sports?
A. Mortina Navratilova A. Hockey B. Golf
B. Steffi Graf C. Table Tennis D. Chess
C. Jennifer Capriati Answer: Option C
D. Monica Seles
Answer: Option B
35. Which Indian batsman made three 42. Chris Evert's name is associated with which
consecutive centuries in his first three Test sports?
matches? A. Tennis B. Swimming
A. Vinoo Mankad C. Skating D. Shooting
B. Mohd. Azaruddin Answer: Option A
C. S.M. Gavaskar
D. G.R. Viswanath 43. Ali Sher, an Arjuna Award winner, is
Answer: Option B associated with
A. Golf B. Football
36. Which of the following is correctly C. Yatching D. Hockey
matched? Answer: Option A
A. Nehru Trophy - Table Tennis
B. B.C. Roy Trophy - Lawn Tennis 44. Which of the following games originated
C. Holkar Trophy - Bridge from England?
D. Ruia Trophy - Kabbadi A. Baseball B. Archery
Answer: Option C C. Cricket D. Hockey
Answer: Option C
37. Geet Sethi has made a mark in
A. Billiards B. Shooting 45. Jaspal Rana is in which of the following
C. Chess D. Golf games?
Answer: Option A A. Shooting B. Weight Lifting
C. Swimming D. Archery
38. The Rovers Cup is associated with Answer: Option A
A. Cricket B. Mauritius
C. Hockey D. Football 46. Which Indian Criketer was given the title
Answer: Option D 'Tiger'?
A. Sunil Gavaskar
39. Grand Slam in Tennis means a player has to B. Rahul Dravid
win C. B.S. Bedi
A. Australian open, French open, U.S. open and D. Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi
Wimbledon Answer: Option D
B. Australian open, U.S. Open and Wimbledon
C. Australian open, French open and 47. The Golf player Vijay Singh represents
Wimbledon A. Canada B. Fiji
D. French open, Wimbledon C. Sri Lanka D. India
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
51. Vishal Uppal and Harsh Mankad won the 59. Which of the following was the mascot of
Doubles of the ITF Men's Futures Tournament the Barcelona Olympic Games?
in A. Cobi B. Doves
A. Badminton B. Tennis C. hodori D. Panda
C. Football D. Volleyball Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
60. The term 'Tee' is connected with
52. Who among the following was adjudged the A. Badminton B. Golf
Best Athlete of 14th Asian games held in Busan, C. Bridge D. Polo
South Korea?
Answer: Option B
A. Kosuke Kitajima B. Taufik Hidayat
C. Lee Bong - Ju D. Zaw Min Htwe
Answer: Option C 61. The name of the Mascot for 1996 Olympics
held at Atlanta was
53. Major R.S. Brar is associated with A. Matari B. APPU
A. Boxing B. Golf C. WHATZ IT D. Uncle Sam
C. Equestrian D. Tennis Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
62. S. Vijayalakshmi and Nisha Mohita are
54. Crame Trophy Tennis final held in May associated with
2003 was played between A. Badminton B. Tennis
A. Leander Paes and David Rickle C. Chess D. Table Tennis
B. John McEnore and David Rickle Answer: Option C
C. Boris Becker and John McEnroe
D. Boris Becker and Leander Paes 63. The Olympic museum was opened at which
Answer: Option C of the following places?
A. Lausanne B. Istanbul
55. Which of the following games is not C. Athens D. Rome
included in the Olympic Games?
Answer: Option A
A. Skiing B. Cycling
C. Cricket D. Archery
Answer: Option C 64. Who among the Indian to win the Athletics
Gold in 1998 Asian Games?
2. Electric bulb filament is made of 11. Quartz crystals normally used in quartz
A. Copper B. Aluminum clocks etc. is chemically
C. Lead D. Tungsten A. Silicon Dioxide
Answer: Option D B. Germanium Oxide
C. A mixture of Germanium Oxide and Silicon
3. Brass gets discoloured in air because of the dioxide
presence of which of the following gases in air? D. Sodium Silicate
A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen Sulphide Answer: Option A
C. Carbon dioxide D. Nitrogen
Answer: Option B 12. Which of the gas is not known as green
house gas?
A. Methane B. Nitrous oxide
4. Which of the following is a non metal that C. Carbon dioxide D. Hydrogen
remains liquid at room temperature? Answer: Option D
A. Phosphorous B. Bromine
C. Chlorine D. Helium 13. Bromine is a
Answer: Option B A. Black Solid
B. Red Liquid
5. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate C. Colourless Gas
compound in which central metal is D. Highly Inflammable Gas
A. Copper B. Magnesium Answer: Option B
C. Iron D. Calcium
Answer: Option B 14. The hardest substance available on earth is
A. Gold B. Iron
6. Which of the following is used in pencils? C. Diamond D. Platinum
A. Graphite B. Silicon Answer: Option C
C. Charcoal D. Phosphorous
Answer: Option A 15. The variety of coal in which the deposit
contains recognizable traces of the original plant
material is
7. Which of the following metals forms an A. Bitumen B. Anthracite
amalgam with other metals? C. Lignite D. Peat
A. Tin B. Mercury Answer: Option D
C. Lead D. Zinc
Answer: Option B 16. Tetraethyl lead is used as
A. Pain Killer B. Fire Extinguisher
8. Chemical formula for water is C. Mosquito Repellent D. Petrol Additive
A. NaA1O2 B. H2O Answer: Option D
C. Al2O3 D. CaSiO3
Answer: Option B
18. The inert gas which is substituted for 25. Among the various allotrope of carbon
nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for A. Coke is the hardest, graphite is the softest
breathing, is B. Diamond is the hardest, coke is the softest
A. Argon B. Xenon C. Diamond is the hardest, graphite is the softest
C. Helium D. Krypton D. Diamond is the hardest, lamp black is the
Answer: Option C softest
Answer: Option B
19. The gases used in different types of welding
would include 26. The group of metals Fe, Co, Ni may best
A. Oxygen and Hydrogen called as:
B. Oxygen, Hydrogen, Acetylene and Nitrogen A. Transition metals B. Main group metals
C. Oxygen, Acetylene and Argon C. Alkali metals D. Rare metals
D. Oxygen and Acetylene Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
27. Heavy water is:
20. The property of a substance to absorb A. Deuterium oxide B. PH7
moisture from the air on exposure is called C. Rain water D. Tritium oxide
A. Osmosis B. Deliquescence Answer: Option A
C. Efflorescence D. Desiccation
Answer: Option B 28. The chemical (Ethyl Mercaptan) added to
the otherwise odourless LPG cooking gas for
21. In which of the following activities silicon imparting a detectable smell to the gas is a
carbide is used? compound of:
A. Making cement and glass A. Bromine B. Fluorine
B. Disinfecting water of ponds C. Chlorine D. Sulphur
C. Cutting very hard substances Answer: Option D
D. Making casts for statues
Answer: Option C 29. The element common to all acids is
A. Hydrogen B. Carbon
22. The average salinity of sea water is C. Sulphur D. Oxygen
A. 3% B. 3.5% Answer: Option A
C. 2.5% D. 2%
Answer: Option B 30. Non stick cooking utensils are coated with
A. Black paint B. PVC
23. When an iron nail gets rusted, iron oxide is C. Teflon D. polystyrene
formed Answer: Option C
A. Without any change in the weight of the nail
B. With decrease in the weight of the nail 31. Monazite is an ore of
C. With increase in the weight of the nail A. Titanium B. Zirconium
D. Without any change in colour or weight of C. Iron D. Thorium
the nail Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
35. Soda water contains 44. Actinides are the elements with atomic
A. Carbonic acid B. Sulphuric acid numbers from
C. Carbon dioxide D. Nitrous acid A. 97 to 104 B. 101 to 115
Answer: Option C C. 89 to 103 D. 36 from 43
Answer: Option C
36. The most important ore of aluminum is
A. Galena B. Calamine 45. The two elements that are frequently used
C. Calcite D. Bauxite for making transistors are:
Answer: Option D
A. Boron and Aluminium
37. Most soluble in water is: B. Silicon and Germanium
A. Camphor B. Sulphur C. Iridium and Tungsten
C. Common salt D. Sugar D. Niobium and Columbium
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
38. Which of the following was to be discovered 46. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
first in the chromospheres of the sun? A. Tungsten B. Nichrome
A. Krypton B. Xenon C. Graphite D. Iron
C. Neon D. Helium Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
47. Diamond is an allotropic form of:
39. Which of the following is in liquid form at A. Germanium B. Carbon
room temperature? C. Silicon D. Sulphur
A. Lithium B. Sodium Answer: Option B
C. Francium D. Cerium
Answer: Option C 48. In fireworks, the green flame is produced
because of
40. Sodium metal is kept under:
A. Sodium B. Barium
A. Petrol B. Alcohol
C. Water D. Kerosene C. Mercury D. Potassium
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
24. The isotope of uranium capable of 30. According to Avogadro's Hypothesis, the
sustaining chain reaction is smallest particle of an element or a compound,
A. U-235 B. U-245 that can exist independently, is called:
C. U-239 D. U-238 A. A molecule B. A cation
Answer: Option A C. An anion D. An atom
Answer: Option A
25. The age of most ancient geological
31. Atoms of an element differ from those of all
formations is estimated by
other elements in
A. Ra - Si method A. Atomic number and electronic configuration.
B. Potassium - argon method B. Number of neutrons and number of valence
C. C14 method electrons.
D. Uranium - lead method C. Atomic number and number of valence
Answer: Option C electrons.
D. Number of neutrons and electronic
26. Who suggested that most of the mass of the configuration.
atom is located in the nucleus? Answer: Option D
A. Thompson B. Bohr
C. Rutherford D. Einstein 32. Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of:
Answer: Option C A. Neutron B. Proton
C. Deuteron D. Electron
27. The dark lines in the solar spectrum are due Answer: Option A
to
A. Absorption of corresponding wavelengths by 33. Which of the following rays are the most
the outer layers of the sun. penetrating?
B. Destructive interference between waves of A. Beta rays B. Alpha rays
certain definite wavelengths. C. Gamma rays D. X-rays
C. Absorption of corresponding wavelengths by Answer: Option C
the prism used in the photograph.
D. Absence of corresponding wavelengths from 34. How many colours the sunlight spectrum
the light emitted by the core of the sun. has?
Answer: Option A A. Three B. Seven
C. Four D. Five
28. In an atomic nucleus, neutrons and protons Answer: Option B
are held together by:
A. Gravitational forces 35. Which is/are the important raw material(s)
B. Exchange forces required in cement industry?
C. Coulombic forces A. Gypsum and Clay B. Clay
D. Magnetic forces C. Limestone and Clay D. Limestone
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
37. Which of the following is commonly called 45. The major ingredient of leather is:
a 'poly-amide'? A. Collagen B. Carbohydrate
C. Polymer D. Nucleic acid
A. Terylene B. Nylon
Answer: Option A
C. Rayon D. Orlon
Answer: Option B 46. What are the soaps?
A. Salts of silicates
38. Epoxy resins are used as: B. Mixture of glycerol and alcohols
A. Detergents B. Insecticides C. Sodium or potassium salts of heavier fatty
C. Adhesives D. Moth repellents acids
Answer: Option C D. Esters of heavy fatty acids
Answer: Option C
39. Detergents used for cleaning clothes and
utensils contain? 47. How does common salt help in separating
A. Bicarbonates B. Bismuthates soap from the solution after saponification?
C. Sulphonates D. Nitrates A. By decreasing density of Soap
Answer: Option C B. By decreasing solubility of Soap
C. By increasing density of Soap
40. Which of the following is used for removing D. By increasing solubility of Soap
air bubbles from glass during its manufacture? Answer: Option B
A. Arsenous oxide
48. In vulcanisation, natural rubber is heated
B. Potassium carbonate
with
C. Soda ash A. Carbon B. Silicon
D. Feldspar C. Sulphur D. Phosphorous
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
41. Which of the following is a protein? 49. Deep blue colour is imparted to glass by the
A. Natural rubber B. Starch presence of
C. Cellulose D. None A. Cupric oxide B. Nickel oxide
Answer: Option A C. Cobalt oxide D. Iron oxide
Answer: Option C
42. Wood is the main raw material for the
manufacture of 50. Glass is made of the mixture of:
A. Paint B. Paper A. Quartz and mica B. Sand and silicates
C. Ink D. Gun powder C. Salt and quartz D. Sand and salt
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
43. Rayon is chemically. 51. The vast resources of unutilised natural gas
A. Cellulose B. Pectin can be used in the production of
A. Graphite B. Synthetic petroleum
C. Glucose D. Amylase
C. Fertilisers D. Carbide
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
41. Sound travels at the fastest speed in 47. Sound produced at a point is heard by a
A. steel B. water person after 5 second, while the same sound is
C. air D. vacuum heard by another person after 6 seconds. If the
Answer: Option A speed of sound is 300 m/s, what could be the
maximum and minimum distances between the
42. Oil raise up the wick in a lamp. The two persons?
principle involves A. 1.8 km, 0.15 km
A. the diffusion of oil through the wick B. 2.2 km, 0.20 km
B. the liquid state of oil C. 2.8 km, 0.25 km
C. capillary action phenomenon D. 3.3 km, 0.30 km
D. volatility of oil Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
48. Intensity of sound at a point is ____ its
43. Superconductors are substances which distance from the source.
A. conduct electricity at low temperature A. directly proportional to
B. offer high resistance to the flow of current B. inversely proportional to
C. offer no resistance to the flow of electricity C. directly proportional to square of
D. conduct electricity at high temperatures D. inversely proportional to square of
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
45. The following are the half lives of four 53. The major constituent of air is
active isotopes. Which one of the following is A. carbon dioxide B. nitrogen
the most dangerous to handle? C. oxygen D. hydrogen
A. 3 billion years B. 100 years Answer: Option B
C. 0.01 minute D. 13 days
Answer: Option C 54. The main chemical constituent of clay is
A. silicon oxide
46. The gas used for artificial ripening of green B. aluminium borosilicate
fruit is C. zeolites
A. ethylene B. ethane D. aluminium silicate
C. carbon dioxide D. acetylene Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
55. The mineral containing both magnesium and
47. Zone refining is used for the purification of calcium is
A. Au B. Ge A. magnesite B. calcite
C. Ag D. Cu C. carnallite D. dolomite
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
48. The main chemical constituent of the oil of 56. The metal does not give H2 on treatment
cardamom which is responsible for flavour of with dilute HCL is
this oil is A. Zn B. Fe
A. cineole B. engenol C. Ag D. Ca
C. geraniol D. limonene Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
57. The number of g-molecule of oxygen in 6.02
49. The molecule which has the highest x 1024CO molecules is
percentage of ionic character among the A. 1 gram of molecule
following is B. 0.5 gram of molecule
A. HI B. HF C. 5 gram of molecule
C. HCI D. HBr D. 10 gram of molecule
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
59. The main active constituent of tea and coffee 67. The isomerism which exists between
is CH3CHCI2 and CH2CI. CH2CI is
A. nicotine B. chlorophyll A. chain isomerism
C. caffeine D. aspirin B. functional group isomerism
Answer: Option C C. positional isomerism
D. metamerism
60. The maximum number of isomers for an Answer: Option C
alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is
A. 5 B. 4 68. The half life period of an isotope is 2 hours.
C. 2 D. 3 After 6 hours what fraction of the initial
Answer: Option B quantity of the isotope will be left behind?
A. 1/6 B. 1/3
61. The hardest form of carbon is C. 1/8 D. 1/4
A. coke B. graphite Answer: Option C
C. diamond D. charcoal
Answer: Option C 69. The number of waves made by an electron
moving in an orbit having maximum magnetic
62. The most important ore of aluminium is quantum number is +3
A. bauxite B. magnetite A. 4 B. 5
C. haematite D. monazite C. 2 D. zero
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
63. The organic reaction represented by 70. The number of atoms present in 21.6 gram
equation CH3 - CH = O + H2NOH gives CH3 - of silver (atomic weight = 108) are same as the
CH - NH + H2O is an example of molecules in
A. an addition reaction A. 1.8 gram of H2O
B. a condensation reaction B. 12 moles of KMnO4
C. an oxidation reaction C. 0.6N H2SO4
D. an elimination reaction D. 4.6 gram of C2H5OH
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
2. Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen and 10. The names of the scientists, Newlands,
methane are kept under identical conditions. The Mendeleev, and Meyer are associated with the
ratio of the volumes of gases will be development of
A. 2 : 16 : 2 B. 2 : 16 : 1 A. atomic structure
C. 1 : 16 : 2 D. 1 : 1 : 1 B. metallurgy
Answer: Option C C. periodic table of contents
D. discovery of elements
3. The mass number of an atom is equal to Answer: Option C
A. the number of protons
B. the number of protons and electrons 11. Ozone layer of atmosphere absorbs:
C. the number of nucleons A. Ultraviolet rays
D. the number of neutrons B. Infra-red rays
Answer: Option C C. All radiations of Light
D. Cosmic rays.
4. The maximum number of covalent formed by Answer: Option A
nitrogen is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Answer: Option D
30. N2 content is kept constant in the biosphere 38. Plants growing on sand are called as
due to A. chasmophytes B. oxylophytes
A. N2 fixation B. industrial pollution C. lithophytes D. psammophytes
C. nitrogen cycle D. absorption of N2 Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
39. Our skin, when exposed to excess sunlight,
31. out of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates becomes dark. This is because our skin
present in a cell membrane, what is true? pigments called
A. Lipids are maximum A. flavoxanthin B. melanin
B. Carbohydrates are minimum C. carotene D. Xanthophyll
C. Carbohydrates are maximum Answer: Option B
D. All three are in equal proportion
Answer: Option B 40. Ramapithecus and Cro-Magnon man are
considered
32. Potato is a modified form (outgrowth) of: A. ancestors of modern man
A. root B. stem B. ancestors of monkey
C. fruit D. leaf C. ancestors of lion
Answer: Option B D. None
Answer: Option A
33. Of the following taxonomic categories
which is the most inclusive (i.e. is the highest in 41. Normal adult human male has
hierarchy)? A. 10 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
A. Order B. Subspecies B. 14 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
C. Class D. Genus C. 18 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
Answer: Option C D. 24 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
Answer: Option B
34. Prothrombin which helps in clotting of
blood is released by 42. Plants wilt due to excess of
A. lymphocytes B. erythrocytes A. transpiration B. photosynthesis
C. monocytes D. blood platelets C. absorption D. None
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
46. Plant bends towards the source of light on 53. Night blindness is cause by lack of which
account of the movement of curvature known as vitamin?
A. geotropism B. thigmotropism A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
C. chemotropism D. phototropism C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
47. Plant have ____ while animals lack it. 54. Monocot root differs from dicot root in
A. starch having
B. cellulose A. open vascular bundles
C. protein B. scattered vascular bundles
D. fat C. well developed pith
Answer: Option B D. radially arranged vascular bundles
Answer: Option C
48. Osmosis is the flow of solution from higher
concentration to a solution of lower 55. Radioactivity is a phenomenon of the
concentration through a semi permeable spontaneous emission of
membrane. What is incorrect in this statement? A. protons (alpha particles)
A. Exact concentration of solution is not given B. electrons (beta particles)
B. Character of semi permeable membrane is C. gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic
not given waves)
C. The flow of solution is not possible through D. All
semi permeable membrane Answer: Option D
D. All are incorrect
Answer: Option C
16. Fog that most often forms as warm rain falls 23. A term biotype means
into a cold layer of surface air is called: A. all individuals having same phenotype
A. Radiation fog B. all individuals having same genotype
B. Evaporation (mixing) fog C. all individual with different phenotype
C. Advection fog D. all individuals with different genotype
D. Upslope fog Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
24. Fatal degenerative lung disease caused by
17. Fine organic or inorganic particles particulate asbestos is referred to as
suspended in air is called A. asbestosis B. asthma
A. particulate pollutant B. gaseous pollutant C. allergy D. sinusitis
C. aerosol D. None Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
25. Radiations are harmful as it
18. CFCs are used as A. causes skin cancer B. causes anemia
A. refrigerants B. insulators
C. alters body tissues D. is unstable
C. aerosol propellants D. all the above
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
29. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is 37. Pollutants that are introduced into the
A. Always upright environment by human activity are called as
B. May be upright or invented A. qualitative pollutants
C. Always inverted B. quantitative pollutants
D. None C. anthropogenic pollutants
Answer: Option A D. All
Answer: Option A
30. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is
an example for 38. When clouds are viewed near the horizon,
A. mutualism B. parasitism the individual cloud elements usually:
C. amensalism D. commensalism A. Appear closer together than is actually the
Answer: Option D case
B. Appear farther apart than is actually the case
31. Pencillium does not swallow the growth of C. Appear lighter in color than is actually the
bacterium Staphylococcus. This sort of case
relationship is called D. Appear to have more vertical development
A. commensalism B. predation than is actually the case
C. amensalism D. mutualism Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
39. Which sea is referred to as an oceanic
32. The Salim Ali Bird sanctuary is located at desert?
A. Pondicherry B. Thattekad A. Red Sea B. Sargasso Sea
C. Anakkatti D. Kalakkad C. Arabian Sea D. Sea of Japan
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
44. Harmful trace metals in fly ash: 53. During the winter solstice in the Northern
A. antimony B. cadmium Hemisphere:
C. arsenic D. All A. Astronomical winter begins in the Northern
Answer: Option D Hemisphere
B. The noon sun is overhead at 23.5o S latitude
45. The term Ecosystem was coined by C. At middle latitudes in the Northern
A. Odum B. Clements Hemisphere, this marks the longest night of the
C. Arthur G Tansley D. Elton year
Answer: Option C D. All
Answer: Option D
46. _________ ecosystems are maintained
artificially by man. 54. The largest annual ranges of temperatures are
A. Man-made B. Marine found:
C. Artificial D. Brackish A. At polar latitudes over land
Answer: Option A B. At polar latitudes over water
C. At middle latitudes near large bodies of water
47. Cement factory labourers are prone to D. At the Equator
A. leukemia B. bone marrow disease E. In the Northern Central Plains of the United
C. asbestosis D. cytosilicosis States
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
38. Atmospheric ozone layer which protect us 45. The effect of ozone depletion include
from UV-B and C is getting depleted most by A. UV light reaches the earth
addition of B. affect the climate
A. chloro fluorocarbon C. cause skin cancer
B. carbon monoxide D. all the above
C. carbon dioxide Answer: Option D
D. sulpur dioxide
Answer: Option A 46. The true statement about "green house
effect" is that it is
39. Which of the following green house gases A. caused by combination of many gases
trap more heat? B. caused by CO2
A. Methane C. caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
B. Nitrous oxide gases
C. Carbon dioxide D. None
D. Trifluoro methyl sulphurpentafluoride Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
3. Rising air cools by this process: 10. Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro (1992)
A. Expansion B. Evaporation resulted in
C. Compression D. Condensation A. Compilation of Red list
Answer: Option A B. Establishment of biosphere reserves
C. Conservation of biodiversity
4. Sinking air warms by this process: D. IUCN
A. Compression B. Expansion Answer: Option C
C. Condensation D. Friction
Answer: Option A 11. Photosynthesis is found in
A. Producers B. Decomposers
5. The horizontal transport of any atmospheric C. Consumers D. Scavengers
property by the wind is called: Answer: Option A
A. Advection B. Radiation
C. Conduction D. Latent heat 12. Organisms which depened on Producers for
E. Reflection nutrition are called
Answer: Option A A. Autotrophs B. Saprophytes
C. Consumers D. Xerophytes
6. Perspiration cools the body by Answer: Option C
A. Advective heat transfer
B. Radiative heat transfer 13. Phytoplankton are
C. Conductive heat transfet A. Producers of forest
D. Latent heat transfer B. Producers of lakes
Answer: Option D C. Consumers of Ocean
D. Omnivores
Answer: Option B
20. National Park associated with rhinoceros is 27. The source of energy in an ecosystem is
A. Kaziranga B. Ranthambore A. ATP B. Sunlight
C. Corbett D. Valley of flowers C. D.N.A D. R.N.A
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
60. Which of the following is an extinct species? 68. Temperate forests occur in India in
A. Tiger B. Lion A. Indo-gangetic plains B. Himalayas
C. Dodo D. Ostrich C. Eastern India D. Southern peninsula
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
69. The unit of total water content of the soil is
61. _________ is the most inhuman of social known as
crimes. A. Holard B. Chraserd
A. Rape B. Kidnap C. Echard D. All
C. Dowry death D. Robbery Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
70. The unfavourable alteration of environment due
62. The word Biophilia was coined by to human activities is termed as
A. Dr. Hackel B. Dr.Johanssen A. ecological disturbance B. catastrophe
C. Dr. Benjamine D. E. O. Wilson C. ecological degradation D. pollution
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
7. ________ is the degradation of land in arid, 15. _________ energy is the main driving force
semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas. of the ecological system.
A. Land fertility B. Desertification A. Hydro B. Solar
C. Ecosystem D. Vegetation C. Electric D. Mechanical
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
19. Flag ship species of Choolannur sanctuary 26. The resources that are derived from bio-
A. Tiger B. Peacock mass of living organisms are called ________
C. Elephant D. Rhino resources.
Answer: Option B A. renewable B. non-renewable
C. environmental D. natural
20. Chemical reactions triggered by ________ Answer: Option A
transforms the organic material into
hydrocarbons. 27. Public awareness of environment creates
___________
A. solar energy
A. Environment protection
B. hydroelectric B. Environment degradation
C. elevated temperatures C. Environmental improvement
D. decomposition D. Environmental cultivation
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
21. Sunlight that bounces off a surface is said to 28. Two opposite forces operate in the growth
be ________ from the surface. and development of every population. One of
A. Radiated B. Absorbed them is related to the ability to reproduce at a
C. Emitted D. Reflected given rate. The force opposite to it is called
Answer: Option D A. fecundity
B. mortality
22. If we uncover half of the forest, covering of C. environmental resistances
the earth, what crisis will be produced at most D. biotic control
and at first? Answer: Option B
A. Some species will be extincted
B. Population and ecological imbalance will rise 29. _________ is an integration of several
up subjects that include both science and social
studies.
C. Energy crisis will occur
A. sociology B. physiology
D. Rest half forests will maintain this imbalance C. environmental studies D. anatomy
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
35. The components of LPG are 42. The resources that can be replaced by
_____________ natural ecological cycle is called
A. Methane & Hexane A. Renewable B. non-renewable
B. Propane & Butane C. exhaustible D. natural
C. Ethane & MethaneD. Propane & Ethane Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
43. The portion of the earth and its environment
36. Biogas is composed of which can support life is known as _________
A. methane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and A. Crust B. Biosphere
hydrogen C. Exosphere D. atmosphere
B. carbon dioxide, nitrogen and hydrogen Answer: Option B
C. ethane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and
hydrogen 44. Zoos are examples for
D. methane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and A. In-situ conservation B. in-vivo conservation
sulphur C. ex-situ conservation D. exvivo conservation
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
47. When is the World Wildlife week ? 53. The pioneers in xerach succession is the
A. First week of September A. crustose lichen B. mosses
B. Last week of September C. foliose lichen D. shrubs
C. First week of October Answer: Option A
D. Last week of October
Answer: Option C 54. An ecosystem must have continuous
external source of
48. Green revolution is associated with A. minerals B. energy
_________ C. food D. All
A. sericulture B. agriculture Answer: Option B
C. fish culture D. silviculture
Answer: Option B 55. When number of food chains is interlocked
this is called
49. ________ is the natural phenomenon, A. food link B. food chain
caused by an unlimited and unprecedented C. food web D. pyramid
rainfall. Answer: Option C
A. Soil erosion B. Cyclone
C. Floods D. Heightening 56. Rain water harvesting is a major method
Answer: Option C implemented for_____________
A. Water Conservation
50. _________ is an important factor that
aggravates the effect of drought B. Soil Conservation
A. Deforestation B. Soil Erosion C. Forest conservation
C. Floods D. Acid Rain D. Ecological conservation
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
51. Which statement(s) below is/are correct? 57. The pyramid of numbers is inverted in the
A. Valleys are more susceptible to radiation fog case of
than hill tops A. parasitic food chain
B. Without the summer fog along the coast of B. Grassland ecosystem
California, redwoods would not grow well there C. Forest ecosystem
C. Fog can be composed of ice crystals D. lake ecosystem
D. All are correct Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
17. Which functional feeding groups are 23. _________ refers to the phenomenon in that
involved in the process of in-stream physical the organisms are exclusively restricted to a
breakdown of coarse material into fine given area.
particulate organic matter? A. Ecosystem B. Endemism
A. Collector filterers B. Shredders C. Habitat D. Food web
C. Grazers D. Collector gatherers Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
24. What is the major cause of diminishing
18. When the air temperature is below freezing, wildlife number?
the saturation vapor pressure over water is . A. Felling of trees
A. Equal to zero B. Cannibalism
B. Less than the saturation vapor pressure over C. Habitat destruction
ice D. Paucity of drinking water
C. Greater than the saturation vapor pressure Answer: Option C
over ice
D. Equal to the saturation vapor pressure over 25. The destruction of habitat of plants and
ice animals is called
Answer: Option C A. endemism B. endangered species
C. habitat loss D. flood
19. The dramatic increase in agricultural Answer: Option C
production that have been made possible by
high yield miracle crops are called the 26. Organ affected by pneumonia
A. biotechnical revolution A. Liver B. Kidney
B. bioeconomic revolution C. Heart D. Lungs
C. green house effect Answer: Option D
D. green revolution
Answer: Option D 27. _________ is essentially stored solar energy
that can be converted in to electricity, fuel and
20. In the atmosphere, tiny solid or liquid heat.
suspended particles of various composition are A. Biomass B. Fossil
called: C. Heat D. Coal
A. Aerosols B. Carcinogens Answer: Option A
C. Greenhouse gases D. Microbes
Answer: Option A 28. This is used as an index for fuel
consumption:
21. What is meant by GM foods? A. Growing degree-days
A. Growth modified foods B. Consumer price index
B. Genetically modified food C. Heating degree-days
C. Growth marked foods D. Mean annual temperature
D. Good mobility food Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
43. Flora is the __________ life occurring in a 50. The combustion of waste in the absence of
particular region or time Oxygen is called
A. Haemolysis B. Pyrolysis
A. plant B. animal
C. Hydrolysis D. None
C. human D. microbial Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
51. Atmospheric humidity is measured by
44. Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by A. Auxanometer B. Photometer
A. nature C. Hygrometer D. none
B. excessive use of resources Answer: Option C
C. humans
D. natural disasters 52. Freshwater protozoans react to a/an
Answer: Option C __________ environment by removing water
through
45. Respiratory roots are known as A. hypotonic, turgor pressure
A. velamen B. pneumatophores B. isotonic, a contractile vacuole
C. hydathodes D. prop roots C. hypertonic, a contractile vacuole
Answer: Option B D. hypotonic, a contractile vacuole
Answer: Option D
46. The conversion of a pond to a climax forest
community is an example of 53. Which of the following is the poorest
A. xerarch succession conductor of heat?
B. mesarch succession A. Still air B. Water
C. hydrarch succession C. Ice D. Snow
D. All E. Soil
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
54. The first national park of Kerala
47. Which of the following is a nonrenewable A. Aralam B. Kottayam
energy resource? C. Idukki D. Iravikulam
A. Solar B. Methane Answer: Option D
C. Hydroelectric D. Coal
Answer: Option D 55. Agastyamalai Biosphere reserve is in
A. Pathanamthitta B. Thiruvananthapuram
48. What type of energy is derived from heated C. Idukki D. Wayanad
groundwater? Answer: Option B
A. solar
B. geothermal 56. Mullaperiyar dam is in the district?
C. hydroelectric A. Thrissur B. Pathanamthitta
D. nuclear C. Idukki D. Alappuzha
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
23. The climate of a given region is 30. Noise is measured using sound meter and
A. average temperature and precipitation the unit is
conditions for every day of the year in a given A. hertz B. decibel
region C. joule D. sound
B. average temperature and precipitation Answer: Option B
conditions
C. its weather patterns 31. The concept of ecological pyramid was first
D. its weather proposed by
Answer: Option A A. E.P. Odum B. A.G. Tansley
C. Juday D. Charles Elton
24. The Red Data book which lists endangered Answer: Option D
species is maintained by
A. UNO B. WHO 32. When it is January and winter in the
C. IUCN D. WWF Northern Hemisphere, it is ______and
Answer: Option C ________in the Southern Hemisphere.
A. January and summer
25. Human population growth curve is a: B. January and winter
A. S shaped curve B. parabola curve
C. July and winter
C. J shaped curve D. zig zag curve
Answer: Option C D. July and summer
Answer: Option A
37. The temperature scale where 0o represents 45. The legally binding international agreement
freezing and 100o boiling: to reduce Greenhouse gases by 5% 2012 is
A. Fahrenheit B. Celsius _________
C. Kelvin D. Absolute A. Vienna convention B. Montreal Protocol
Answer: Option B C. Kyoto Protocol D. Ozone Protocol
Answer: Option C
38. In which Indian state is Corbet National park
located 46. The only known breeding colony of the
A. Madya Pradesh B. Uttarakhand greater and lesser Flamingos in our country is
C. Kerala D. Tamilnadu seen in _______ desert.
Answer: Option B A. The Great Rann of Kutch
B. The Thar
39. Which state proposed a ban on all types of
polythene packing for the first time in India? C. Ladakh
A. Himachal Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh D. Atacama
C. Kerala D. Karnataka Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
47. An example of lotic system
40. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and A. Pond B. River
Natural history is located at ______ C. Lake D. Reservoir
A. Pune B. Hyderabad Answer: Option B
C. Kerala D. Coimbatore
Answer: Option D 48. Oil spills are a source of pollution for
A. water B. land and water
41. Lead in water can cause C. land and air D. air and noise
A. eye disease B. arthritis Answer: Option B
C. kidney damage D. hair falling
Answer: Option C
19. The planet with a strong greenhouse effect, 27. Plants adapted to open, sunny habitats are
whose surface temperature averages 480oC A. Sciophytes B. Heliophytes
(900oF) is: C. Mesophytes D. Epiphytes
A. Earth B. Venus Answer: Option B
C. Mars D. Pluto
E. None 28. Almost all of the earth's weather occurs in
Answer: Option B the:
A. Exosphere B. Stratosphere
20. Official date of Earth Day is on _________ C. Mesosphere D. Thermosphere
A. April 22 B. March 21
E. Troposphere
C. May 22 D. June 05
Answer: Option A Answer: Option E
21. Name the disease caused by mercury 29. Ozone layer is present in
poisoning in Japan A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere
A. Itai itai C. Mesosphere D. Ionosphere
B. Xeroderma pigmentosum Answer: Option B
C. Measles
D. Minamata disease 30. Ozone Umbrella is located in which layer of
Answer: Option D atmosphere
A. Troposphere
22. The Chipko movement is started by B. Stratosphere
A. Engler B. Sunderlal Bahuguna C. Mesosphere
C. Medha Padkar D. None D. Ionosphere
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
36. The amount of solar radiation reaching the 42. The maximum pressure that water vapor
surface of the earth is called molecules would exert if the air were saturated
A. Solar flux B. reflected light is called the:
C. minerals D. solvents A. Absolute humidity B. Boiling point
Answer: Option A C. Mixing ratio D. None
Answer: Option D
45. The intensity of earthquake is measured in 51. The effect of interspecific competition on
____________ niches is to make them
A. Beaufort scale B. Richter scale A. larger B. smaller
C. Mohs scale D. Joules C. more triangular D. change location
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
46. The most widely used pesticides function by 52. The carrying capacity of a population is
disrupting determined by its
A. neurological cellular function A. population growth rate
B. endocrine function B. natality
C. molecular events C. mortality
D. renal function D. limiting resources
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
47. Diversity of organisms include three 53. The order of succession in a lithosere or
Domains such as xerosere is
A. bacteria, archae, eukarya A. Foliose lichen stage->Crustose lichen stage-
B. binomial system of classification >moss stage->herb stage>shrub stage->forest
C. monera, protista, fungi, plantae, animalia stage (climax community)
D. membrane bound organelles, no B. Crustose lichen stage->Foilose lichen stage-
peptidoglycan in cell walls, introns >moss stage->herb stage>shrub stage->forest
Answer: Option A stage (climax community)
C. Moss stage ->Foilose lichen stage-> Crustose
48. What do you call the rain that contains lichen stage ->herb stage->shrub stage->forest
chemical waste and causes of damage to plants stage (climax community)
and animals? D. Crustose lichen stage->Foilose lichen stage-
A. Smog B. Acid rain >moss stage-> ->shrub stage-> herb stage-
C. Monsoon rain D. Seasonal rain >forest stage (climax community)
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
12. Most harmful environmental pollutants are 20. Renewable energy resources are mostly
A. natural nutrients in excess based on
B. human organic wastes A. biomass B. fossil fuels
C. non-biodegradable chemicals C. nuclear power D. nuclear power
D. waste animal feed Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
21. __________ was developed after World War
13. The destruction of the forest areas by man II.
made efforts is called A. Wind energy B. Solar energy
A. Afforestation B. Deforestation C. Nuclear power D. Thermal power
C. Non-forestation D. Bio forestation Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
10. The order of succession in a hydrosere is 16. The undesirable change in physical,
A. Rooted aquatic plants-> phytoplankton->Free chemical or biological characteristics of air, land
floating stage->Reed swamp stage->Sedge and water is referred as
Meadow stage-> wood land stage-> Climax A. Pollutants B. Ecodestructions
forest C. Pollution D. All
B. Rooted aquatic plants-> phytoplankton->Free Answer: Option C
floating stage-> Sedge Meadow stage-> Reed
swamp stage-> wood land stage-> Climax forest 17. Example for a bio-degradable polymer is
C. phytoplankton->Rooted aquatic plants->Free A. Polyethylene B. Polypropylene
floating stage->Reed swamp stage-> wood land C. Poly lactic acid D. Polyester
stage-> Sedge Meadow stage-> Climax forest Answer: Option C
D. phytoplankton->Rooted aquatic plants->Free
floating stage->Reed swamp stage->Sedge 18. The European Union has a permanent ban
Meadow stage-> wood land stage-> Climax on the use of __________ in toys.
forest A. Phthalates B. Clay
Answer: Option D C. Polycarbonate D. Bisphenol
Answer: Option A
11. The species of plants that play a vital role in
controlling the relative abundance of other 19. A biodegradable plastic developed by
species in a community are called Biopak Corporation Australia
A. Edge species B. Link species A. Biopol B. Pet
C. Pioneer species D. Successional species C. Polyester D. PVC
E. Keystone species Answer: Option A
Answer: Option E
20. A __________ is formed due to the
12. The historical monument that is affected by collection of water in a natural basis or
acid rain is depression in a mountainous area or in plains.
A. Taj Mahal B. Pyramid of Egypt A. Lake B. Stream
C. Pisa Tower D. Golden Temple C. Pond D. Spring
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
13. Good urban planning is essential for 21. The simplest aquatic ecosystem can be seen
__________ land use. in a
A. Rational B. Irrational A. River B. Lake
C. Planned D. Unplanned C. Pond D. Water Tank
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
28. In recycling of mineral elements within an 35. Bio gas generation is mainly based on the
ecosystem, the responsible direct acing organism principle of
are called A. Fermentation B. Degradation
A. Decomposers B. Producers C. Purification D. Sedimentation
C. Primary consumers D. Secondary consumers Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
9. ________ is diffused into the ground by 18. A Hawk that eats a frog is a
gravitational force. A. Producer
A. Rain water B. Ocean B. Primary Consumer
C. River water D. None C. Secondary Consumer
Answer: Option A D. Tertiary Consumer
Answer: Option D
10. What is lotic habitat?
A. Standing or still water habitat 19. In a pyramid of numbers, in a grassland
B. Marine habitat ecosystem, the largest population is that of
C. Running water habitat A. Producers
D. Stagnant water B. Tertiary Consumers
Answer: Option C C. Secondary consumers
D. Herbivores
11. Which is the world s most deadliest snake? E. Primary consumers
A. Black mamba B. Spitting cobra Answer: Option A
C. Russel viper D. Anaconda
Answer: Option A 20. Herbivores are also called as
A. Producers
12. _________ is the most commonly used unit B. Primary consumers
of radiation C. Secondary consumers
A. Becquerel B. Gray D. Tertiary consumers
C. Rutherford D. Curie Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
21. The worst nuclear accident happened to date
13. Which of the following rock types would is occurred at
most likely be the best oil reservoir? A. Chernobyl in 1986
A. Granite B. Shale B. Three Mile Power Plant in 1979
C. Sandstone D. Salt C. Sellafield in 1957
Answer: Option C D. Fukushima in 2011
Answer: Option A
26. The lowest temperature is usually observed: 33. A change of one degree on the Celsius scale
A. At the time of sunset is ____ a change of one degree on the
B. Near midnight Fahrenheit scale.
C. Several hours before sunrise A. Equal to
D. Around sunrise B. Larger than
E. Several hours after sunrise C. Smaller than
Answer: Option D D. Is in the opposite direction of
Answer: Option B
27. Species that occur in different geographical
regions separated by special barrier are: 34. Condensation nuclei may be:
A. Allopatric B. Sympatric
A. Particles of dust
C. Sibling D. None
Answer: Option A B. Nitric acid particles
C. Smoke from forest fires
28. The crucial species that determine the ability of D. Salt from the ocean
large number of other species is termed as E. All
_________ species. Answer: Option E
A. Important B. Crucial 35. _______ is an example of "bottom feeders".
C. Significant D. Keystone A. Cat fish B. Frog
Answer: Option D C. Snake D. Tadpole
Answer: Option A
29. World's first Teak Forest was planted in 1842 in
Kerala. Identify the place. 36. Moisture in the air is known as
A. Wayanad B. Nilambur A. Water B. Fog
C. Silent Valley D. Nelliyampathy C. Snow D. Humidity
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
52. The pyramid of energy in terrestrial 59. Enrichment of water body by nutrients like
ecosystem is phosphorus and nitrogen is called
A. Upright B. Inverted _____________
C. Spindle shaped D. Irregular A. Succession B. Eutrophication
Answer: Option A C. Stratification D. Climax Vegetation
Answer: Option B
53. The pyramid of numbers in a single tree is
A. Upright B. Inverted 60. The electrified region of the upper
C. Spindle shaped D. None atmosphere is called the:
A. Thermosphere B. Mesosphere
Answer: Option C
C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere
E. Troposphere
54. In pond ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass Answer: Option D
is
A. upright B. inverted 61. The capacity to do work is termed as
C. spindle shaped D. None A. Power B. Force
Answer: Option B C. Strength D. Energy
Answer: Option D
55. In grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of
biomass is 62. Which of the radioactive material is largely
A. upright B. inverted associated with bone cancer
C. spindle shaped D. None A. Radium-226 B. Thorium-232
Answer: Option A C. Strontium-90 D. Iodine
Answer: Option C
56. If the air temperature increased, with no
addition or removal of water vapor, the actual 63. Pedology?
vapor pressure would: A. Study of water B. Study of air
A. Increase C. Study of soil D. none
B. Decrease Answer: Option C
C. Stay the same
D. Become greater than the saturation vapor 64. What is Dendrology?
pressure A. Study of Plants B. Study of Butterflies
Answer: Option C C. Study of Trees D. None
Answer: Option C
57. Fog that forms off the coast of
Newfoundland is mainly a form of: 65. In which of the following the maximum
A. Advection fog plant diversity is found
B. Frontal fog A. Tropical evergreen forests
C. Steam fog B. Tropical moist deciduous forests
D. Radiation fog C. Sub tropical mountain forests
E. Upslope fog D. Temperate moist forests
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
23. Black lung disease is associated with 29. A biomass pyramid is important because it
A. Farmers B. Coal miners illustrates
C. Textile industry workers D. Sweepers A. How energy flows through a food web
Answer: Option B B. The number of species in each tropic level
C. The biomass of all organisms at each tropic
24. What are rodenticides? level in a system
A. That kill fishes B. That kill insects D. The number of tropic levels in a system
C. That kill rats D. That kill crocos Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
30. Low clouds retard surface cooling at night
25. When the air is saturated, which of the better than clear skies because:
following statements is NOT correct? A. The clouds absorb and radiate infrared
A. The air temperature equals the wet-bulb energy back to earth
temperature B. The water droplets in the clouds reflect
B. The relative humidity is 100 percent infrared energy back to earth
C. The air temperature equals the dew point C. The clouds start convection currents between
temperature them
D. An increase in temperature will cause D. The clouds are better conductors of heat than
condensation to occur is the clear night air
E. The wet bulb temperature equals the dew point E. The formation of the clouds releases latent
temperature heat energy
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
26. Meteorology is the study of: 31. The main reason(s) for warm summers in
A. Landforms B. The oceans northern middle latitudes is that:
C. The atmosphere D. Outer space A. The earth is closer to the sun in summer
E. Extraterrestrial meteoroids that enter the B. The sun is higher in the sky and we receive
atmosphere more direct solar radiation
Answer: Option C C. The days are longer
D. All
27. The earth's radiative equilibrium temperature is: E. Only (b) and (c) are correct
A. The temperature at which the earth is absorbing Answer: Option E
solar radiation and emitting infrared radiation at
equal rates 32. During an equinox:
B. The temperature at which the earth is radiating A. The days and nights are of equal length
energy at maximum intensity except at the poles
C. The average temperature the earth must maintain B. At noon the sun is overhead at the equator
to prevent the oceans from freezing solid C. The earth is not tilted toward nor away from
D. The temperature at which rates of evaporation the sun
and condensation on the earth are in balance D. All
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
25. Minute particles and liquid droplets are 32. Slip erosion is also known as
collectively called A. landslide B. Earthquake
A. Convection current B. Ozone C. Volcano D. Floads
C. UV radiation D. Aerosols Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
33. Some species of plants and animals are
26. Non-lonizing radiations with specific extremely rare and may occur only at a few
biological effects are locations are called
A. Gamma rays B. Beta-rays A. Endemic B. Endangered
C. UV radiations D. X-rays C. Vulnerable D. Threatened
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
27. The most harmful of ultraviolet radiations 34. Thermal belts are:
are A. Pockets of warm air resting on a valley
A. UV-C, B. UV-B, during the afternoon
C. UV-A, D. All the above. B. Pockets of cold air resting on a valley floor at
Answer: Option A night
C. Warmer hillsides that are less likely to
28. Many freshwater animals cannot live for experience freezing conditions
long in sea water and vice versa mainly because D. Cold, below-freezing air found at the top of a
of the mountain
A. Change in N levels Answer: Option C
B. Change in the levels of thermal tolerance
C. Variations in light intensity 35. The term "Biocoenosis" was proposed by
D. Osmotic problems A. Transley B. Carl Mobius
E. Spectral quality of solar radiation C. Warming D. None
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
55. Man and biosphere programme is affiliated 63. If the absolute temperature of an object doubles,
with the maximum energy emitted goes up by a factor
A. UNESCO B. IUCN of:
A. 2 B. 4
C. WWF D. WIPO
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: Option A E. 32
Answer: Option D
20. A given signal's second harmonic is twice 28. What do we call a network whose elements
the given signal's __________ frequency? may be separated by some distance? It usually
A. Fourier B. Foundation involves two or more small networks and
C. Fundamental D. Field dedicated high-speed telephone lines.
Answer: Option C A. URL (Universal Resource Locator)
B. LAN (Local Area Network)
21. In which year was MIDI(dress) introduced? C. WAN (Wide Area Network)
A. 1987 B. 1983 D. World Wide Web
C. 1973 D. 1977 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
29. After the first photons of light are produced,
22. What does the term PLC stand for? which process is responsible for amplification of
A. Programmable Lift Computer the light?
B. Program List Control
A. Blackbody radiation B. Stimulated emission
C. Programmable Logic Controller
D. Piezo Lamp Connector C. Planck's radiation D. Einstein oscillation
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
61. Voltage is sometimes referred to as EMF, or 68. What does EPROM stand for?
Electromotive...? A. Electric Programmable Read Only Memory
A. Field B. Factor B. Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
C. Flash D. Force C. Evaluable Philotic Random Optic Memory
Answer: Option D D. Every Person Requires One Mind
Answer: Option B
62. What does AM mean?
A. Angelo marconi 69. Blue is what number on the resistor color
B. Anno median code?
C. Amplitude modulation A. 1 B. 4
D. Amperes C. 2 D. 6
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
63. '.BAT' extension refers usually to what kind 70. Changing computer language of 1's and 0's
of file? to characters that a person can understand is:
A. Compressed Archive file A. Highlight B. Clip art
B. System file C. Decode D. Execute
C. Audio file Answer: Option C
D. Backup file
Answer: Option B
5. Computers calculate numbers in what mode? 13. Which of these is a valid e-mail address?
A. Decimal B. Octal A. professor.at.learnthenet
C. Binary D. None B. www.learnthenet.com
Answer: Option C C. professor@learnthenet.com
D. professor@learnthenet
6. What is an FET? Answer: Option C
A. Farad Effect Transformer
B. Field Effect Transformer 14. Which device can be used to store charge?
C. Field Effect Transistor A. Transistor B. Diode
D. French Energy Transfer C. Capacitor D. Resistor
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
7. The speed of your net access is defined in 15. Modem stands for:
terms of... A. Modulator Demodulater
A. RAM B. MHz B. Monetary Devaluation Exchange Mechanism
C. Kbps D. Megabytes C. Memory Demagnetization
Answer: Option C D. Monetary Demarkation
Answer: Option A
19. In which decade was the transistor invented? 27. Name the terminals of a BJT.
A. 1940s B. 1950s A. Drain, Gate, Source
C. 1960s D. 1980s B. Positive, Negative, Neutral
Answer: Option A C. Anode, Cathode, Triode
20. A JPG is: D. Emitter, Base, Collector
A. A Jumper Programmed Graphic Answer: Option D
B. A format for an image file
C. A type of hard disk 28. What do you call a computer on a network
D. A unit of measure for memory that requests files from another computer?
Answer: Option B A. A client B. A host
C. A router D. A web server
21. A dual-layer DVD is valued because it: Answer: Option A
A. Can hold more data
B. Contains a backup of the data stored 29. In which decade were the first successful
C. Uses a second layer to offer a speed increase
diode and triode vacuum tubes invented?
D. Creates alternative sound tracks
Answer: Option A A. 1800s B. 1880s
C. 1890s D. 1900s
22. To select text by shading as you drag the Answer: Option D
mouse arrow over the text is known as...
A. Clip art B. To highlight 30. RAM stands for
C. To fetch D. To decode A. Random Access Memory
Answer: Option B B. Really Annoying Machine
C. Read A Manual
23. Another word for 'Graphics for a word
processor'? D. Real Absolute Memory
A. Peripheral B. Clip art Answer: Option A
C. Highlight D. Execute
Answer: Option B
47. "www" stands for: 56. What would you use for immediate, real-
A. World Wide Web B. World Wide Wares time communication with a friend?
C. World Wide Wait D. World Wide War A. Instant Messenging B. E-Mail
Answer: Option A C. Usenet D. A mailing list
Answer: Option A
48. Which of these is not a computer?
A. Aptiva B. Macintosh 57. What kind of data can you send by e-mail?
C. Acorn D. Paseo A. Audio B. Pictures
Answer: Option D C. Video D. All
Answer: Option D
49. Which of the following is not a
programming language? 58. When discussing technology, a hot spot is...
A. Basic B. Java A. A small overheated area on a CPU
C. Turing D. C# B. A place served by public wireless access
Answer: Option C C. Jargon for an X-rated Web site
D. A faulty area in the programming code
50. Which of the following is not a method of Answer: Option B
accessing the web?
A. ISDN B. Modem 59. In which decade was the Internet first
C. CPU D. DSL implemented?
Answer: Option C A. 1940s B. 1950s
C. 1960s D. 1980s
51. The "home page" of a web site is: Answer: Option C
A. The largest page 60. In which decade was the telephone
B. The last page invented?
C. The first page A. 1850s B. 1860s
D. The most colorful page C. 1870s D. 1880s
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
52. ROM stands for: 61. Main circuit board in a computer is...
A. Royal Ontario Museum A. Decoder B. Highlight
B. Read Only Memory C. Select D. Mother board
C. Read on Monday Answer: Option D
D. Real Obsolute Memory
Answer: Option B 62. Name the terminals of an FET.
A. Drain, Gate, Source
53. HTML is used to B. Positive, Negative, Neutral
A. Plot complicated graphs C. Anode, Cathode, Triode
B. Author webpages D. Emitter, Base, Collector
C. Translate one language into another Answer: Option A
D. Solve equations
Answer: Option B 63. Where are the contents of your computer's
54. In which decade was the telegraph invented? hard drive indexed?
A. 1810s B. 1840s A. Yahoo! B. Google
C. 1870s D. 1890s C. MSN D. None
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
28. In 1983, which person was the first to offer a 36. What does ECP stand for?
A. Extended Capabilities Port
definition of the term 'computer virus'? B. Extra Compatible Part
A. McAfee B. Smith C. Extended Connection Port
C. Cohen D. Norton D. External Cordless Peripheral
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
42. What does SSL stand for? 50. Select the smallest memory size:
A. Secure Socket Layer A. Terabyte B. Kilobyte
B. System Socket Layer C. Megabyte D. Gigabyte
C. Superuser System Login Answer: Option B
D. Secure System Login
Answer: Option A 51. Which is the most commonly used input
device?
43. What is a URL? A. Key board B. Mouse
A. A computer software program C. Joystick D. Scanner
B. A type of UFO Answer: Option A
C. The address of a document or
D. An acronym for Uniform Resources Learning 52. The principal electronic payment system for
Answer: Option C electronic Commerce is-
44. The Central Processing Unit is an embeded chip A. credit B. Digital wallet
that acts as the 'brains' of a computer. What Intel C. Electronic Cheque D. All of above
chip was used in the Altair (the first real personal Answer: Option D
computer)?
A. 6502 B. 8080
C. 6400 D. 8286
Answer: Option B
18. Who invented Gramophone? 25. Which insurance salesman invented the
A. Michael Faraday fountain pen in 1884?
B. Fahrenheit A. Lewis Edson Waterman
C. Sir Alexander Graham Bell B. Sir William Grove
D. Thomas Alva Edison C. Charles Kettering
Answer: Option D D. George Fountain
Answer: Option A
19. What furniture item was invented by
California furniture designer Charles Prior Hall 26. When was the first elevator built?
in 1968? A. 1743 B. 1739
A. Sofa bed B. Captain's chair C. 1760 D. 1785
C. Waterbed D. Hammock Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
27. What charge card, developed in 1950, was
20. The Manhattan Project was started by the first to be accepted nationally in the US?
President Roosevelt in 1942 to ensure that the A. Visa B. Discover
U.S. beat the Germans in developing a nuclear C. MasterCharge D. Diner's Club
bomb. Whom did Roosevelt appoint as scientific Answer: Option D
head the Manhattan Project?
A. Robert Oppenheimer 28. What Enrico Fermi invented?
B. James B. Conant A. X ray machine B. Betatron
C. Leslie R. Groves C. Cyclotron D. Nuclear reactor
D. Vannevar Bush Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
29. Which of the following was first patented by
21. When was the first lawn mower invented? an Australian in 1889?
A. 1830 B. 1854 A. Electric Drill B. Electric Shaver
C. 1835 D. 1849 C. Electric Fence D. Electric Heater
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
22. In which decade were the first successful 30. Who among the following invented the
diode and triode vacuum tubes invented? small pox vaccine?
A. 1800s B. 1880s A. Robert Koch B. Edward Jenner
C. 1890s D. 1900s C. Robert Hooke D. Louis Pasteur
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
23. Who is the English physicist responsible for 31. What invention is credited to the Russian
the 'Big Bang Theory'? born American inventor Vladimir Kosma
A. Albert Einstein B. Michael Skube Zworykin?
C. George Gamow D. Roger Penrose A. Telegraph B. Radio
Answer: Option C C. Television D. Dishwasher
Answer: Option C
64. What type of system did Paul Nipkow, John 2. What item, originally called the 'Whirlwind',
Baird, and Charles Jenkins all invent? was invented by Ives McGaffey in 1869?
A. Telephone B. Early Warning A. Blender B. Electric mixer
C. Electricity D. Television C. Washing machine D. Vacuum cleaner
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
65. What Sir Isaac Newton invented?
A. Reflecting telescope B. Chronometer 3. Who invented Bakelite?
C. Microscope D. Spectacles A. Charles Goodyear
Answer: Option B B. Leo Hendrik Baekeland
C. Roy Plunkett
66. Who invented Bicycle?
A. Leo H Baekeland D. Henry Ford
B. Karl Benz Answer: Option B
C. Evangelista Torricelli
D. Kirkpatrick Macmillan 4. What toy was invented by Joshua Lionel
Answer: Option D Cowen around 1900?
A. Raggedy Ann doll B. Yo-yo
67. Who synthesized the first wholly artificial C. Electric train D. Tinkertoys
gene? Answer: Option C
A. Hargobind Khorana B. J.J. Thompson
C. Benjamin Franklin D. Meghnad Saha 5. This African-American woman physical
Answer: Option A therapist worked with soldiers disabled in World
War II. She invented a device that helped the
68. FROZEN FOOD - Who discovered the first disabled to eat by delivering food through a tube
practical method of freezing food? to a mouthpiece.
A. C. Birdseye B. F. Rozenosh A. Bessie Blount B. Marjorie Joyner
C. G. Findus D. R. Scott C. Mae Jamison D. Beulah Henry
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
69. When was the Raggedy Ann doll patented? 6. What invention by Garnet Carter made its
A. 1915 B. 1920 debut at the Fairyland Inn Resort in Lookout
C. 1919 D. 1911 Mountain, Tennessee, in 1927?
Answer: Option A A. Miniature golf
70. What Frank Whittle invented? B. Swimming pool slide
A. Radar B. Ethyl gasoline C. Ski lift
C. Sonar D. Jet propulsion D. Golf cart
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
Computer
Fundamentals
59. Which one of the following is an example of 66. Which of the following is the most powerful
Operating System? type of the computer?
A. Microsoft Word A. Mainframe
B. Microsoft Excel B. Super conductor
C. Microsoft Access C. Microcomputer
D. Microsoft Windows D. Super computer
Answer: Option D E. None of these
Answer: Option D
60. Which of the following is not used as
secondary storage?
A. Semiconductor memory 67. Which of the following is true about primary
B. Magnetic Disks storage?
C. magnetic Drums A. It is a part of the CPU
D. Magnetic Tapes B. It allows very fast access to data
Answer: Option A C. It is relatively more expensive
D. All of the above
61. General purpose computers are those that Answer: Option D
can be adopted to countless uses simply by
changing its 68. A list of instructions used by a computer is
A. Output Device B. Input Device called
C. Program D. Processor A. Text B. CPU
E. None of these C. Program D. Output
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
62. A collection of 8 bits is called 69. The process of copying data from a memory
A. Byte B. Record location is called
C. Word D. Nibble A. Writing
Answer: Option A B. Controlling
C. Booting
63. A typical modern computer uses D. Reading
A. Magnetic cores for secondary storage Answer: Option D
B. LSI chips
C. Magnetic tape for primary memory 70. The process of putting data into a storage
D. More than 10,000 vacuum tubes location is called
E. None of these A. Reading
Answer: Option B B. Writing
C. Controlling
64. The term 'memory' applies to which one of D. Hand Shaking
the following Answer: Option B
A. Logic B. Storage
C. Input Device D. Output Device
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
2. What is the correct association between a 8. A wireless network uses .......... waves to
hardware component and a computer function? transmit signals.
A. Monitor > input A. Mechanical B. Radio
B. Mouse > input C. Sound D. Magnetic
C. CPU > storage E. None of these
D. Hard disk > processing Answer: Option B
E. None of these
Answer: Option B 9. What device includes an adapter that decodes
data sent in radio signals?
3. For move to the bottom of a document, press A. Modem B. Digital Translator
........ C. Router D. Switch
A. Auto summarize B. Home key E. None of these
C. Ctrl + Home key D. End key Answer: Option C
E. Ctrl + End key
Answer: Option E 10. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of a computer?
4. By default, your documents print in ..... mode A. Intelligence B. Speed
A. Page setup B. Portrait C. Versatility D. Automation
C. Landscape D. Print preview E. None of these
E. None of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
11. Which of the following is not a
5. What does the SMTP in an SMTP server characteristic of E-mail?
stand for? A. Low cost
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol B. Record maintenance in database
B. Serve Message Text Process C. High speed
C. Short Messaging Text Process D. Waste reduction
D. Short Messaging Transfer Protocol E. None of these
E. None of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
55. In word processing, an efficient way to 60. The background of any Word document ......
move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th A. Is always white colour.
paragraph is ....... B. Is the colour you preset under the Options
A. copy and paste B. copy, cut and paste menu?
C. cut, copy and paste D. cut and paste C. Is always the same for the entire document?
E. None of these D. Can have any colour you choose.
Answer: Option D E. None of these
Answer: Option D
3. The most recent version of the Mac OS is 8. The main purpose of the offline device is.......
based on the ......... operating system. A. To reduce the number of operator errors in
A. Windows recording data.
B. Linux B. To save computer time.
C. Unix C. To save floor space in the computer center
D. CMOS D. All of the above
E. None of these E. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
4. The ............ operating system was initially 9. The ability of an operating system to control
the activities of multiple programs at the same
created in the early 1970s at AT&T's Bell Labs.
time is called .........
A. Linux B. DOS
A. multitasking B. multi-processing
C. Unix D. GNU C. multi-operating D. multi-paging
E. None of these E. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
12. Viruses are called that because 18. What is object of UPS?
A. They are viruses A. Using for storage
B. They can copy themselves and spread. B. To increase the speed of a computer
C. Both A and B C. Provides backup power
D. None of these D. All of the above
Answer: Option B E. None of these
Answer: Option C
13. Which of the following can't spread virus
A. An e-mail with attachment 19. QWERTY is used with reference to
B. A plain text mail A. Monitor B. Printer
C. Downloading files over the web C. Keyboard D. Mouse
D. None of these E. None of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
63. The operating system is the most common 69. What is usually used for displaying
type of ______ software. information at public places?
A. Communication A. Monitors
B. System B. Overhead
C. Word processing C. Monitor and overhead projection
D. None of these D. Touch screen kiosks
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
64. When you quickly press and release the left 70. The real business and competitive value of
mouse button twice, you are: information technology lies in:
A. Primary-clicking A. The software application that are used by
B. Pointing many companies.
C. Double-clicking B. The capabilities of software and the value of
D. Secondary-clicking the information a business acquires and used.
Answer: Option C C. The infrastructure of hardware, networks, and
other it facilities that are commonly used by
65. Protocols are many companies.
A. Sets of rules D. The capabilities of the hardware and the
B. Sets of maps speed at which it processes information.
C. Sets of computers Answer: Option B
D. Sets of product
Answer: Option A
32. What is the name of an application program 38. What is the most common tool used to
that gathers user information and sends it to restrict access to a computer system?
someone through the Internet? A. User log in
A. A virus B. Spybot B. Passwords
C. Logic bomb D. Security patch C. Computer keys
Answer: Option B D. Access-control software
Answer: Option B
33. Standardization of Microsoft programs and
the Windows operating system has made the 39. Hardware or software designed to guard
spread of viruses: against unauthorized access to a computer
A. More complicated B. More difficult network is known as a (n):
C. Easier D. Slower A. Hacker-proof program
Answer: Option C B. Firewall
C. Hacker-resistant server
34. HTML viruses infect: D. Encryption safe wall
A. Your computer Answer: Option B
B. A Web page in the HTML code
C. Both a Web page and the computer that is 40. The scrambling of code is known as:
viewing it. A. Encryption
D. None of these B. A firewall
Answer: Option B C. Scrambling
D. Password-proofing
Answer: Option A
6. A co-processor
A. Is relatively easy to support in software
B. Causes all processor to function equally
C. Works with any application
D. Is quite common in modern computer
Answer: Option A
38. A ....... is a named location on a disk where 46. In Windows, start button is used to
files are stored A. Run applications B. Device setting
A. Folder B. Pod C. Turn off the system D. All of above
C. Version D. None of the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
47. Which one is true for unconditional disk
39. Which type of command requires additional formatting?
files to perform specific operations? A. Destroys every byte of data on a disk by
A. Internal commands B. External commands overwriting it with blank spaces
C. Valuable commands D. Primary commands B. Do not check/scan surface after format
Answer: Option B C. Transfer system files after format
D. All of above
40. Which of the following is system software? Answer: Option A
A. Operating system B. Compiler
C. Utilities D. All of the above
48. Once text has been cut to the clipboard, you
Answer: Option D
can ...... that text into another document
A. Paste B. Copy
41. A user-interface that is easy to use is
considered to be C. Transfer D. None of the above
A. User-happy B. User-simple Answer: Option A
C. User-friendly D. None of the above
Answer: Option C 49. What is the function of radio button?
A. To select multiple option
42. A ..... is a flash memory storage device that B. To select single option
plugins into a USB port C. To select all option
A. USB snap drive D. All of above
B. USB flash drive Answer: Option B
C. USB memory maker drive
D. None of above 50. The Banker's algorithm is used
Answer: Option B A. to rectify deadlock B. to detect deadlock
C. to prevent deadlock D. to solve deadlock
43. The ....... is the drive containing the files to Answer: Option C
be copied
A. Source drive B. Destination drive 51. The primary purpose of an operating system
C. USB drive D. None of the above is:
Answer: Option A A. To make the most efficient use of the
computer hardware
44. Which one of the following is not a B. To allow people to use the computer
multitasking operating system? C. To keep systems programmers employed
A. DOS B. Windows D. To make computers easier to use
C. Unix D. Linux Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
53. You can use print manage window 58. A page fault occurs when
A. To check status of files in the print queue A. the Deadlock happens
B. To cancel the print job B. the Segmentation starts
C. To interrupt printing C. the page is found in the memory
D. All of the above D. the page is not found in the memory
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
31. ...... is used in operating system to separate 39. Which windows features can be accessed
mechanism from policy from the start menu?
A. Single level implementation A. Help B. Windows Explorer
C. Microsoft Network D. All of above
B. Two level implementation
Answer: Option D
C. Multi-level implementation
D. None 40. ....... are list of commands that appear on the
Answer: Option B screen
A. GUIS B. Icons
32. The modern keyboard typically has C. Menus D. Windows
__________ Function keys. Answer: Option C
A. 10 B. 12
C. 14 D. 16 41. The box on ....... that allows you to choose
Answer: Option B where to go and is located below the standard
toolbar
33. Essential files of MS DOS are A. System menu B. Address bar
A. Command.com B. Io.sys C. Menu bar D. None of these
C. Msdos.sys D. All of above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
42. A ...... is a set of computer instructions that
34. Which Operating System doesn't support carry out a task on the computer
long file names? A. Program B. Database
A. OS / 2 B. Windows 95 C. Memory files D. None of the above
C. MS-DOS D. Windows NT Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
43. A real time operating system is most likely
35. We need system files to run to be used for which of the following task?
A. MS Word B. MS Excel A. Controlling access to a shared printer in a
C. MS Dos D. MS Access network
Answer: Option C B. Ensuring that system clock works correctly
on server
36. What is the function of folder? C. Managing the access to system files in a
A. Save files B. Delete files laptop computers
C. Move files D. All of the above D. Controlling the fuel injection system of an
Answer: Option D automobile engines
Answer: Option D
5. A ..... is a windows component that is 11. Windows 2000 server uses the
designed to store other components so these can A. FAT 16 B. NTFS
be organized efficiently? C. FAT 64 D. FAT 32
A. Document B. Window Answer: Option B
C. Folder D. All of above
Answer: Option C 12. First-in-First-Out (FIFO) scheduling is
A. Non Preemptive Scheduling
6. You can switch from one program to another B. Preemptive Scheduling
on the desktop by clicking within the desired C. Fair Share Scheduling
program's window or by clicking on its ...... D. Deadline Scheduling
button Answer: Option A
A. Icon B. Taskbar button
C. Folder D. None of above 13. Which one of the following key is used to
Answer: Option B refresh the active window?
A. F7 B. F8
C. F9 D. F5
Answer: Option D
MS Word
Section 1
7. When the Language bar is _____, it means 14. PageUp Key uses for
that you do not see it on the screen but it will be A. Moves the cursor one line up
displayed the next time you start your computer. B. Moves the cursor one screen up
A. restored B. hidden C. Moves the cursor one page up
44. Change the _____ to create a document in 51. You can detect spelling and grammar errors
wide format by
A. Page Orientation B. Page margins A. Press Shift + F7
C. Paper Style D. Paper Source B. Press Ctrl + F7
Answer: Option A C. Press Alt+ F7
D. Press F7
45. _____ formatting is the process of changing Answer: Option D
the way letters, numbers, punctuation marks,
and symbols appear on the screen and in print.
A. Document B. Character 52. How can you break the current column?
C. Paragraph D. Object A. Press Ctrl + Shift + Enter
Answer: Option B B. Press Alt + Enter
C. Press Ctrl + Enter
46. The Word Count command on the Tools D. Press Alt + Shift + Enter
menu displays the number of words as well as Answer: Option A
the number of _____ in the current document.
A. lines B. characters 53. How can you disable extended selection
C. paragraphs D. all of the above mode?
Answer: Option D A. Press F8 again to disable
B. Press Del to disable
47. Which operation you will perform if you C. Press Esc to disable
need to move a block of text? D. Press Enter to disable
A. Copy and Paste B. Cut and Paste Answer: Option C
C. Paste and Delete D. Paste and Cut
Answer: Option B
48. Thesaurus tool in MS Word is used for... 55. Which menu in MSWord can be used to
A. Spelling suggestions change character size and typeface?
B. Synonyms and Antonyms words A. View B. Tools
C. Translate C. Format D. Data
D. None of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
56. Which option in File pull-down menu is
49. The minimum number of rows and columns used to close a file in MSWord?
in MS Word document is A. New B. Quit
A. 1 and 1 B. 2 and 1 C. Close D. Exit
C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 2 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
57. What is the function of CTRL+R in MS-
50. What is the smallest and largest font size Word
available in Font Size tool on formatting A. Open the Print dialog box
toolbar? B. Update the current Web page
A. 8 and 72 B. 8 and 68 C. Close the current window
C. 6 and 72 D. 6 and 68 D. None of these
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
51. A character that is raised and smaller above 58. What is the extension of files created in MS-
the baseline is known as Word 97- 2003
A. Raised B. Outlined A. dot B. doc
C. Capscript D. Superscript C. dom D. txt
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
37. Which of the following you can paste 43. By default Excel provides 3 worksheets.
selectively using Paste Special command? You need only two of them, how will you delete
A. Validation B. Formats the third one?
C. Formulas D. All of above A. Right click on Sheet Tab of third sheet and
Answer: Option D choose Delete from the context menu
B. Click on Sheet 3 and from Edit menu choose
38. Paste Special allows some operation while Delete
you paste to new cell. Which of the following C. Both of above
operation is valid? D. None of above
A. Square B. Percentage Answer: Option A
C. Goal Seek D. Divide
Answer: Option D 44. Which of the following action removes a
sheet from workbook?
39. Edit >> Delete command A. Select the sheet, then choose Edit >> Delete
A. Deletes the content of a cell Sheet
B. Deletes Formats of cell B. Select the sheet then choose Format >> Sheet
C. Deletes the comment of cell >> Hide
D. Deletes selected cells C. Both of above
Answer: Option D D. None of above
Answer: Option A
47. You can move a sheet from one workbook into 54. A numeric value can be treated as label
new book by value if ...... precedes it.
A. From Edit menu choose Move or Copy sheet, A. Apostrophe ( ‘ ) B. Exclamation ( ! )
mark the Create a ccopy and Click OK C. Hash ( # ) D. Tilde ( ~ )
B. From Edit menu choose Move of Copy then Answer: Option A
choose (Move to end) and click OK
C. From Edit menu choose Move or Copy then 55. Concatenation of text can be done using
select (new book) from To Book list and click OK A. Apostrophe ( ‘ ) B. Exclamation ( ! )
D. None of above C. Hash ( # ) D. Ampersand ( & )
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
48. What is the short cut key to replace a data with
another in sheet?
A. Ctrl + R B. Ctrl + Shift + R 56. Which area in an Excel window allows
C. Ctrl + H D. Ctrl + F entering values and formulas?
Answer: Option C A. Title Bar B. Menu Bar
C. Formula Bar D. Standard Tool Bar
49. Comments can be added to cells using ...... Answer: Option C
A. Edit -> Comments B. Insert -> Comment
C. File -> Comments D. View –> Comments 57. Multiple calculations can be made in a
Answer: Option B single formula using .......
A. Standard Formulas B. Array Formula
50. Which menu option can be used to split C. Complex Formulas D. Smart Formula
windows into two? Answer: Option B
A. Format -> Window
B. View -> Window-> Split 58. An Excel Workbook is a collection of .......
C. Window -> Split A. Workbooks B. Worksheets
D. View –> Split C. Charts D. Worksheets and Charts
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
60. MS-EXCEL is based on .........? 67. How do you rearrange the data in ascending
A. WINDOWS B. DOS or descending order?
C. UNIX D. OS/2 A. Data, Sort B. Data, Form
Answer: Option A C. Data, Table D. Data Subtotals
Answer: Option A
61. In EXCEL, you can sum a large range of
data by simply selecting a tool button called 68. Which Chart can be created in Excel?
.....? A. Area B. Line
A. AutoFill B. Auto correct C. Pie D. All of the above
C. Auto sum D. Auto format Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
69. What will be the output if you format the
62. To select an entire column in MS-EXCEL, cell containing 5436.8 as '#,##0.00' ?
press? A. 5430 B. 5436.80
A. CTRL + C C. 5436.8 D. 6.8
B. CTRL + Arrow key Answer: Option B
C. CTRL + S
D. None of the above 70. How do you display current date and time in
Answer: Option D MS Excel?
A. date () B. Today ()
63. To return the remainder after a number is C. now () D. time ()
divided by a divisor in EXCEL we use the Answer: Option C
function?
A. ROUND ( ) B. FACT ( )
C. MOD ( ) D. DIV ( )
Answer: Option C
6. Excel displays the current cell address in the 14. The spelling dialog box can be involved by
........ choosing spelling from ________ menu.
A. Formula bar B. Status Bar A. insert B. file
C. Name Box D. Title Bar C. tools D. view
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
7. What is the correct way to refer the cell A10 15. Which key do you press to check spelling?
on sheet3 from sheet1? A. F3 B. F5
A. sheet3!A10 B. sheet1!A10 C. F7 D. F9
C. Sheet3.A10 D. A10 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
31. Which of the following will not cut 37. How do you select an entire column?
information? A. Select Edit > Select > Column from the menu
A. Pressing Ctrl + C B. Click the column heading letter
B. Selecting Edit > Cut from the menu C. Hold down the shift key as you click
C. Clicking the Cut button on the standard anywhere in the column
D. Pressing Ctrl+X D. Hold down the Ctrl key as you click
Answer: Option anywhere in the column
Answer: Option B
32. Which of the following is not a way to 38. How can you print three copies of a
complete a cell entry? workbook?
A. Pressing enter A. Select File > Properties form the menu and
B. Pressing any arrow key on the keyboard type 3 in the Copies to print text box
C. Clicking the Enter button on the Formula bar B. Select File > Print from the menu and type 3
D. Pressing spacebar in the Number of copies text box
Answer: Option D C. Click the Print button on the standard toolbar
to print the document then take it to Kinko’s and
33. You can activate a cell by has 2 more copies made
A. Pressing the Tab key D. Press Ctrl+P+3
B. Clicking the cell Answer: Option B
C. Pressing an arrow key
D. All of the above 39. To create a formula, you first:
Answer: Option D A. Select the cell you want to place the formula
into
34. Text formulas: B. Type the equals sign (=) to tell Excel that
A. Replace cell references you’re about to enter a formula
B. Return ASCII values of characters C. Enter the formula using any input values and
C. Concatenate and manipulate text the appropriate mathematical operators that
D. Show formula error value make up your formula
Answer: Option C D. Choose the new command from the file menu
Answer: Option B
35. How do you insert a row?
A. Right-click the row heading where you want 40. To center worksheet titles across a range of
to insert the new row and select Insert from the cells, you must
shortcut menu A. Select the cells containing the title text plus
B. Select the row heading where you want to the range over which the title text is to be
insert the new row and select Edit >Row from centered
the menu B. Widen the columns
C. Select the row heading where you want to C. Select the cells containing the title text plus
insert the new row and click the Insert Row the range over which the title text is to be
button on the standard toolbar enfettered
D. All of the above D. Format the cells with the comma style
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
44. When a label is too long to fit within a 51. To activate the previous cell in a pre-
worksheet cell, you typically must selected range, press
A. Shorten the label A. The Alt key B. The Tab key
B. Increase the column width C. The Enter key D. None of the above
C. Decrease the column width Answer: Option D
D. Adjust the row height
Answer: Option B 52. Which button do you click to add up a series
of numbers?
45. The name box A. The autosum button B. The Formula button
A. Shows the location of the previously active C. The quicktotal button D. The total button
cell Answer: Option A
B. Appears to the left of the formula bar
C. Appears below the status bar 53. When the formula bar is active, you can see
D. Appears below the menu bar A. The edit formula button
Answer: Option B B. The cancel button
C. The enter button
46. Comments put in cells are called D. All of the above
A. Smart Tip B. Cell Tip Answer: Option D
C. Web Tip D. Soft Tip
Answer: Option B
PowerPoint
7. Which of the following cannot be toggled
Section 1 from View >> Toolbars?
A. Control Toolbox B. Slides
1. Which tab is not available on left panel when C. Revisions D. Reviewing
you open a presentation? Answer: Option B
A. Outline
B. Slides 8. Which of the following pane is not available
C. Notes in Task Pane?
D. All of above are available A. Getting Started
Answer: Option C B. Clip Art
C. Word Art
2. Which of the following statements is not true? D. Search Results
A. You can type text directly into a PowerPoint Answer: Option C
slide but typing in text box is more convenient.
B. From Insert menu choose Picture and then 9. Which of the following pane is NOT
File to insert your images into slides. available in Task Pane?
C. You can view a PowerPoint presentation in
A. Slide Design B. Master Slide
Normal, Slide Sorter or Slide Show view.
D. You can show or hide task pane from View C. Slide Layout D. Slide Transition
>> Toolbars. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
10. A new presentation can be created from
3. To start Microsoft PowerPoint application A. Blank Presentation
A. Click on Start >> Programs >> All Programs B. From Existing Presentation
>> Microsoft PowerPoint C. From Design Template
B. Hit Ctrl + R then type ppoint.exe and Enter D. All of above
C. Click Start >> Run then type PowerPoint Answer: Option D
then press Enter
D. All of above 11. In slide layout panel how many layouts are
Answer: Option C available for text layout by default?
A. 4 B. 7
4. Which of the following section does not exist C. 12 D. None of above
in a slide layout? Answer: Option A
A. Titles B. Lists
C. Charts D. Animations 12. Which of the following statement is false?
Answer: Option D
A. If you choose to select from one of the pre-
5. PowerPoint presentations are widely used as made slide layouts, you can change the
A. note outlines for teachers positioning
B. project presentations by students B. If you choose to select from the pre-made
C. communication of planning slide layouts, you cannot delete the objects in
D. All of above the layout
Answer: Option D C. Blank Slide is at the top of the ‘Content
Layouts’ area in the Slide Layout panel
6. _______ controls all the main slide control D. All of above are false statements
tasks for your presentation. Answer: Option B
A. Task Panel B. Task Bar
C. Control Panel D. None of above
Answer: Option A
39. Which of the following is not an option 45. Which of the following should e used when you
when printing handouts? want to add a slide to an existing presentation?
A. Six slides per page A. File, add a new slide B. Insert, new slide
B. Five slides per page C. File, open D. File, new
C. Three slides per page Answer: Option B
D. Two slides per page
Answer: Option B 46. Which of the following is the default page setup
orientation for notes pages, outlines and handouts?
40. What is the best way to design the layout for A. Vertical B. Landscape
your slides? C. Portrait D. None of above
A. Create layouts for slides, handouts and notes Answer: Option C
using the Master Layout dialog box in slide
master view 47. Which of the following is the default page setup
B. For each new slide, select a layout from the orientation for slides in PowerPoint?
Slide Layout task pane A. Vertical B. Landscape
C. Apply templates from the Slide Design task C. Portrait D. None of above
pane Answer: Option B
D. None of above
Answer: Option B 48. How can you get your photo album slide show
to play continuously?
41. Any and every command can be found on A. Use random slide transition
the B. Launch an online broadcast
A. Drawing toolbar B. Formatting toolbar C. Loop continuously
C. Standard toolbar D. Menu bar D. All of above
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
62. The power point view that displays only text 68. Which of the following bypasses the print
(title and bullets) is: dialog box when printing individual slides or an
A. Slide show B. Slide sorter view entire presentation?
C. Notes page view D. Outline view A. File, Print Preview B. The print button
Answer: Option D C. File, print D. Ctrl + P
Answer: Option B
63. Which of the following provides a printed
copy of your presentation? 69. The handout master contains placeholders
A. Outlines B. Speaker notes for all of the following except
C. Audience handouts D. All of above A. Slide number B. Title
Answer: Option C C. Footer D. Header
Answer: Option B
64. Presentation designs regulate the formatting
and layout for the slide and are commonly 70. How do you add degrees of transparency to
called shapes such as arrows, so that the slide
A. Design templates B. Templates background shows though?
C. Placeholders D. Blueprints A. Use #D style 4 button on the drawing toolbar
Answer: Option B B. Use the Set Transparent Color button on the
Picture toolbar
65. Which of the following should you use if C. Use the Transparency slider in the Format
you want all the slides in the presentation to AutoShapes dialog box
have the same look? D. All of above
A. The slid layout option Answer: Option C
B. The add a slide option
C. Outline view
D. A presentation design template
Answer: Option D
62. Block arrows, stars and banners, and 68. Which of the following statements is not
callouts are all examples of true?
A. Different types of children’s building blocks A. Holding down the Shift key while you draw
B. Auto Shape categories an object creates perfect squares, circles and
C. Clip art categories located in the Microsoft straight lines
Clip Gallery B. The text in a text box can’t be formatted
D. More technical terms that I don’t understand C. The drawing toolbar contains tools for
Answer: Option B drawing shapes, lines, arrows, and more
D. Ctrl+S save the document
Answer: Option B
63. We can replace a font on all sides with
another font using the...... option 69. A chart can be put as a part of the
A. Edit, Fonts presentation using
B. Tools, Fonts A. Insert -> Chart
C. Tools, Replace Fonts B. Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
D. Format, Replace Fonts C. Edit -> Chart
Answer: Option D D. View -> Chart
Answer: Option B
64. Special effects used to introduce slides in a
presentation are called 70. The arrangement of elements such as Title
A. Effects B. Custom animations and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
C. Transitions D. Preset animations A. Layout B. Presentation
Answer: Option C C. Design D. Scheme
Answer: Option A
65. PowerPoint can display data from which of
the following add-in software of MS-Office
A. Equation editor B. Organization chart
C. Photo album D. All of these
Answer: Option D
15. To give a PowerPoint presentation to a large 21. Which of the following will not advance the
audience, you: a. b. . c. d. slides in a slide show view?
A. Set up your computer in a large auditorium, A. The esc key B. The space bar
and click large, auditorium, OK C. The enter key D. The mouse button
B. Click the slide you wish the audience to see Answer: Option A
in normal view, then click the next slide, and so
on 22. To import text from a word document that
C. Choose either view, slide show or slide show, uses headings into a PowerPoint presentation:
view show A. This cannot be done in PowerPoint
D. Slick slide show, OK B. Click Insert, Slides from Outline
Answer: Option C C. Click Import, Word Document Headings
D. Click File, New, Presentation from Word
16. Which of the following can you use to add Headings
times to the slides in a presentation Answer: Option B
A. Slice Show menu
B. Rehearse timing button 23. Format painter
C. Slide transition button A. To paint pretty pictures on your slides
D. All of the above B. To copy formatting from one object or piece
Answer: Option B of text and then apply it elsewhere
C. To change the background color of your
17. Which of the following is not one of slides
PowerPoint's views? D. To paint pretty pictures on background of
A. Slide show view B. Slide view slides
C. Presentation view D. Outline view Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
24. Slide show options available to the presenter
18. Which PowerPoint view works best for include all of the following except
adding slide transitions? A. Transitions command
A. Slide show view B. Slide sorter view B. Speaker notes command
C. Slide view D. Notes view C. Meeting minder command
Answer: Option B D. Navigation commands
Answer: Option A
19. Which of the following views is the best
view to use when setting transition effects for all 25. Which of the following is an example for
slides in a presentation automatic text formatting
A. Slide sorter view A. Underlining hyperlink
B. Notes page view B. Adjusting extra space
C. Slide view C. Replacing two -‘s with an em hyphens
D. Outline view D. All of above
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
18. What is the use of 'Hide Slide' option? 25. Shortcut key to insert a hyperlink in a slide
A. to hide the selected slides during Presentation A. Ctrl + H
B. to hide the selected slides during Editing B. Ctrl + K
C. to hide the selected slides during Printing C. Hyperlinks can’t be inserted in slides
D. to hide the selected slides during Deleting D. None of the above
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
26. To draw the Square box in the slide by
19. What is the shortcut key for repeat the recent selecting rectangle tool
find? A. Holding CTRL & Draw
A. CTRL + F4 B. Holding ALT & Draw
B. SHIFT + F4 C. Holding SHIFT & Draw
C. CTRL + F5 D. All of the above
D. SHIFT + F5 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
English
Direct Speech Indirect Speech Direct : He said, "The horse died in the night."
Present Indefinite Past Indefinite (Simple Past)
Present Continuous Past Continuous Indirect : He said that the horse had died in the
Present Perfect Past Perfect night. (Past Perfect)
Present Perfect Past Perfect
Continuous Continuous Direct : He said, "The man came at six."
Past Indefinite Past Perfect (Simple Past)
Past Continuous Past Perfect Indirect : He said that the man had come at six.
Continuous (Past Perfect)
Past Perfect No change
Past Perfect Continuous No change d. If the reporting verb is in the past tense, the
past continuous in the reported speech changes
Important Rules into the past perfect continuous.
a. If the reporting verb, i.e. the main verb in the
first part of the sentence before comma is in the Example:
present or in the future tense, the tense of the
verbs in the reported speech will not change. Direct : He said, "The man was coming." (Past
Continuous)
Example: Indirect : He said that the man had been
coming. (Past Perfect Continuous)
Direct : Mummy says, "I shall write a letter."
Indirect : Mummy says that she will write a Direct : He said, "Rain was falling yesterday."
letter. (Past Continuous)
Indirect : He said that rain had been falling the
b. If the reporting verb is in the past tense, the previous day. (Past Perfect Continuous)
tense of the verbs in the reported speech will be
changed into their corresponding past tense. Change of person
The persons of the pronouns and of the verbs in
Example: the reported speech undergo changes when
converted into indirect form. Thus:
Direct : The boy said to his friend. "I write
everyday." (Present Indefinite) a. First person pronouns in the direct reporter
Indirect : The boy said to his friend that he speech change according to the subject of the
wrote everyday. (Past Indefinite) reporting verb.
Direct : The boy said to the teacher, "I am Direct : He says, "I am going to Delhi."
going there every day." (Present Continuous) Indirect : He says that he is going to Delhi.
Indirect : The boy said to the teacher that he
was going there every day. (Past Continuous) Direct : Mummy says, "I will have to go."
Indirect : Mummy says that she will have to go.
22. Farhan asked Geeta, "Could you lend me a 26. He said to me, "I expect you to attend the
hundred rupees until tomorrow ?" function."
A. Farhan asked Geeta whether she could lend A. He told me that he had expected me to attend
the function.
him a hundred rupees until tomorrow.
B. He told me that he expected me to attended
B. Farhan asked Geeta whether she could lend the function.
him a hundred rupees until the next day. C. He told me that he expected me to have
C. Farhan asked Geeta whether she could lend attended the function.
me a hundred rupees untill the next day. D. He told me that he expected me to attend the
D. Farhan asked whether Geeta could lend me a function.
hundred rupees until the next day. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
27. He said, "Why didn't you send your
23. "What about going for swim," he said, "It's application to me ?"
quite fine now." A. He enquired why I had not sent my
A. He asked me what about going for a swim as application to him.
it was quite fine then. B. He enquired why I did not send my
B. He proposed going for swim as it was quite application to him.
fine. C. He enquired why had I not sent my
C. He suggested going for a swim as it was quite application to him.
fine. D. He enquired why did I not send my
D. He advised me to go for a swim as it was application to him.
quite fine.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
24. "You can't bathe in this sea," he said to me, 28. Dinesh asked, "Are you going to the party
"it's very rough." tomorrow, Rani ?"
A. He said that I can't bathe in this sea because A. Dinesh asked whether Rani was going to the
it's very rough. party the next day.
B. He said that you couldn't bathe in the sea if it B. Dinesh asked Rani whether you are going to
was very rough. the party the next day.
C. He said that I couldn't bathe in that sea as it C. Dinesh asked Rani whether she was going to
was very rough. the party the next day.
D. He said that you can't bathe in this sea since D. Dinesh asked Rani are you going to the party
it was very rough. tomorrow.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
10. Find the correctly spelt word. 19. Find the correctly spelt word.
A. Abstemius B. Abstemaus A. Deppricate B. Dapricate
C. Abstemious D. Abstemous C. Depricate D. Deprecate
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
20. Find the correctly spelt word.
11. Find the correctly spelt word. A. Desiccate B. Desicate
A. Cacophone B. Cacophoney C. Descicate D. Deccicate
C. Cacophoni D. Cacophony Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
12. Find the correctly spelt word. 21. Find the correctly spelt word.
A. Capricious B. Cappricious A. Dicotomy B. Dicotemy
C. Caprisious D. Carisuous C. Dichotomy D. Dechotomy
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
13. Find the correctly spelt word. 22. Find the correctly spelt word.
A. Centrefuge B. Centrifuse A. Embelis B. Embelesh
C. Centifuse D. Centrifuge C. Embellish D. Embelish
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
23. Find the correctly spelt word:
14. Find the correctly spelt word. A. livelihood B. livelyhood
A. Chauvinist B. Chaubinist C. livlihood D. livelyhud
C. Chauviniste D. Chaubenist Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A 24. Find the correctly spelt word:
A. foyere B. foayer
C. foyer D. fouyer
15. Find the correctly spelt word. Answer: Option C
A. Compendioum
B. Compendium 25. Find the correctly spelt word:
C. Compandium A. lassivious B. lacivoius
D. Commppendium C. lascivious D. lasivious
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
16. Find correctly spelt word.
A. Connillatory B. Concilletry 26. Find the correctly spelt word:
C. Conciliatory D. Concilletry A. enemyty B. enemity
Answer: Option C C. enmity D. enmety
Answer: Option C
17. Find the correctly spelt word.
A. Deference B. Defferance 27. Find the correctly spelt word:
C. Defference D. Defference A. irelevant B. irrelavent
Answer: Option A C. irelevent D. irrelevant
Answer: Option D
48. Find the correctly spelt words. 57. Find the correctly spelt words.
A. Bouquete B. Bouquette A. Acommodation
C. Bouquet D. Boqquet B. Accomodaton
Answer: Option C C. Accommodation
D. Acomodation
49. Find the correctly spelt words. Answer: Option C
A. Vetarinary B. Veteninary
C. Vetinary D. Veterinary 58. Find the correctly spelt words.
Answer: Option D A. Faithfuly B. Sincerely
C. Truely D. Affectionatly
50. Find the correctly spelt words. Answer: Option B
A. Chancelary B. Chancellery
C. Chancelery D. Chancellary 59. Find the correctly spelt words.
Answer: Option B A. Klaptomania B. Klepptomania
C. Kleptemania D. Kleptomania
51. Find the correctly spelt words.
Answer: Option D
A. Excessive B. Exccessive
C. Exxcesive D. Excesive
60. Find the correctly spelt words.
Answer: Option A
A. Schedulle B. Schedeule
C. Schdule D. Schedule
52. Find the correctly spelt words.
Answer: Option D
A. Indipensable
B. Indipenseble
C. Indispansible 61. Find the correctly spelt words.
D. Indispensable A. Skillful B. Skillfull
Answer: Option D C. Skilfull D. Skilpull
Answer: Option A
53. Find the correctly spelt words.
A. Humorous B. Ganerous 62. Find the correctly spelt words.
C. Pupolous D. Maretorious A. Judicious B. Cancious
Answer: Option A C. Dilicous D. Gracous
Answer: Option A
54. Find the correctly spelt words.
A. Itinarery B. Itinerary 63. Find the correctly spelt words.
C. Itenary D. Itinarary A. Gaurantee B. Guarantee
Answer: Option B C. Garuntee D. Guaruntee
Answer: Option B
55. Find the correctly spelt words.
A. Survaillance B. Surveillance 64. Find the correctly spelt words.
C. Survellance D. Surveilance A. Friming B. Burnning
Answer: Option B C. Running D. Fryng
Answer: Option C
26. Find out that word, which spelling is 33. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Refuse B. Repute A. Formulate B. Formidable
C. Despute D. Confuse C. Forman D. Format
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
27. Find out that word, which spelling is 34. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Urge B. Merge A. Aristocracy
C. Perge D. Surge B. Prophecy
E. All correct C. Beaureacuracy
Answer: Option C D. Democracy
E. All correct
28. Find out that word, which spelling is Answer: Option C
WRONG 35. Find out that word, which spelling is
A. Boundary B. Exhibit WRONG
C. Depresion D. Demonstration A. Artificial B. Aggrevate
E. All correct C. Forefront D. Negligence
Answer: Option C E. All correct
Answer: Option B
29. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG 36. Find out that word, which spelling is
A. Logical B. Ludicrucous WRONG
C. Lovely D. Lonesome A. Benificial B. Regular
E. All correct C. Despise D. Deprave
Answer: Option B E. All correct
Answer: Option A
30. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG 37. Find out that word, which spelling is
A. Periphery B. Advurtise WRONG
C. Courteous D. Indefinite A. Psychologist B. Psychaitrist
E. All correct C. Physiologist D. Psychoanalyst
Answer: Option B E. All correct
Answer: Option B
31. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG 38. Find out that word, which spelling is
A. Dismiss B. Dispel WRONG
C. Disservice D. Discribe A. Conserve B. Reserve
E. All correct C. Diserve D. Preserve
Answer: Option D E. All correct
Answer: Option C
40. Find out that word, which spelling is 47. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Seperation B. Desertion A. Approach B. Compartment
C. Rejoice D. Serenity C. Restaurant D. Municipality
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option A Answer: Option E
41. Find out that word, which spelling is 48. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Transmit B. Attribute A. Irritate B. Turmoil
C. Constitute D. Investegate C. Ignorent D. Terrible
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
42. Find out that word, which spelling is 49. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Peaceful B. Skillful A. Intellectual B. Opportunity
C. Beautyful D. Hopeful C. Efficiency D. Responsibility
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E
43. Find out that word, which spelling is 50. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Numerous B. Nucleus A. Narrator B. Overseer
C. Nuisence D. Numismatics C. Pretence D. Licence
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E
44. Find out that word, which spelling is 51. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Choclate B. Woolen A. Burglar B. Designation
C. Parliament D. Biscuit C. Controversy D. Ratificasion
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
45. Find out that word, which spelling is 52. Find out that word, which spelling is
WRONG WRONG
A. Grammer B. Hammer A. Leisure B. Nuisance
C. Manner D. Stammer C. Opineon D. Mystery
E. All correct E. All correct
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
7. Pious:
A. Religious B. Sympathetic
C. Afraid D. Faithful
Answer: Option A
8. Cancel:
A. Abolish B. Approve
C. Allow D. Break
Answer: Option A
53. Vanguard :
A. Race Driver B. Officer
C. Flag Bearer D. Pioneer
Answer: Option C
44. Amicable :
A. Hostile B. Friendly
C. Haughty D. Unpleasant
Answer: Option A
45. Aversion :
A. Avoidable B. Awareness
C. Hatred D. Liking
Answer: Option D
13. A person who is indifferent to pains and 22. A person who forsakes religion:
pleasure of life: A. Apostle B. Apotheosis
A. Stoic B. Sadist C. Renegade D. Charlatan
C. Psychiatrist D. Aristocrat Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
23. One who studies insect life:
A. Geologist B. Zoologist
14. An act of speaking one's thoughts aloud C. Entomologist D. Botanist
when by oneself or regardless of any hearers, Answer: Option C
especially by a character in a play:
A. Sinecure B. Soliloquy 24. A doctor who treats skin diseases:
C. Pessimist D. Philanthropist A. Ophthalmologist B. Dermatologist
Answer: Option B C. Paediatrician D. Cardiologist
Answer: Option B
15. A disease which spreads by contact:
A. Incurable B. Infectious 25. A lady who remains unmarried:
C. Contagious D. Fatal A. Spinster B. Artist
Answer: Option C C. Bachelor D. Misanthrope
Answer: Option A
16. A man who rarely speaks the truth:
A. Crook B. Liar 26. One who has good taste for food:
C. Scoundrel D. Hypocrite A. Gourmet B. Curator
Answer: Option D C. Parasite D. Stoic
Answer: Option A
17. A remedy for all diseases:
A. Narcotics B. Antiseptic 27. One who knows two languages:
C. Panacea D. Lyric A. Bigot B. Bigamy
Answer: Option C C. Bilingual D. Brittle
Answer: Option C
18. International destruction of racial groups:
A. Matricide B. Regicide 28. Government by the representatives of the
C. Genocide D. Homicide people:
Answer: Option C A. Autocracy B. Democracy
C. Socialism D. Anarchy
Answer: Option B
32. One who able to use the right and left hands 41. One indifferent to art and literature is :
equally well: A. Aromatic B. Critic
A. Sinister B. Ambidextrous C. Philistine D. Scholar
C. Ambivalent D. Amateur Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
42. Open to injury or Criticism :
33. Government by rich: A. Invincible B. Vulnerable
A. Oligarchy B. Aristocracy C. Naive D. Sensitive
C. Pantisocracy D. Plutocracy Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
43. Government by a small group of all
34. An independent person or body officially powerful persons :
appointed to settle a dispute: A. Oligarchy B. Monarchy
A. Arbiter B. Mediator C. Democracy D. Anarchy
C. Agent provocateur D. Arbitrator Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
44. A narrow piece of land connecting two large
35. Murder of man: masses of land :
A. Regicide B. Fratricide A. Peninsula B. Isthmus
C. Homicide D. Genocide C. Continent D. Gulf
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
36. Use of force or threats to get someone to 45. One who collects coins as hobby :
agree to something: A. Philatelist B. Ornithologist
A. Coercion B. Conviction C. Statistician D. Numismatist
C. Confession D. Cajolement Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
49. Women should be paid the same as men 55. The teacher warned the student once for all
when they do the same job, for, surely what is that no mischief shall be tolerated in the class.
sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander. A. authoritatively B. finally
A. What is thought suitable pay for a man C. angrily D. coldly
should also be for a woman Answer: Option B
B. Goose and the gender eat the same sauce
C. Both goose and gander should be equally
treated 56. I hope it will not put you out if I am late.
D. The principle of equal treatment should be A. harm you
implemented B. irritate you
Answer: Option A C. please you
D. worry out
50. The party stalwarts have advised the Answer: Option B
President to take it lying down for a while. A. to
be cautious 57. Govind has left his country for good.
B. to be on the defensive A. for better opportunities
C. to take rest B. on an important mission
D. to show no reaction C. forever
Answer: Option D D. to return soon
Answer: Option C
51. The thief took to his heels when he saw a
policeman on the beat. 58. Sanjay was the real power behind the throne
A. had some pain in his heels and all politicians were aware of this.
B. ran away from the scene A. The person who had the real control and
C. confronted the policeman power
D. could not decide what to do B. The acknowledged leader
Answer: Option B C. The person who controlled the monarch
D. The person who advised the queen
52. He struck several bad patches before he Answer: Option A
made good. A. came across bad soil
B. Had a bad time 59. His friends let him down.
C. Went through many illness A. failed B. comforted
D. Had many professional difficulties C. succeeded D. stood by
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
53. The accounts of the murder made her flesh 60. I felt like a fish out of water among all those
creep. business tycoons.
A. Made her sad A. troubled B. stupid
B. Surprised her C. uncomfortable D. inferior
C. Made her cry bitterly Answer: Option C
D. Fill her with horror
Answer: Option D
15. In modern democratic societies lynch law 21. He went to his friend's house in the evening
seems to have become the spheres of life. as was his wont.
A. law of the mob A. as usual B. as he wanted
B. law of the underworld C. as his want was D. as he wanted that
C. law of the constitution day
D. law of the parliament Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
22. Why do you wish to tread on the toes?
16. He was in high spirits when I met him in the A. To give offence to them
restaurant. B. To follow them grudgingly
A. He was in a drunken state C. To treat them indifferently
B. He was very cheerful D. To be kicked by them
C. He talked incoherently Answer: Option A
D. He was deeply engrossed in thoughts
Answer: Option B 23. He intends setting up as a lawyer in the
adjoining district.
17. In his youth, he was practically rolling in A. To establish himself B. To migrate
money. C. To join D. To settle
A. Spending more than his income Answer: Option A
B. Borrowing money liberally
C. Very rich 24. The autographed bat from the famous
D. Wasting a lot of money cricketer Sunil Gavaskar is worth a jew's eye.
Answer: Option C A. Not a worthy possession
B. unnecessary
18. Aya had a chequered career. Since I first C. A costly items
knew him as an office assistant in the insurance D. A possession of high value
company. Answer: Option D
A. Had a variety of jobs and experiences
B. A career which helped him make lot of 25. The speaker gave a bird's eye view of the
money political conditions in the country.
C. A career where he signed a lot of cheques A. a personal view B. a general view
D. Did odd jobs C. a biased view D. a detailed
Answer: Option A presentation
19. The sight of the accident made my flesh Answer: Option B
creep.
A. draw my attention B. confused me 26. He resigned the post of his own accord.
C. frightened me D. worried me A. which he liked
E. None B. according to his convenience
Answer: Option C C. voluntarily and willingly
D. according to his judgment
Answer: Option C
15. Select the pair which has the same Selecting Words
relationship.
FILTER:WATER Section 1
A. curtail:activity B. expunge:book
C. edit:text D. censor:play 1. Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple
Answer: Option D with stark realities of life.
A. with B. over
16. Select the pair which has the same C. on D. round
relationship. Answer: Option C
HOPE:ASPIRES
A. love:elevates B. film:flam 2. The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins
C. fib:lie D. fake:ordinary in front of him.
Answer: Option C A. avidly B. admiringly
C. thoughtfully D. earnestly
Answer: Option A
17. Select the pair which has the same
relationship. 3. Catching the earlier train will give us the ......
CORPOREAL:SPIRITUAL to do some shopping.
A. mesa:plateau A. chance B. luck
B. moron:savant C. possibility D. occasion
C. foreigner:immigrant Answer: Option A
D. pedagogue:teacher
Answer: Option B
4. I saw a ...... of cows in the field.
18. Select the pair which has the same A. group B. herd
relationship. C. swarm D. flock
SYMPHONY:COMPOSER Answer: Option B
A. Leonardo:music B. Fresco:painter
C. colours:pallet D. art:appreciation 5. The grapes are now ...... enough to be picked.
Answer: Option B A. ready B. mature
C. ripe D. advanced
19. Select the pair which has the same Answer: Option C
relationship.
HOPE:ASPIRES 6. Success in this examination depends ...... hard
A. love:elevates B. film:flam work alone.
C. fib:lie D. fake:ordinary A. at B. over
Answer: Option C C. for D. on
Answer: Option D
15. During Diwali the shops are ...... of people. 23. It ...... that Prashant will not be selected for
A. busy B. full the post
C. crowded D. bubbling A. feels B. looks
Answer: Option B C. believes D. seems
Answer: Option D
16. The paths of glory lead ...... to the grave.
A. straight B. but 24. In Bush, Saddam was up ...... more than his
C. in D. directly match.
Answer: Option B A. for B. into
C. against D. to
17. The telephone ...... several times before I Answer: Option C
answered it.
A. was ringing B. has rung 25. I haven't seen you ...... a week.
C. had rung D. would ring A. within B. since
Answer: Option C C. for D. from
Answer: Option C
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English
34. This, partly, explains how the Mehta family
26. I listened, but I had no idea what he was ...... has been able to ...... its lavish lifestyle in recent
about. times, despite the fact that all its assets have
A. saying B. talking been ......
C. telling D. discussing A. keep, removed B. afford, attached
Answer: Option B C. develop, liquidated D. keep up, destroyed
Answer: Option D
27. The car in which the minister was traveling
...... with an accident. 35. The machine is difficult to build ...... easy to
A. hit B. drove maintain.
C. crashed D. met A. but B. and
Answer: Option D C. for D. if
Answer: Option A
28. The non cooperative attitude of the members
can only ...... the image of the society. 36. If you work beyond your capacity, you will
A. spoil B. improve naturally feel ......
C. degrade D. defame A. drowsy B. tired
Answer: Option A C. confident D. giddy
Answer: Option B
29. Sonika is quite intelligent but rather ......
A. idealistic B. generous 37. If you persists in telling lies to me I shall sue
C. lazy D. optimistic you ...... slander.
Answer: Option C A. to B. on
C. for D. with
30. In a little-publicised deal, Pepsi, Cola has Answer: Option C
...... the entire soft drink market in Afghanistan.
A. occupied B. conquered 38. His father-in-law ...... him up in business.
C. swallowed D. captured A. put B. made
Answer: Option D C. set D. built
Answer: Option C
31. He ...... in wearing the old fashioned coat in 39. ...... works of reference are valuable as
spite of his wife's disapproval. Encyclopedia, Brittanica.
A. insists B. persists A. A few B. Few
C. desists D. resists C. The few D. Fewer
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
32. She ...... a brief appearance at the end of 40. This book is quite similar ......
party. A. with the "Treasure Island"
A. put on B. put in B. of that film we saw at school
C. put across D. put up C. to the one I read last week
Answer: Option B D. than a story told by our teacher
Answer: Option C
33. Life is to death as pleasure is to ......
A. poverty B. suffering 41. If our friends are not able to take us in their
C. anguish D. pain car, we must make ...... arrangements to go to
Answer: Option D the airport.
A. alternative B. another
C. alternate D. possible
Answer: Option A
43. I haven't eaten an apple ...... a long while. 52. What is the ...... for an air letter?
A. from B. since A. fare B. value
C. for D. until C. postage D. stamp
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
53. He became enamored ...... her grace when he
44. The parliament invested the new first saw her dance.
organisation ...... judicial authority. A. with B. of
A. by B. with C. by D. in
C. from D. through Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
54. Rama was so badly injured that he needed
45. Owing to the power cut in the area, factories ...... care in the hospital.
are being forced to ...... men A. extensive B. little
A. throw away B. send off C. deep D. intensive
C. put off D. lay off Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
55. You cannot devise a method which ...... all
46. Man must ...... to stop pollution. possibility of errors.
A. act B. perform A. excludes B. includes
C. operate D. behave C. avoids D. ignores
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
47. He was sent to the prison for his ...... 56. Many areas of the city were ...... into
A. sin B. vice darkness for several hours.
A. spread B. plunged
C. crime D. guilt C. merged D. deep
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
48. The answer was written ...... blue ink. 57. Find the ...... that accompany these cartoons
A. with B. by A. topics B. titles
C. in D. on C. captions D. headings
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
49. Many ...... decisions were taken at the 58. I don't really know how to ...... the problem.
meeting. A. tackle B. cope
A. hectic B. historic C. draw D. erase
C. historical D. histrionic Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
59. The English schemed to continue their rule
50. Those who persist in the endeavor at long in India by playing off one community ...... the
last triumph ...... the odds of life. other.
A. over B. on A. before B. upon
C. upon D. about C. against D. with
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
53. Sita's heart ...... at the sight of the beautiful 61. A woman came in with a baby who, she
diamond necklace. said, ...... a safety pin.
A. leapt B. stopped A. was just swallowing
C. slowed D. ran B. swallowed
Answer: Option A C. had just swallowed
D. just swallowed
54. He lives near a lovely ...... of countryside. Answer: Option C
A. length B. piece
C. section D. stretch 62. The Hubble Space Telescope will search for
Answer: Option D planets around the stars, a key to the ......
extraterrestrial life, and examine interstellar dust
55. Ambition is one of those ......which are never and gases out of which stars are born.
satisfied. A. perception B. discovery
A. ideas B. fancies C. enquiry D. quest
C. passions D. feeds Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
63. She ...... Rs 80 out of the bank every Friday.
56. He is a person of sound character and ...... A. obtains B. draws
disposition. C. pulls D. extracts
A. beneficent B. morous Answer: Option B
C. amiable D. amicable
Answer: Option C 64. The American ...... presented his credentials
to the President of India.
57. If I take a state roadways bus, I'll get late, A. adviser
...... ? B. ambassador
A. isn't it B. won't I C. delegate
C. will I D. is it D. representative
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
58. In high school many of us never realised the 65. Once he has signed the agreement, he won't
importance that grammar would ...... in later life. be able to ......
A. figure B. portray A. back up B. back in
C. play D. exercise C. back at D. back out
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
12. I shall call ...... you tomorrow. 20. The thief ...... all the money.
A. at B. on A. made up B. made off with
C. with D. by C. mode do with D. made good
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
13. She ...... from the crowd because of her 21. The luggage was ...... heavy for him to lift
height and flaming red hair. A. much B. as
A. stood out B. stood off C. so D. too
C. stood up D. stood by Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
22. Walking at 3'o clock, I heard the ...... of
14. In a large cities people are cut ...... from thunder.
nature. A. crackle B. rumble
A. away B. off C. ripple D. clank
C. out D. down Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
23. A stone that goes on rolling ...... no moss.
15. The more your action and thought are allied A. collects B. gets
and ...... the happier you grow. C. gathers D. accumulates
A. diverget Answer: Option C
B. unravelled
C. integrated 24. The earth is at present in great danger of
D. invincible becoming uninhabitable because of ......
Answer: Option C environmental pollution which is going on at an
incredible rapid pace.
16. We had a ...... of warm weather in February. A. gigantic
A. time B. spell B. inhuman
C. length D. phase C. stupendous
Answer: Option B D. colossal
Answer: Option D
42. ...... a failure of some traffic lights, traffic is 50. Affix a revenue stamp and put your
moving very slowly. signature ...... it.
A. Owing B. Due to A. on B. upo
C. Because D. Since C. above D. over
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
43. The battalion operating from the mountain 51. My first lesson ...... forgiveness came from
was able to ...... three enemy divisons. my mother.
A. tie up B. tie down A. upon B. about
C. tie on D. tie with C. in D. on
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
44. I purposely ...... meet you during my last 52. At one point, it looked as if an area of
visit to Kashmir. agreement would ...... specially over the issue of
A. didn't B. won't productivity linked wages.
C. hadn't D. wouldn't A. develop B. come out
Answer: Option A C. emerge D. grow
Answer: Option C
45. I have read one novel by Premchand. I want
to read ...... novel by him. 53. Do you know ......?
A. other B. another A. where she comes from
C. all D. few B. where does she come from
Answer: Option B C. where from she comes
D. from where does she come
46. A man remains narrow minded, self Answer: Option A
compliance and ignorant unless he visits other
people and ...... from them. 54. God is ......
A. earns B. borrows A. graceful B. gracious
C. learns D. hears C. grateful D. greatful
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
47. My father ...... down for a nap. 55. He is so ...... that he immediately believe my
A. lays B. laid story of ghosts.
C. lain D. lie A. innocent B. credulous
Answer: Option A C. vociferous D. credible
Answer: Option B
48. I think they allow their children too much
......
A. liberality
B. latitude
C. lassitude
D. levity
Answer: Option B
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English
Sentence Completion
8. Unlike his calmer, more easygoing colleagues
1. Rajeev failed in the examination because ,the senator was _________ ,ready to quarrel at
none of his answers were _______ to the the slightest provocation.
questions asked. A. whimsical B. irascible
A. allusive B. revealing C. gregarious D. ineffectual
C. pertinent D. referential Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
9. Jill was ________ by her employees because
2. There are _______ views on the issue of she often _______ them for not working hard
giving bonus to the employees. enough.
A. independent B. divergent A. deified, goaded
C. modest D. adverse B. loathed, berated
Answer: Option B C. disregarded, eulogized
D. cherished, decided
3. Man who has committed such an _______ Answer: Option B
crime must get the most severe punishment.
A. injurious B. unchritable 10. Reconstructing the skeletons of extinct
C. unworhty D. abominable species like dinosaurs is ________ process that
Answer: Option D requires much patience and effort by
paleontologists.
4. He has _______ people visiting him at his A. a nascent B. an aberrant
house because he fears it will cause discomfort C. a worthless D. an exacting
to neighbours A. curtailed Answer: Option D
B. requested C. stopped
D. warned 11. This is a ...... on his character.
Answer: Option C A. blot B. blur
C. slur D. spot
E. mark
5. Although he never learn to read, his Answer: Option C
exceptional memory and enquiring mind
eventually made him a very _______ man. 12. This is a good ...... for a picnic.
A. dedicated B. erudite A. plot B. spot
C. pragmatic D. benevolent C. scene D. landscape
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
6. More insurers are limiting the sale of property 13. The ....... of private limited companies is in
insurance in coastal areas and other regions the hands of its directors.
_______ natural disasters. A. managers B. adminstrators
A. safe from B. according to C. management D. deparment
C. despite D. prone to E. society
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
7. Roman Regions _______the 14. Ram the prince of Ayodhya ....... his
Mountain_______of Masada for three years siblings.
before they were able to seize it. A. adorned B. adored
A. dissembled, bastion B. assailed, symbol C. vitiated D. endangered
C. besieged, citadel D. honed, stronghold E. abhored
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
21. Before the ........ of the Europeans in India, 29. The dog has been ....... by the car.
India was a free country. A. run out B. run over
A. entry B. amalgamation C. run into D. run for
C. emigration D. advent Answer: Option B
E. immigration
Answer: Option D 30. ..... you apologize I shall punish you.
A. until B. unless
22. Some of the luggage ......... not yet arrived. C. till D. None of these
A. has B. have Answer: Option B
C. is D. are
Answer: Option A
32. This is a ............... on his character. 40. He led me ......... the green laws to the
A. Blot B. Blur palatial building.
C. Slur D. Spot A. upon B. across
E. Mark C. along D. about
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
33. We didn't ....... the programme to be such a 41. The ship with all its crew ...... lost after the
huge success. terrible storm.
A. Accept B. Except A. were B. has
C. Expect D. Access C. have D. was
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
34. I suffer from no ....... about my capabilities. 42. We ........ start now to work for our
A. illusion B. doubts examination.
C. hallucinations D. imaginations A. had better B. better
Answer: Option A C. has better D. are better
Answer: Option B
35. The government, in a bid to make Bihar, a
preferred investment destination, has _________ 43. The lease of our premises has ......... and we
major schemes to create infrastructure at have to vacate it.
different stages. A. run out B. run off
A. launched B. opposed C. run over D. run down
C. opened D. pushed Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
44. His boss .......... an explanation of his
36. The student's aren't prepared _______ the conduct with his colleagues.
examination A. called up B. called upon
A. to give B. to listen C. called for D. called off
C. to work D. to take Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
45. The artist had to ______ a lot before
37. We should _______ opportunities as they _______ recognized for his talent.
arise. A. strugle, being B. toil, he
A. seize B. crease C. practise, performing D. effort, he was
C. size D. sneeze E. strive , the
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
38. There is no culture in the world ........... 46. Most of the committee members _____ in
absolutely pure. favour of the ______ of a new dam in that
A. That which is B. That which village.
C. That is D. That what is A. was, building B. are, proposing
Answer: Option C C. were, construction D. not, assembly
E. still, breaking
Answer: Option C
25. It was an extremely pleasant surprise for the 29. Mahesh need not have purchased the bag,
hutment-dweller when the Government officials means ......
told him that ...... A. it was not necessary for Mahesh to purchase
A. he had to vacate hutment which he had been the bag but he has purchased it
unauthorisedly occupying B. it was necessary for Mahesh to purchase the
B. he had been gifted with a furnished apartment bag and he has not purchased it
in a multi-storeyed building C. it was not necessary for Mahesh to purchase
C. he would be arrested for wrongfully the bag and he has not purchased it
encroaching on the pavement outside his D. it was necessary for Mahesh to purchase the
dwelling bag but he has not purchased it
D. they would not accede to his request E. Mahesh already has a bag but still he
E. they had received the orders from the court to purchased another one
take possession of all his belongings Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
30. In order to raise company's profit, the
26. In order to help the company attain its goal employees ......
of enhancing profit, all the employees ...... A. demanded two additional increments
A. urged the management to grant paid leave B. decided to go on paid holidays
B. appealed the management to implement new C. requested the management to implement new
welfare schemes welfare schemes
C. voluntarily offered to work overtime with D. offered to work overtime without any
lucrative compensation compensation
D. voluntarily offered to render additional E. decided to raise the cost of raw material
services in lieu of nothing Answer: Option D
E. decided to enhance production at the cost of
quality of the product
Answer: Option D
9. In sentences beginning with there is, there 15. Two singular subjects connected by either/or
are, the subject follows the verb. Since there is or neither/nor require a singular verb as in Rule
not the subject, the verb agrees with what 1. E.g.
follows. E.g. Neither John nor Abraham is available.
There are many questions. Either Bipasha or Neelam is helping today with
There is a question. stage decoration.
Rule : Nothing else should be followed by but, Rule : The conjunction so-as is used for
not by than. comparison in a negative sentence whereas-as is
Incorrect: Mr Bureaucrat! This is nothing else used in a positive or affirmative sentence.
than red-tapism. Incorrect: He is not as tall as his brother.
Correct: Mr Bureaucrat! This is nothing else Correct: He is not so tall as his brother.
but red-tapism.
Rule : The conjunction, “both” is followed by
Rule : The correlative conjunctions indeed... but “and” and not by “as well as” or “along with”.
are used to emphasis the contrast between the Incorrect: Both the boys as well as the girls
first and the second parts of the statement. were absent.
Incorrect: I am indeed happy with my school Correct: Both the boys and the girls were
but it produces famous men. absent.
Correct: I am indeed happy with my school that
it produces famous men. Rule : The conjunction “unless” denotes
condition whereas “until” denotes time.
Rule : In a "not only ... but also ... "sentence, the Incorrect: Until you work hard, you will not
verb should agree with the noun or pronoun succeed.
mentioned second, that is, the one after but also Correct: Unless you work hard, you will not
because this is the part being emphasised. succeed.
Incorrect: Not only the students but also the Note : “Unless” and “Until” are negative words.
teacher were responsible for what happened in There should be no use of “not” “nothing”,
the class. “never” with unless and until.
Correct: Not only the students but also the
teacher was responsible for what happened in Questions based on above concepts.
the class.
Directions : In each of the following questions,
Rule : Not only ... but also always comes before find out which part of the sentence has an error.
the same part of speech. The error may be grammatical or idiomatic. If
Incorrect: They not only gave me standing there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.
ovation but also a cash prize of `1000. 1. The managing director well as (a)/ the Board
Correct: They gave me not only standing members was in (b)/ favour of taking strict
ovation but also a cash prize of `1000. action (c)/ against the striking workers. (d)/ No
error (e)
Rule : Such...as is used to denote a category
whereas such...that emphasises the degree of 2. Unless he does not return (a)/ all the library
something by mentioning its consequence. books (b)/ he will not be relieved (c)/ from the
Incorrect: Each member of the alliance agrees service.(d)/ No error (e)
to take such action as it deems necessary. 3. You must either tell me (a)/ the whole story
Correct: Each member of the alliance agrees to or (b)/, at least, the (c)/ first half of it. (d)/ No
take such action that it deems necessary. error (e)
4. The old woman has had the (a)/ best medical
Rule : The conjunction “lest” is followed by facilities available (b)/ but she will not be cured
“should”.
Rule: Many takes plural noun while "Many a/an Elder, older, eldest, oldest: Elder and eldest are
used of members of the same family. Besides,
singular noun.
both of them are used only attributively (that is,
Incorrect: He has observed many an before the noun). Older and Oldest are used in
uncommon phenomena. the general sense.
Correct: He has observed many an uncommon Incorrect: I have an older brother.
phenomenon. Correct : I have an elder brother.. (Since
brother is a member of the same family)
Rule: The few is used before plural countable Incorrect : Mohan is the eldest boy in the town.
noun and the little before uncountable noun. In a town there may be so many families. We
Both follow a clause. are talking of boys in general sense. So eldest
Incorrect: I gave the beggar a little coins I had. should be replaced by oldest.
Correct: I gave the beggar the few coins I had. Correct : Mohan is the oldest boy in the town.
Distributive Numeral Adjective: It refers to
each one of a number. Distributive numeral Degree of Comparison
adjectives are the same as distributive pronouns Degrees are of three kinds.
(see Pronoun). They only differ in function. For 1. Positive Degree
example, 2. Comparative Degree
Each time he missed the bus. 3. Superlative Degree
Demonstrative Adjective: It points out which Rule: When a selection is made out of the two,
person or thing is meant. For example, and two is given in the sentence, the is used
This table is made of wood. before the adjective denoting comparison.
Incorrect: Shikha is better of the two sisters.
Rule: The plural forms these and those are often Correct: Shikha is the better of the two sisters.
wrongly used with the singular nouns kind and
sort. Rule: Preferable takes to and is not preceded by
Incorrect: These kind of clothes are not more.
acceptable. Incorrect: Coffee is more preferable than tea in
Correct: This kind of clothes are not Brazil.
acceptable. Correct: Coffee is preferable to tea in Brazil.
Relative Pronoun
These pronouns are used to connect a clause or
phrase to a noun or pronoun.
Read these sentences carefully and try to Incorrect: Sachin has completed three-fourth of
understand the correct uses. his homework till yet.
Correct: Sachin has completed THREE-
Incorrect: My father gave me some advices. FOURTHS of his homework till yet.
Correct: My father gave me some ADVICE.
Advice is mainly used with the first meaning, Common Error Detection Practice Set-2
and in this meaning it is a mass noun (that is, it
has no plural). Here, we have brought to you another set of
correct and incorrect uses of Grammar. Read it
Incorrect: Mahi has grey hairs. carefully and try to understand why one is
Correct: Mahi has grey HAIR. incorrect. So, you don't make such silly
The noun hair is a singular, plural, or collective mistakes during your exam.
noun.
Incorrect: The price of the mobile phone is
Incorrect: I asked the authority if they had any twenty thousands rupees.
informations about the arrival of the flight. Correct: The price of the mobile phone is
Correct: I asked the authority if they had any twenty THOUSAND rupees.
INFORMATION about the arrival of the flight.
Information is a non-countable noun (you can't Incorrect:Shruti cooked fishes for lunch.
have 4 informations), so it is neither singular Correct: Shruti cooked FISH for lunch.
nor plural. The correct usage is "information"
without the 's'. Incorrect: He owns twelve sheeps and five
deers.
Incorrect: People should be true to their word. Correct:He owns twelve SHEEP and five
Correct: People should be true to their DEER.
WORDS.
Incorrect: I went to the party with my family Incorrect : Rita prefers wearing light-coloured
members. cloth.
Correct: I went to the party with THE Correct : Rita prefers wearing light-coloured
MEMBERS OF MY FAMILY. CLOTHES.
Incorrect: He has six brother-in-laws. Incorrect : The Park Street is closed for repair.
Correct: He has six BROTHERS-IN-LAW. Correct : The Park Street is closed for
REPAIRS.
Incorrect: This is Amol’s my friend’s book.
Correct: This is AMOL my friemd’s book. Incorrect : He does not like these kinds of
movies.
Incorrect: I have many works to do today. Correct : He does not like MOVIES OF THIS
Correct: I have MUCH WORK to do today. KIND.
Incorrect: Politics are very popular these days. Incorrect : The Planning Commission are at
Correct: Politics IS very popular these days. work.
Correct : The Planning Commission IS at work.
6. Either Nemmu or Mennu / are in the wrong; / 11. Ramu is the elected leader / and also a
both can / certainly never be. person / who we all / can confide in.
A. Either Nemmu or Mennu A. Ramu is the elected leader
B. are in the wrong; B. and also a person
C. both can C. who we all
D. certainly never be D. can confide in
E. No Error E. No Error
Answer: Option B Answer: Option E
23. In my youth / I used to / visit / Sharma's and 29. Many a man / have / been working / under
Chawla's company. me.
A. In my youth A. Many a man B. have
B. I used to C. been working D. under me
C. visit E. No Error
D. Sharma's and Chawla's company Answer: Option B
E. No Error
Answer: Option D 30. The cricket / is a / game of change.
A. The cricket
24. As he stood / below the shower / the sharp B. is a
jets of / ice cold water revived his spirit. C. game of change
A. As he stood D. No Error
B. below the shower Answer: Option C
C. the sharp jets of
D. ice cold water revived his spirit 31. Mr Alexgander / has purchased / new
E. No Error furnitures from Metro-Mall.
Answer: Option D A. Mr Alexgander
B. has purchased
25. Many a person / have lost / their life / and all C. new furnitures from Metro-Mall
property in the riots. D. No Error
A. Many a person Answer: Option C
B. have lost
C. their life 32. Last year / many people / died from cholera
D. and all property in the riots epidemic.
E. No Error A. Last year
Answer: Option B B. many people
C. died from cholera epidemic
26. I have / two sister-in-laws / whose husbands D. No Error
/ are all well settled. Answer: Option D
A. I have B. two sister-in-laws
C. whose husbands D. are all well settled 33. Both the / girls helped / one another.
E. No Error A. Both the B. girls helped
Answer: Option B C. one another D. No Error
Answer: Option C
27. I told him / the story / in details / to make
him understand it fully. 34. Vijay is / very much / sorry about her
A. I told him misconduct.
B. the story A. Vijay is
C. in details B. very much
D. to make him understand it fully. C. sorry about her misconduct
E. No Error D. No Error
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
28. Cattles / were grazing / in the meadows / 35. She treated/ me as though / an old friend.
near our farm. A. She treated B. me as though
A. Cattles B. were grazing C. an old friend D. No error
C. in the meadows D. near our farm. Answer: Option B
E. No Error
Answer: Option A
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English
36. I'll go with you / as long as/ I won't have to 42. Our history can be seen / as a long
sing. evolutionary dialectical development / in which
A. I'll go with you there have been / a painstaking forgiving of
B. as long as rational and moral self.
C. I won't have to sing A. Our history can be seen
D. No error B. as a long evolutionary dialectical
Answer: Option C development
C. in which there have been
37. She'll pay you / as soon as she / receive the D. a painstaking forgiving of rational and moral
parcel. self
A. She'll pay you E. No error
B. as soon as she Answer: Option C
C. receive the parcel
D. No error 43. Our knowledge of history does not come to /
Answer: Option C Our help and some times we / even fail to
remember / who invented America.
38. I don't have a car / and I don't want / one as A. Our knowledge of history does not come to
well. B. Our help and some times we
A. I don't have a car C. even fail to remember
B. and I don't want D. who invented America
C. one as well E. No error
D. No error Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
44. The Committee has made / significant
39. Indian scientists are no way / inferior than / changes in / the rules which / will help to banks.
any other scientists in the world. A. The Committee has made
A. Indian scientists are no way B. significant change in
B. inferior than C. the rules which
C. any other scientists in the world D. will help to banks
D. No error E. No error
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
40. Belgium chocolate is considered / by many 45. This Project which is funded / by the united
to be finger / than any others in the world. nations / has helped over four / lakh Indians
A. Belgium chocolate is considered overcome poverty.
B. by many to be finger A. This Project which is funded
C. than any others in the world B. by the united nations
D. No error C. has helped over four
Answer: Option C D. lakh Indians overcome poverty
E. No error
41. My grandfather owns / fifty acre / of wet Answer: Option E
land.
A. My grandfather owns 46. The number of tourists / is expected to rise /
B. fifty acre from seven to ten percent / in the next ten years.
C. of wet land A. The number of tourists
D. No error B. is expected to rise
Answer: Option B C. from seven to ten percent
D. in the next ten years
E. No error
Answer: Option C
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English
47. I enquired / of him / whether he would /
accompany me to Dharmsala. 52. As sharing crime statistics for / the year
A. I enquired 2011, the Commissioner admitted that / there
B. of him had been an undue delay in / the setting up of an
C. whether he would anti-narcotics cell.
D. accompany me to Dharmsala A. As sharing crime statistics for
E. No error B. the year 2011, the Commissioner admitted
Answer: Option E that
C. there had been an undue delay in
48. Being that my car is getting / its annual D. the setting up of an anti-narcotics cell
check up. / I will not be / able to pick you up E. No error
tomorrow morning. Answer: Option E
A. Being that my car is getting
B. its annual check up. 53. The Moon may be the best place / to look
C. I will not be for aliens as their / footprints on their surface
D. able to pick you up tomorrow morning would / last far longer than radio signals.
E. No error A. The Moon may be the best place
Answer: Option A B. to look for aliens as their
C. footprints on their surface would
49. We can't hardly believe that the / situation is D. last far longer than radio signals
so serious as / to justify such precautions / as E. No error
you have taken. Answer: Option C
A. We can't hardly believe that the
B. situation is so serious as
C. to justify such precautions 54. The judge advised the Government to / have
D. as you have taken metered auto-rickshaw across the state while /
E. No error recounting his personal experience where an
Answer: Option A auto-rickshaw driver / made him to wait and
also demanded Rs. 100. A. The judge advised
50. The third season of / the popular television
show will ends / on a grand note with / the Government to
celebrities dancing and having fun. B. have metered auto-rickshaw across the state
A. The third season of while
B. the popular television show will ends C. recounting his personal experience where an
C. on a grand note with auto-r
D. celebrities dancing and having fun D. made him to wait and also demanded Rs. 100
E. No error E. No error
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
57. Rose growers in / the city are waking up / to 62. The Ministry has directed banks / to do
the benefits / of collective action. away with their / separate promotion policies, a
A. Rose growers in move / strongly opposed by the officers' unions.
B. the city are waking up A. The Ministry has directed banks
C. to the benefits B. to do away with their
D. of collective action C. separate promotion policies, a move
E. No error D. strongly opposed by the officers' unions
Answer: Option C E. No error
Answer: Option D
58. The Minister will have / a tough task on his
hand / where three different recommendations / 63. After a complaint was filed, / police teams
for this year's rate reach his desk. was given the photograph / of the accused from
A. The Minister will have the CCTV footage / recorded at the hotel.
B. a tough task on his hand A. After a complaint was filed,
C. where three different recommendations B. police teams was given the photograph
D. for this year's rate reach his desk C. of the accused from the CCTV footage
E. No error D. recorded at the hotel
Answer: Option B E. No error
Answer: Option B
59. The current economic scenario / could
possibly undo / the growth that followed / the 64. Activists opposing the rail project said / that
economic liberalization of 1991. A. The current the eleven new flyovers to be built / would
economic scenario practically ring / the death knell for the city.
B. could possibly undo / the growth that A. Activists opposing the rail project said
followed B. that the eleven new flyovers to be built
C. the growth that followed C. would practically ring
D. the economic liberalization of 1991 D. the death knell for the city
E. No error E. No error
Answer: Option E Answer: Option E
60. In a first of its kind study, / a team of 65. It is common / knowledge that each / of us /
scientist have tried to / 'grow' new stem cells in / loves our home.
the ear that get damage with age. A. It is common
A. In a first of its kind study, B. knowledge that each
B. a team of scientist have tried to C. of us
C. 'grow' new stem cells in D. loves our home
D. the ear that get damage with age E. No error
E. No error Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
12. Find out whether there is any grammatical 17. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Do the roses in your garden smell / more They have been / very close friends / until they
sweetly / than those in ours? quarrelled.
A. Do the roses in your garden smell A. They have been
B. more sweetly B. very close friends
C. than those in ours C. until they quarrelled
D. No error D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
21. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 26. Find out whether there is any grammatical
in below sentence. error in below sentence.
If a man diligently seeks to come into the contact / He couldn't but help / shedding tears at the
with the best that has been thought and said in this plight of the villagers / rendered homeless by a
world / he will become simple and unselfish. devastating cyclone.
A. If a man diligently seeks to come into the contact A. He couldn't but help
B. with the best that has been thought and said in B. shedding tears at the plight of the villagers
this world C. rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone
C. he will become simple and unselfish D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
27. Find out whether there is any grammatical
22. Find out whether there is any grammatical error error in below sentence.
in below sentence. He will certainly help you / if you will ask him /
You must / remember me / to post this letter. in a pleasant manner.
A. You must A. He will certainly help you
B. remember me B. if you will ask him
C. to post this letter C. in a pleasant manner
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
23. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. 28. Find out whether there is any grammatical
I shall certainly / write you / when I shall reach error in below sentence.
NewDelhi. The brand propositon now therefore had to be
A. I shall certainly that Keokarpin Antiseptic Cream is more
B. write you effective / because it penetrates deepdown
C. when I shall reach NewDelhi (beinglight and non-sticky) and works from
D. No error. within / (because of its ayurvedic ingredients) to
Answer: Option C keep skin blemish, free and helps cope with cuts
nicks, burns and nappy rash.
A. The brand propositon now therefore had to
24. Find out whether there is any grammatical error be that Keokarpin Antiseptic Cream is more
in below sentence. effective
On the busy Ring Road / we witnessed a collusion / B. because it penetrates deepdown (beinglight
between a truck and an auto. and non-sticky) and works from within
A. On the busy Ring Road C. (because of its ayurvedic ingredients) to keep
B. we witnessed a collusion skin blemish, free and helps cope with cuts
C. between a truck and an auto nicks, burns and nappy rash
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
33. Find out whether there is any grammatical 37. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
error in below sentence. in below sentence.
The long-awaited moment at last came, / and we The reason Ram / is absent from his duty / is
set out for the station / as merry a band of because he is unwell.
children as I have ever seen before or since. A. The reason Ram
A. The long-awaited moment at last came, B. is absent from his duty
B. and we set out for the station C. is because he is unwell
C. as merry a band of children as I have ever D. No error.
seen before or since
D. No error. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
41. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 46. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
He said that he / will mind if / I refused his offer. In spite of several reminders, / he did not so far send
A. He said that he / any reply to me, letters.
B. will mind if A. In spite of several reminders,
C. I refused his offer. B. he did not so far send
D. No error. C. any reply to me, letters.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
42. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 47. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
Arun's parents died when he was young and / he As much as I admire him for his sterling qualities / I
looked after his aunt / who had no children. cannot excuse him for / being unfair to his friends.
A. Arun's parents died when he was young and A. As much as I admire him for his sterling
B. he looked after his aunt qualities
C. who had no children B. I cannot excuse him for
D. No error. C. being unfair to his friends.
Answer: Option B D. No error.
Answer: Option A
49. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 54. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
All the furnitures have been / sent to the new house Many health-conscious people / prefer margarine /
/ located in a village. than butter.
A. All the furnitures have been A. Many health-conscious people
B. sent to the new house B. prefer margarine
C. located in a village C. than butter
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
50. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 55. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
It does not matter how you do it; / what I want is The retiring principal asked his old pupils / to take
that / you should finish the work within a month. the interest in the school / after he has retired.
A. It does not matter how you do it; A. The retiring principal asked his old pupils
B. what I want is that B. to take the interest in the school
C. you should finish the work within a month C. after he has retired
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
51. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 56. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
Though senior in age, / his father is junior than / my At present juncture / however, the supercomputer /
father in service. would be a costly toy.
A. Though senior in age, A. At present juncture
B. his father is junior than B. however, the supercomputer
C. my father in service C. would be a costly toy
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
52. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 57. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
While walking slowly in the park / on a quiet The crews were on board, / and they soon busied
summer afternoon / a mad dog suddenly attacked themselves / in preparing to meet the storm.
him from behind A. The crews were on board,
A. While walking slowly in the park B. and they soon busied themselves
B. on a quiet summer afternoon C. in preparing to meet the storm
C. a mad dog suddenly attacked him from behind D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
59. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 64. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
I am much pleased / to know that / you have topped In a report issued by Indian Statistical Institute, / the
the list. Iron and Steel Industry is investing more than any
A. I am much pleased other / Indian industry in fighting pollution.
B. to know that A. In a report issued by Indian Statistical Institute,
C. you have topped the list B. the Iron and Steel Industry is investing more than
D. No error. any other
Answer: Option A C. Indian industry in fighting pollution
D. No error.
60. Find out whether there is any grammatical error Answer: Option C
in below sentence.
He has not been attending / English classes / since 65. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
one month in below sentence.
A. He has not been attending He is going everyday / for a morning walk / with
B. English classes his friends and neighbours
C. since one month A. He is going everyday
D. No error. B. for a morning walk
Answer: Option C C. with his friends and neighbours
D. No error.
61. Find out whether there is any grammatical error Answer: Option A
in below sentence.
It is time / we should accept all our people as equals 66. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
/ and as partners in the task of building a strong and in below sentence.
united nation. My father goes / to the office / five day week.
A. It is time A. My father goes
B. we should accept all our people as equals B. to the office
C. and as partners in the task of building a strong C. five day week
and united nation D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
67. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
62. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in below sentence.
in below sentence. If she will be promoted / she will get / a higher
Twice twelve / makes / twenty-four salary.
A. Twice twelve A. If she will be promoted
B. makes B. she will get
C. twenty-four C. A higher salary
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
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English
68. Find out whether there is any grammatical error Spotting Errors
in below sentence.
If I were him, / I would have taught / those cheats a Section 2
lesson.
A. If I were him, 1. Find out whether there is any grammatical
B. I would have taught error in below sentence.
C. those cheats a lesson He managed to make sense of the book / even
D. No error. though it was the first time / he read anything on
Answer: Option A the subject.
A. He managed to make sense of the book
69. Find out whether there is any grammatical error B. even though it was the first time
in below sentence. C. he read anything on the subject
Looking back, I find that among the many D. No error.
impressions ofthe people of India, / absorbed while Answer: Option C
I lived among them, / are their reverence for great
men and women. 2. Find out whether there is any grammatical
A. Looking back, I find that among the many error in below sentence.
impressions ofthe people of India, She reluctantly said that / if nobody else was
B. absorbed while I lived among them, doing it / she will do it.
C. are their reverence for great men and women A. She reluctantly said that
D. No error. B. if nobody else was doing it
Answer: Option A C. she will do it
D. No error.
70. Find out whether there is any grammatical error Answer: Option C
in below sentence.
If you work hard, / you will get good grades / in 3. Find out whether there is any grammatical
examinations error in below sentence.
A. If you work hard, I fail to understand / why he replied in negative /
B. you will get good grades when the proposal was in his favour.
C. in examinations. A. I fail to understand
D. No error B. why he replied in negative
Answer: Option C C. when the proposal was in his favour
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
64. Find out whether there is any grammatical 69. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
She is / five years / senior than me. An animal / can be just as unhappy in a vast area
A. She is B. five years / or in a small one
C. senior than me. D. No error. A. An animal
Answer: Option C B. can be just as unhappy in a vast area
C. or in a small one
65. Find out whether there is any grammatical D. No error.
error in below sentence. Answer: Option C
The President had hardly spoken / a few words /
when the microphone stopped functioning. 70. Find out whether there is any grammatical
A. The President had hardly spoken error in below sentence.
B. a few words He is working in / a bank in New Delhi / for the
C. when the microphone stopped functioning. past several months.
D. No error. A. He is working in
Answer: Option D B. a bank in New Delhi
C. for the past several months.
D. No error.
66. Find out whether there is any grammatical Answer: Option A
error in below sentence.
Locke's treatises on government toleration and
education / show a mind fully awake in / the
possibilities of social reconstruction.
A. Locke's treatises on government toleration
and education
B. show a mind fully awake in
C. the possibilities of social reconstruction.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
2. Find out whether there is any grammatical 7. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Each one of the boys / have paid / the tuition- The person which was / recommended for the
fee. position / did not fulfil the prescribed
A. Each one of the boys qualifications.
B. have paid A. The person which was
C. the tuition-fee. B. recommended for the position
D. No error. C. did not fulfil the prescribed qualifications.
Answer: Option B D. No error.
Answer: Option A
3. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. 8. Find out whether there is any grammatical
A large scale exchange of nuclear weapons / error in below sentence.
will produce unprecedented amounts of What does Professor Dhavan / spend so many
radiation / that can penetrate into the biological hours / in the laboratory?
tissue. A. What does Professor Dhavan
A. A large scale exchange of nuclear weapons B. spend so many hours
B. will produce unprecedented amounts of C. in the laboratory?
radiation D. No error.
C. that can penetrate into the biological tissue. Answer: Option A
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
9. Find out whether there is any grammatical
4. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in below sentence.
error in below sentence. The presumption that the average investor does
Had I / known it earlier / I would contact you. not understand / or take interest in the affairs of
A. Had I the company / is not correct.
B. known it earlier A. The presumption that the average investor
C. I would contact you. does not understand
D. No error. B. or take interest in the affairs of the company
Answer: Option C C. is not correct.
D. No error.
Answer: Option D
12. Find out whether there is any grammatical 17. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
At the moment the house / was burgled the There was very heavy rain last night, / and the
rivers have overflown their banks / causing
family / attended a night party in the severe hardship to the people living by them.
neighbourhood. A. There was very heavy rain last night,
A. At the moment the house B. and the rivers have overflown their banks
B. was burgled the family C. causing severe hardship to the people living
C. attended a night party in the neighbourhood. by them.
D. No error. D. No error.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
13. Find out whether there is any grammatical 18. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Scarcely had / I arrived than / the train left. Every motorist knows / road signs---whether
A. Scarcely had B. I arrived than symbols or colour codes--- have an immediacy /
C. the train left. D. No error. that neither the spoken nor the written word can
Answer: Option B match.
A. Every motorist knows
B. road signs---whether symbols or colour
14. Find out whether there is any grammatical codes--- have an immediacy
error in below sentence. C. that neither the spoken nor the written word
Though he stoutly persisted in denying his can match.
involvement in the case, / the facts made it very D. No error.
clear / that he had hand in the cruel murder of Answer: Option D
his wife.
A. Though he stoutly persisted in denying his 19. Find out whether there is any grammatical
involvement in the case, error in below sentence.
B. the facts made it very clear Supposing if / there is no bus. / how will you get
C. that he had hand in the cruel murder of his there?
wife. A. Supposing if
D. No error. B. there is no bus.
Answer: Option C C. how will you get there?
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
52. Find out whether there is any grammatical 57. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
A free press is not a privilege / but the organic I was there / many a time / in the past.
necessity / in a free society. A. I was there
A. A free press is not a privilege B. many a time
B. but the organic necessity C. in the past.
C. in a free society. D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
58. Find out whether there is any grammatical
53. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in below sentence.
error in below sentence. All the four sons / of the old man / quarrelled
He explained the matter / at great length / but I between themselves.
was not the wiser A. All the four sons
A. He explained the matter B. of the old man
B. at great length C. quarrelled between themselves.
C. but I was not the wiser D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
59. Find out whether there is any grammatical
54. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in below sentence.
error in below sentence. He wanted to work all night / but we saw that he
He will end up his work / in the city / by the end was completely worn out
of the year. A. He wanted to work all night
A. He will end up his work B. but we saw that he was completely worn out
B. in the city C. and so we persuaded him to stop.
C. by the end of the year. D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
60. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence.
55. Find out whether there is any grammatical Mr.Smith was accused for murder / but the court
error in below sentence. found him not guilty / and acquitted him.
Even though the shirt is rather expensive / but I A. Mr.Smith was accused for murder
wish to / purchase it with my own money. B. but the court found him not guilty
A. Even though the shirt is rather expensive C. and acquitted him.
B. but I wish to D. No error.
C. purchase it with my own money. Answer: Option A
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
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English
61. Find out whether there is any grammatical 66. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
She sang / very well / isn't it? It is easy to see that / a lawyer's demeanour in
A. She sang B. very well court / may be prejudicial against the interests of
C. isn't it? D. No error. his client.
Answer: Option C A. It is easy to see that
B. a lawyer's demeanour in court
62. Find out whether there is any grammatical C. may be prejudicial against the interests of his
error in below sentence. I am sure that all my client.
monthly expenses / would exceed the income / D. No error.
If I do not economic Answer: Option D
A. I am sure that all my monthly expenses
B. would exceed the income 67. Find out whether there is any grammatical
C. If I do not economic error in below sentence.
D. No error. He is wiring / for the / last four hours
Answer: Option C A. He is wiring B. for the
C. last four hours D. No error.
63. Find out whether there is any grammatical Answer: Option A
error in below sentence.
Whenever you go to a temple / you must put off 68. Find out whether there is any grammatical
/ your shoes at the entrance. error in below sentence.
A. Whenever you go to a temple She walked in / the room where the murder /
B. you must put off had taken place.
C. your shoes at the entrance. A. She walked in
D. No error. B. the room where the murder
Answer: Option B C. had taken place.
D. No error.
64. Find out whether there is any grammatical Answer: Option A
error in below sentence.
Having read a number of stories / about space 69. Find out whether there is any grammatical
travel / his dream now is about to visit the moon error in below sentence.
A. Having read a number of stories Were he / to see you, / he would have been
B. about space travel surprised.
C. his dream now is about to visit the moon A. Were he
D. No error. B. to see you,
Answer: Option C C. he would have been surprised.
D. No error.
65. Find out whether there is any grammatical Answer: Option A
error in below sentence.
The party chief made it a point to state that / the 70. Find out whether there is any grammatical
Prime Minister and the Union Home Minister error in below sentence.
should also come. / and they see what his party I could not convince them / because they
men had seen. persisted to suggest / that I was lying.
A. The party chief made it a point to state that A. I could not convince them
B. the Prime Minister and the Union Home B. because they persisted to suggest
Minister should also come. C. that I was lying.
C. and they see what his party men had seen. D. No error.
D. No error. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
3. Find out whether there is any grammatical 8. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
The customer handed over / a hundred-rupees He was sure / that he should / win the Prize.
note / to the shopkeeper. A. He was sure B. that he should
A. The customer handed over C. win the Prize. D. No error.
B. a hundred-rupees note Answer: Option B
C. to the shopkeeper.
D. No error. 9. Find out whether there is any grammatical
Answer: Option B error in below sentence.
He is / too intelligent / to make a mistake.
4. Find out whether there is any grammatical A. He is
error in below sentence. B. too intelligent
Myself and Gopal / will take care of / the C. to make a mistake.
function on sunday. D. No error.
A. Myself and Gopal Answer: Option D
B. will take care of
C. the function on sunday. 10. Find out whether there is any grammatical
D. No error. error in below sentence.
Answer: Option A He fell from a running train / and would have
died / if the villagers did not get him admitted in
5. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. the nearby hospital immediately.
It is the newspaper / that exposes us to the A. He fell from a running train
widest range / of human experiences and B. and would have died
behaviour. C. if the villagers did not get him admitted in the
A. It is the newspaper nearby hospital immediately.
B. that exposes us to the widest range D. No error.
C. of human experiences and behaviour. Answer: Option C
D. No error.
Answer: Option D
13. Find out whether there is any grammatical 18. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Nitin's nephew, who lives / in Bangalore, is While luminaries of the dance world / have a
eager to travel to / Delhi to have / a glimpse of dearth of opportunities to display their art /
the capital. upcoming dancers suffer from / an unfortunate
A. Nitin's nephew, who lives lack of exposure.
B. in Bangalore, is eager to travel to A. While luminaries of the dance world
C. Delhi to have B. have a dearth of opportunities to display their
D. a glimpse of the capital. art
E. No error. C. upcoming dancers suffer from
Answer: Option E D. an unfortunate lack of exposure.
E. No error.
14. Find out whether there is any grammatical Answer: Option B
error in below sentence.
Bible / can be / regarded as / a great.
19. Find out whether there is any grammatical
A. Bible B. can be
C. regarded as D. a great. error in below sentence.
E. No error. I shall be able / to complete the work in /
Answer: Option A stipulated time provide / ou do not disturb me.
A. I shall be able
15. Find out whether there is any grammatical B. to complete the work in
error in below sentence. C. stipulated time provide
The institute / imparts training / in / the French. D. ou do not disturb me.
A. The institute B. imparts training Answer: Option C
C. in D. the French.
E. No error.
Answer: Option D
Courtesy: www.examveda.com Page 471
English
20. Find out whether there is any grammatical 24. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Our neighbours had repeated / the same illogical He has been undergoing / the special training
course / which each of the employees / is
sequence of activities / if we had not brought the required to.
/ facts to their notice. A. He has been undergoing
A. Our neighbours had repeated B. the special training course
B. the same illogical sequence of activities C. which each of the employees
C. if we had not brought the D. is required to.
D. facts to their notice. E. No error.
E. No error. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
25. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence.
21. Find out whether there is any grammatical A lot of money / is wasted in / the duplication of
error in below sentence. work / in any organisation.
We are happy / A. A lot of money
A. We are happy B. is wasted in
B. to know that C. the duplication of work
C. the project completed D. in any organisation.
E. No error.
D. strictly as per the schedule. Answer: Option B
E. No error.
Answer: Option C 26. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence.
22. Find out whether there is any grammatical We decided not tell to / the patient about / the
error in below sentence. disease he was / suffering from.
He was too / irritated to / concentrate on his A. We decided not tell to B. the patient about
C. the disease he was D. suffering from.
work / for a long time. E. No error.
A. He was too B. irritated to Answer: Option A
C. concentrate on his work D. for a long time.
E. No error. 27. Find out whether there is any grammatical
Answer: Option E error in below sentence.
When I / last see him / he was / in Calcutta.
23. Find out whether there is any grammatical A. When I
B. last see him
error in below sentence.
C. he was
The environment in which / companies D. in Calcutta.
operating / today is / undergoing Frenetic E. No error.
changes. Answer: Option B
A. The environment in which
B. companies operating 28. Find out whether there is any grammatical
C. today is error in below sentence.
D. undergoing Frenetic changes. The interviewer asked the actress / how could
she / manage to attain fame / in a short period.
E. No error. A. The interviewer asked the actress
Answer: Option B B. how could she
C. manage to attain fame
D. in a short period.
E. No error.
Answer: Option B
39. Find out whether there is any grammatical 43. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Our school is making / every possible effort / to You may not always / get whatever you deserve
provide best facilities / and personal attention / but that does not belittle / the importance for
for each child. your work.
A. Our school is making A. You may not always
B. every possible effort B. get whatever you deserve
C. to provide best facilities C. but that does not belittle
D. and personal attention for each child. D. the importance for your work.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
40. Find out whether there is any grammatical 44. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
In my opinion / the balance sheet exhibits / a When I stood up spontaneously / and questioned
true and fair / view of the state of affairs of the the speaker; / someone commented that / it was
bank. a boldly step.
A. In my opinion A. When I stood up spontaneously
B. the balance sheet exhibits B. and questioned the speaker;
C. a true and fair C. someone commented that
D. view of the state of affairs of the bank. D. it was a boldly step.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option E Answer: Option D
41. Find out whether there is any grammatical 45. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
At last the rain ceased / and the sky was / The Head of the Department along with his
cleared by clouds / and lightning. colleagues / are coming to attend / the
A. At last the rain ceased conference which is / the conference which is
B. and the sky was A. The Head of the Department along with his
C. cleared by clouds colleagues
D. and lightning. B. are coming to attend
E. No error. C. the conference which is
Answer: Option C D. the conference which is
E. No error.
Answer: Option B
47. Find out whether there is any grammatical 51. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
From over last five years / I have been trying / The mission provides / able service to all / the
my best to convince him / but without success. needy people in this area / during last few years.
A. From over last five years A. The mission provides
B. I have been trying B. able service to all
C. my best to convince him C. the needy people in this area
D. but without success. D. during last few years.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
48. Find out whether there is any grammatical 52. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
The patient recover / so fast that / the expert The success of our efforts / depend upon the /
doctors / also were surprised. number of people who / actually use the new
A. The patient recover methods.
B. so fast that A. The success of our efforts
C. the expert doctors B. depend upon the
D. also were surprised. C. number of people who
E. No error. D. actually use the new methods.
Answer: Option A E. No error.
Answer: Option B
49. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. 53. Find out whether there is any grammatical
Naren could not / decide as to which / course he error in below sentence.
should do / after obtaining his Degree. I will put on / a note in this regard / for your
A. Naren could not consideration / and necessary decision.
B. decide as to which A. I will put on
C. course he should do B. a note in this regard
D. after obtaining his Degree. C. for your consideration
E. No error. D. and necessary decision.
Answer: Option E E. No error.
Answer: Option A
12. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 17. Find out whether there is any grammatical
in below sentence. error in below sentence.
I would have lost / my luggage and other We have to take / him to the hospital yesterday /
belongings / if I would have left the compartment / because he was / suffering from fever.
A. I would have lost A. We have to take
B. my luggage and other belongings B. him to the hospital yesterday
C. if I would have left the compartment C. because he was
D. and gone out to fetch drinking water. D. suffering from fever.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
13. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 18. Find out whether there is any grammatical
in below sentence. error in below sentence.
The last year proved / quite bad / as major industries He / has seen / the picture / yesterday.
/ witness lot of problems. A. He B. has seen
A. The last year proved B. quite bad C. the picture D. yesterday.
C. as major industries D. witness lot of problems. E. No error.
E. No error. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
19. Find out whether there is any grammatical
14. Find out whether there is any grammatical error error in below sentence.
in below sentence. But for your / kind help, this / task could not /
In spite of toiling / very hardly he / realised that he have been completed.
had / not earned anything substantial. A. But for your
A. In spite of toiling B. kind help, this
B. very hardly he C. task could not
C. realised that he had D. have been completed.
D. not earned anything substantial. E. No error.
E. No error. Answer: Option E
Answer: Option B
20. Find out whether there is any grammatical
15. Find out whether there is any grammatical error error in below sentence.
in below sentence. Not one of the children / has ever sang / on any
Of all the men / known to me none is / less inclined occasion / in public before.
than he is / to think ill to others. A. Not one of the children B. has ever sang
A. Of all the men B. known to me none is C. on any occasion D. in public before.
C. less inclined than he is D. to think ill to others. E. No error.
E. No error. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Courtesy: www.examveda.com Page 479
English
21. Find out whether there is any grammatical 25. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Somewhere along the / line I lost / track of what His father told me / that though his son had /
Ashish / says about heart ailments worked very hard, / but he had failed to make
A. Somewhere along the any mark in the examination.
B. line I lost A. His father told me
C. track of what Ashish B. that though his son had
D. says about heart ailments C. worked very hard,
E. No error. D. but he had failed to make any mark in the
Answer: Option D examination.
E. No error.
22. Find out whether there is any grammatical Answer: Option D
error in below sentence.
An anti-extortion cell is opened / by the district 26. Find out whether there is any grammatical
police headquarter / six months ago / as a error in below sentence.
precautionary measure. The teacher promised / that he will explain it / if
A. An anti-extortion cell is opened they come / before school the following day.
A. The teacher promised
B. by the district police headquarter
B. that he will explain it
C. six months ago C. if they come
D. as a precautionary measure. D. before school the following day.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
23. Find out whether there is any grammatical 27. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Hindi and Marathi are / different forms of the After toiling very hard / over a long period / he
Sanskrit / which were once spoken / in almost found / he had hardly made no profit at all.
every part of India. A. After toiling very hard
A. Hindi and Marathi are B. over a long period
C. he found
B. different forms of the Sanskrit
D. he had hardly made no profit at all.
C. which were once spoken E. No error.
D. in almost every part of India. Answer: Option D
E. No error.
Answer: Option C 28. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence.
24. Find out whether there is any grammatical Scarcely had / he gone a few steps / that he was
error in below sentence. told / that his mother was no more.
Everyone is / impress by / his zeal / and A. Scarcely had
enthusiasm. B. he gone a few steps
A. Everyone is C. that he was told
B. impress by D. that his mother was no more.
E. No error.
C. his zeal Answer: Option C
D. and enthusiasm.
E. No error.
Answer: Option B
15. Find out whether there is any grammatical 19. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
We must go / and congratulate him for / his This book is / designed to increase / a working
brilliant / performance. knowledge of / spoken and written English.
A. We must go A. This book is
B. and congratulate him for B. designed to increase
C. his brilliant C. a working knowledge of
D. performance. D. spoken and written English.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
16. Find out whether there is any grammatical 20. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Are you awarefor along time that / by making This book is / designed to increase / a working
me waiting / for a long time / my schedule is knowledge of / spoken and written English.
getting upset? A. This book is
A. Are you awarefor along time that B. designed to increase
B. by making me waiting C. a working knowledge of
C. for a long time D. spoken and written English.
D. my schedule is getting upset? E. No error.
E. No error. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
21. Find out whether there is any grammatical
17. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in below sentence.
error in below sentence. Even if the doctor / put in his best efforts, he /
Not only the judges acquited / him of all the could not succeed in / saving the patient.
charges / levelled against him, but / also A. Even if the doctor
commended all his actions. B. put in his best efforts, he
A. Not only the judges acquited C. could not succeed in
B. him of all the charges D. saving the patient.
C. levelled against him, but E. No error.
D. also commended all his actions. Answer: Option A
E. No error.
Answer: Option A
7. Find out whether there is any grammatical 11. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
They have been / struggling with the The new facts he / has discovered and the new /
management / from the past five years / but their arguments he has advanced / has not changed
demands are not considered. my opinion.
A. They have been A. The new facts he
B. struggling with the management B. has discovered and the new
C. from the past five years C. arguments he has advanced
D. but their demands are not considered. D. has not changed my opinion.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
8. Find out whether there is any grammatical 12. Find out whether there is any grammatical
error in below sentence. error in below sentence.
Your machine would not have / given you so Immediately after boarding the bus, / Mahesh
much trouble / if you had / maintained it proper. asked the conductor. / that if he knew / where
A. Your machine would not have the museum was,
B. given you so much trouble A. Immediately after boarding the bus,
C. if you had B. Mahesh asked the conductor.
D. maintained it proper. C. that if he knew
E. No error. D. where the museum was,
Answer: Option D E. No error.
Answer: Option C
51. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 55. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
In order to save petrol, / motorists must have to / be This is one of / the most interesting book / I have /
very cautious / while driving along the highways. ever read.
A. In order to save petrol, A. This is one of
B. motorists must have to B. the most interesting book
C. be very cautious C. I have
D. while driving along the highways. D. ever read.
E. No error. E. No error
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
52. Find out whether there is any grammatical error 56. Find out whether there is any grammatical error
in below sentence. in below sentence.
Even after requesting / him, he did not / tell us that Neither the earthquake / nor the subsequent fire /
how / he wolved the problem was able to dampen / the spirit of the residents.
A. Even after requesting A. Neither the earthquake
B. him, he did not B. nor the subsequent fire
C. tell us that how C. was able to dampen
D. he wolved the problem D. the spirit of the residents.
E. No error. E. No error.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
14. The police has so far succeeded in 19. Maria unnecessarily picked up a quarrel
recovering only a part of the stolen property. with Rani and left the party hurried.
A. thus far succeeded for recovery A. has picked up
B. so far succeeded in recovery of B. picked on
C. as for as succeeded in recovery of C. picked
D. so far succeeded to recover D. picking up
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option E Answer: Option C
15. He confidentially asked the crowd if they 20. She cooks, washes dishes, does her
thought he was right and the crowd shouted that homework and then relaxing.
they did. A. relaxing then
A. that he did B. then is relaxing
B. that they had C. relaxing is then
C. that he is D. then relaxes
D. that he didn't E. No correction required
E. No correction required Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E
16. Why should the candidates be afraid of 21. Acquisition of certain specific skills can be
English Language is not clear. facilitated from general awareness, education to
A. the candidates should be novel situations
B. do the candidates be A. can be facilitated by
C. should be the candidates B. may facilitate through
D. are the candidates C. can be felicitated with
E. No correction required D. may be felicitated with
Answer: Option A E. No correction required
Answer: Option A
26. We can not always convey ourselves in 32. We don't know how did the thief made an
simple sentences. escape.
A. cannot always convey A. how the thief did make
B. can not always express B. how the thief does make
C. cannot always express C. how the thief made
D. can not always communicate D. how was the thief made
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
27. What does agonise me most is not this 33. He is a singer of repute, but his yesterday's
criticism, but the trivial reason behind it. performance was quite disappointing.
A. most agonising me A. performances of yesterday were
B. agonises me most B. yesterday performance was
C. agonising me most C. yesterday performance were
D. I most agonised D. performances about yesterday were
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option B Answer: Option E
36. One of the most significant phenomenons of 42. The orator had been left the auditorium
our time has been the development of cinema. before the audience stood up.
A. phenomenon B. phenomena A. had been leaving B. was left
C. phenomenonna D. phenomenonns C. had left D. would leave
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
37. Had you been told me about your problem, I 43. He dislikes the word dislike, isn't he
would have helped you. A. didn't he B. doesn't he
A. If you would have told C. hasn't he D. does he
B. Had you have told E. No correction required
C. had you told Answer: Option B
D. If you have told
E. No correction required 44. We must take it granted that Madhu will not
Answer: Option C come for today's function.
A. take it for granted B. taking it granted
38. It was until many years later that Gandhi C. took it as granted D. have it granted
became a rebel against authority. E. No correction required
A. It was not until many years Answer: Option A
B. It was till many years
C. It was not many years 45. The research study is an eye-opener and
D. Until It was many years attempts to acquaint us with the problems of
E. No correction required poor nations.
Answer: Option A A. attempted to acquaint
B. attempts at acquainting
39. Anand has the guts to rise from the occasion C. attempt to acquaint
and come out successfully. D. attempting to acquaint
A. in rising from B. to raise with E. No correction required
C. to rise to D. to rise against Answer: Option B
E. No correction required
Answer: Option C
Courtesy: www.examveda.com Page 503
English
46. It was unanimously resolved that the parties 52. The courts are actively to safeguard the interests
should unitedly undertook launching of popular and the rights of the poor.
programmes. A. are actively to safeguarding
A. should be united undertook B. have been actively safeguarding
B. should be unitedly undertaken C. have to active in safeguarding
C. should be unitedly undertake D. are actively in safeguarding
D. should unitedly undertake E. No correction required
E. No correction required Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
53. The drama had many scenes which were so
47. They continued to work in the field despite humorous that it was hardly possible to keep a
of the heavy rains. straight face.
A. even though there is heavy rain A. hardly possible for keeping
B. although heavily rains B. hardly impossible for keeping
C. hardly impossible for keep
C. in spite the heavy rains D. hardly possible keeping
D. even though it rained heavily E. No correction required
E. No correction required Answer: Option E
Answer: Option D
54. Hardly does the sun rise when the stars
48. It is always better to make people realise the disappeared.
importance of discipline than to impose them on A. have the sun rose B. had the sun risen
it. C. did the sun rose D. the sun rose
A. impose it with them E. No correction required
B. impose them with it Answer: Option B
C. imposing them on it
D. impose it on them 55. You will be late if you do not leave now
E. No correction required A. did not leave
Answer: Option D B. left
C. will not leave D. do not happen to leave
49. My doctor knew that I would eventually E. No correction required
recover and do kind of work I would be doing Answer: Option E
before 56. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been
A. would have been doing ready by 7.30pm so that, we can reach the station in
B. would have done time.
C. had been done A. were B. must be
D. had been doing C. are D. should have
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
50. Later he became unpopular because he tried 57. All the allegations levelled against him were
to lord it on his followers. found to be baseless.
A. to lord it for B. to lord over A. level against B. level with
C. to lord it over D. to lord it over on C. levelling with D. levelled for
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E
51. The crops are dying; it must not had rained. 58. Ramesh is as tall if not, taller than Mahesh.
A. must had not B. must not be A. not as tall but B. not so tall but as
C. must not have D. must not have been C. as tall as, if not D. as if not
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
60. The prosecution failed in establish in every case 66. They felt humiliated because they realised that
today. they had cheated.
A. to B. on A. have been cheated
C. as D. upon B. had been cheated
E. No correction required C. had been cheating
Answer: Option A D. were to be cheated
E. No correction required
61. One of my drawbacks is that I do not have Answer: Option B
totolerance of ambiguity.
A. do not have 67. Tax evaders should heavily punished as they do
B. cannot have it intentionally.
C. am not A. should be heavy fined
D. did not have to B. should have heavily fined
E. No correction required C. shall have heavy fine
Answer: Option A D. should be heavily fined
E. No correction required
62. They should have calmly thought of the Answer: Option D
advantages that would accrue to them.
A. should have been calm in thinking about 68. We met him immediately after the session in
B. should be calmly thought of which he had been given a nice speech.
C. shall have to calmly thought of A. would be giving
D. should have calmly think of B. has been given
E. No correction required C. will have given
Answer: Option E D. had given
E. No correction required
63. The easiest of the thing to do is to ask the Answer: Option D
address to the postman.
A. of the things to do 69. For some days the new professor lectured above
B. among the things did the heads of his pupils.
C. of the thing to be done A. over the head of B. over the heads of
D. of all the things done C. on the heads of D. through the heds of
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
64. We demonstrated to them how we were 70. The accused now flatly denies have admitted his
prepared the artistic patterns. guilt in his first statement.
A. are prepared A. having admitted B. had admitted
B. have prepared C. have been admitting D. has admitting
C. are preparing E. No correction required
D. had prepared Answer: Option A
E. No correction required
Answer: Option D
3. The crime has growth rapidly in Russia since 8. The tea-estate administration is in such mess
the disintegration of the communist system. thereis no leader to set the things right.
A. rapid crime has grown A. in such a mess here
B. crime has grown rapidly B. in a such mess that here
C. crimes grow rapidly C. in such a mess that there
D. crimes have been rapidly grown D. with such a mess that there
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
4. They failed in their attempt to repair the 9. They examined both the samples very
demolished portion of that building. carefully but failed to detect any difference in
A. for their attempt to repair them.
B. in their attempting to repair A. some difference in
C. with their attempt to repair B. some difference between
D. in their attempt for repairs C. any difference between
E. No correction required D. any difference between
Answer: Option E E. any difference between
Answer: Option C
5. I earnestly believe that you will visit our
relatives during your forthcoming trip to 10. "Friends and comrades, the light has gone
Mumbai. away from our lives and there is darkness
A. had hardly believe that everywhere"
B. sincerely would believe A. off B. out of
C. certainly believing that C. out from D. out off
D. could not believe E. No correction required
E. No correction required Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
12. They have a scheme of rewarding the best of 18. The moment the manager came to know
the performers every year. fraudulent action of his assistant, he order
A. a best performer immediately dismissed him.
B. the best among the performer A. immediately ordered his dismissed
C. a best among performer B. ordered his immediate dismissal
D. the best of the performer C. immediately order dismissal of his
E. No correction required D. ordered for immediately dismissal of him
Answer: Option E E. No correction required
Answer: Option B
13. What happens to all those travellers on the
ship was not known? 19. The meeting was attended to by all invitees.
A. What happened of A. all attended to by
B. What happened in B. attended by all
C. What is that happens to C. fully attended to by
D. What happened to D. like attending to all
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
14. Making friends is more rewarding than to 20. If he has to spend five hours in the queue, it
make enemies. was really a wastage.
A. to be unsociable A. is a really wastage
B. to be sociable B. is real a wastage
C. being unsociable C. has really a wastage
D. making enemies D. is really a wastage
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
15. The moment they saw me, they were delight 21. The world has seen small real attempt at
A. had delighted B. were delighted population and resource planning.
C. are delighted D. have been delighted A. few B. little
E. No correction required C. less D. a few
Answer: Option B E. No correction required
Answer: Option B
16. He should not had done it.
A. had not 22. My hair stood off ends when I saw the
B. should had not horrible sight.
C. should not have A. stood at ends B. stood on ends
D. should have C. stood to ends D. stands on ends
E. No correction required E. No correction required
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
8. John had told me that he hasn't done it yet. 16. hoping not to be disturbed, I sat down in my
A. told B. tells easy chair to read the book. I won as a prize.
C. was telling D. No improvement A. I had won as a prize
Answer: Option B B. I have won as prize
C. I had to win as a prize
9. If he had time he will call you. D. No improvement
A. would have B. would have had Answer: Option A
C. has D. No improvement
Answer: Option C 17. More than one person was killed in accident.
A. were killed B. are killed
10. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of C. have been killed D. No improvement
need? Answer: Option A
A. lend me any rupees
B. borrow me a few rupees 18. No one could explain how a calm and
C. lend me a few rupees balanced person like him could penetrate such a
mindless act on his friends.
D. No improvement
A. perpetuate B. perpetrate
Answer: Option C C. precipitate D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
11. During his long discourse, he did not touch
that point. 19. Five years ago today, I am sitting in a small
A. touch upon B. touch on Japanese car, driving across Poland towards
C. touch of D. No improvement Berlin.
Answer: Option B A. was sitting B. sat
C. have been sitting D. No improvement
12. He found a wooden broken chair in the Answer: Option A
room.
A. wooden and broken chair 20. I took the cycle which he bought yesterday.
B. broken wooden chair A. that he bought yesterday
C. broken and wooden chair B. that which he had bought yesterday
D. No improvement C. that he had bought yesterday
Answer: Option B D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
13. He could not look anything in the dark
room. 21. Please make it a point to send you letter at
A. away B. up my address.
C. down D. No improvement A. on my address B. to my address
Answer: Option C C. in my address D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
14. The greatest thing in style is to have a use of
metaphor. 22. If you are living near a market place you
A. away B. up should be ready to bear the disturbances caused
C. down D. No improvement by traffic.
Answer: Option C A. to bear upon B. to bear with
C. to bear away D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
28. It became clear that the strangers were 36. Whenever my students come across new
heading into a serious disaster. words, I ask them to look for them in the
dictionary.
A. along B. towards
A. to look it up B. to look them up
C. for D. No improvement C. to look at them D. No improvement
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
29. The dissidents hold a great problem in every 37. We look forward to hear from you.
political party. A. hearing B. have heard
A. cause B. give C. listen D. No improvement
C. pose D. No improvement Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
38. It was indeed a shock for her, but she has
30. I would have waited for you at the station if later recovered from it.
I knew that you would come. A. since B. then
A. had known B. was knowing C. afterwards D. No improvement
C. have known D. No improvement Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
45. I hope you vividly remember the premier of 53. But in all these cases conversion from scale
the film when I, my wife and you were present have well-formulated.
in the hall. A. can be well-formulated
A. my wife, I and you B. you, I and my wife B. are well-formulated
C. my wife, you and I D. No improvement C. well-formulated
Answer: Option C D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
57. Why the dinosaurs died out is not known. 64. The cloud of misfortunes appears to have
A. it is not known blown out.
B. the reason is not known A. over B. up
C. that is not known C. away D. No improvement
D. No improvement Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
65. While we would like that all Indian Children
58. His father won't be able to leave for Varnasi to go to school, we need to ponder why they do
until they have arrived. not.
A. until they arrive A. that all the Indian children
B. until they will have arrived B. if all the children of India
C. until they will arrive C. all Indian children
D. No improvement D. No improvement
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
59. I will not go to school, if it shall rain 66. In India today many of our intellectuals still
tomorrow. talk in terms of the French Revolution and the
A. it would rain tomorrow Rights of Man, not appreciating that much has
B. it will rain tomorrow happened since then.
C. it rains tomorrow A. much has been happening
D. No improvement B. much had happened
Answer: Option C C. much might happen
D. No improvement
60. If I stood alone in defence of truth, and the Answer: Option D
whole world is banded against me and against
truth. I would fight them all. 67. I shall be grateful to you if you are of help to
A. will be banded B. were banded me now.
C. banded D. No improvement A. help B. would help
Answer: Option B C. helped D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
4.
1. medicine
2. a
3. Neeta
4. given
5. was
A. 51423 B. 25431
C. 15423 D. 42531
E. 35421
Answer: Option E
10.
6. 1. killed
1. at 2. a
2. it 3. Jaswant
3. take 4. bear
4. once 5. wild
5. away A. 31254 B. 53124
A. 23514 B. 14352 C. 23145 D. 43125
C. 32514 D. 53214 E. 15234
E. 42315 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
7. 11.
1. him 1. was
2. the 2. and
3. to 3. Suresh
4. charge 4. kind
5. handover 5. loving
A. 42531 B. 51342 A. 31425 B. 54213
C. 41352 D. 45231 C. 34251 D. 15243
E. 52431 E. 12345
Answer: Option E Answer: Option A
8. 12.
1. seen 1. tea
2. going 2. have
3. you 3. that
4. him 4. some
5. have 5. before
A. 35214 B. 35142 A. 43251 B. 24315
C. 32514 D. 35124 C. 24153 D. 52431
E. 53124 E. 41325
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
14.
1. I
2. help
3. not 2.
4. you It has been established that
5. did P : Einstein was
A. 24351 Q : although a great scientist
B. 15324 R : weak in arithmetic
C. 45231 S : right from his school days
D. 43152
E. 52431 The Proper sequence should be:
Answer: Option B A. SRPQ
B. QPRS
C. QPSR
15. D. RQPS
1. not
2. Hari Answer: Option B
3. away
4. run
5. did
A. 13542 3.
B. 35412 Then
C. 52431 P : it struck me
D. 25143 Q : of course
E. 21345 R : suitable it was
Answer: Option D S : how eminently
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
5.
Since the beginning of history
P : have managed to catch 8.
Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians The grocer
R : by a very difficulty method P : did not listen to the protests of customer
S : a few specimens of this aquatic animal Q : who was in the habit of weighing less
R : whom he had cheated
The Proper sequence should be: S : with great audacity
A. QRPS
B. SQPR The Proper sequence should be:
C. SQRP A. PRSQ
D. QPSR B. QSPR
C. QPRS
Answer: Option D D. PQSR
Answer: Option C
6.
A French woman 9.
P : committed suicide They felt safer
Q : where she had put up P : to watch the mountain
R : who had come to Calcutta Q : of more than five miles
S : by jumping from the first floor balcony of R : as they settled down
the hotel S : from a distance
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. PRQS A. RPSQ
B. QSRP B. RSQP
C. RPSQ C. PQSR
D. SRQP D. PRSQ
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. QPRS A. SRQP
B. RPQS B. RQSP
C. RQSP C. RPQS
D. QRPS D. SPRQ
11. 14.
If you need help This time
P : promptly and politely P : exactly what he had been told
Q : ask for attendants Q : the young man did
R : to help our customers R : beyond his dreams
S : who have instructions S : and the plan succeeded
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. SQPR A. QPRS
B. QPSR B. QPSR
C. QSRP C. PQSR
D. SQRP D. QSRP
12. 15.
It is easier In the darkness
P : to venture into space P : the long, narrow beard
Q : for men Q : was clearly visible with
R : beneath their feet R : the tall stooping figure of the doctor
S : than to explore S : and the aquiline nose
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRPS A. RQPS
B. QPSR B. PSQR
C. PSRQ C. RSQP
D. PQSR D. QPRS
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. RQSP A. PQRS
B. QRPS B. SQRP
C. RSQP C. SPRQ
D. QPSR D. QSRP
17. 20.
When it began to rain suddenly on the first of It is not, therefore
January P : that I pay a tribute
P : to celebrate the new year Q : to conductors as a class
Q : we ran for shelter R : with any feeling of unfriendliness
R : to the neighbouring house S : to a particular member of that class
S : where many people had gathered
The Proper sequence should be:
The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS
A. QRPS B. RQPS
B. PSQR C. RSPQ
C. PRSQ D. PSRQ
D. QRSP
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
18. 21.
He told us that Of many artists
P : and enjoyed it immensely P : those who impressed me the most
Q : in a prose translation Q : I was a child
R : he had read Milton R : but those with unique personalities off stage
S : which he had borrowed from his teacher S : were not always the successful ones
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. RSQP A. SRQP
B. QRPS B. QRSP
C. RQSP C. RSPQ
D. RQPS D. QPSR
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRPQ A. SQPR
B. RPSQ B. QSRP
C. SRQP C. QSPR
D. RQPS D. PQRS
23. 26.
It is easy to excuse It would
P : but it is hard P : appear from his statement
Q : in a boy of fourteen Q : about the policy of management
R : the mischief of early childhood R : in dealing with the strike
S : to tolerate even unavoidable faults S : that he was quite in the dark
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. RPQS A. RPSQ
B. QRSP B. PSQR
C. QRPS C. RQPS
D. RPSQ D. PRQS
24. 27.
The majestic mahogany table He was so kind and generous that
P : belongs to an old prince P : he not only
Q : which has one leg missing Q : made others do so
R : who is no impoverished R : but also
S : but not without some pride S : helped them himself
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQSR A. PSRQ
B. QRSP B. SPQR
C. PRSQ C. PRSQ
D. QPRS D. QPRS
29. 32.
There was It is very easy
P : needed for it everyday life P : a great deal more than one realises
Q : a time when each family Q : may mean
R : for itself most of the things it R : that a phrase that one does not quite
S : actually produced understand
S : to persuade oneself
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRSP The Proper sequence should be:
B. RQPS A. RSQP
C. RSPQ B. SPQR
D. QSRP C. SRQP
D. RQPS
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
30. 33.
Little I was
P : that he had been let down P : and stay fro few days in Delhi
Q : stood by all these years Q : when my father told me
R : did he realise R : very excited
S : by a colleague whom he had S : that I could go with him
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. RPSQ A. PQRS
B. RSQP B. RQSP
C. QSRP C. QRSP
D. QSPR D. SPQR
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. QPSR A. RPQS
B. RPQS B. RQPS
C. SRPQ C. PQSR
D. QRPS D. PRQS
35. 38.
The appearance Women
P : this dinosaurs were at their peak P : till the other day
Q : of the first mammals on the earth Q : who were content being housewives
R : at the time when R : about spending their time cooking
S : went almost unnoticed S : now sound apologetic
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRPQ A. PQRS
B. QSRP B. RSPQ
C. QRPS C. QPSR
D. RPQS D. RQPS
36. 39.
By this time Though he dialled frequently
P : at the railway station P : on telephone
Q : reported mass looting Q : my brother could not contact me
R : reports of violence were flooding in R : and had left no information
S : which police dispatches S : as I had gone out of office
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. RSPQ A. QPRS
B. SPRQ B. SQRP
C. SQRP C. QPSR
D. RSQP D. SPQR
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. PSQR A. SRPQ
B. PSRQ B. QRPS
C. QPRS C. QPRS
D. QRPS D. SQPR
41. 44.
He sat All such students
P : through the Town Hall Park P : get success
Q : which flanked a path running Q : who are honest and hard-working
R : under the boughs R : and recognition
S : of a spreading tamarind tree S : in very walk of life
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQSR A. SPRQ
B. RSQP B. PRQS
C. RSPQ C. QPRS
D. PRSQ D. PSRQ
42. 45.
I don't remember The master
P : I saw a man dying in front of a hospital P : who was very loyal to him
Q : but when I left lucknow in 1984 Q : punished the servant
R : hit apparently by a fast moving car R : without giving any valid reason
S : the exact date S : when he left the work unfinished
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. SQRP A. RQPS
B. SQPR B. RQSP
C. QRPS C. QPSR
D. SPRQ D. QRPS
Answer: Option C
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. PRSQ B. PSQR A. SRQP B. QPSR
C. SQRP D. RPSQ C. RSPQ D. QSRP
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
4. 7.
S1: For some time in his youth Abraham S1: You know my wife, Madhavi, always urged
Lincoln was manager for a shop. me to give up smoking.
P : Then a chance Customer would come. P : I really gave it up.
Q : Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was Q : And so When I went to jail I said to myself I
entirely unlike anyone else's. really must give it up, if for no other reason than
R : Lincoln would jump up and attend to his of being self-reliant.
needs and then revert to his reading. R : When I emerged from jail, I wanted to tell
S : He used to lie full length on the counter of her of my great triumph.
the shop eagerly reading a book. S : But when I met her, there she was with a
S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time packet of cigarettes.
for reading as had then. S6: poor girl!.
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRQP B. QSPR A. PSRQ B. SPQR
C. SQRP D. QPSR C. QPRS D. RSPQ
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
5.
S1: All the land was covered by the ocean. 8.
P : The leading god fought the monster, killed it S1: When a satellite is launched, the rocket
and chopped its body in to two halves. begins by going slowly upwards through the air.
Q : A terrible monster prevented the gods from P : However, the higher it goes, the less air it
separating the land from the water. meets.
R : The god made the sky out of the upper part Q : As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster.
of the body and ornamented it with stars. R : For the atmosphere becomes thinner.
S : The god created the earth from the lower S : As a result there is less friction.
part, grew plants on it and populated it with S6: Consequently, the rocket still does not
animals. become too hot.
S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay
according to his own image and mind. The Proper sequence should be:
A. QPRS B. QSPR
The Proper sequence should be: C. PQRS D. PQSR
A. PQRS B. PQSR
C. QPSR D. QPRS Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Courtesy: www.examveda.com Page 526
English
9. 11.
S1: A father having offered to take the baby out S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the
in a perambulator, was tempted by the sunny north of Italy.
morning to slip into a pub for a glass of beer. P : There are about four hundred old stone
P : Indignant at her husband's behaviour, she bridges joining the island of Venice.
decided to teach him a lesson. Q : In this city there are no motor cars, no
Q : She wheeled away the pram. horses, no buses.
R : A little later, his wife came by, where to her R : These small islands are near one another.
horror, she discovered her sleeping baby. S : It is not an island but a hundred and
S : Leaving the pram outside, he disappeared seventeen islands.
inside the bar. S6: This is because Venice has no streets.
S6: She waited for him, anticipating the white
face and quivering lips which would soon The Proper sequence should be:
appear with the news that the baby had been A. PQRS
stolen. B. PRQS
C. SRPQ
The Proper sequence should be: D. PQSR
A. SRPQ Answer: Option C
B. RQPS
C. SPQR
D. PQSR
Answer: Option A
12.
10. S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by
S1: The city is almost a slum and stinks most of the people of the area.
time. P : Some people spoke of seeing a huge,
P : The slush on the road did not deter them. shadowy form a Hound at midnight on the
Q : The occasional slips and falls were moor.
considered a small price to pay for the trip. Q : But they spoke of it in tones of horror.
R : They were excited, fascinated by the sight of R : Nobody had actually seen the hound.
fresh snow on the roads. S : This shadowy form did not reveal any details
S : Even so, it looked beautiful to tourists of about the animal.
various categories. S6: The Hound of Baskervilles remains an
S6: But some visitors came away with the unsolved mystery.
unforgettable sight of young labours scantily
clad. The Proper sequence should be:
A. SPQR
The Proper sequence should be: B. SPRQ
A. RQPS C. PSRQ
B. QPRS D. PQRS
C. RSQP
D. SPQR Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
20.
S1: Biological evolution has not fitted man to
18. any specific environment.
S1: On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend P : It is by no means a biological evolution, but
and I sat down at a street cafe. it is a cultural one.
P : At one point, he bent over with a big smile, Q : His imagination, his reason, his emotional
showing me, a single gold tooth and a dingy fez. subtlety and toughness, makes it possible for
Q : soon I felt the presence of someone standing him not to accept the environment but to
alongside me. change.
R : But this one wouldn't budge. R : And that series of inventions by which man
S : We had been cautioned about beggars and from age by age has reshaped his environment is
were told to ignore them. a different kind of evolution.
S6: Finally a man walked over to me and S : Among the multitude of animals which
whispered, "Hey buddy this guy is your waiter scamper, burrow swim around us he is in the
and he wants your order". only one who is not locked in to his
environment.
The Proper sequence should be: S6: That brilliant sequence of cultural peaks can
A. SQRP most appropriately be termed the ascent of man.
B. SQPR
C. QSRP The Proper sequence should be:
D. QSPR A. QPRS B. SRQP
C. QRSP D. SQRP
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
35.
33. S1: The December dance and music season in
S1: We speak today of self-determination in Madras is like the annual tropical cyclone.
politics. P : A few among the new aspirants dazzle witht
P : So long as one is conscious of a restraint, it he colour of youth, like fresh saplings.
is possible to resist it or to near it as a necessary Q : It rains an abundance of music for over a
evil and to keep free in spirit. fortnight.
Q : Slavery begins when one ceases to feel that R : Thick clouds expectation charge the
restraint and it depends on if the evil is accepted atmosphere with voluminous advertisements.
as good. S : At the end of it one is left with the feeling
R : There is, however, a subtler domination that the music of only those artists seasoned by
exercised in the sphere of ideas by one culture to careful nurturing, stands tall like well-routed
another. trees.
S : Political subjection primarily means restraint S6: Many a hastily planed shrub gets washed
on the outer life of people. away in the storm.
S6: Cultural subjection is ordinarily of an
unconscious character and it implies slavery The Proper sequence should be:
from the very start. A. RQPS
B. QRPS
The Proper sequence should be: C. RQSP
A. SPRQ D. QRSP
B. RSQP
C. SPQR Answer: Option B
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
41.
S1: Growing up means not only getting larger, 43.
but also using our sense and our brain is to S1: Duryodhana was a wicked prince.
become more aware of things around us. P : one day Bhima made Duryodhana fall from a
P : Not only does he have a memory but he is tree from which Duryodhana was stealing fruits.
able to think and reason. Q : He did not like that Pandavas should be
Q : In this, man differs from all other animals. loved and respected by the people of Hastinapur
R : Before we spray our roadside plants or turn R : Duryodhana specially hated Bhima.
sewage in to our rivers, we should pause to S : Among the Pandavas, Bhima was
think what the results of our action are likely to extraordinary strong and powerful.
do. S6: This enraged Duryodhana so much that he
S : This is to say, he is able to plan what he is is began to think of removing Bhima from his
going to do in the light of his experience before way.
he does it.
S6: In other words, we must develop and use The Proper sequence should be:
our ability to reason, because the destruction or A. PSQR
the preservation of the places in which we live B. QPRS
depend on us. C. QSPR
D. PSRQ
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRSP B. SPQR Answer: Option C
C. SPRQ D. QPSR
Answer: Option D
The Proper sequence should be: The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRSP A. PQRS
B. RSQP B. RPQS
C. RQSP C. RSPQ
D. QRPS D. RQPS
54.
S1: Our ancestors thought that anything which 56.
moved itself was alive. S1: Moncure Conway devoted his life to two
P : The philosopher Descartes thought that both great objects freedom of thought, and freedom
men and animals were machines. of the individual.
Q : But a machine such as a motorcar or a P : They threaten both kinds of freedom.
steamship moves itself, as soon as machines Q : But something also has been lost.
which moved themselves had been made, people R : There are now dangers, somewhat different
asked "Is man a machine?" in form from those of the past ages.
R : And before the days of machinery that was a S : In regard to both these objects, something
good definition. has been gained since his time.
S : He also thought that the human machine was S6: Unless a vigorous and vigilant public
partly controlled by the soul action on a certain opinion can be aroused in defence of them, there
part of the brain, while animals had no souls. will be much less of both a hundred years hence
S6: Therefore some scientists think that life is then there is now.
just a very complicated mechanism.
The Proper sequence should be:
The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS
A. PRSQ B. QSPR
B. RPQS C. SQRP
C. PSQR D. RSPQ
D. RQPS
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
8.
S1: Your letter was big relief.
P : How did you exams go?
Q : After your result, you must come here for a
week.
R : You hadn't written for over a month.
S : I am sure you will come out with flying
colours.
S6: But don't forget to bring chocolate for
Geetha.
Answer: Option C