wer gferar wa we Tate re ee see Tae fered Pref 7 fever are | DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO. ‘wei TH/ QUESTION PAPER “attr fartta frat ye 2014 / LIMITED DEPARTMENTAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION 2014 ‘erdere Gr.-ll (NT) 3@ % fer / FOR THE POST OF CHARGEMAN Gr.-ll (NT) fervea / SUBJECT : ete sieiisic Us Heftaet AfeTS STORES PROCEDURE & MATERIAL MANAGEMENT QP. series-[ A | [warwrrotnoT T T [TT TT J ‘Fadteras & GeaaHt / Signature of the Invigilator. ‘fete / Date:- ‘WAT / Time:- 14:00 to 17:00 Hrs ‘Bre /CODE:- 7.00/322 ‘safit/ Duration:- 3 42/3 Hours ‘siftrena sia -100 / Max. Marks:- 100 fge— amt 33 8 ee ger frofefen feet at emis we Ins i= following In: yur_an: 1. mf wer after 1 All questions are compulsory. 2, wets WET 1 sts BT | Each question caries 1 mark. 3, metas mer 4 afin sr fer & (A),(6)(C)(0) FAAS Uw sae ae Carey oa wT aT TAT ‘yferar we tte year sift BT | There are four options-(A),(B),(C),(D) given against each question, out Of which only one is correct. Mark your answer by fling bubble on the OMR answer sheet. 4. meme are sae a eae ater a et ng siheRsre, sex yaar Wat sift ST | Candidate has to mark all his responses only on the separated OMR answer sheet provided. 8. Fae ear we ret age wT ser wT Aa aera sGAIA aT | Use only blue or black ball point pen. Use of pencil is not allowed. 6. sigan. ame yferer F arr Sif eet A vee, aT wae oe ogER RA my SRE BA Yaa ‘% frm arauriiqd# "it | Before you proceed to mark your response in OMR answer sheet, you have to fil in some particulars carefully in the OMR answer sheet as per your admit card. ‘7. wer yferar 4 J Sie TT sterT 7 BT | No sheet from the question paper should be detached. 8, Tad wet Be fert wer oa BF si viz wary BT TAH | Sheet for rough work is appended in the question Paper at the end. 8. BU RETA / ALATA See Berar We RE sh area are a rfid ae RET / sae TST ar ie Fram ver are & ah steal wt sete er Eat aTEAT | Do not write your name anywhere in the question paper/OMR answer sheet. If name is found marked on the question paper/OMR answer sheet, this will make the candidate disqualified 10, rere See & fer ane Se set ee | ale sae ww a afew soe ter Fh sa Tee Ae BT a a ‘8 Be sft WH see _TE S| There will be no penalty for wrong answer. If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of given answer happens to be correct. 4. wter ware OF ae oro wea Ta ate s.e.aMe sae yfeaT Set Frew st aR | After completion of examination, you have to hand over your question paper and OMR answer sheet both to Invigilator. ‘fear at featt 4 afi dewcr am WT, In case of dispute English version will previStores Procedure & Material Management Questions - 100 “i is a requisition placed by the provisioning authority to procure an item. (A) Contract (8) Indent (C) Procurement —_(D) None of these 2. IFD stands for (A) Intra Factory Demand (8) Inter Factory Demand (©) Intra Facility Demand (0) Inter Facility Demand 3. Which of the following is a valid Channel of Procurement? (A) Placement of IFD (8) Purchase from trade (C) Placement of demand on Govt. Department (0) All of these 4. Which of the following is an emergency reserve ? (A) E0Q (8) Stockpile (C) Both (A) and(B) (0) None of these 5. Maximum possible limit of an emergency reserve of any indegenous product is month(s). (a) 6 (8) 4 ©) 3 (0) 0 6. Maximum possible limit of an emergency reserve of any imported product is month(s). ae (8) 4 (©) 3 (0) 0 7. Purchase of goods without quotation is valid for all of the following purchase value EXCEPT (A) Rs 7860/- (B) Rs 12845/- (C) Rs 14200/- (0) Rs 16500/- 8. Cash and carry purchase is a type of __ Purchase. (A) Local (8) Central (C) Foreign (0) None of these 9. PAC Specifications are available only with a (A) Proprietory Firm (8) Partnership Firm (C) Private Limited Company (0) Allofthese 10. IS, BS, DIN, GOST are examples of (A) PAC Specifications (B) Industrial Specifications (C) Defence Specifications (D) None of these 11. Milspecs is an example of (A) PAC Specifications (8) Industrial Specifications (C) Defence Specifications (D) None of these 12. Ordinarily the minimum time to be allowed for submission of bids should be __ week(s) from the date of publication of the tender notice. (A) one (8) two (C) three (0) four 18. All open tender enquiries of value more than lakh will be on a two bid system. (A) two (8) three (C) five (0) ten GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE SPMM12-14 A19. 21. 24. 26. 28. 29. . Basically Revenue stores can be classified into Ifthe estimated value of an Open Ténder is upto Rs 50 lakh, then the price of the tender (A) Rs 100/- (8) Rs 200/- (©) Rs 250/- (D) Rs 500/- Ifthe estimated value of an Open Tender is more than Rs 5 crore, then the price of the tender set should be (A) Rs 100/- (B) Rs 200/- (C) Rs 600/- (D) Rs 1000/- |. EMD need NOT be asked for an estimated Tender value up to Rs. ‘i (A) 1 lakh (8) 2 lakh (C) 5 lakh (0) 101al . Generally amount of EMD may be percent of the estimated value of the goods to be procured. (A) one (8) two (C) three (0) four ‘Amount of EMD CANNOT exceed Rs. ___lakh. (a) 10 (8) 20 (C) 50 () 100 . A group of tenderers form a__to manipulate the tender process. (A) catel (8) caretel (C) cartell (0) cartel . Which of the following(s) is (are) the needs for procurement of goods? (B) To build up authorized stocks. ~~ (C) Tocater for requirement of asset repair and maintenance _(D) Allof these ‘Advance payment if made, should NOT exceed __ percent of the contract value. (A) ten (8) fifteen (©) twenty (O) thirty Rate of Performance Security Deposit is _% of contract amount. (A) ten (8) fifteen (©) twenty (D) thirty Performance Security Deposit has to be made within _ days of the date of contract, (A) fifteen (B) thirty (C) forty (0) sixty Normal period of a rate contract is _ year(s). (A) one (8) two (©) three (0) four . Maximum period of any rate contract is_ year(s). category(ies). (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four set should be indiscrepancy in quoted price, if there is a discrepancy between unit price and the total price, the _____price shall prevail. (A) unit (8) total (C)whicheveris lesser (D) None of these (A) To cater for annual production plan and other production activities. (A) one (8) two (C) three (0) four Which of the following is NOT a valid type of contract? (A) Rate Contract (B) Chart Contract (C) Service Cntract (0) Price Contract Payment of Stamp Duty on Defence Contracts is (A) mandatory (B) not required at all (C) mandatory only for Contracts having value more than Rs 1 crore (D) None of these SPMM12-14 A GO ONTO THE NEXT PAGE31. 37. 39. 40. 41. . ERV Clause is only to be included in the contracts concluded with (A) defence PSUs (B) anyPSUs — (C) anyregistered firm (D) None of these The base date for ERV to be admissible would be the (A) contractdate (B) tenderdate —(C) tender publishing date (0) submission of material/service date . Which of the following documents would need to be submitted in support of the claim on account of ERV? (A) A bill of ERV claims enclosing worksheet. (B) Copies of import orders placed on the suppliers. (C) Invoice of supplier for the relevant import orders. (0) All of these . Which of the private sector banks is NOT authorized to carry out government transactions? (A) AXIS BANK = (B) ICICIBANK = (C) YES BANK (D) HDFC BANK Performance Bank Gurantee should remain valid for a period of days beyond the date of completion of contractual obligations. (A) thirty (8) forty five (C) fifty (D) sixty . Performance Security Deposit may NOT be asked for an estimated ORDER value up to (A) 1 lakh ‘ (8) 2lakh (C) Slakh (D) 10 lakh ._ Compensation of loss on account of late delivery where loss is pre-estimated, is termed as (A) Late Delivery Loss (B) Liquidated Damage (C) Late Delivery (D) Late Damage For Compensation of loss on account of late delivery, there is______to establish actual loss due to late supply. (A) no need (8) anabsolute need (C)apartialneed (D) None of these }. When both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter essential to. the agreement, the agreement is (A) void (B) voidable (C) Both (A) and(B) (0) free A Defence Contract can be signed by (A) agazetted officer (8) anon-gazetted officer (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Repeat Order / or Option Clauses should NOT exceed __% of the original order quantity. (A) 30 (8) 40 (C) 50 (D) 100 “Fall Clause” can associated with (A) currency rate variation (B) product rate variation (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these A____ supercides ir (A) rate contract, supply order (B) supply order, rate contract (C) rate contract, rate chart (0) supply order, rate chart GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE SPMM12-14 A 343. 47. 49. 50. 5 55. 56. A Price Contract is normally valid for year(s). (©) is partially applicable (A) seven (A) Last Purchase (8) fifteen Price (C) Professional Officers’ Valuation Economic Order Quantity minimises (A) Inventory Holding Cost (C) Cost of Sales As per Economic Order Quantity Model, Lead Time is (A) fixed (A) single (B) multiple of inventory? (8) variable (A) Replacement cost method (©) AVCO method (A) one (B) two (C) three . Earest Money Deposit with Rate Contract. (A) is applicable (D) four (8) isnot applicable (0) has no relation (C) thirty . Withdrawal from Rate Contract is with a notice period of days. (D) sixty . The cost of a procurement proposal may be assessed on the basis of the (B) Budgetory Quote (D) Allof these (8) Ordering Cost (D) Both (A) and (B) but not (C) ‘A basic assumption of Economic Order Quantity Model is (A) demand of a product is constant throughout the year (8) supply of a product is constant throughout the year (C) No cost is associated for storing each unit (0) Allof these (C) conditionally variable (D) None of these Economic Order Quantity Model is applicable for '___ product(s) at a time. (C) Both (A) and (8) (D) no Sed _ Under which method of inventory costing 2 pre-determined cost is assigned toll items ® Standard cost method (OD) FiFO method ._ Which one of the following inventory systems ascertains the balance of stock or amount of stock at the end of an accounting period or at the time of physical inventory count? (A) Periodic inventory system (C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Factory Buildings (C) Plant & Machinery (6 Lead time of a Direct Material of Indigenous Source is__ (a) 6 (B) 12 (8) 12 (8) Perpetual inventory system (O) None of these . Which of the following asset is, generally, NOT depreciated? (8) Office Equipment (D) Land . Lead time of a Direct Material of Imported Source is__ (C) 18 (©) 18 months. (0) 24 months. (0) 24 As per existing Govt. instructions, SSIs can be allowed price preference up to %in comparison to the large scale Industries. (A) 10 (B) 15 SPMM12-14 A (©) 20 (D) 25 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE57. The responsibility for handing claims in respect of cargoes short landed or landed damaged at ports is on (A) Claims Officer of Each Ordnance Factory (B) Embarkation Commandants at Ports (C) Both (A) and (B) (0) Marine Surveyor at Ports 58, The stipulated time for Marine Surveying at Ports is within __ days from the date of landing of the package. (A) 1 (8) 3 (c) 5 (D) 10 59. ____are responsible for preferring claims against the Port Trust Authorities, (A) Claims Officer of Each Ordnance Factory (8) Embarkation Commandants at Ports (C) Both (A) and (B) (0) Marine Surveyor at Ports 60. “wharfage charges” need to be added with value of the claim incase the stores have (A) landed on the port but then missing (B) been found defective (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Package-wise details of stores are given in (A) shipment notice (8) packing note (C) Both (A) and(B) (D) None of these 62. Time limit for submission of claims to the DGSW London for shortages, damages etc. is months. (A) 3 (B) 4 () 5 (0) 6 68. For purposes of valuation and assessment of customs duty, the stores can be broadly classified into all of the following categories EXCEPT (A) non-dutiable (8) dutiable (C) preferential assessment (0) standard assessment 64. Which of the following are the claims for refund of customs duty? (A) Claims pertaining to short landed cargo (8) Claims pertaining to the cargo landed but missing from the port premises (C) Claims pertaining to the packages pilfered/camaged before or during landing (0) All of these 85. OFB have powers to authorise despatch by Air under certain circumstance upto Rs. in freightage in each case. (A) one lakh (B) ten lakhs (C) two and half lakhs _(D) one and half lakhs 66. Limited powers for air despatch are available to the General Managers of and 61. (A) VFJ, HAPP (8) RFI, MSF (C) OFT, OFK (D) VFJ, HVF 87. The responsibilty of clearing parcels received by Arfreight is vested in the respective (A) Receiving Officer of Each Ordnance Factory (8) Embarkation Commandants (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these GO ONTO THE NEXT PAGE SPMM12-14 A68. Standard payment terms provided in the General Conditions of contract contained in DGS&D - 68 (Revised) are, (A) 95% against proof of despatch and balance 5% on receipt of the stores by the consignee (8) 5% against proof of despatch and balance 95% on receipt of the stores by the consignee (C) 85% against proof of despatch and balance 15% on receipt of the stores by the consignee (D) 15% against proof of despatch and balance 85% on receipt of the stores by the consignee 69. Against orders placed by the Dept. of Defence Supplies, __ willbe the Paying Authority. (A) P & AO New Delhi (8) DAD(HQ), New Delhi (©) CofA(Patna) (D) CofA(Bangalore) 70. Departmental charges will be levied at the rate of __% of the value of the contract. (A) 0.25 (8) 05 © 15 (0) 25 71. Payments to contractors if made by a cheque must be issued by (A) Reserve Bank of India (8) State Bank of India (©) Bank of India () Both (A) and (B) but not (C) 72. Clause of the General Conditions of Contract is associated with “SETTLEMENT OF DISPUTES THROUGH SOLE ARBITRATOR” (A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 21 (D) 14 73. Stores intended for Ordnance Factories when booked by Rail should be at a concessional Tariff Rate against (A) Military Credit Notes () Ordnance Factory Appointed Notes (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 2 74. is an accounting document between the forwarding authority and the consignee. (A) Railway Receipt (B) Sticky Notes (C) Convoy Notes —(D) None of these 75. On completion of the clearance and despatch of all consignments shipped per vessel, is being prepared and sent. (A) Wagon Despatch Signal Report (8) Final Out turn Report (C) Convoy Notes (D) None of these 76. is the first stage of a multi-stage tender process. (A) EO! (8) GTE (C) LTE (0) OTE 77. ABG is standard abbreviation of (A) Adverse Bank Guarantee {B) Adverse Bond Guarantee (C) Advance Bank Guarantee (D) Advance Bond Guarantee 78. DEC is standard abbreviation of (A) Demand Exempted Certificate (8) Duty Exempted Certificate (C) Duty Exit Certificate (D) Demand Exit Certificate 6 SPMM12-14 A GO ONTO THE NEXT PAGE79. 80. RST is standard abbreviation of (A) Request for Single Tender (C) Replacement Single Tender STE is standard abbreviation of (A) Single Tender Enquiry (C) Security Technical Enquiry (8) Resultant Single Tender (0) Renewal Single Tender (B) Short Tender Enquiry (D) Secured Technical Enquiry 81. TPC is standard abbreviation of (A) Tender Purchase Committee (8) Technical Product Committee (C) Tender ProcurementCommittee _(D) Tender Production Committee 82. Price preference facility to SSI Units will NOT apply to the procurement of (A) Medical and Electro-medical equipment (8) Requirements of Defence (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 83. In Ordnance Factories, the total working hours of any general machine per year is taken as___ hours. (A) 4210 (8) 4311 (©) 4412 (D) 4414 84. A machine declared unserviceable with book value of less than Rs, may be disposed off by the General Managers under their own powers. (A) ten lakhs (8) five lakhs (C)_ two Lakhs (0) one lakhs 88. Disposal of unserviceable machineries beyond economical repair can be done through the following Govt. of india Enterprise : (A) SAIL (8) MsTc (C) RINL (0) Pc 86. Which of the following matters are incidental to disposal of a machinery ? (A) Lotson Sale (B) Groundrent (C) Both(A) and(B) (D) None of these 87. “The condition of an equipment has deteriorated to such an extent that it CANNOT be used either for the purpose for which it is intended or for any other alternative purpose economically” The above equipment is now termed (A) obsolete (8) Unserviceable (C) Both(A)and(B) (D) None of these 88. Factory has the right to recover a charge for the storage space at @ __% per week or Part thereof of the auction price of the equipment uncleared. (A) 1 (B) 2 ©) 5 (D) 7.5 89. After lapse of month(s) of disposal auction date, if itis found that the successful bidder has NOT taken any action for lifting of goods, full amount earlier deposited can be forfeited after giving suitable notice. (A) 1 (8) 2 (©) 3 (D) 4 90. Maximum amount which can be waived by the GMs’ towards charge for the storage ‘Space is Rs.. (A) 5000 “@) 7000 (C) 9000 (D) 10000 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE SPMM12-14 A 791. 95. 97. 98. 99. 100. (A) Project Management (8) Arbitration (©) Cost Optimisation (0) None of these ._ DPR stands for (A) Detailed Project Report (B) Detailed Process Report (C) Divisioned Project Report (D) Divisioned Process Report ._ DRE stands for (A) Deferred Revenue Expenditure (B) Direct Revenue Expenditure (C) Direct Revenue Earning (D) Deferred Revenue Earning . When a Performance Security refund is NOT claimed for full year(s), it is (A) Expression of Interest (8) Letter of Intent (©) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these . While formulating-a project proposal at the planning stage, a listing all the important milestones/activities involved with realistic time frame for each should be provided. (A) PERT Network (B) CPM Network (C) Bar Chart (0) All of these Which of the following is a Valid Stage of Inspection of Plant and Machinery? 4 (A) Pre-Contract Stage (8) Post Contract Stage (C) Pre-Dispatch Stage (D) Allof these is carried out on any machine tool basically to check the accuracy of the machine ‘axes movement, main spindle accuracy etc. (A) Geometrical Accuracy Test (8) Gravitational Accuracy Test rq (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Declaratory Awards, Speaking Awards are terms associated with credited to Consolidated Fund of India,under Rule 189 of Central Govt. Account. (A) one (8) two (©) three (D) four is a communication to the bidder that his bid submitted has been accepted and the formal Supply Order will be issued. The important factors necessary to be considered while evaluating process capability ratios are (A) Machine Form Errors (B) Tool Wear (C) Measurement Error (D) Allof these Port dues such as portage, wharfage, extra wharfage are recovered by ‘the Port authorities from the ____ Account of the Embarkation Headquarters. (A) Imprest (B) Petty Cash (C) Ledger (D) None of these SPMM12-14 A GO ONTO THE NEXT PAGEati dai ud atta Sonic Questions - 100 is Sareeary sarah arr Pet ag Bo & FS Rar ver os ait ore (A) anger (8) ain (C) sitar sitar (0) eat a ag et . IFD an orf tar ® s (A) et Geet fears (B) ger Geet fears (C) er SRA Reus (D) sex Sfafate fears Frefeftan 8 die ce Fer ete ar mE 2 (A) IFD ar frie (8) aaa ta (C) reat fare oe Prater at ait (D) ouiten ait 4. Prefetea # 4, We amareanin feed & | ny 2 (A) EOQ (8) Her (C) AS) at (0) pHa ataa 5. Fit eet ran a sire srrremta wena eat & fhe er (A) 6 (8) 4 (©) 3 (do) 0 6. fat oneri craen a iter smear weafta aa _ wtih & feat ar (A) 6 (8) 4 (C) 3 (0) 0 7 Frafefen § 8 we & aitites wt ate ya & fad ddan & ate am whe BaF (A) % 7860/- (B) & 12345/- (C) ® 14200/- (D) = 16500/- 8. aad 80 ate ww sar Ht ate (A) arta (8) rr (C) Rest (D) eh a att att 9. PAC faftéa Pras oa & my cares 8) (A) werent orf (B) argent orf (C) siete faze axri (D) sais wt 10. IS, BS, DIN, GOST 4 & creo F | (A) PAC fez (8) Sinifras En (C) sftran RET (D) sh a at ae 11. Rreree___ a ee em | (A) PAC Tatiet (B) Ss Raza (Cc) steven fafgat (D) 4 8 ag ae 12. SETI Sit Ge St ie ps ea es Be ae seis aS has rare ert aiea As ®a O# © = 13. 7a are & cafes ae a a? (8) a GO ONTO16. 20. 21. 23. 24. 25. 27. 29, 30. 10 corre Reeth gph Pier an arama ger 5 as & ante ce a a oe Peer a art _ or Fae at ort | (A) & 100/- (8) 0 200/- (C) = 600/- (D) & 1000/- Le aes a agit after yea & FA EMD 93 oT aA eT TA (A) 1 are (8) 20a (C) Sa (0) 10 war J. area EMD a aftr sre errant sega & sepa yes aT ‘afta frat | (A) (8) a (C) a (D) ar . EMD at afr rer & fers wat Ht sat BI (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 50 (D) 100 Pier at sien Hoe Gx eet & faa Ace ae aE eT (A) 320 (8) axa (C) ae (0) area aaa Fae Sana Hr ae ys a_i rm (A) ae (8) a © maama = (0) aa Ta str & feret Preafetne # a ata race & 2 (A) aaftas seares aera ee ort sears isiaieat ar se ST (8) aga ies eT aT (C) steeratty tweet od carrera Bt AT St TT AT (0) se rt coerce spree ae Rear ar ar at we er yea S_narn safes att at rte (A) = (8) we (C) 4a (0) ar seat GUT HAT BH ST SHYT TAT aT ssftire erat eafea | A) (8) (©) a ©) ae seats ran oon ogee Rae Rr are eT eM S (A) va (8) te (C) anita Rages a ara xa __ a eran (A) & (®) 4 (©) (D) ae fait ax ger an sift ores __ ah / a ar et 8 (A) (8) a si “(C) at (D) ar . Rafaitee 8 art om Ber orga aE 7 (A) esr (B) ae ogee (0) Frat agar (D) Fre ages safer SITET Te HT IH BT PTA eae (A) strand (B) sera & ae ett (C) Fars wae ate ay 8 cats aor & orp & fee start & (D) er 8 aie ae fe Swe ager 8 & ERV ere ante Pear ot wae | (A) svat PSU. (8) SeHPSU | (C) AES eT (D) FTAA a SPMM12-14 A GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE31. ERV at sige a & fed cram ae fai aa | (A) sg at orf (B) Ffeer a ortrr (C) Pfer wert at artier (D) areit / Far sega art Ht orirer 82. ERV & are arg & wees § eat & aie & cea wega ana at raceme Ue? (A) ERV aa an a fae aaisite & arr (B) rarer at fee rer strane reer at fete (C) srr srrar snter fea meaner an es (D) aun ht 33. et 8 ora a sige fae Bee ear a Ba wee & Aha se ETE 7 (A) eira ie (8) oto tiondis (Charts (OD) iw aaa 84. meals Sa neat at afters after S got aS wwe__ fst At raft aw Se vest at | (A) aa (B) Fata (C) va (D) ae 35. & sepa yee mee & Fey west gee ora a ir EL ah St a aa BL (A) 1 are (8) 2ara (C) Sara (0) 10 are 986. oa aft TE septa & et Br 8 Batt & arr et aft at ae at___ at TE (A) fama ggéit aft (B) Pritt fe = (C) Rea gett (D) Farr aftr 37. 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