Mat & Sat - 06

MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.
-06)-MAT & SAT-2
MAT SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (1 – 12): Find the missing term of the series:
1. 60, 90, 180, 270, 540, ?

(A) 600 (B) 810 (C) 900 (D) 1080
2. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?

(A) 64 (B) 86 (C) 94 (D) 122
3. 6, 17, 39, 72, ?

(A) 83 (B) 94 (C) 116 (D) 127
4. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127

(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 47 (D) 52
5. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143

(A) 27 (B) 35 (C) 45 (D) 56
6. 1, 2, 6, 7, 21, 22, 66, 67, ?

(A) 70 (B) 134 (C) 181 (D) 201
7. AZY, BYX, CXW, DWV, ?

(A) EVA (B) EVU (C) VEU (D) VUE
8. AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX.

(A) LMNO (B) LMNOP (C) MNOPQ (D) QRSTU
9. Y, W, T, P, K, E, X, ?, ?
(A) G, H (B) P,G (C) R, G (D) S,R
Space for rough work
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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.-06)-MAT & SAT-3
10. B, D, F, I, L, P, ?
(A) R (B) S (C) T (D) U
11. A, I, P, V, A, E, ?
(A) E (B) F (C) G (D) H
12. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22.P.

(A) I11T (B) L11S (C) L12T (D) L11T
Directions (13 – 17): In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that
number.
13. 258, 130, 66, 34, 18, 8, 6

(A) 130 (B) 66 (C) 34 (D) 8
14. 2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567

(A) 6 (B) 24 (C) 96 (D) 285
15. 4, 5, 14, 39, 103, 169, 290

(A) 5 (B) 14 (C) 103 (D) 169
16. 6072, 1008, 200, 48, 14, 5, 3

(A) 1008 (B) 200 (C) 48 (D) 14
17. 2, 3, 6, 15, 37.5, 157.5, 630

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 15 (D) 37.5
Directions (18 – 22): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing, which are
given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
18. _ aba _ cabc – dcba _ bab _ a

(A) abdca (B) cbadc (C) abcdd (D) cbdaa
19. a_cdaab_cc_daa_bbb_ccddd
(A) bdbda (B) bddca (C) bbcad (D) bbdac
20. a_abbb_ccccd_ddccc_bb_ba
(A) abcda (B) abdbc (C) abdcb (D) abcad
21. _bcdbc_dcabd_bcdbc_dc_bd
(A) aaaaa (B) ccccc (C) bbbbb (D) ddddd
22. adb _ ac _ da _ cddcb _ dbc _ cbda

(A) bccba (B) cbbaa (C) ccbba (D) bbcad
23. If POLITICS is coded as OPILITSC, how will ARTICLES be coded in that language?
(A) RAITLCES (B) RAITLCSE (C) ARITLCSE (D) RAITLECS
24. If CRICKETER is coded as DQJBLDUDS, then PLAYER will be coded as

(A) QMBZFS (B) OMZZDS (C) QKBXFQ (D) QKBZDS
25. If REACHING TOMORROW is coded as HOJIDBFS XPSSPNPU, then UIHJMG EFZBMFE

means
(A) TRAINS DELAYED (B) FLIGHT DELAYED
(C) CANCEL JOURNEY (D) FLIGHT CANCEL
26. If ‘white’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘yellow, ‘yellow’’ is called ‘green’,
‘green’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘violet’ and ‘violet’ is called ‘orange’, what would be the
colour of human blood?
(A) Red (B) Green (C)Yellow (D) Violet
27. If ‘book’ is called ‘watch’, ‘watch’ is called ‘bag’, ‘bag’ is called ‘dictionary’ and ‘dictionary’ is called
‘window’. Which is used to carry books?
(A) dictionary (B) bag (C) book (D) watch
Directions (28 – 30): In a certain code, ‘il be pee’ means ‘roses are blue’, ‘sik hee’ means ‘red flowers’
and ‘pee nut hee’ means ‘flowers are vegetables’
28. How is ‘red’ written in that code?

(A) hee (B) sik
(C) be (D) cannot be determined
29. How is ‘roses’ written in that code?

(A) il (B) pee
(C) be (D) cannot be determined
30. How is ‘vegetables are red flowers’ written in that code?

(A) sik pee hee be (B) il sik nut hee
(C) pee sik nut hee (D) none of these
31. B is to the south – west of A, C is to the east of B and south – east of A and D is to the North of C
in line with B and A. In which direction of A is D located?
(A) North (B) East (C) South - East (D) North – East
32. A walks 10m towards East and then 10 m to his right. Then everytime turning to his left, he walks
5, 15 and 15m, respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 5m (B) 10m (C) 15m (D) 20m
33. A person starts towards south direction. Which of the following order of directions will lead him to
East direction.
(A) Right, Right, Right (B) Left, Left, Left
(C) Left, Right, Right (D) Right, Left, Right
Directions (34 – 40): In each of these questions, choose the missing term in place of sign (?) on the
basis of the relatilonship between the terms given on the left / right hand of the signs.
34. Ship : Sea :: Camel :?

(A) Land (B) Desert (C) Mountain (D) Forest
35. Wax : Candle :: ? : Paper

(A) Tree (B) Bamboo (C) Pulp (D) Wood
36. Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?

(A) Mountain (B) cave (C) Ice (D) Refrigerator
37. FJUL : BOQQ :: LHRX : ?

(A) BKPR (B) MNCC (C) HRYY (D) HMNC
38. AZBY : BYAZ :: BXCW : ?

(A) CWBX (B) CWDX (C) BWXZ (D) BWWZ
39. 35 : 13 :: 91 : ?
(A) 40 (B) 35 (C) 33 (D) 21
40. 18 : 30 : : 36 : ?
(A) 54 (B) 62 (C) 64 (D) 66
Directions (41 – 47): Find the odd one:
41. (A) silk (B) Cotton (C) nylon (D) Wool
42. (A) Triangle (B) Tangent (C) Rhombus (D) Pentagon
43. (A) Asia (B) Australia (C) America (D) England
44. (A) PLH (B) DFH (C) EKO (D) MKI
45. (A) TUWZ (B) CDFJ (C) KLNQ (D) RSUX
46. (A) 3 : 8 (B) 6 : 35 (C) 7 : 50 (D) 9 : 80
47. (A) 6 : 26 (B) 11 : 46 (C) 16 : 66 (D) 9 : 40
Directions (48– 51): Each of these questions consists of a question and two statements labelled I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and give your answer as :
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
48. Among P, K, D and R, who is the son of M?

I. P and K are sisters of R.
II. D is the mother of K and wife of M.
49. How is ‘Call’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Call me back’ is written as ‘531’ in that code language.
II. ‘you can call me anytime’ is written as ‘94163’ in that code language.
50. Among Sanjay, Suresh, Navin, Prakash and Karan, who has secured maximum marks in
Mathematics?
I. Karan has secured more marks in Mathematics than Suresh and Navin.
II. Sanjay and Prakash have secured less marks in Mathematics than Navin.
51. On which day in June did the school reopen?

I. Manoj correctly remembers that the school reopened after 12th June but before 16th June.
II. Manoj’s classmate Ashok correctly remembers that the school reopened after 14th June but
before 18th June.
Directions (52 – 55): In each of these questions are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from
the two given statements.
Give your answer as:
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neiter I nor II follows.
52. Statement : I. Some players are singers

II. All singers are tall.
Conclusions : I. Some players are tall.
II. All players are tall
53. Statement : I. Some vegetables are fruits

II. No fruit is black.
Conclusions : I. No vegetable is black.
II. Some fruits are vegetables.
54. Statement : I. Some fools are intelligent.

II. Some Intelligent are great.
Conclusions : I. Some fools are great.
II. All great are intelligent.
55. Statement : I. All stones are water.

II. Some water are clean.
Conclusions : I. Some stones are clean.
II. No stone is clean.
56. At what time between 4º’clock and 5 o’ clock will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
3
(A) 30 minutes past 4 (B) 16 minutes past 4
4
2
(C) 38 minutes past 4 (D) 33 minutes past 4
11
57. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide between 10: 00 AM to 6: 30 PM?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
58. What is the number of odd days in a leap year?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
59. Today is Wednesday, what will be the day after 95 days?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
60. Which one number can be placed at the sign of the interrogation?
93 27 79 38 67 16
63 37 42
3 4 ?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
61. Find out the missing number:

(A) 16 (B) 9
(C) 85 (D) 112
4 5
41
6 ? 5 2
7 1
62. Find the missing number:

15 6 5
13 3 9
8 2 ?
20 7 13
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7
63. In a chess tournament each of the six players will play with all other players exactly once. How
many matches wil be played during the tournament?
(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D) 36
64. Ramu is 48 years old. Robin is 6 years junior to Ramu and 14 years senior to Rohit. Ramu has
two children – Neethu and Vinu. Youngest sister of Rohit is Krishna and she is 15 years Junior to
him. What is the age of Krishna?
(A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 14 (D) 12
65. If the number from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 were arranged in ascending order,
minimum number being on the top, which would come at the ninth place from the top?
(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 21 (D) 27
Directions (66 – 67): The figure (X) given in each of these questions is the unfolded positions of a cubical
dice. This unfolded figure is followed by four different figures of dice. You have to select the figure which is
identical to figure (X).
66.
6 1
4 5
(X)
6 6 2 6
4 2 6 1
2 5 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67. A
C
D B
E
F
(X)
C A C B
D B A A
E C E F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68. 1 6
2 3
4 2
Which will be the number at the bottom if 5 is at the top?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6
Directions (69 – 73): These questions are based on the following information.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are to be staged one on each day from Monday to Saturday. The schedule
of the plays is to be in accordance with the following informations.
(i) A must be staged a day before E
(ii) C must not be staged on Tuesday
(iii) B must be staged on the day, following the day on which F is staged.
(iv) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(v) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
69. Which of the following plays is staged immediately after E?

(A) B (B) D (C) C (D) F
70. Which of the following plays is staged on Monday?

(A) E (B) F (C) C (D) B
71. Play D is between which of the following pair of plays?

(A) B and E (B) E and F (C) A and E (D) C and E
72. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday?
(A) E, A, B, F, D, C (B) F, B, A, E, D, C
(C) A, F, B, C, D, E (D) F, A, B, E, D, C
73. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday?
(A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Friday (D) Thursday
Directions (74 – 75): Read the following information carefully and then answer these questions.
A + B means A is the father of B, A – B means A is the wife of B, A  B means A is the brother of B,
A  B means A is the daughter of B.
74. If P + R  Q, which of the following is ture?

(A) P is the husband of Q (B) P is the brother of Q
(C) P is the son of Q (D) P is the father of Q.
75. If P  R – Q, which of the following is true?

(A) P is the brother of Q (B) P is the father of Q
(C) P is the brother-in-law of Q (D) P is the Uncle of Q.
76. A man said to a woman, “The only sister of your brother is my mother”. How is that man related to
that woman?
(A) Father (B) Son
(C) Husband (D) Brother
77. Pointing to a boy, Aruna said to Pushpa, “The mother of his father is the wife of your maternal
grandfather”. How is Pushpa related to that boy?
(A) Sister (B) Niece (C) Cousin (D) Wife
78. Q’s mother is the sister of R and the daughter of S. N is the daughter of R and sister of M. How is
‘M’ related to ‘S’?
(A) Son (B) Grandson (C) Brother (D) Data inadequate
Directions (79 – 83): Each of these questions contains three groups of items. You have to choose from
the following alternatives, the diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the three groups of
items in each question.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79. Maize, Sugarcane, Crops
80. Apples, Mangoes, Oranges
81. Asia, Delhi, India
82. Pop, Songs, Classical
83. Year, Month, Day
Directions (84 –88): Read the information given below and answer these questions.
The age and height of six children in a class are as follows:
(i) Amit is taller and older than Tanu but shorter and younger than Shruti.
(ii) Bharat is taller than Chander who is not as tall as Tanu.
(iii) The oldest is the shortest.
(iv) The youngest would be fourth if the children stood in a line according to their height and one
started counting from the tallest.
(v) Bharat is younger than Ritu but older than Chander who is older than Shruti.
84. Who among them is the tallest?

(A) Tanu (B) Chander
(C) Data Inadequate (D) None of these
85. Who is older than Tanu but younger than shruti?

(A) Ritu (B) Amit
(C) Bharat (D) Data inadequate
86. Which of the following statements in definitely true ?

(A) Bharat is the oldest person in the group
(B) Tanu is the tallest person in the group
(C) Amit is older than Bharat
(D) None of these
87. Which of the following is correct order of age arranged in descending order?
(A) Amit, Shruti, Bharat, Tanu, Chnader and Ritu
(B) Ritu, Bharat, Chnader, Shruti, Amit and Tanu
(C) Bharat, Shruti, Amit, Tanu, Chnader and Ritu
(D) Data Inadequate
88. Whose rank in height cannot be positioned definitely?

(A) Tanu (B) Bharat (C) Shruti (D) Chander
89. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONTEMPORARY’ which have as many letters
between them in the word as in the English Alphabet?
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) More than four
90. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, which letter will
appear in the middle?
“AIDMURA”
(A) M (B) R (C) U (D) A
Directions (91 – 95): In the word ‘ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH’, the first half of the letters are reversed,
last but one letter is then prefixed and finally letter ‘S’ is suffixed.
91. Which letter will be exactly in the tenth position?

(A) L (B) R (C) D (D) E
92. How many vowels are there in the first half of the word?
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 5
93. Which of the two vowels are adjoining each other?

(A) IE (B) IO (C) AE (D) AO
94. Name the letters sandwiched between two vowels.

(A) R and T (B) C and L (C) R and L (D) None of these
95. Which vowel will have a consonant to the left but a vowel to the right of it?
(A) I (B) O (C) A (D) E
Directions (96 – 97): In each of these questions, choose the alternative in which the question figure (X)
is embedded.
96.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
97.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (98 – 100): Find the missing term of the series.
98.
?
1 2 3 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
99.
S X
?
#
X
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8
#
# # #
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
SAT SECTION – II
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It passes a point 50 high at t 1 and t2 while going upwards and
coming down respectively. The value of product t1t2, if g = 10 m/s2, is
(A) 10 (B) 50 (C) 20 (D) 100
2. What will be the value of current passing through

B
region B of the given conductor?
(A) I A A
(B) 3I A I (A) I (A)
I
(C) A
2
I
(D) A
3
3. A body having initial momentum 40 kg m/s is subjected to a

force F. The final momentum of the body at the end of 5s is
(A) 60 kg m/s 15
(B) 100 kg m/s
F (N)
(C) 7.5 kg m/s 5
(D) 0 kg m/s
3 5 t (s)
4. For what value of R the current in galvanometer is 0 A. R

(A) 12  24
24
(B) 24 
(C) 6  G
(D) 30 
12
24
12
5. For the following figure, the mirror is rotated by 30° in a

plane perpendicular to the plane of incidence. The reflected
ray will be rotated by
(A) 30° 
(B) 60°
(C) 15°
(D) 0°
6. Find out  for the following reflection; ray (1) is parallel to I 1 2

mirror II and ray (2) is parallel to mirror I.
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60° 
(D) 90° II
7. A small bar magnet is dropped through a copper tube. The magnet falls with acceleration a such
that
(A) a = g (B) a < g
(C) a is constant (D) a > g
8. A car accelerates uniformly from rest and covers 12 m in first 4s. The distance covered by it in
first 8s is
(A) 36 m (B) 12 m
(C) 48 m (D) 50 m
9. For the given figure, m = (if all blocks are at rest)

(A) 2 kg
(B) 1 kg 2kg
m
(C) 3 kg
(D) 2.5 kg
30°
2kg
10. Tension will be greater at

(A) A A
(B) B
2 kg
(C) equal at both points
(D) data is insufficient. B
F = 10 N
11. The shout from a man on a cliff is heard by a man going in a car toward the cliff at a speed
72 km/h when he is 180 m. away from the cliff. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, after how much
time from shouting is the sound heard?
(A) 1s (B) 0.5 s (C) 1.5 s (D) 0.6 s
12. Two identical spheres each of radius r touch each other. The gravitational force between them
varies with radius as
1 1
(A) F  r2 (B) F  2 (C) F  r4 (D) F 
r r4
13. A stone is thrown along a rough surface with velocity v m/s. If the coefficient of friction is , the
stone will come to rest in distance
v2 v2 v 2
(A) v2 m (B) m (C) m (D) m
2g 2g 2g
14. A block of ice floats in water, when it melts

(A) Level of water increases. (B) Level of water decreases.
(C) Level of water remains same. (D) Nothing can be said certainly
15. In the given reaction, read the statements and answer

H2S  Cl2  2HCl  S
(a) H2S loses hydrogen so it is reduced.
(b) Cl2 is an oxidising agent.
(c) Cl2 gain hydrogen so it is reduced.
(d) It is a redox reaction.
(A) All are correct (B) (b), (c), (d) are correct
(C) (a), (b), (c) are correct (D) All are incorrect
16. Solution of which two chemicals on mixing yield precipitate?

(A) BaCl2 and Na2SO4 (B) H2SO4 and NaCl
(C) KNO3 and H2SO4 (D) NaOH and H2SO4
17. Valance of phosphate radical is:-

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
18. On heating baking soda which of the following is obtained?

(A) Na2So4, H2O, CO2 (B) Ca2Co3, H2O, CO2
(C) Na2Co3, H2O, CO2 (D) NaO, H2O, CO2
19. In which of the following reactions CO2 is not produced?

(A) Burning carbon or its compounds in air
(B) By strongly heating metal carbonates and bicarbonates
(C) By reaction of dilute HCl on Ca(OH)2
(D) By action of dilute H2So4 on CaCo3
20. Hydrogen element is present in which of the following compounds?

(A) Lime stone (B) Vinegar (C) Table salt (D) Chile salt peter
21. Which of the following molecular formula corresponds to ethyl butanoate ester?
(A) C5H10O2 (B) C6H12O2 (C) C7H14O2 (D) C6H16O2
22. The atomic numbers of four elements P, Q, R and S are 6, 10, 12 and 17 respectively. The two
elements can combine to form a covalent compound?
(A) P and R (B) Q and S (C) P and S (D) R and S
23. The solution of one of the following compounds will not conduct electricity. This compound is
(A) NaCl (B) CCl4 (C) MgCl2 (D) MgCl2
24. The electronic configuration of three elements X, Y and Z are:

X:2 Y : 2, 8, 7 Z : 2, 8, 2
Which of the following is correct regarding these elements?
(A) X is a metal (B) Y is a metal
(C) Z is a non-metal (D) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
25. The rechargeable battery used in a mobile phone hand set is usually:
(A) lead ion battery (B) sodium ion battery
(C) hydrogen ion battery (D) lithium ion battery
26. Which of the following is an ore of mercury metal?

(A) rock salt (B) cinnabar (C) calamine (D) haematite
27. Which of the following reactants are used to carry out the thermite reaction required for welding
the broken railway tracks?
(A) Al2O3 + Fe (B) MnO2 + Al (C) Fe2O3 + Al (D) Cu2O + Fe
28. Mandeleev predicted existence of certain elements not known at that time & named two of them
as eKa – aluminium & eKa – Silicon. Name the element which has taken place.
(A) Boron & Carbon (B) Galium & Thallium
(C) Germanium & Indium (D) Galium & Germanium
29. Main basis of Neo-Darwinism is

(A) Struggle for existence (B) Variations
(C) Survival of the fittest (D) Gene theory
30. Alga rich in protein is

(A) Chlorella (B) Spirogyra (C) Oscillatoria (D) Ulothrix
31. Seed habit originated firstly in some

(A) Pteridophytes (B) Pines (C) Monocots (D) Dicot
32. Which of the following do not have polyp form

(A) Hydrozoa (B) Scyphozoa (C) Anthozoa (D) All of the above
33. In photorespiration what is the role of peroxisome

(A) help in oxidation of glycolate (B) Help in oxygenation of glycolate
(C) Help in synthesis of PGA (D) Help in reduction of glycoxylate
34. The mineral necessary for nervous conduction is

(A) Iron (B) Sodium
(C) Phosphorus (D) Magnesium
35. Which of the following cranial nerve of man is both sensory and motor-
(A) Olfactory (B) Trigeminal
(C) Optic (D) Auditory
36. Hormone present in greatest concentration during ovulation is

(A) FSH (B) LH
(C) Prolactin (D) ACTH
37. After fertilization the outer integument forms

(A) Testa (B) Tegmen
(C) Perisperm (D) Pericarp
38. Mendel crossed a pure white-flowered recessive pea plant with a dominant pure, red flowered
plant- the first generation of hybrids from the cross should show-
(A) 50% white flowered and 50% red flowered plants
(B) All red flowered plants
(C) 75% red flowered and 25% white flowered plants
(D) All white flowered plants.
39. Sometimes the separation of twins is incomplete and these are born attached or remain so even
after. Such twins are known as
(A) Fraternal (B) Dizygotic
(C) Identical (D) Siamese
40. During DNA replication, the strands separate by

(A) DNA polymerase (B) Unwindase
(C) Gyrase (D) Topoisomerase
41.* ‘n’ is the smallest positive integer such that (2001 + n) is the sum of the cubes of the first ‘m’,
natural numbers. Then
(A) m  9, n  24 (B) m  24, n  9
(C) m  13, n  72 (D) None of these
42.  
The value of ‘a’ =  R for which the equation 1  a2 x 2  2  x  a   1  ax   1  0 has no real
roots, is
(A) a   0,   (B) a   , 0  (C) a   (D) a  R
43. If xy  yz  zx  12  x 2  15  y 2  20  z 2, then
(A) x  y  z  4 (B) x  y  z  5
(C) x  y  z  6 (D) x  y  z  7
44. In figure, O is the centre of the circle PQ is a tangent to the circle at A. If PAB = 58°, then
ABQ + AQB :
(A) 38º (B) 58º (C) 68º (D) None of these
45. If 3 x  5 y  75 z , then the value of z  2x  y  / xy is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
46. The value of x  2 x 1  x  2 x  1 for 1  x  2, is

(A) 2 n  1 (B) 2  n  1  1 (C) 2 (D) None of these
47. In figure, a circle touches the side BC of ABC at P and touches AB and AC produced at Q and
R respectively. If AQ = 5cm then the perimeter of ABC = ?
(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 9 cm
48. In the given figure, if EBD = 146°, then x = ?
(A) 34° (B) 44° (C) 54° (D) None of these
49. The numbers a, b, c are the digits of a three digit number which satisfy 49a + 7b + c = 286. Then,
the value of 100a  10b  c is
(A) 556 (B) 256
(C) 356 (D) 286
12 22 32 5002
50. Let S =    ......  . Then, the value of S is
1.3 3.5 5.7 999.1001
1002 12520
(A) (B)
1001 1001
1250
(C) (D) None of these
1001
   a  2  2 
 1   b   a 
      1
51.* If  and a  b  5, then the value of ‘a’ and ‘b’ are
 a  b   2 ab 
2
 
(A)  3, 2  (B)  2, 4  (C)  1, 5  (D)  1, 4 
 2x  3  3  x  1
52.* The value of  is
 2x  3   4 4  x  1 2  1
4
 x  2 x 1
(A) (B)
4 x  2
2 3
4 x  2  1
x2 x 1
(C) (D)
4  x  1  1
2
4 x  2  1
3
1  8y 3
53. If  1  2x   1  2y   3, xy  0, then is equal to
y  1  y3 
8x 2 1  8x3
(A) (B)
1  x3 x  1  x3 
1
x  1  x3 
(C) (D) None of these
54. If f  x   x 3  ax  b is divisible by  x  1 2 , then the remainder obtained when f  x  is

divided by ' x  2 ' , is
(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) 1
55. Product of two roots x 4  11x 3  kx 2  269x  2001 is -69, then find ‘k’.
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) -20 (D) -10
56. If sin x  sin2 x  1, then the value cos2 x  cos 4 x is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) -1
57. Triangle ABC is isosceles, right angled at B and has area S. A circle is constructed with B as
centre and BA as radius. A semicircle is constructed externally on AC, that is one the side of AC
which is opposite to that of B. Then, the area of the creascent formed between the circle and the
semicircle is
(A) 2S (B) S/2 (C) S (D) None of these
58. The circle C1 has centre (2, 3) and radius 3. The circle C2 has centre (-1, 4) and radius 5. Then,
the number of common tangents to the circles is.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
59. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 30 and 20 units and the non-parallel sides are 13 and 15
unit. Then, its area, is (approximately)
(A) 320 (B) 150 (C) 200 (D) 600
60. Which term of 11  9  7  ....... is – 13?

(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 5 (D) 11
61. Which one of the following is not true with reference to distribution of resources in India?
(A) The state of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal
deposits.
(B) Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources.
(C) The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy.
(D) The state of west Bengal lacks fertile soil.
62. For what Perambur is known for?

(A)Cotton Fabrics (B) Silk Embroidery
(C) Leather Works (D) Manufacture of Integrated Coaches
63. Black Money is

(A) Counterfeit currency
(B) Illegally earned money
(C) Money earned through underhand deals
(D) Income on which payment of tax is usually avoided
64. In the coastal lowland of Kerala two crops of rice is grown per year because of:
1. High temperature in winter
2. Adequate irrigation facility
3. Adequate rain through out the year
4. Presence of water retentive clayey loam soil
(A) Only one (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 3 and 4
65. Which is the first National Park established in India?

(A) Velvadna National Park (B) Periyar
(C) Bandipur (D) Corbett National Park
66. Which of the following statements are true with respect to iron ore?
1. Limestone and Coal are important for smelting iron ore
2. More than 20% of the world iron ore deposits are in India.
3. Orissa and Jharkhand top in the production of iron ore.
4. Iran is the largest buyer of Indian iron ore.
(A) 1, 2 & 3 (B) 2 & 3 (C) 3 & 4 (D) 2, 3 & 4
67. A comprehensive record of economic transactions of the residents of a country with the rest of
the world during a given period of time is
(A) Balance of Payment (B) Foreign exchange
(C) Balance of Trade (D) Exports
68. “Roadways have an edge over Railways”. Which of the following is not an appropriate reason for
the same?
1. Roads can be constructed easily in dissected and undulating topography.
2. Construction cost is less.
3. Roadways provide door to door service
4. Roadways is controlled and maintained by govt
(A) Only 4 (B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Only 3 & 4 (D) All of the above
69. Which is /are correct regarding the features of Subsistence Farming?

1. The main production is consumed by the farmer’s household
2. The land holdings are small and scattered
3. Mostly the farmers use primitive tools
4. The production of rice, wheat, millets, spices, cotton, jute etc. has witnessed a tremendous
increase.
(A) Only 4 (B) 3, 4 and 1 (C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) Only 2
70. Under which climatic conditions do the Laterite soils develop?

(A) Hot and dry climate (B) Cold temperate climate
(C) Wet tropical climate (D) Mediterranean types of climate
71. The nature of the winter rainfall in north western India is:
(A) convectional (B) orographic (C) monsoonal (D) Cyclonic
72. The Tehri Dam is being constructed on the river

(A) Ganga (B) Yamuna (C) Bhagirathi (D) Satluj
73. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India, forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively
called as
(A) Himachal (B) Uttaranchal (C) Purvanchal (D) Himadri
74. From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices
that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. Which of the following
was not part of that?
(A) A new French flag, the tricolour replaced the Royal Flag.
(B) The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National
Assembly.
(C) A centralised administrative system was set up.
(D) All the citizens were given right to vote.
75. The Bretton Woods Monetary System was based on……………….

(A) Floating exchange rates (B) Fixed exchange rates
(C) Both floating as well as fixed rates (D) All of the above
76. What was the result of the peace negotiations held at Geneva after the defeat of the French
forces in 1954?
(A) Vietnam was made independent
(B) Vietnam was handed over to France
(C) The USA forces had to withdraw from Vietnam
(D) Vietnam was divided into two parts-the South Vietnam and the North Vietnam
77. By 1873, Britain was exporting steel and iron worth how many millions to Foreign countries?
(A) About 57 million pounds (B) About 67 million pounds
(C) About 77 million pounds (D) About 87 million pounds
78. Which of the following is not a feature of the Poona Pact?

(i) It was signed in 1932
(ii) It was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R Ambedkar
(iii) It gave the depressed Classes reserved seats in provincial and Central Legislative
Councils.
(iv) B.R. Ambedkar was declared as the Chairman.
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) Only iv
79. Which of the following Novels represent colonialism as heroic and honourable?
(A) Pride and Prejudice (B) Mayor of Casterbridge
(C) Hard Times (D) Treasure Island
80. For what purpose, the earliest textbooks were printed in China?
(A) To recruit the Civil servants through written examination
(B) To teach the religious priests
(C) To train the factory workers
(D) As a passion for learning
81. Why were the migrants attracted towards London and Manchester?
(A) To get better education facilities for their children
(B) To live a life of leisure and pleasure
(C) To avail of job facilities in textile mills.
(D) To enjoy the city life
82. Lower ends of grain stalks left in the ground after harvesting are called
(A) Mund (B) Stubble (C) Bugyal (D) Bhabar
83. Silviculture means

(A) Branch of forestry that deals with the growing, maintenance and improvement of forests
(B) The impoverishment of land through the removal of top soil
(C) A forest worker in the lumbering industry
(D) Things which degenerate
84. The term “Sickles” mentions

(A) Land ploughed and harrowed but not sown
(B) An instrument for cutting grains used with one hand
(C) Natural manures used along with irrigation
(D) None of the above
85. Khadi was popularised to

(A) Hit economic interests of rulers (B) Restore hidden culture
(C) Promote freedom struggle (D) Close down Indian textile mills
86. Abdication of the Tsar Nicholas II of Russia was in the year

(A) 1917, March 2 (B) 1917, October 24
(C) 1905, February 15 (D) 1898, July 4
87. Which one of the following indefinitely suspended civil rights such as Freedom of expression,
speech, press and assembly, guaranteed by the Weimer Constitution?
(A) Establishment of concentration of camps
(B) Enabling Act
(C) By the setting up of the I.M. T
(D) The fire decree
88. What is a “rigging”?

(A) A fair practice during election process
(B) Any unfair practice during election Process
(C) A fair rule and regulation in democratic set up
(D) Minimum qualification to become the members of Lok sabha
89. Who was Lech Walesa?

(A) A freedom fighter (B) A leader of Trade Union
(C) A Revolutionary (D) A Social Reformer
90. When was the Right to Information Act passed?

(A) September 2004 (B) October 2005
(C) November 2006 (D) December 2007
91. Consider the following two statements about the Power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri
Lanka.
(i) In Belgium, the Dutch- Speaking majority of the people tried to impose their domination on
the minority French –speaking community.
(ii) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the govt ensured the dominance of the Sinhala –speaking
majority.
(iii) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of Power sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
(iv) The transformation of Belgium from unitary govt to a federal one prevented a possible
division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) i, ii, iii and iv (B) i, ii and iv (C) iii and iv (D) ii, iii, and iv
92. What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?

(A) Bahujan Samaj (B) Revolutionary democracy
(C) Integral humanism (D) Modernity
93. The Struggle in Bolivia in 2000 was

(A) To establish democracy (B) Due to increase in price of water
(C) To have a re-election (D) Due to racial discrimination
94. Which one of the following is a foundational challenge of democracy?

(A) Ensuring greater power to local govt
(B) Keeping military away from controlling govt
(C) Extension of federal principal to all the units of the federation
(D) Empowering women
95. The writ which prevents an unlawful claimant from holding a superior public office
(A) Prohibition (B) Certiorai
(C) Mandamus (D) Quo-Warranto
96. Which one of the following countries has the largest size of illiterate population in the age group
of 15 in the world?
(A) India (B) Myanmar (C) Bangladesh (D) China
97. Name the neighbouring country of India which has better performance in terms of human
development than India.
(A) Pakistan (B) Nepal (C) Bhutan (D) Sri Lanka
98. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are being set up to attract:

(A) Foreign Tourist (B) Foreign Investment
(C) Foreign goods (D) Foreign Policies
99. What is the major source of revenue for the Commercial Banks?
(A) The difference between what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors
(B) Revenue from the share markets
(C) Fixed deposits
(D) None of the above
100. Kiosk is
(A) A sum of money given by govt to keep prices low
(B) Minimum price offered by govt to ensure that purchasing prices do not crash due to greater
supply
(C) A small roofed stall
(D) A state of food scarcity often leading to starvation and deaths
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 06)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(MAT)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C
9. B 10. C 11. D 12. D
13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A
17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. B 24. C
25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B
29. D 30. C 31. D 32. A
33. A 34. B 35. C 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. D 40. D
41. C 42. B 43. D 44. C
45. B 46. C 47. D 48. D
49. D 50. C 51. C 52. A
53. B 54. D 55. C 56. C
57. A 58. B 59. D 60. D
61. C 62. A 63. B 64. A
65. D 66. C 67. B 68. B
69. B 70. B 71. D 72. B
73. C 74. A 75. C 76. B
77. C 78. D 79. D 80. C
81. A 82. B 83. A 84. C
85. B 86. D 87. B 88. B
89. D 90. C 91. D 92. C
93. B 94. B 95. A 96. C
97. B 98. B 99. C 100. C
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 06)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(SAT)
ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. C 15. B 16. A
17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D
25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D
29. B 30. A 31. A 32. B
33. A 34. B 35. B 36. B
37. A 38. B 39. D 40. B
41. A 42. D 43. C 44. B
45. B 46. C 47. A 48. A
49. A 50. B 51. A 52. A
53. B 54. C 55. D 56. A
57. C 58. C 59. A 60. A
61. D 62. D 63 D 64. C
65. D 66. A 67. A 68. A
69. C 70. C 71. D 72. C
73. C 74. D 75. B 76. D
77. C 78. C 79. D 80. A
81. C 82. B 83. A 84. B
85. C 86. A 87. D 88. C
89. B 90. B 91. A 92. C
93. B 94. B 95. D 96. D
97. D 98. B 99. A 100. C

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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.

-06)-MAT & SAT-2

Directions (1 – 12): Find the missing term of the series:

1. 60, 90, 180, 270, 540, ?

2. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?

3. 6, 17, 39, 72, ?

4. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127

5. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143

6. 1, 2, 6, 7, 21, 22, 66, 67, ?

7. AZY, BYX, CXW, DWV, ?

8. AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX.

Space for rough work

12. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22.P.

13. 258, 130, 66, 34, 18, 8, 6

14. 2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567

15. 4, 5, 14, 39, 103, 169, 290

16. 6072, 1008, 200, 48, 14, 5, 3

17. 2, 3, 6, 15, 37.5, 157.5, 630

18. _ aba _ cabc – dcba _ bab _ a

Space for rough work

22. adb _ ac _ da _ cddcb _ dbc _ cbda

24. If CRICKETER is coded as DQJBLDUDS, then PLAYER will be coded as

25. If REACHING TOMORROW is coded as HOJIDBFS XPSSPNPU, then UIHJMG EFZBMFE

28. How is ‘red’ written in that code?

29. How is ‘roses’ written in that code?

Space for rough work

30. How is ‘vegetables are red flowers’ written in that code?

34. Ship : Sea :: Camel :?

35. Wax : Candle :: ? : Paper

36. Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?

37. FJUL : BOQQ :: LHRX : ?

38. AZBY : BYAZ :: BXCW : ?

Space for rough work

Directions (41 – 47): Find the odd one:

41. (A) silk (B) Cotton (C) nylon (D) Wool

42. (A) Triangle (B) Tangent (C) Rhombus (D) Pentagon

43. (A) Asia (B) Australia (C) America (D) England

44. (A) PLH (B) DFH (C) EKO (D) MKI

45. (A) TUWZ (B) CDFJ (C) KLNQ (D) RSUX

46. (A) 3 : 8 (B) 6 : 35 (C) 7 : 50 (D) 9 : 80

47. (A) 6 : 26 (B) 11 : 46 (C) 16 : 66 (D) 9 : 40

48. Among P, K, D and R, who is the son of M?

49. How is ‘Call’ written in a code language?

Space for rough work

51. On which day in June did the school reopen?

52. Statement : I. Some players are singers

53. Statement : I. Some vegetables are fruits

54. Statement : I. Some fools are intelligent.

55. Statement : I. All stones are water.

Space for rough work

58. What is the number of odd days in a leap year?

59. Today is Wednesday, what will be the day after 95 days?

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

Space for rough work

61. Find out the missing number:

62. Find the missing number:

Space for rough work

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

Which will be the number at the bottom if 5 is at the top?

69. Which of the following plays is staged immediately after E?