-

All INDIA. AAKASH TEST SERIES

1M MEDICAL
Entrance Exams - 2018
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)

TEST No.1 ----Ql------m

(XII Studying Students)

1. Read each question carefully. 7. Before attempting the question paper. student should ensure that
2. It is mandatory lo use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen lo darken the the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet. 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be deducted
3. ·Ma'rk should be dark and should completely fill the circle. for each incorrect answer from the total score.

4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing matenal on answer
sheet. No change in the answer once marked.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other matenal
in the examination hall.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet lo the invigilator, candidate
should check that PSlD/User lD. Roll No. and Centre Code have
been filled and marked correctly.
10. Immediately after the prescnbed examination time 1s over. the
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.

'.: ::' N~t~·.;,It-is conipuisory 10· fill Roll N~. 'and Te~t Booklet Code on'_an'swer sh~et:othe-~isi yo.1.ir ans~~r -~heel will be rejected.
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Aakash
MedicalIHT-JEE lFoundations
(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Pvt. ltd )
/
Test .1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

Time : 3 Hrs. '\

TEST- I I (,
MM : 720

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. The unit of el~ermittivity is 5. The electric field decreases most rapidly, with

(1) A2 N-1 nr-_ (2) C2 N-1m- 1 'f distance for

~ (4J(Vn-1 ~
(1) ~harge (2) Lar(ie charge she¥'
(3) c2 N m-1 '\..- (3) Long line charge (4) Short electric dipole 7
2. The electric field lines --._., C.,;...'.J"((\ 6. Electric field lines in the space surrounding a charge
distribution show
(1) Are the trajectories of a positive t t char
(1) The paths that static charges would take
(2) Are vectors in the direction of the electric field (2) The directions in which static positive charge

(3) Cross each other in the region between two
unlike point charges
~ o not form closed loops
3. In a- certain region of space the electric potential
increases uniformly from east to west and does not
vary in any other direction. The electric field .,.~✓
(1) Points east and varies with position
(2)
. (3) P~ts west and varies with po · ·
(21)Points west and does not vary with position
A closed solid conductor of irregular shape is given
u
would accelerate when passing through poinots
on those lines .
(3) The paths that moving charges would take
(4) All of these ·
7. Which of the following statements concerning th
electric field inside a conductor is true?
(1) The electric field inside a conductor is never zero
t:' (2) The electric field inside a conductor is always
zero
~ The electric field inside a conduttor is always
zero, unless there is an excess charge inside
conductor
e electric field inside a conductor can only be
on-zero, if the c harge carrier inside th e
conductor are drifting

~)~:::::::~o~:::u:o~:,:::.::: ,::~::::: : 8. Choose the incorrect statement.

0 changed

(2) Electric field inside it is non-zero

(3) All points on its surface will have same-charge

density
(1) Gauss law can be verified from Coulomb's law
(2) Coulomb's law can be verified from Gauss law
and symmetry
(3) Gauss law applies to a closed surface of any
shape
~ccording to Gauss law, if a closed surface
(4) All of these encloses no charge , then the electric field must
vanish everywhere on the surface
Space for Rough Work

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9 A charge -2 nC is fixed at each of the points 14. Three charges +O, q al')d q are placed at the vertices
= = =
x 1 cm, x 2 cm, x 4 cm, x 8 cm, x 16 cm, = = of a right angled isosceles triangle as shown in figure.
· · ·: : · x = 00 on the x-axis. The electric potential at The net electrostatic potential energy of the system
lrigjl-'{x = 0), due to this system of charges, is of these three point charges is zero. if q is equal to
~__;:%VO\L_ (2) -1800 volt
q
' ·,_lli --1 600 volt (4) -5400 volt

r
10
· An o:-particl~ i~ ~rejected with a kinetic energy of
18 eV from infinity towards a fixed point charge
~O pC . The diSt ance of closest approach bf the
a-particle, from the fixed point charge , is r.;q..________._,.:
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm !E,-2cm~
(3) 6 cm
(4) 9 cm Q
(1) - J2 (2V-2✓2 Q
A_n o: pa~icle, in~tially at rest, moves through a certain
-- r::::::=::----:
d1sta~~~ in a uniform electric field in time t,. A proton,
Q
:Is~ in1t1~lly at re_st, takes time t2 to move through an (3) - 3J2 (4) -4✓2Q
q al distance in the same uniform electric field.
15. Two parallel plate capacitors having capacitances
. ~
Neglecting the ff
ect of gravity, the ratio is equal t 6 ~lF and 3 ~tF are charged to potentials
25 V and 15 V respectively. If the plates of unlike
to ✓ ,26 polarity of the two capacitors are connected together,

~ /ris >-
(1) 1: .J2 then the loss in energy is
'" - ,J2 (1) 100 ~lJ (2) 450 ~lJ
(3) 1 :_2.fi.
:1 (3) 1600 µJ (4) 7200 µJ
Eight identical spherical liquid drops are each at a
poten_tial ~ v_olt. They coalesce to make one big 16 · A uniform electric field of 50J2 vm-1 , exists in XY
spherical liquid drop, whose potential is plane, making an angle of 45° with positive X axis

(1) ~V
4
0) 16V
~
~/
'\S
as shown in below figure. The potential difference
[VA - V8 ] is

"I(
(3) 8 V (4) ~\J
2V
/'\/" 13. Three capacitors C 1 = , 3 µF, C = 6 µ and
~r,_,,,'1 S-i~S12 µF
are joined in serieJ. T·his· series 7-; 5
J.. ~ f\1pmbination is connected to a 14 volt source. The (f"
~ \D} 'p·?I'~ s the plates of c acitor C2 is

~ ,'7 ~ : ~~:~ ,[ ,J ~
~ ~\Q (2) 4 volt ~ : ' -
I._
:{Y) . . '01)
./Y.~ (3) 6 volt 'r c\}~ . ,_\ ~C\,' p( \
f (4) 8 volt :;}/ ...__ r: 'i-...,__ ~ ~+300✓2 V (4) +300 V DD

~ ~R;:~ ~;~\ _
X
~t~
-' ) -
)_- \ )-, ' - \ /~ \;._,\ C Ii\ ) ,...c. 'Leo
-~:Jl>'l ~ / 0 x~
\ ~ ½.~ ~ Q ~ '2 lo 001-10
, ,l.

~~ ,~ 1- OJ y Q
, , ~\_ \Q'}~i\O
~ x i t ~v · \ ' \ ~
<\..-1/.~
9
\ r J-;;_-. ~v-
k, \~q_, +~~
J_ A. AJ;..
\0
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 Test-1 (Code A) . ,_ -. . . ·. .,·. . -";--, ;,.. -~~-», . : ·-, . · -~,, ~,kUi,:..,~;.;•.All lndla Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 ·

17 The electric potential at a point (x . y, z) in space is

Q Q
given by V = [x2y - y2z - z2x] V The electric field •
at the point [-1 m, -1 m. - 1 m] is

(1 ) [i-}-k]Vm- 1
'( (2) (i - } - 3/<]Vm- 1 p
(3)
4 n E0
(7:r (4 )
4 nE0
(g;J
(3) [- i + }+3k]Vm- 1 ~ i+} + k]Vm-1
18. A solid conducting sphere of radius R and charge
[20) is surrounded by an uncharged concentric
cpnducting_hollow spherical shell of radius 2R. Let V
,s the potential difference between the surface of the
solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the
hollow spherical shell. If the shell is now given a
charge of [--40]. then the new potential difference
between the same two surfaces is

R
20. A point charge O is located at a distance +
2
+ +
the centre of an uncharged co·n ducting sphericatv
+ +
shell as shown in below figure. The electric field C D E
a distano/R ram the point charge is · --V -r-- +
x~ ·o·_;_.-~~f cm x ==a·cm·· --
(jN '-<>t ..--r-----.. ~ ~ +
+
+
+
+
+

~--· . ··;~·-.... . . :_~~

+ +
_; .,.l~
28 12
I I
() (1) 27 (2)
'Y 11
1 Q Q
1
( ) ~ 7tEo 9R2 (2) 47tEo
(s:r (3) 12
27
(4)
54
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23 The effective capacitance between the points a and . shown,_th ~ effective~res1stanc
26. In the circuit
b in the network shown below is IIJ,e points a and b Is
7 µF
1
...__/ 6.Q ( 18.Q
7 µF
------ 6' )Q
b

l"'µ~:£J7µF (1) 3 Q
18 Q

~ (2) 5 Q
6.Q
~
a
Q µF 14
?'/.Jf::
b
(3) 6 Q (4) 10 Q
In the circuit own, the effective resistance between
49 the points and b is
(1) - ~lF
12 (2) 21 µF 3 ,Q
(3) 15µF (4) 19µF
24. Three heater coils H 1 , H and H rated [1000 W :
2 3
100V]. (1500 W : 100 VJ and [2000 W : 100 VJ
individually take a time interval of 12 minutes,
6 minutes and 4 minutes respectively to generate the
sam~ quantity of heat Q when connected to a 100 V
source. Now these three coils are connected in
parallel and this parallel combination is connected to
a 50 V source. The time interval taken by this 6.Q
parallel combination of coils to generate the same (1) 1.5 Q (2) 2 .Q
quantity of heat Q is
(3) 2.5 .Q (4) 3 .Q
(1) 2 minutes (2) 6 minutes
For the circuit shown below, when the switch S is
(3) 8 minutes (4) 12 minutes 28. closed, then the total amount of char~e t~at flows
25. In the circuit shown , R 1 = 10 Q ; R = 20 Q ; from point a to point b through the switch: is
2
=
R 3 30 .Q and R 4 =
20 Q . Potential difference
between b and d is ~

~~
½
6.Q a 3 .Q

9V
15 V
(1) 1 V (2) 2 V (1) 84 µC (2) 99 µC
(3) 3 V (4) 4 V (3) 60 µC
(4) 39 ~lC
Space for Rough Work

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 Test -1 (Code A) ·; · · . · . All India Aakash Test Serles for Medlcal-2018 •
29 In th e infinite ladde r n etwork s h ow n below , if 32 The current flowing throu gh the 3 Q resistor, in the
R = 1 235 .Q, then the effective resistance between - circuit shown below. is

the points a and b (approximately) is ( Js = 2.235) 1 .Q 2 .Q

:~-~- F~ F~ !RB IR ....

-~u - /yl y
•of~ ~20£J2Q l1Q
a '
.
(1) 0.14s n l~2-1],..,~·
·-· Ys
_5« LJY'15 A from a to b _ ')._O _,. µ - 1- 0
(2) 15 A from b to a
(3) 2 Q (4) [ ✓32+ 5 ]n 'u,
(3) 25 A from a to b 5
(4) No current will flow through 3 .Q resistor
30. The current through the 2 .Q resistor in the circuit
shown below is 33. The length of meter bridge wire is 10 0 cm . A
resistance of 6 Q is connected across the left gap
~ - -< 10 volt and an unknown resistan ce 0 . { Q > 6 .Q} , is
1 .Q
connected acros s th e righ t gap . When t h ese
5 volt resistances are interchanged , th e balance point
1 .Q shifts by 20 cm. The value of resistance Q is
a·...__ ____.,.,,.,.,__ _---4b (1) 9 Q

(1) 3 A from a to b ~ A from bto a (2) 12 Q ~ ti:, >-, f

(3) 2 A from b to a (4) 1 A from b to a (3) 1a n loo-- n ~o o ,,., y....,,
31 . In the circuit shown below. if the tap key K is (4) 1s n \i~X-/;
pressed at time t = 0, then which of the following
34. The equival~ ~e between A and 8 is
statements is false?

J R

2R

(1) At time t = O; current delivered by battery 2R 2R

= 4mA

~
2R
(2) At time t = 00 ; current delivered by battery (1)
=2mA
7

(3) At time t = oo; charge on capacitor = 6 µC 4R 3R

(3) ,, (4)
(4) At time t = oo; charge on capacitor = 12 µC 5 4
 Alf India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 . • .,est -1 (Code A
35. In the circuit shown, the heat generated in the 4 Q 39 The ratio of the resis\ances of three wires. ~hoths:
resistor due to the current flowing in it is 6 J/s. The • lengths are in the ra t1.0 2 . 3 • 5 and masses
. . in
heat generated in the 3 Q resistor is
ratio 4 . 2 . 1, made up of same material is

2Q 4Q 'I\
(1) 2 : 9 : 50 ,2i 6 : 12 : 25 ~ -; Jl
i, (3) 30 : 10 : 3 (4) 8 : 6 : 5 Cv

a 40. The resistance of the resistor shown below is

I
2-

(1 ) 3 joule/second
(3) 18 joule/second
, 3Q

(2) 6 joule/second
(4) 36 joule/second
36. Two Bulbs 8 1 and ;8 2 rated (25 W ; 100 VJ and
-~-0 ) ) ) ) () Violet Green Orange Gold

~75 X 103] Q ± 5% (2) (74 X 103] Q ± 5%

(50 W: 50 VJ respectively are connected in series and
this series combination is connected to a 150 V (3) (75 X 103] .Q ± 1Qo/o (4) [76 X 103) Q ± 5%
source. Which one of the following options is correct?
41 . A metal wire has a length of 2 m, diameter 4 mm,
rv- $Total power consumed by the two bulbs is 75 W and resistance 16 .Q. The density of the material of
1 /~ / (2) Power consumed by bulb 8 ~s 15 wi the wire is 9000 kg m-3• The wire is stretched so that

~~
1
.~ its diameter becomes 2 mm. The resistance of the
I <?a (3) 8ulb 81 Will blow out . ~rA wire, upon stretching, is
½
Q.J.,_.. (4) Both the bulbs 8 1 and B will blow out
2 (1) 256 Q (2) 64 Q
1✓ . In a pote~tiometer experiment, the balancing length (3) 4 Q (4) 1 Q
for a cell is found to be 160 cm. When a resistance
of 2 Q is connected across the terminals of the cell 42. An electron revolves in a circular orbit of radius ·
the balancing length becomes 40 cm. The internal 0.5 A with a frequency of 5 x 1016 revolution/second.
resistance of the cell is The current in that circular orbit is
rv
{1 r, k(1~ j __gv-~Q -\r ,\
~ ••~
(1) 4 mA
(2) 8 mA

~~t; ~ ,., ~
" '-J ..,,
(3) 16 mA
~~ ~· (4) 6Q (4) 2 mA
r, ~ ',
38. The resistance of a conductor at temperatures 2s•c 43. Which one of the following statements concerning
Ohm's law is true?
and 1 o•c are 1 O Q and 5 Q respectively. The
resistance of the conductor at 55°C is ~ s - u : u e . . J Q r _ all materials
(1) 20 Q (2) Ohm's law is true for all conductors
(2) 30 Q
~ (3) Ohm's law is true for all semiconductors
(3) 35 Q ~
(4) Ohm's law is true when the resi stivity of a
(4) 40 Q material is independent of the applied electric
field

'I ~
Space for Rough Work

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 Test - 1 (Code A) . All India Aakash Test Serles for Medlcal-2018

44 . A steady current flows in a metal .wire of non-uniform 45 The dimensional form\.(la of "Electron mobility" is
cross-section Wh ic h quantity re mains constant .
along the length of the wire? (1) I MOL1T - 1A- 1]
(1) Electric field strength (2) [M 1LO'f- 1A- 1 ]
(2) Current Density (3) [ M- 1L 2 T 2A]
(3) Drift speed of the free electrons
(4) Mobility of the free electrons

46. If LiBH4 crystallises in an orthorhombic system having

volume of each unit cell as 216.3 x 10-24 cm 3 and
4 molecules per uni t cell, then the density of the
crystal will be (Molar mass of LiBH4 is 21 .76 g/mole)
(1) 0 .668 g/cm3 (2) 0 .725 g/cm3
~logt L - . log P
(4) logtlL.
-+ log P
50. On mixing, which of the following liquid mixture show
(3) 0 .805 g/cm 3 (4) 0.612 g/cm 3
contraction in volume?
47. Ratio of four fold axis of symmetry and diago~_plane
(1) Methanol + water
of sy,!Timetry in a cubic unit cell is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) Acetone + aniline
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 2 : 3 (3) Acetone + benzene
(4) 4 : 3
48. At 25°C, the osmotic pressure of ,ach 0 .01 M (4) Acetone + carbon disulphide
2
solutions of AB 2 and sucrose (C 12 H 22 0 11 ) are 51 . How much is the oxidising power of Mno; I Mn •

0.38 atm and 0.16 atm respectively. The van't Hoff will c hange if t he [W] is changed from 1 M to
factor for AB2 will be 10-4 M at 25°C?
(1 ) 4.25 (2) 2.37 (1) 0.26 (2) 0.38
(3) 3.72 (4) 2.89 (3) 0.45 (4). 0.62
49. Which of the following graphs represents Henry's 52. The mass of benze ne that would be re quired to
law? (Where x = mole fraction of dissolved gas, produce a current of one ampere for 4 hours is
KH = 2000 kbar)
2C 6H6 + 1502 ~ 12 CO2 + 6 H20 , O~ ({ 1 IG

(1) logf r~ . L
-.log P
(2) logf
-.log P
(1 ) 0.543 g
(2) 0.312 g
(3) 0.387 g

(4) ~.75 g
~
c' /--
1 CstJ U
n O

L ~
- - - -- -----------:::S-:-pa:::c:-=-e-;fo:::r:-;:R!°:o-:-:-ug:;h~W~or:;:k---------------'"tt,'..fO c) ( S

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All lndI a Aakash Test Serles for Medlcal-2018 · Test· 1 (Code A)

53 Resistance of a 0.1 M KCI solution in a conductance

cell is 200 ohm and conductivity is 0.015 S cm- 1. •
0~
The value of cell constant is / c:-

(1) 4 .5 cm- 1
_j2{3.0 cm- 1
(2) fl 2
.. (5
it E
(3) 6.3 cm-1 (4) 5.2 cm- 1

54. 100 g fa irly concentrated solutio n of CuSO is

4
~lectrolysed using 0 .1 F electricity. The weight of
resulting solution is (Atomic weight of Cu = 63.5) 'lC:5 "'
Q)

B-s 25•c
(1) 96.02 g (2) 98.6 g (3) 0 ~

(3) 94.5 g (4) 91 .2 g

!~
55. Half life of a chemical reaction at a particular KE or reactants
concentration is 75 min. When the concentration of
the reactant is doubled , the ha f life becomes
150 min. What is the order of r ction?

r cond
(1) First order

order
Zero order

(4) Third order

56. Which of the following is a zero order reaction? KE orreacta nts
58. How many half lives are required to complete 93.75%
(1) 2NH3 (g) ~~
30
i!i iN 2 (g) + 3H2 (g) of a first order reaction?
(Reactant NH 3 is strongly adsorbed) (1) 4 (2) 5
(2) ~:Ra~ ~He+ ~ Rn (3) 6 _,(4)8
59. In which of the following dclects density of crystal
~ g)~2N02 (g) + i 02 (g) rema~ ame? ·
.!).YSchottky defect (2) Impurity defect
(4) CH3 COOC2H5 (aq)+Hp(t)~
(3) Fren kel defect (4) F-centre defect
CH3 COOH(aq) + C2 H5OH(aq)
60. A cube of 1 m edge length is crushed in order to get
57. Which of the following is the correct graph showing small cubes of edge length 1 mm. By which factor
temperature dependence of rate of a reaction? does the surface area increase?
(1 ) 104 (2) 103
(3) 1~ ' (4) 102
61 . Which of the following has highest coagulating power
for positively charged sol?
(1 ) [-;;CN)sJ4- ~
KE of reactants (3) Ba2• (4) cI-

Space for Rough Work

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 Test -1 (Code A) · All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

62 Butter is an example of 68. Select the incorrect statement

(1 ) True solution (1) Cr0 2 is a ferromagnetic substance

(4) Gel (2) Fe 0 4 is a ferrimagnetic substance

3

63. In Haber's process for the manufacture of ammonia, ~ e conducting behaviour of V03 depends on
the ca t and promoter are respectively temperature

Finely divided Iron, Molybdenum (4) Ti0 behaves as conductor at all temperatures
3

(2) Platinized asbestos, Molybdenum 69. The amount of ice that will separate out on cooling
a solution containing 65 g of ethylene glycol in
(3} Molybdenum, V20 5 250 g water to - 9.3 °C, is (K, for water is
(4} CuCl2 , V2O5 = 1.86 K mo,1 kg}
64. Which of the f9lluwing is correct equation for (1} 35 g (2} 40.33 g
Langmuir Adsorption Isotherm? (3} 45.20 g (4) 22.60 g \
70. What is the correct sequence of osmotic pressu~
(1} ( ~) = KPl11">; n <?: 1 (~)= a:~P 0.01 M aq. solution of following salts? (assu~}n
salts are 100% ionized) . \
(-mx) = -1+KPP
2
111
(3) (~) = KC •> (4) (A) AliS04)3 (8) CaCl2

65. The crystal system having edge length, a = b = c (C) Glucose (D) CaS04
and interaxial angles, a =I} =y ,t; 90° is ~ B>D >C (2) B > D >A > C
(1) Tetragonal ~ hedral (3) C > D > B > A (4) D > C > B > A
(3) Orthorhombic (4) Hexagonal !
71 . If on addition of g of non-volatile, no~-electrolyte
solute in 180 g of water results in 0.1% lowering of
66. In a c§Jtructure, if ~ rd face-centred atoms are vapour pressure of pure water. then the molar mass
removed, then the perc;entage of occupied space in (g/mol) of solute will be
unit cell will be (1) 99.9 (2) 109
(1) 60% (2} 62.2 % #'f (3) 990 (4) 999
(3) 47.5 % (4) 37% 72. For three reactions namely A. B, C, the energy of
67. KF has NaCl type structure . Its density is the activation is 100 cal/mol, 80 cal/mol and
3.48 g/cm3
and its molar mass is 58 g/mol. The 50 cal/mol respectively. Which of the following
distance between K• and F- ions will be reaction shows maximum temperature effect?

/ (1) 5.23 x 10- 1 cm

(2) 4.7 10 cm
(1) A
(2} B
(3) C
(4) All reactions show same temperature effect

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code A)
73 . For a reversible reaction, assuming that Arrhenius 77 Which one of the following is a negatively charged
parameter of both reactions are same, then which of- sol?
the following expression is correct? (1< and kb are
1 (2) Cr(OH)3
the rate constants of forward and backward reactions (1) CdS
respectively)
(3) Al(OHh (4) Methylene blue

~kb ==e;~ k
(2) ...!.., =9 ~
2RT
78. Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of
their oxidising power.
kb
k ~ Metal E~e d (volt)
(3) ~:: eRT
k, Ba - 2.90
74. If the rate of reaction becomes double when Al - 1.66
temperature is increased from 25°C to 35"C then
activation energy of-the reaction (in kJ) will be
0
Cr - 0.74

J.!)/42.89 kJ (2) 65.2 kJ Na - 2.71

(3) 58.5 kJ (4) 45.3 kJ (1) Cr > Ba > Na > Al ~ Al > Na >Ba
75. Arrange the following gases in decreasing order of (3) Al > Cr > Na > Ba Na> Al > Cr
their extent of p~ isorption
79. The c onduct ivity of water at 3 00 K is
N S:~ , H81. NA;
2, . I O
(__, 0.75 x 10-7 ohm- 1 cm- 1 . The degree of dissociation
~ H4 > HCI > NH 3 > N2 ~ \ t) ✓ ;
- l = 34 9 .8 o hm_, cm2 mo 1-1,
of water is (Given: A(H•

(2) NH3 > HCI > CH7> N .f A (OH")

- = 197. 2 ohm- 1 cm 2 moJ-1 )
2
(3) N~ > CH4 > HCI > ~ 3 L ;;U (1) 2.6 X 10- 1
(1/'KC1 > NH3 > CH4 > N2 ~
76. Which is the correct graph for freundlich adsorption
(2) 3.5 X 10-S
J_ -
: :imCdso~:~nJ~
(3) 2.4 X 10-9

., (4) 3.2 X 1Q-8

80. Which one of the following reactions take place at

any electrode during charging of the lead storage
battery used in the car?

log P log P

(2) Pb+ SOf- ~PbSO 4 + 2e-

E~
3
( > iI (4
(3) PbSO4 + 2H2O ~ PbO 2 + 4H+ + so!- + 2e-
log p log p
(~ 2 + 2e- + 4W + so~- ~ P bSO + 2H O
4 2
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Test - 1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

81. Gibb's free energy (6G) for the given cell will be 86. The equivalent conductivity (in S cm 2 eq-1 ) at infinite
2 dilution of the salt NaKCp4 will be
Cu(s) I Cu • II Ag' I Ag(s)
(1 .5 x 10--4 M) (4.5 x 10-4M) (Given: the ionic conductance at infinite dilution of
C2 0 24 - •
K' and Na• are 150.2, 52.3 and 74 .5 Q- 1
0
[Given, Ec ' • ic
u- u
=0.34 V , EAg IAg =0 .80 V '
0
,
cm 2 mol- 1, respectively)
log (1 .5) = 0.176, log (4.5) = 0.653) (1) 122.5 (2) 138.5
(1) --59234 J (2) -64520 J (3) 140.2 (4) 142.6
(3) -72375 ~ ~ 237; J 87. What is reduction potential of standard hydrogen
82. For a reaction, P + Q --+ products. the rate of electrode' at 1 aim , 1 Mand 25°C? -
..----
reaction remain same when the concentration of P
is tripled and rate increases by a factor of four when
(1) 0 V ~
the concentration of Q is doubled, then overall order (3) 1.34 V (4) 0.34 V
of reaction is 88. At 27°C, the osmotic pressure of 8 % (w/v) urea
(1) Zero (2) 1 solution is

yvf (4) 3 (1)y 26 atm

•
83. EC for the cell, 2A(s) + B 2•(aq)--+ 2N(aq) + B(s) ~ 32.84 atm

is 0.591 V at 25°C, the equilibrium constant for the (3) 46.16 atm
cell will be (4) 36.12atm
(1) 1010 (2) 1()20 J(. 89. 0 . 1 m olal aqueou s s olution of an quaternary·
electrolyte AB3 is 80% ionised. The boiling point of
(3) 102 (4) 108
the solution at 1 aim is (Kb(H,o>== 0-52 _K kg mor')
84. In sodium oxide, having the antifluorite structure, the
coordination number for Na• ion and oxide ion are (1) 273.19 K
respectively fj ' (2) 373.17 K
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 6 and 6 ~~ tf9e. (3) 374.92 K
(3) 8 and 4 ~ 8 (4) 376.4 K
85. Same quantity of electricity is being used to liberate 90. 1 molal aqueous solution of which of the following
iodine at anode and a metal (M) at cathode. The compound have maximum freezing point (assuming
mass of metal liberated at cathode is 0.75 g and the complete ionisation of each salt)?
libe rated iodine completely reduced by 4 5 ml of
(1) [Co(H20)t;)C1 3
0.20 M sodium thiosulphate solution. What is the
equivalent weight of metal? (2) [Co(Hp)5Cl]Cl2.Hp.
(1) 83.33 (2) 90.27 (3) [Co(Hz0)4C1 2]Cl.2H2O

(3) 101.5 (4) 76.4 ~ H20hC1i3H20

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91 . How many of lhe follow1n9 statements are correct for
lifespan?
®OJC311B141
-
9 7. If
0
(.

a. It 1s not a specific trait of an organism

b. It includes time duration between birth and
natural death. ------
c. It usually depends upon size or complexity of
organisms. 98.
d. Mango tree has a much shorter lifespan as
compared to a peepal tree.
e. ft can be too short as one day in Mayfly.
(1) One a. Microscopic motile spores
/'
(2) Tv.o b. Always formed in unfavourable conditions. ')O

(3) Three
c. Development of exogenous asexual spores ~
d. Zoospores In Chlamydomonas are pyramid
(4) Four 99.
shaped.
92. Factors that are responsibl e for how organism (1) a & C
reproduces is/are
(2) b & d
(1 J Habitat ~
;ft(a & d _,,
(2) Internal (physiology) factors (4) c & d
(3) ~h specific gravity 95. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
matched?
~ o t h ( 1) & (2)
(1) Penicillium. - Conidia /
93. Which one is not a feature of asexual reproduction?
(2) Sponge - Gemmulcs ~
(1) It can occur with or without gamete formation
(3) Kalanchoe - Runner
(2) New organisms inherit all of its chromosomes
(4) Ananas - Bulbil
from one parent
/ 96 Choose the incorrect option for water hyacinth.
(3) New individuals are formed even from the
(1) Exotic weed introduced in Bengal for i ts
vegetative/somatic cells ✓
beautiful flowers and shape of leaves
/ i t can occur only through unspecialised parts of J 0 gh_ly invasive aquatic weed found growing in
parent . running water •

94. Consider lhe given figure w.r I asexual reproductive (3) It drains oxygen from the water
s1ructures and select correct set of statemenls. (4) It reproduces vegetatively by offsets

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Test-1 (Code A) ·, All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

97 If a plant with genotype AABBCC. produces tomatoes 100. Read the following fol!r statements (A-0 ).
of 80 gram weight, while aabbcc produces tomatoes • A. The interflowering period in polycarpic plants i~ ~
of 20 gram in weight. Which of the following not the juvenile phase but is a part of the matu~
combination is correct if the character is controlled phase.
by' polygenes?
B. Gametes arise from diploid parent body only. y
(1) AaBbCc - 50 g
C. In Chara, egg is rich in proteins and starch _oo!p
(2) AaBBCc - 40 g
D. Reduction division has to occur if a haploid body
(3) aaBbCC - 30 g has to produce haploid gametes.7
(4) Aabbcc - 10 g How many of the above statements is/are correct?
98. In which of the following organisms zygote develops
a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation and
damage?
1 (1) Too
Four
(2) Three ~
(4) One
101 . A . Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation show
(1) Pinus, Oryza great synchrony between the sexes and release
(2) Pinus, Spirogyra a large number of gametes into the surrounding

~Marchantia , Rhizopus
medium in order to enhance the chances of
syngamy.
(4) Rhizopus, Spirogyra B. Internal fertilisati o n occurs in Spirog yra,
99. Givan below is a pedigree chart showing the bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and
inheritance of a trait in humans. angiosperms.
~ A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
102. Choose-the correct sequence w.r.t. g..SCeAQing order
of chromosome number in meiocyte of the following
organisms (a--o).
The trait traced in the given pedigree chart is
concerned with a. Butterfly
'--\
(1) Qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly b. Rat ';,
functioning a-globin c . Onion z_
(2) Quantitative problem of synthesising too few d. Fruit fly l
globin molecules
(-0-%,c, b & a
(3) Qualitative problem of synthesising too few
(2) b, d, c & a
~-globin molecules
(3) a, b , d & c
(4) Quantitative problem o f synthe sising an
incorrectly functioning p-globin (4) c, b, a & d

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· Aakash Test Serles for Medical-2018 Test -1 (Code A}
1 107. The tapetal cells of ~pther show increase in their
03. Read the following statements carefully.
ONA content due to all. except
a. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is ·
syngamy. (1) Endomitosis (2) Restitution nucleus

b. · Zygote is a vital link that ensures continuity of (3) Polyteny (4) Haploidy () -:--~
species between organisms of one generation 108. If there a re 9 chromosomes in the antipoda cell of
and the next. ~
a monocot plant. w hat would be the nurr~be r of
c. In angiosperms, pollen grains are the carriers of chromosomes present in following structures .
motile male gametes. )(J
a. Secondary nucleus .2. t'\ '"'..,... l~
d. Ovary wall prolif~
fertilization. c..,/
tes to form pericarp after
b. PEC a._1 : .2> >1 Y\ '• ~
Correct statements are c. Coleorhiza
(1) a & C (1) a-9, b-27, c-18 (2) a-27. b-27. c-9
\..(2}/4' & d only (3) a-18 , b-27. c-18 ~ 8, b-27. c-9
(3) a, b & d 109. Which of the following is matched incorrec tly?
(4) All a, b, c & d (1) Castor seed - Caruncle helps in hydroph ily
104. Inheritance of poky in the fungus pink mould is due (2) Beet - Residual, persistent nucellus in
to imbalance in the physiology of seeds
(~ a particles (2) Mitochondria (3) Onidtl - Endospermic see~
(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus (4) Groundnut - Ex-all:>uminous ~
105. Mark odd one (w.r.t. pleiotropy)
~ due to effect of the gene on two or more
110. Pollen viability
/
(1) Is period for ~hich the p_ollen _g rains ~etain the x,
inter-related metabolic pathways that contribute a~ to germinate on stigma In gymnosperms/ ·
towards different phenotypes
~ is highly variable and depends on prevaifing
(2) In humans, it is exhibited ~ cell anaemia temperature and humidity ~
(3) It is essential that all the traits are equally (3) For leguminosae , ro saceae a nd solanaceae
~ need pollen viability is 30 minutes ;o
~ oth (2) & (3) (4) It is several month in rice and w heat )0
106. Which one of the following statement is correct 111. Rea d th e following statements a nd choose the
w.r.t. typical angiospermlc anther? correct option.
(1) It is bilobed and both lobes are separated by A. Generative cell in mature pollen grain is spindle
vasculated fertile tissue called connective shaped which float~ cytoplasm of the
(2) The anther is trigonal structure vegetative cell.
(3) Megasporangia are located at corners in each B. 1n/4o% of angiosperms , poll~~- ~f~-n~ are shed
lobe at'2-celled stage. _a,..
1. . (1) Both are correct ~ O nly A is incorrect
Microsporangia form pollen sacs which on
maturity become filled with pollen grains ~ Bis inco} rect (4) Both a re incorrect
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112. Megaspore mother cell differentiates from (1) Only A is correct..

:leus (1) Nucellus in the chalazal region (2) Both A & B are correct
(2) Primary parietal cell in chalazal region (3) Only B is correct

cell of (3) Nucellus in the micropylar region (4) Both A & B are incorrect
Iber of (4) lntegumentary cell in micropylar region 118. Consider th e followi ng statements (a-d) _w.r~
? anemophilous flower. ~v •
113. To form three fully developed Polygonum type of
embryo sacs in angiosperms, ffi"e total number of a. Pollen grains are light, minute and sticky.
meiotic divisions and mitotic generations required are b. Numerous flowers packed into inflorescence . . . /
respectively
(1) 3, 9 c2) 3. 3 ~~y\}9u:c c . ~ell-exposed stame ns and s~ort fea
stigma.
✓ the ry

@Y(3 (4) 1, 9 d. Flowers have a single ovule in each ovary.

114. Select the incorrect match. Which of the above state~~ are correct?
·? efAtegmic ovule - Capsel/a (1) b, c & d tf'' b & d
ily (2) Orthotropous ovule - Polygonum (3) a&d / ~
!us in (3) Campyfotropous ovule - Cruciferae 11 9. Which of the followin~g plant does not show

- (4) Circinotropous ovule - Opuntia

_115. In Mulberry, the location of flowers prevents
<.:- (1 f X~ ogamy
hydrophily?
(:JYNelumbo } ,
(3) Hydrilla
allisneria
(4) Zostera

l the
/ (2) Autogamy but not geitonogamy 120. All of the following statements are correct, except
(1) Filiform apparatus present at micropylar part of
(3) Geitono!!a~ but not autogamv v"
rms)o synergids guides the entry of pollen tube
(4) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
i fin g (2) Hybr/d varieties of several of our food and
116. Which of the following prevents inbreeding vegetable crops are being extensively cultivated
depression?
~ae (3) In many Citrus and Mango varieties, some of the
'(1) Synchronisation in pollen release and stigma cells of nucellus surrounding the embryo sac
receptivity start dividing, protrude into the embryo sac and
(2) ~ anther and stigma placed at same positions ~ o p into the embryos
:h e -<4r[lormancy and hydration of mature seeds are
,--@)Presence of self-incompatibility /
crucial for storage of seeds
(4) Presence of bisexual flowers X
jJe 121 .- Mark the odd one w.r.t. Mendel's laws of inheritance.
le
117. Read the following statements (w.r.t. pollen-pistil
interaction). (1) Conducted hybridisation experiments ol),,9isum
sativum for seven years (1856 - 1863Y"
A. Dynamic process involving promotion or inhibition
of the pollen followed by pollen recognition. (2) First ,time statistical analysis and mathematical
lo~ were applied to problems in biology
8 . Knowledge in this area is helpful to plant
breeders in manipulating pollen growth even in (µ xperiments had a small sampling size
incompatible cases. (4) He selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties~
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Read the statements given below and select the 126 Match the following CoJumn
I with Column 11 Wli@
correct option stating which ones arc True (T) and • Column 11 1 30 Which c
Which ones are False (F) Column I .
(Dihybrid phenotypic syndrorr
1 (Non-allelic genetic
A. Carl Correns gave Mendel's conclusions the interaction) ratio in F 2 a. Fun
shape of laws. generation)
b. Tall
B. Heterozygous plant (Tt) produces two kinds of a Complementary gene (i) 9 3 4 c Pal
gametes each having on~lfele with equal
proportion. .~ X
CE
b. Recessive epistas1s (ii) 9 : 7
C.
Two alleles of a gene pair are located on c . Polymeric gene (iii) 15 : 1
homologous chromosomes but on non-
homologous sites. d. Duplicate gene (iv) 9 · 6 : 1
D. (1) b l
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) .../
~
Mo~ement of chromosomes to the poles occur
during meiosis only.
so (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
8 C
131 . Fi nd t
D diseas
(~ (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv). d(ii)
T F F (1) Tr:
(2) F F ffe/4(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) /
T T to
(3) T F 127. Proportion of reco mbin a nt pheno_types in F 2
T F (2) DL
(4) T offsprings of Mendelian dihybrid cross Is
T F 8
T

~
123. How many types of genotypes will be produced in a 3 (3) Tr
2 ) 16
<
cross involving the genotypes CcDdEEFfgg and
£cO_jEEffgg? .,. -
9
~cl
10
(1) 6 ~ (3) 16 (4 ) 16 132. The p
(3) 7 ~ (4) 8 128. (N) x (N - 1) gametic fusion will cause which of the
is ext,
following type of syndrome? has le
124. Select tile odd one w.r.t incomplet~minance.
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome
J!)/4
(1) Genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same in
F 2 generation v" (2) Down's syndrome
(2) C

(2) Test cross produces two phenotypes (3) 1-

(~ r ' s syndrome
(4) E.
(3) Phenotype of F 1 hybrid resembles both the
parents , ~ ·s syndrome 133. In Dr
129. In Drosophila , Morgan found that genes for yellow eye ,
(4) J;(c)Wer colour of Mirabilis ~ a and Antirrhinum
'-.:/',;,;jus are two ixamples ; body colour and white eyes were _ _ and showed type,
_ _ _ recombinants in F2 generation. resu
125. Calculate the number of ~ enotypes in a
population if a character is~ e"d by one gene (1) Completely linked, 0% ;o type
are ,
I\ (}- f\ /J'- that has 10 alleles? (2) Loosely linked, 37.2% w• V,
't' (1) 50 (2) 40 _9}-mcompletely linked, 1.3% w·\
(3) 55
(4) Tightly linked , 38.5%_)0 WW
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olumn II

n 11 th
Which of e following are as sociated with Down's In term of cross over 1,1nits, how far apart are these
rid phenotypic syndrome?
two genes on the chromosome?
ll F2 a. Furrowed tongue ~ ( ) cM
~tion) 1 49
b. Tall sta ture :><J ---=--1 klJ~ ~ 7 cM
:4 c Palm crease ~ ) o cM
13 5
d Gynaecomast!a )0 ~ K,4',u,At-lJ'.,,, f Y (4 ) 63 cM
e. Congenital heart disease
th
V uJ- 134. Butterfly is different from silkworm in

:1 Mark e corre · ~.f_,.,

t'Y\..I e f rresence of two sex chromosomes in male
(1) b & c (2) All, excep(b' individual
~ &e (4) tJ,ct& e (2) Presence of two se x chromosomes in female
131 . Find the correct reason of Burkitt lymphoma individual
disease. (3) Presence of only one sex chromosome in female
(1 ) Translocation of a segment from chromosome 9 individual
to 22 (4) Absence of one sex chromo some in male
1en otype s in F2 individual
(2) Duplication of segments in chromosome 14 and
ross is
8 135. According to the concept of dominance, the modified
Transl lion between chromosome 14 and 8 allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele when

eletion of segm e nts from Philadelphia (1) It produces normal enzyme

chromosome to 9 (2) It produces the same phenotype
- =--
132. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic (3) It produces non-functional enzyme
is extremely rare because mother of such a female (4) Both (1 ) & (2)
cause which of the st
hast~ at lea 136. The assisted reproductive technique in which the egg
JJ_).,-Carrier and father should be haemophilic is first fertilized outside the body and then inserted
(2) Carrier and father should be normal into the fallopian tubes is
(3) Haemophilic and father should be normal (1) MESA
(4) Both should be normal (2) IUI
133. In Drosophila , two recessive genes produce white ~ ZJFT
eye and miniature wings in contrast to their wild
3t genes for yellow type, which results from the dominant alleles. The
and showed result from the cross between heterozygous wild
neration. type and homozygous recessive one, for both traits ✓
are as follows (2) Meiosis is an essentia l feature of sexually
w· w m• m = 66 reproducting animals J
w• w mm= 39 (3) lteroparous organisms produce offsprings in
a~ ual or seasonal cycles
w w m• m = 35
~ sexual reproduc tion is also call ed
w w mm= 60 agamogenesis

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145 _ In resp c
138 The legally permissible use of th e tec h niq ue . 143. Human sperm has foUl parts i e I,ormone
amniocentesis is for piece and tail.
one of w
Head has acrosome which is derived from
(1 ) Detecting sex of the foetus (1) Prag
(2) Deci ding on foeticide aft e r undergoing sex (1 ) Mitochondria
~ tel
determination through amniocentesis
(2)_)3'0Igi body
J,?. Detecting genetic abnormalities in the foetus (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Prol,

(4 ) MTPs which are pertormed usually beyond 251h (4) CRH

week of pregnancy (4) Both (1) & (2)
19hich of
139. Intensely lactating mothers do not ge~erally conceive 144. Se lect the correct sequence of stages during sperm
(1) LH r
which is a natural method of contraception . It is due production
to Graa
(1) Spermato gonia -1 p rimary spermatocyte -)
(1 ) Hypersecretion of oxytocin - spermatid -) secondary spermatocyte -) sperm (2) M1toc
piece.
~ ession of release of gonadotropins by high (2) c 4matogonia -1 primary spe rmatocyte -1
level of prolactin ~ ~~~•nda ry sperma t ocyte -) sperma t1d -) (3) Antifr
(3) Suppression of ciliary motility in oviducts ')< spermatozoa (4) Prox
(4) Retardation of sperm movement through cervix (3) Sperm --'l spe rmatog onia • primar y oocy,
140. Vasectomy is generally a very successful method of spermatocyte • secondary sperma tocyte • 148. What wil
contraception with least side effects. Yet it is not ~ d removed?
very common option prefe rred by males because (4) Spermatid • spermatogonia --') spermatozoa--') ( ~le
(1) it is a surgical procedure secondar y s pe rmatocyte • pnmary
(2) Ovu l
(2) It is a common misconception that vasectomy spermatocyte
rema,
reduces libido V------ 145. Match Column I with C olumn II a nd ch oose the.
(3) ~ffects are poorly reversible ---- (3) Ovul;
correct answer.
JI,'( All of these Column I C olumn II (4) Ment
141 . Select the correct statement w.r.t. copper releasing a. Implantation (i) Mitotic divisions of 149. Select th,
IUDs amongst the following zygote (1) Hymc
(1) Copper releasing IUDs suppress oogenesi~ Group of cells that
b. (2) Monf
(2) They can be generally inserted in the uterus by ould differentiate as
£::
the user herself
(3) These IUDs, once inserted, need not be replaced C. Provide energy and ~
( (

lies a
throughout the life ')('.) ctors for coagulation
~ hey increase the phllgocytosis of sperms in the tt\.1"'- of semen
above

uterus ¥0)"' d. Cleavage (iv) Embedding of (4) F ingl

142. The process of release of mature spermatozoa from blastocyst in the infunc
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous tubules is en ometrium 150. Read the
called --- - Codes : (a) Crem
(1) Spermateleosis (2) Spermatidogenesis sperr
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Spermiation (4) Spermiogenesis passir
a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
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 Test • 1 (Code A) rest .1 (Code A) ., All India Aakash Test Serles for Medical-2018
(b) In some mammals_which breed seasonally. the
parts i.e head. neck. middle 146 In resp onse to Gn_RH (gonaqotropin releasing
hormone), anterior pItuItary secre tes two hormones, . testes descend inlo scrotum only during lhe
one of which is FSH The second one Is breeding season e.g. in Bal and Oller
ich Is derived from
(1) Progesterone (1) Only (b) is correct
~ l eIrnzIng hormone (LH) ~ Bo th (a) & (b) are correct
(3) Prolaclin t3) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect
um
(4) CRH (ff( cv..e/ L!f (4) Only (a) is correct
1 ~hich of the following statements is incorrect? 151. Which of lhe fol/owing are p ri mary sex organs?
ence of stages during sperm
(1) LH stim ula tes th e c o nvers io n o f ru p tu re d (1 ) Fallopian lubes and vas deferens
Graafian follicle into corpus luteum
primary spermalocyte -> (2)_,,,0°vanes and testis
Jary spermalocyle -> sperm (2) Mitochondria are spirally arranged in the middle
piece of male gamete (sperm )
-(3) Penis and vagina
prima ry spermaloc yte - >
(4) Epididym is and Labia majora
atocy le -, spe rma tid -> (3) Antifertilizins are present on fema~metes
152. Choose the incorrect sta tement
(4) Proximal centriole enters into th e s econdary
n atogon ia -> p r ima ry oocyte along with spem, head j!2.-J:m! labia m inora of vulva are homologous to
icondary spermalocyl e -> membranous uJelhra •
148. What will happen when one ovary of a female is
removed? (2) The signals for parturition originate from the fully
1togonia -, spermatozoa -> developed foetus and the placenta which induce
(~ lation will take place in alternate months
na tocyte -, prim ary mild uterine cootractions called foetal ej ection
(2) Ovulatio n will take playe eveq month from reflex ~
remaInrng ovary \,_ ,)
olumn II and choose the. (3) Estrogens are steroid hom,ones produced by the
(3) Ovulation will no t take place at all ovarian follicles - -
Column II (4) Menopause will occur immediately/ " ' (4) The lh ird trimester extends from the seven th
149. Select the correct statement month till birth
'.i ) M ilolic divisions o f 1 - 2
/ zygote 153. Umbilical cord of humans has
(1) Hymen is not a part of female external genetalia
ii) Group of cells that (1 ) Two arteries only
(2) Mons ubis is a cushion of fatty tissue cover
y.,ould differentiate as
by In and not having pubic hair a fter puberty (2) Tw~ ins and one artery
/ embryo
he clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which ~ o arteries and one vein
iii) Provide energy and
lies a t the upper j unction of two labia m inora (4) Two veins only
--factors for coagula tion
above the urethral opening
of semen
154. Which hormone 's levels attain_ peak:
uringA
ovul lion
(4) Fing er lik e p roj e c tio n on t he ed ges o f

r
v) Embedding of in menstrual cycle7 ·
infundibulum help in collection o f fertilised ovum
blastocyst in the ~ einizing hormone and estrogen
~ o metrium 150. Read the following statem ents
(2) FSH and progesteron e
(a) Cremaster muscle and connective ·tissues fom,
(3) Estrogen and C RH
J a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) spermatic cord and s u(round a ll stru cture s
passing through inguinal canal. (4) Progesterone and estrogen
) a(iii), b(i), c (iv), d(ii)
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 Test• 1 (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
- secretes
155. Which type of cleavage occurs i~ humans zygote? progesterone after
(1 ) Meroblastic discoldal Y1, ovulation

(2) Meroblastic superficial ~ 1 I 1- 141n days of

(2) Rise in progesterone eve - menstrual cycle
(3)" Either (1) or (2)

~ ob~ tic (3) Endometrium regenerates - 1-S'h days of

menstrual cycle
156. Identify the incorrect stat~ment w.r.t. human - 215 1 d ays before
(4) Release of ovum
(1) The testes are situated outside the abdominal th e end of t he
,,,..-- cavity in a pouch called scrotum cycle
(3v'."he scrotum helps in maintaining the high 160. Select the correct match
,,,,,,-- temperature around the testes necessary for
Column I Column II
spermatogenesis
a. Kidney _ _ _ . .(i) Mesodermal
(3) Ea'cl\ seminiferous tubule is lined internally by
two types of cells i.e. male germ cells and b. Liver. (ii) Endodermal
sertoli cells c. Pineal gland (iii) Ectodermal
\
(4) The regions outside the seminiferous tubules, d. -Thymus (iv) Endodennal
called interstitial spaces, contain small blood (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
vessels and interstitial cells
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (9Al(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
157. Rea~ the following statements
161 . Which type of placenta is present in humans?
(a) An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly,
(1) Cotyledonary (~emochorial
easily available, effective and reversible with no
or least side effects. (3) Syndesmochorial ~ (4) Contra deciduous
(b) Surgical methods of contraception are also 162. Cortical gr~mules of the oocyte are involved in
called sterilisation. (1) Fast block to polyspermy
(1),.,-£foth (a) & (b) are correct (2) Depolarization of oocyte plasma membrane
(2) Both (al& (b) are incorrect (3}.-81ow, permanent block to polyspermy ....--------
(3) Only (b) is correct (4) Species specificity determination of fertilization
(4) Only (a) is correct process
158. Which term represents a condition of low sperm 163. Select the incorrectly matched pair
motility? (1) Chlamydiasis - Chlamydia trachom~
(1) Cryptorchidism 8\ (2) Syphilis - faJponema pallidu~
(2Y Oligospermia ~ Gonorrhoea - Trichomonas vagina/is
(3) Vasectomy (4) Genital warts - Human papil/o~s
(4) Asthenozoaspermia 164. During ~ esis, the first~ vision occurs in
159. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t. ~ onium ~ ~ ary oocyte
menstrual cycle?
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Ootid
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Test - 1 (Code A)

- secretes _ Temporary e ndocrine glands in t"!uman reproductive What are the barrie r ~ e th ods used for _birth control
progesterone after 165 which also protect the user from contracting venereal
system is/are
ovulation diseases?
(l ) Mammary glands (2) Placenta
ii- 1-14"' days of
(1 ) Nirodh
menstrual cycle (3) Bartholin gland yvs-oth (1) & (2)
(2) Fem shields
, - 1-St hdays of 166 _ Which of the following is the correct sequence of
menstrual cycle embryonic velopment stages? (3) Diaphragms and cervical caps
- 21 51 days before (1 ygote -, Morula -> ~l~ocyst _, Gastrula
~ o t h (1) & (2) .
the end ' of the (2) Morula -, Zygote _, Blas~cyst -> G~strula e Whjch of the following statements is/are not correct
cycle (3) Blastocyst _, Zygote _, Gastrula -> Morula about 'Saheli'?
(4) Gastrula -, Zygote _, Blastocyst _, Morula (1) It is a non-steroidal prepara,lkln
Column 11
167. Match the Column I with Column II and select the (2) It is taken once a week after initial intake of
Mesodermal correct option from the choices given below twice a week dose for three month
Endodermal Column I Column II (3) It inhibits implantation /
Ectodermal a Condom /r.:-,., (i) Sheath of penis
(4Y'lts active ingredient is progestin
::ndodermal b: Diaphragm ~ {ii) Covers cervix
172. Match Column I with Column II and select the
l{ii), b(iii), c(iv). d{i) c. IUD (iii) Contains copper
correct option
1{i). b{ii). c{iii), d{iv) d. Norplant _ {iv) Implant under skin
Column I Column II
:ent in humans? (1) 30. b(iii), c{iv), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
'laemochorial (3Ya{i), b(ii), c(iii), d{iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) a. Menarche ~ ~menses

;ontra deciduo us 168. Placenta produces several hormones during b. Menopaus~Beginning of menses
gestation . Select the correct option w.r.t. placental c. (iii) Th be ginning of sperm
are involved in
hormones reduction in testicles
(a) Oxytocin anc! pitressin d. Castration iv) Surgical removal of gonad
3sma membrane
{b) ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) and pitocin ~ - c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii). c(iii), d{iv)
,olyspermy .----
(c) Human chorionic gonadotropin ~ d (3) a (iv). b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii). b(iv). c(i), d(ii)
nation of fertilization progesterone. -
173. Select the correct sequence of layers around ovum
{d) Estrogen and human placental lactogen fA-PCf' from inside to outside
I pair (1) (b) & (d) (2) (a) & (CJ (1) Zona pellucida _, plasma membrane -> core~
atracho m ~ (3) (a) & (b) ~ (d) radiata
1apallidu~ 169. The method in which a sperm is directly injected into 1 1
1as vagina/is the ovum is Y'r~d;;~u
?
'
~membrane _, ~
Z na~ e-> coron'.:---
"r)
3pi//o~s (1) GIFT (3) Corona radiata -> pla a ~ e -, zona
~ vis ion occurs in El,,-fCSI pellucida

~ ary oocyte (3) JUI (4) Corona radiata -, zon a pellucida -, plasma
membrane
>lid (4) Al
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 . am given below, identify the structures
174. Location of ostIum of oviducts in humans is on 179. In the dIagr .
labelled as A & B
(1) lnfundibulum (2j/Fimbriae
(3) Isthmus ~(4) Ampulla
175. Select the incorrectly matched pair

~ pH of semen 7 2 to 7 .7

(2) Seminal fluid Contains fructose✓ B

(3) Interstitial cells - Endocrine cells of testis

(4) Prostate gland - One pair J
176. The secondary oocyte, released during ovulation
process, will complete its unequal meiosis II during
fertilization in
(1) A- Mammary alveolus, B- Areola
(1) Ovary
(2) A- Fat, B- Lactiferous duct
(2) lnfundibulum of fallopian tubes
« Ampulla of fallopian tubes
~ ~ammary lobe, B- Lactiferous duct

(4) Uterus (4) A- Fat, B- Mammary duct

177. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. lactation 180. The following diagram shows an implanted human
foetus in the uterus; with all supportive structures
(1) Oxytocin is milk let down hormon1 / formed around it. The structures labelled A and B are
(2) Milk let ~own is a· neuro-endocrine re~
(3) Colostrum is initial secretion from mammary
glands soo_
n after parturition
__.A4) lgG provide active immunity through colostrum to
newly born

178. Ectopic pregnancies are best explained as

(1~ntation of embryo at sites other than
uterus
(2) Implantation of malformed embr r the uterus (1) A-JP1bilical cord , B- Cervical plug

(3) Pregnancy terminated due to hormonal ( ~ Yolk sac, B- ~ mucus in cervix

imbalance ~
(3) A- Placental villi, B- Amnion
(4) Pregnancies ending in premature parturition
despite fundic implantation/ " (4) A- Umbilical cord , B- Yolk sac

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