1) What is Rorschach's projective test designed to measure?

a) Unconscious intentions.

b) Dreams.

c) Conscious desires.

d) Brain size.

Correct!

Rorschach Inkblot Test: A projective personality test using inkblots by dropping ink onto paper and then
folding the paper in half to create a symmetrical image.

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2) Which of the following is not a projective test?

a) Word association test.

b) Rorschach's ink blot test.

c) Thematic apperception test.

d) Sentence completion test.

Correct!

Projective Tests: A group of tests usually consisting of a standard fixed set of stimuli that are presented
to the client, but are ambiguous enough for the client to put their own interpretation on what the
stimuli represent.

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3) An IQ test does NOT provide which of the following?

a) High test re-test reliability.

b) Good predictor of behaviour.

c) High internal consistency.

d) Good validity.
Correct!

IQ (Intelligence Quotient) Tests : Intelligence tests used as a means of estimating intellectual ability.

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4) The Weschler adult intelligence scale can be used to assess eligibility for:

a) Housing benefit.

b) Disability allowance.

c) Suicide risk.

d) Special educational needs.

Correct!

Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS): An intelligence test containing scales that measure vocabulary,
arithmetic ability, digit span, information comprehension, letter-number sequencing, picture completion
ability, reasoning ability, symbol search and object assembly ability in order to assess whether an
individual is eligible for special educational needs.

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5) Which of the following is true of test-retest reliability?

a) The test is measuring what it claims to be measuring.

b) The test will produce consistent results.

c) The client will improve performance second time\round.

d) All of the above.

Correct!

Test-Retest Reliability: The extent that a test will produce roughly similar results when the test is given
to the same person several weeks or even months apart (as long as no treatments or interventions have
occurred in between).

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6) Which of the following refers to Inter-rater reliability?

 a) The degree to which two tests measure the same construct.

b) The degree to which a clinician can predict future behaviour.

c) The degree to which two clinicians will agree on interpretation or scoring of a test.

d) The degree to which the items in the test relate to each other.

Correct!

Inter-Rater Reliability: The degree to which two independent clinicians will actually agree when
interpreting or scoring a particular test.

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7) Which of the following refers to concurrent validity?

a) That two tests are done at the same time.

b) Two or more clinicians agree on the outcome.

c) The items on the test consistently relate to each other.

d) The notion that scores on a test correlate highly with scores from tests that measure the
same attribute.

Correct!

Concurrent Validity: A measure of how highly correlated scores of one test are with scores from other
types of assessment that we know also measure that attribute.

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8) Face validity refers to which of the following:

a) Facial expression is used to make a diagnosis.

b) The scale of emotional responding.

c) The notion that an assessment method may appear to be valid simply because it has
questions which intuitively seem relevant to the trait or characteristic being measured.
 d) A construct is a hypothetical or inferred attribute that may not be directly observable or
directly measurable

Correct!

Face Validity: The idea that a particular assessment method may appear to be valid simply because it has
questions which intuitively seem relevant to the trait or characteristic being measured

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9) Construct validity is a notion that refers to:

a) The notion that scores on a test correlate highly with scores from tests that measure the
same attribute.

b) The level of which a construct is related to other similar measures.

c) The degree to which the items in the test consistently relate to each other.

d) The test will produce consistent results.

Correct!

Construct Validity: Independent evidence showing that a measure of a construct is related to other
similar measures.

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10) Case formulation is:

a) Using information to draw up a psychological explanation of the client's problems and to

develop a plan for therapy.

b) Using the psychiatric diagnostic model of psychopathology.

c) Using previous case studies for diagnosis.

d) Analysing clients behaviour on a case by case basis.

Correct!

Case Formulation: The use of clinical information to draw up a psychological explanation of the client's
problems and to develop a plan for therapy.

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11) Which of the following is an acronym for MMSE?

a) Multi memory state examination.

b) Multiple mental strata evaluation.

c) Mini mental state examination.

d) Meta mental structural evaluation.

Correct!

Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE): A structured test that takes 10 minutes to administer and can
provide reliable information.

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12) Which of the following is an acronym for fMRI?

a) Functional mental radioactive imaging.

b) Frequency model rational imaging.

c) Full mental reasoning imaging.

d) Functional magnetic resonance imaging.

Correct!

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI): A development of MRI technology which allows the
clinician to take brain images so quickly that tiny changes in brain metabolism can be detected and can
provide minute-to-minute information about actual brain activity.

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13) The acronym PET stands for:

a) Positron emission tomography.

b) Positive emotion tracking.

c) Psychological evaluation technique.

d) Physiological emission technique.

Correct!

Positron Emission Tomography (PET): A neuroimaging technique which scans to allow measurement of
both brain structure and function by utilizing radiation emitted from the participant to develop images.

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14) CAT is an acronym for:

a) Comorbid assessment taxonomy.

b) Computerised axial tomography.

c) Computerised atrial technique.

d) Concurrent affect taxonomy.

Correct!

Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT): A neuroimaging technique which uses sophisticated versions of
X-ray machines and can be used to form a three dimensional picture of the brain.

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15) Which of the following represents the acronym for EEG?

a) Encephalogram.

b) Electric energy graph.

c) Encephalitic emotion graphing.

d) Egoenergy galvoscope.

Correct!

Electroencephalogram (EEG): A psychophysiological assessment measure which involves electrodes

being attached to the scalp that record underlying electrical activity and can help to localise unusual
brain patterns in different areas of the brain.

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16) The Adult Memory and Information Processing Battery is designed to test:
 a) Neurological impairment.

b) Memory function.

c) IQ.

d) Physiological function.

Correct!

Adult Memory and Information Processing Battery (AMIPB): A neuropsychological test in wide use in the
UK, comprising two tests of speed of information processing, verbal memory tests (list learning and
story recall), and visual memory tests (design learning and figure recall).

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17) An analogue observation enables:

a) Observations of non-clinical population.

b) Observations of more than one client at a time.

c) Observations that require three or more clinicians.

d) Surreptitious observation of the client.

Correct!

Analogue Observations: Clinical observations carried out in a controlled environment that allows
surreptitious observation of the client.

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18) Which of the following is assessed by Chronbachs alpha?

a) Concurrent validity.

b) Inter-rater reliability.

c) Test re-test reliability.

d) Internal consistency.

Correct!
Cronbach's α: A statistical test which will indicate whether any individual item in an assessment test is
significantly reducing the internal consistency of the test.

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19) Which of the following is used in Ecological momentary assessment?

a) Mobile phones.

b) Electronic diaries for self-observation.

c) IPods.

d) MP3 players.

Correct!

Ecological Momentary Assessment (EMA): The use of diaries for self-observation or self-monitoring,
perhaps by using an electronic diary or a palm-top computer.

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20) An ECG measures:

a) Brain waves.

b) Emotional response.

c) Heart rate.

d) Galvanic skin response.

Correct!

Electrocardiogram (ECG): A psychophysiological measurement technique used for measuring heart rate.

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21) An EMG measures:

a) Electric activity in the heart.

b) Electric activity in the brain.

 c) Electric activity in your visual cortex.

d) Electric activity in muscles.

Correct!

Electromyogram (EMG): A psychophysiological measurement technique that measures the electrical

activity in muscles.

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22) Which of the following is measured by the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery?

a) Psychological functioning.

b) Physiological functioning.

c) Neurological functioning.

d) Emotional functioning.

Correct!

Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: A common neuropsychological test used in the US

which has been compiled to evaluate brain and nervous system functioning across a fixed set of eight
tests. The tests evaluate function across visual, auditory and tactile input, verbal communication, spatial
and sequential perception, the ability to analyse information, the ability to form mental concepts, make
judgments, control motor output, and to attend to and memorize stimuli.

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23) The MMPI measures which of the following?

a) Mood.

b) Physical concerns.

c) Social attitudes.

d) All of the above.

Correct!

Minnisota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI): The most well-known of the personality
inventories used by clinical psychologists and psychiatrists.
Check your answer

24) The psychometric approach measures which of the following?

a) Psychopathology symptoms

b) Intelligence.

c) Neurological or cognitive deficits.

d) All of the above.

Correct!

Psychometric Approach: The idea that a psychological test assumes that there are stable underlying
characteristics or traits (e.g. anxiety, depression, compulsiveness, worry, etc.) that exist at different
levels in everyone.

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25) Self monitoring is a form of clinical observation involving which of the following?

a) Clients measuring their own galvanic skin responses.

b) Clients measuring their own heart rate.

c) Clients observing and recording their own behaviour.

d) Clients recording their dreams.

Correct!

Self-Monitoring: A form of clinical observation which involves asking the client to observe and record
their own behaviour, to note when certain behaviours or thoughts occur and in what contexts they
occur.

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26) Which of the following refers to the notion of confirmatory bias?

a) Clinicians ignore information that does not support their hypothesis

b) Clinicians ignore information that does not support their stereotypes.

 c) Clinicians interpret ambiguous information as supporting their hypothesis.

d) All of the above

Correct!

Confirmatory Bias: A clinical bias whereby clinicians ignore information that does not support their initial
hypotheses or stereotypes and they interpret ambiguous information as supporting their hypotheses.

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27) Standardisation allows the clinician to do which of the following?

a) See where an individual client's score on the test falls in relation to the normal
distribution of scores for that test

b) Use the score on a particular test to estimate whether a client might meet the
diagnostic criteria for a psychological disorder.

c) Estimate the probability with which a client might meet DSM-IV.

d) All of the above.

Correct!

Standardisation: Statistical norms taken from data that have been collected from large numbers of
participants of psychological tests.

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28) OCD is NOT thought to play a role in which of the following cognitive constructs?

a) Intolerance of uncertainty

b) Beliefs about inflated responsibility

c) Underestimation of personal ability

d) Control of thoughts

Correct!

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: A disorder which is characterised by either obsessions - which are

intrusive and recurring thoughts that the individual finds disturbing and uncontrollable, or compulsions -
which are ritualised behaviour patterns that the individual feels driven to perform in order to prevent
some negative outcome happening.

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29) Which of the following is involved in a Thematic Apperception?

a) Black and white pictures of people in vague or ambiguous situations

b) Black and white pictures of people in compromising situations.

c) Colour photographs of a scenic view

d) Colour photographs of a catastrophic event.

Correct!

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): A projective personality test consisting of 30 black and white pictures
of people in vague or ambiguous situations.

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30) The cardinal DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criterion for Mental Retardation is based primarily on an IQ score:

a) Seven standard deviations below the mean.

b) One standard deviations below the mean.

c) Two standard deviations below the mean.

d) Four standard deviations below the mean.

Correct!

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM): An American Psychiatric Association handbook for mental
health professionals that lists different categories of mental disorders and the criteria for diagnosing
them.