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2 SEP OS Prometric Questions PDF
2 SEP OS Prometric Questions PDF
a. Fluoride gel
b. Fluoride rinses
c. Fluoride varnish
d. Fluoride supplements
2. The increase in deflection between an FPD with 1 pontic and an FPD with 3 pointics is:
a. 3 times
b. 9 times
c. 12 times
d. 27 times
3. Toxic fluoride dosage (mg/kg)
a. 1 mg
b. 2 mg
c. 4 mg
d. 5 mg
4. Hospitalization fluoride dosage
a. 4 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 6 mg
d. 7 mg
5. The optimal amount and dosage of fluoride dosage is:
a. 50 mL for mouthrinse and 10mg fluoride gel
b. 150 mL for mouthrinse and 30mg fluoride gel
c. 200 mL for mouthrinse and 50mg fluoride gel
d. 250 mL for mouthrinse and 15mg fluoride gel
6. The healthy implant probing depth with no bleeding on probing is:
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm
7. Mechanism of action for Metronidazole:
a. Inhibits DNA gyrase
b. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
c. Inhibits mRNA
d. Interferes with DNA and disturbs its function
8. Which of the following medications is known to cause gingival enlargement:
a. Phenytoin
9. Which of the following medications increase the effect of local anesthesia:
a. Beta-blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
10. Patient with multiple ulcers in the mouth and oral mucosa and genital area: the test to
confirm diagnosis is:
a. Pathergy
b. Kawasaki
c. Schirmer
d. Immunofluorescence
11. Herpangina is associated with which virus:
a. Coxsackievirus
b. Herpes Simplex Virus.
12. A patient came complaining of frequently fractured acrylic base for upper partial
denture, the prosthodontist decided to use cast metal mesh to reinforce the acrylic.
The minimum thickness of the metal mesh in mm is:
a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 0.3
d. 0.4
13. (PICTURE: painless slow growing large mass in posterior teeth, the mass was not
ulcerated and irregular in shape) Patient is 26 years old pregnant with swelling:
a. Pregnancy tumor
14. (PICTURE: brownish-blackish circular discoloration on labial gingiva between #33 and
#32) The lesion is not symptomatic, Treatment will be?
a. Excisional biopsy
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Remove the cause
d. Observation ← (Looks like melanotic macule, just observe or excision if patient
complains about esthetics)
15. Patient came complaining of pitted enamel with yellowish and brownish discoloration,
patient said his teeth are getting smaller. Upon examination the root chambers is
obliterated and enamel chipping in some teeth.
a. Fluorosis
b. Enamel hypoplasia
c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d. Another dentine related condition
16. #31.41.42 missing, best option to restore?
a. 5 units FPD #32-43
b. 6 units FPD #33-43
c. 6 units FPD after extraction of #32 (#33-43)
d. 6 units resin bonded #33-43
17. #14.15 missing best option to restore?
a. 4 units FPD 13-16
b. 5 units FPD 12-13-16
c. 5 units FPD 13-16-17
d. 6 units FPD 12-13-16-17
18. #35,45 missing, dentist decided to restore with conventional RPD #$@! !!! … anyways
they’re asking about which lever class will be in this case:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. Only #21 extracted, patient wants temporary rpd, what kennedy class is this?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
20. Patient with lower bilateral distal ext. RPD and upper natural dentition can't tear food,
denture is stable and not rocking and was done 5 years ago.
a. Reline
b. Rebase
c. Remake
d. Re-establish occlusion
21. Hypoglycemia management (1gm IV glucagon)
22. Best management for dehydration:
a. Water
b. sport drink
c. energy drink
d. Some other stupid drink اﺧﺎف ﻫﺎﻟﺴﺘﯿﻮﺑﺪ ﻫﻮ اﻟﺼﺢ
23. Bisphosphonate patient requires 3 extractions 2 upper right and 1 lower right:
a. Extract all in 1 visit
b. Wait until symptomatic then extract
c. Extract 2 then wait 2 months and extract 1
d. Extract 1 each 2 weeks
24. Mild hemophilia A needs endo:
a. Do endo..
25. Hemophilia B which factor:
a. 9
b. 99
c. 999
d. 8
26. Patient with end-stage renal disease:
a. Petechiae in oral mucosa
b. Bone deposition in jaw bone
27. 7yo patient with liver failure poor OH and incipient caries:
a. 22.7% fluoride something
b. 22.7% another fluoride something
c. 22.7% … F something
d. No fluoride because maybe patient has LIVER FAILURE dUUUHHH?? اﺗﻮﻗﻊ واﺣﺪة ﻣﻦ
اﻟﻲ ﻓﻮق
28. Patient with parotid enlargement soft no symptoms and bilateral: histology will show:
a. Acinar atrophy
b. Acinar hypertrophy
c. Macrophages
d. Lymphocytic infiltrate
29. Patient feels pain when pressure is applied against chin while protruding mandible:
a. Stylomandibular ligament
b. Retrodiscal tissues
c. Inferior lateral pterygoid
d. Medial pterygoid
30. Frankfort plane in ortho tracing between which two points?
a. Sella - nasion
b. Porion - Orbitale
31. Patient came with protruding ortho wire that is causing ulcerations of the cheek, lip
and tongue -- what is the best management:
a. Trim the wire
b. Cover wire with relieving wax
c. Push the wire with pencil’s eraser
d. Analgesics
32. There were two questions about patients coming back 2 days after Scaling and root
planing for periodontitis. Both cases had teeth sensitivity and ulcerations of the
marginal gingiva or buccal mucosa…
a. Antibiotic (topical)
b. Topical steroids
c. Redo scaling and root planing
d. Analgesics and reassurance
33. #34 (I think it’s #34..) patient came after full scaling and root planing with deep pocket
and periodontal abscess localized to #34.. What’s the best management:
To be honest I don't remember the answers, but I think I chose re-scaling of the
affected area, the other answers made less sense to me but don't take my word
for it, perio is not my thing..
34. Patient came for extraction of mesioangular 3rd molar in position C. What possible
complications may occur during extraction?
a. Damage to IAN (C means it’s impacted below CEJ of adjacent, so root tips closer
to IAN)
35. We’re going to place an implant in a space that is 12mm away from the maxillary sinus.
What’s the maximum implant length that can be used?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
36. #34, 35, 36 are missing.. 37 is slightly mesially tilted. The total remaining space is 14mm,
what’s the maximum number of 4mm diameter implants that can be placed to restore
the 3 missing teeth?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
37. Dentist decided to go for 2 stages implant placement. Which metallic part is used to
cover the implant that is then submerged under soft tissue?
a. Healing abutment
b. Impression coping
c. Cover screw
d. Abutment
38. Butterfly rash is a distinctive feature of which disease:
a. Lupus erythematosus
39. Wegener's granulomatosis ( common question )
40. In primary molars, the most common site where pathological radiolucencies are
observed:
a. Interradicular bone
b. Root apices
41. Possible complication for usage of CaOH2 during pulpotomy procedures:
a. Internal resorption
b. External resorption
c. Radicular pulp calcification
42. Pulpotomy with ferric sulfate (Same question as the previous one) I think the answers
were exactly the same too:
a. Internal resorption
b. External resorption
c. Radicular pulp calcification
43. Primary incisor with a history of trauma (I forgot if they specified which type of trauma
6 months ago, started turning grey in color. Radiographically the tooth doesn't show
any pathologies; what’s your management?
a. Observation
b. Extraction
c. Endo treatment
44.How to measure gingival width
a. Probe
b. Explorer
c. Nabers
d. Clgjdsadweaiuaqwjehdz calipers .. ← I chose this cuz... u know …
45. Metal coping thickness/width gauge?
46. Fractured labial ceramic veneer PFM of lower anteriors, on the opposing there is PFM
too, with deep overbite.
a. Heavy forces with mandibular protrusion causes the fracture
b. Weak ceramic-metal bond
c. Inadequate preparation thickness
47. The preparation for a full ceramic crown includes:
a. Facial reduction of 1.4 mm in 2 planes
b. Facial reduction of 2 mm in 2 planes
c. Facial reduction of 0.5 mm in 2 planes
d. Reduction of 3mm in 1 plane… ← I chose this then referred the patient for endo
48. Patient with large distal caries and mesial composite restoration with recurrent caries
wants an esthetic restoration, when the caries and old restorations are removed there
was little remaining tooth structure:
a. Full ceramic crown
b. Composite restoration
49. Premolar grade 2 furc and grade II mobility
a. Tunnel preparation
b. Furcation plasty
c. Root resection
d. Extraction
50. Prognosis of maxillary molar grade 1 furcation and very well maintained oral hygiene
and patient compliance:
a. Good
b. Poor
c. Hopeless
d. Normal
51. Which of the following configurations is the best in perio prognosis:
a. Short trunk convergent roots
b. Short trunk divergent roots
c. Long trunk convergent roots
d. Long trunk divergent roots
52. Axial taper for prep:
a. 12 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 6 degrees
d. 3 degrees
53. Short clinical crown, prepared for full crown coverage, how to get more retention:
a. Full shoulder margin
b. Axial grooves
54. A picture of a patient with obviously short central incisors not happy with her look,
they’re asking you to guess from the picture what causes her to be unhappy.
55. They literally showed me a picture of someone with a perio probe and asked me what
is he measuring.. Seriously?
a. Sulcus depth
56. Nabers probe (pic)
57. Band pusher (pic) → Final seating as we agreed :DDDD
58. Extraction patterns for ortho (Class II , Class III .. etc)
59. 2 pics about occlusion type (Ez)
60. Pt with posterior unilateral crossbite while incisor is erupting, what is the cause?
a. Imbalance between cheek and tongue forces
b. Bad chewing habits
): ﻧﺴﯿﺖ اﻟﺨﯿﺎر اﻟﻲ ﺣﻄﯿﺘﻪ ﺑﺲ ﻣﻮ واﺣﺪ ﻣﻦ اﻟﻲ ﻗﺒﻞ.c
61. Cheek biting:
a. Occlusal plane too high
b. Not enough horizontal overlap
c. Use of anatomical crowns
d. Extraction .. اﻣﺰح ﻧﺴﯿﺖ اﻟﺨﯿﺎر
62. T-burnisher for PPS
63. Meds causing xerostomia ( They mentioned their action not specific names, like
calcium channel blockers, adrenergic agonists … etc)
64. Patient with Multiple sclerosis, this is a sign of?
a. Trigimenal neauralgia
b. 2 more CNS related answers I think…
65. Patient feels pain when stressed behind the eyes, he’s clenching his teeth too:
a. Migrane
b. Cluster headache
c. Trigimenal neauralgia
d. Dunno..
66. Too much listerine could cause:
a. Lupus
b. Epithelial desquamation
c. 2 more conditions I’ve never heard of..
67. Epulis fissuratum (Over extended flanges)
68. Amalgam liner (Copline)
69. Amalgam prevent discoloration (Place varnish)
70. GIC luting is which type of GIC:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
71. Deep class 5 liner:
a. GIC
b. Calcium Hydroxide
c. Resin modified GI
72. Perio classification new (SOOOOO many casess…… )
73. Furcation perf treatment? → MTA
74. EDTA name and conc → Ethylenediaminetetraacetic 17% → ﺻﺮﻓﺖ اﻻﺳﻢ ﺑﺲ ﺷﻲ زي ﻛﺬا
75. Which kennedy class for a patient missing only #21 → Class III
76. Primary stress bearing area for lower denture? → Buccal shelf
77. The opposing action of the retentive arm when in function? → reciprocation (I think, if
they meant the opposing action of retention, then it’s support)
78. Tooth with large amalgam extracted. In what type of labeled container:
a. Biohazard
b. Medical waste
c. Incineration
79. Tooth with large amalgam and enamel fracture line → bite test
80. Muscle + denture lingual flange = mylohyoid
81. Abscess that extends to nasolabial fold and lower border of the eye is caused most
probably by which tooth?
a. Canine
b. Premolar
c. Lateral
d. Central
82. Patient came with swelling but cant do complete endo treatment, what’s the best
emergency management?
a. Cleaning and shaping
b. Incision and drainage
c. Antibiotic
d. Extraction
83. They brought a picture of #42 with 4mm pocket and bone loss, widened PDL space and
bone deposition peri-apically. The cause is trauma from occlusion, what’s the best
management:
a. Reduce interference
b. Perio scaling
c. 2 other options..
84. 30-50% this percentage of minimum bone loss thing..
85. The initial finishing bur for Class IV is:
a. Mounted stone
b. 12 fluted carbide
c. Coarse diamond stone
d. 330 bur
86. Access cavity bur anterior:
a. Round
b. Pear
c. Tapered
d. Inverted cone
87. In doing an access cavity of an anterior tooth, why do we remove the lingual triangle
thing?
a. Straight line access
88. If there is an extra canal in the lower canine, where would it be?
a. Lingual to main canal
b. Buccal to main canal
c. Mesial
d. Distal
89. 2mm remaining Gp after post prep, what should the prostho do?
a. Refer for endo to refill
b. Proceed
c. Wait and evaluate
d. Use cast post instead
90. Prognathic mandible surgical tx
a. Bilateral sagittal split
b. Transoral ramus split
c. Two other options
91. Pic of CT scan of the face, there was a fracture of the floor of the orbit. What’s the most
probable complication:
a. Disturbed occlusion
b. Double vision
c. 2 other options...
92. A pic of lower mandibular fracture (mid mandible: symphysial), best management?
a. 2 plates
b. 3 plates
c. 1 lower border plate
d. 1 upper border plate
93. Pic of radiolucency in the lower border of posterior mandible:
a. Stefne bone cyst
94. Many splinted single crowns -> perio problems because it’s harder to clean
95. ICDAS stage 1:
a. Remineralization
b. Sealant
96. Definition of enameloplasty
97. Definition of alveoloplasty
98. Filiform and burning tongue, what test?
a. Serology → Most probably anemia or B12/Iron def.
99. Which vitamin in the liver: Vitamin K
100. HIV is seen more commonly with which hepatitis? Hepatitis C (25%) then B (10%)
101. Gene expression (Acute, active, immune, carrier.. )
102. Dentist injured himself, clean blood in pt mouth (Ethics)
103. Needlestick injury (Report incident)
104. File notes should be (Specific)
105. Veracity (Truthfulness)
106. Principles of ethics: Competent, compassion, autonomy
107. Autonomy (Patient has the right to make their own decision)
108. Paternalism (I know, u don’t)
109. How to tell pt. About bad news
a. Stop frequently to make sure they understood
b. Try to minimize the severity of the situation
110.Overprotective parents → make dentist uncomfortable
111. Curette to tooth angle → 45-90
112.FPD success rate 10 years and 15 years → 92-74
113.Dentigerous Cyst treatment:
a. Excision of the cyst
b. Extraction of the tooth
c. Excision of the cyst and the tooth
d. Observation
114. Panoramic radiograph of a lesion that is slowly expanding showed radiolucency
with root resorption:
a. Chemotherapy
b. Radiotheraphy
c. Marginal excision
115. Exaggerated gingival inflammation can be seen in:
a. Pregnancy
b. Hypertension
c. Epilyptic
d. Hyperlipidemia
116.In Established gingivitis, stage III, which body cells are infiltrating?
a. PMNs
b. Lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Another one I forgot
117.PIC of Histo section with multinucleated cells: treatment?
118.Cementum enamel interface, which is most common?
a. Gap
b. Butt-joint
c. Cementum overlaps enamel
d. Enamel overlaps cementum
119. At which age is the completion of 3rd molar crown?
a. 11
b. 13
c. 16
d. 19
120. Best Veneer material?
a. Etched porcelain
b. Composite
c. Alumina
d. Amalgam
121. Amount of GP in GP → (20%?)
122. Cone size 20 = 0.2mm
123. During cementation, the crown is rocked facially then lingually, why?
a. Dynamic seating permits cement flow
b. Static seating permits cement flow
c. Two other options…
124. The minimum prophylaxis in weeks after needlestick injury with known HIV positive
patient is:
a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 8 weeks
125. Most common malignant oral tumor?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
126. Pt did not spit in “spitton” and spilled on chair:
a. Low disinfection
b. High disinfection
c. Home remedies
d. Follow equipment manufacturer instructions
127. Alginate with moisture contamination:
a. Impression too grainy
b. Chalky porous casts
c. Impression tears easily
d. Impression something..
128. The gingival col is more vulnerable to gingival inflammation than other places why?
a. High vascularization
b. Non keratinized
c. Harder to clean
d. Not attached to tooth
129. Tb can stay in air → 4 hrs
130. Cement excess = perio problems
131. Isolated bacteria from abscess?
a. Anaerobes
b. Facultative
c. Aerobes
d. Mixture of aerobes and anaerobes
132. Mylohyoid-ridge was sharp, the surgeon will do osteoplasty; possible injury what
nerve?
a. Lingual nerve
133. Which artery supplies blood to the floor of the mouth?
a. Lingual artery
134. MB root 1st Molar → MSA nerve
135. Pedo molars → MSA + Greater Palatine
136. IAN terminates to? → mental and incisive
137. Enamel pearl removal by?
a. Ultrasonic scaler
b. K file
c. explorer
138. At which stage of tooth development abnormalities like peg-shaped incisors occur?
a. Morphodifferentiation
b. Histodefferentiation
c. Initiation
d. Proliferation
139. Severe occlusion on teeth that’s enough to push it into bone?
a. Necrosis of PDL and bone resorption
b. PDL widening
c. Bone deposition
140. Necrosis stages (marginal gingiva → Stage III)
141. Picture of Palm and thumb grasp
142. Trauma permanent tooth 2mm exposed pulp 90 minutes ago tx?
143. Shape of small excisional biopsy:
a. Elliptical
b. Rectangular
c. Circular
d. Triangular
144. Gp disinfection:
a. Sodium hypochlorite for 1 minute
145. Denture wearer for 24hrs a day → Denture stomatitis
146. Crown fractured with no pulp exposure → Uncomplicated crown fracture
147. Lightness or darkness → value
148. Best light for shade selection:
a. colour corrected incandescent light
b. colour corrected fluorescent light
149. Shade selection time:
a. before prep
b. After prep
c. During prep
150. Safe position of X-ray tech without barrier → 2m behind tube source
151. Peget’s disease panoramic appearance → Cotton wool
152. Safe in asthmatic anxious patients → diazepam
153. Pt taking chemo blood work was normal platelets slightly decreased and needs
endo:
a. I think we just proceed with Tx..
154. Least impacted tooth:
a. Lateral
b. Premolar
c. 3rd molar
d. Canine
155. Gingival marginal trimmer question → ﺳﻬﻞ
156. Complication of orifice widening with gates-glidden? → strip perf
157. Water spray during prep? → for protection of pulp from heat generated
158. When to give prophylactic antibiotics?
a. History of infective endocarditis
b. 3 other conditions (Just study them all because 2 more questions were similar)
159. Which tooth will benefit the most from Fissure sealant?
a. Maxillary first molar
b. Maxillary second molar
c. Maxillary 1 premolar
d. Mandibular 2nd premolar
160. Apex legends clasp .. just kidding the clasp is called Apix Apex Apxics Apxsic
something like this… anyways just google this thing regarding RPD clasps (maybe it’s
just the A clasp I have no idea)
161. 65 years old patient with increased opacity around the some teeth apices:
a. Cementum remodeling with age
b. Continuous cementum deposition throughout life
162. When trying an FPD one of the retainers could not be seated on the crown without
stress:
a. Redo the FPD
b. Section then solder in position
c. Replace the problematic retainer
d. Even if there’s stress, cement and the tooth will adapt
163. Minimum duration for CaOH2 to work as an intracanal medicament?
a. 1 hour
b. 1 day
c. 1 week
d. 1 month
164. What will happen if you mixed acrylic for temporary crown with 1:1 monomer to
polymer ratio?
a. No excess monomer will remain
b. More polymerization shrinkage
c. Endothermic heat generation
165. What’s the least esthetic restoration:
a. Composite
b. Compomer
c. GIC
d. Amalgam
166. First thing to check during crown cementation:
a. Proximal
b. Occlusal
c. Margin
d. Fit
167. Ortho patient that is 8 years old came with his 14 years old, what’s the first step:
a. Ask for a legal guardian before any steps
168. Worst tooth in terms of perio prognosis:
a. 1st molar maxillary
b. 1st maxillary premolar
c. 1st mandibular premolar
d. 1st mandibular molar
169. The thinnest total mean of bone width is found with:
a. Thin scalloped phenotype
b. Thin flat phenotype
c. Thick scalloped phenotype
d. Thick flat phenotype
170. Which of the following expanders is tissue borne:
a. Haas expander
b. Hyrax expander
Wish you all the best
… … ……….. os ………………