2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

rdZ'kfDr ijh{k.k
funsZ'k
(1-5) : fuEu tkudkjh dk lkoèkkuhiwoZd vè;;u djsa 6. ;fn ‘X + Y’ dk vFkZ X, Y dh ekrk] X ÷ Y dk vFkZ X, Y
,oa fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA dk HkkbZ]X × Y dk vFkZ X, Y dk iq=k] X – Y dk vFkZ X,
N% O;fDr;ksa
A, B, C, D, E rFkk F izR;sd fofHkUu daifu;ksaY dh cgu gS] rks fuEu esa fdldkC, vFkZ
D dh cgu gS\
;Fkk] ,pih] Msy] baVsy] ekbØkseSDl] ysusoks rFkk lSelax (1) esa
C –dk;Z
P÷D (2) P + D ÷ C
djrs gSa] ysfdu t:jh ugha gS blh Øe esaA buesa ls izR;sd pkj(3) ns'kksa
D×P–C (4) D – C × P
;Fkk] tkiku] phu] :l] rFkk Hkkjr ls gSA de ls de ,d rFkk T;knk
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
ls T;knk nks O;fDr pkj ns'kksa esa ls ,d ls gSA buesa ls izR;sd fgUnh]
tkikuh] phuh rFkk vaxzsth Hkk"kkvksa esa ls ,d tkurk7.gSA ;fn + Q’ dk vFkZ
de ls‘Pde ‘P, Q dk firk’, ‘P × Q’ dk vFkZ P,
,d rFkk T;knk ls T;knk nks pkj Hkk"kkvksa esa ,d tkurk gSA Q dksbZ ’,Hkh
dk HkkbZ ‘P – Q’ dk vFkZ ‘P, Q dh ekrk gS’, rks‘C –
nks O;fDr;ksa dk ns'k rFkk Hkk"kk dk tksM+k ugha gSA A + B’ ds ckjs esa fuf'pr :i ls D;k lR; gS\
C, phuh Hkk"kk tkurk gS rFkk Msy esa dk;Z djrk gSA nks O;fDr
(1) B, A dk iq=k gS
B rFkk og tks baVsy esa dk;Z djrk gS] tkikuh Hkk"kk B, tkurs gSaA
tkiku ls gSA
E, phu ls gS rFkk ekbØkseSSDl esa dk;Z djrk gSA(2) ,pihA, C dk iq=k gS
esa dk;Z djus okyk O;fDr] vaxzsth Hkk"kk tkurk gSA Msy (3) rFkkB,lSelax
A dk firk gS
esa dk;Z djus okyk O;fDr] leku Hkk"kk tkurs gSaA nks O;fDr phuh
(4) C, B dh ekrk gS
Hkk"kk tkurk gSA nks O;fDr tkiku ls gS rFkk nks O;fDr Hkkjr ls gSA
C rFkk F leku ns'k ls gS
A rFkkD fofHkUu ns'kksa ls gSA A uk rks(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
uk gh og O;fDr tks Hkkjr ls gS] tkikuh Hkk"kk tkurkfunsZ'k gSA(8-12) : fuEu tkudkjh dk lkoèkkuhiwoZd vè;;u djsa
1. D fdl ns'k ls lacaf/r gS\ ,oa fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
(1) Úkal (2) phu vkB O;fDr vej] fcV~Vq] psru] nhid] bczkghe] iQjgku] xkSre
(3) :l (4) Hkkjr rFkk fgeka'kq ,d lh/h js[kk esa cSBs gSa] ysfdu t:jh ugha gS blh Øe
(5) fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk esaA buesa ls dqN dk eq[k mÙkj tcfd dqN dk eq[k nf{k.k dh vksj
2. fuEu esa ls fdl daiuh Flsdk;Z djrk gS\ gSA buesa ls lHkh fofHkUu jkT;ksa ;Fkk] fnYyh] eqacbZ] psUubZ] d
(1) ,pih (2) Msy
cSaxyksj] fcgkj] mM+hlk rFkk dsjy ls gS] ysfdu t:jh ugha gS blh Øe
(3) baVsy (4) ekbØkseSDl
esaA
(5) ysusoks
3. vej] dsjy okys
fuEu esa ls ysusoks rFkk lSelax esa dk;Z djus okys O;fD;ksa ds O;fDr ds nk,a ls pkSFkk cSBk gSA fgeka'kq] mM+h
ckjs esa D;k lR; gS\ ls gS rFkk vej ds nk,a ls nwljk cSBk gSA fgeka'kq rFkk xkSre ds chp
(1) os nksuksa leku Hkk"kk tkurs gSa nks O;fDr cSBs gSa rFkk xkSre] fcgkj ls gSA xkSre ds Bhd iM+ksfl;
(2) buesa ls ,dF rFkk nwljk B gS ls ,d vafre Nksj ij cSBk gSA vej rFkk iQjgku ds chp pkj O;fDr
(3) os nksuksa leku ns'kksa ls gS cSBs gSa rFkk iQjgku caSxykSj ls gSA xkSre ds Bhd iM+ksfl;ksa d
(4) mi;qZDr lHkh foijhr fn'kk esa gSA (foijhr fn'kk dk vFkZ gS ;fn xkSre ds ,d
(5) muesa dqN Hkh lkekU; ugha gS iM+kslh dk eq[k mÙkj dh vksj gS] rks xkSre ds nwljs iM+kslh dk eq
4. dkSu fgUnh Hkk"kk tkurk gS\
nf{k.k dh vksj gksxk ,oa blh izdkj) bczkghe] dksydkrk ls gS rFkk
(1) A (2) B
fgeka'kq ds fudVLFk ugha cSBk gSA eqacbZ okyk O;fDr] xkSre ds n
(3) C (4) D
nwljk cSBk gSA vej] fnYyh ls ugha gSA js[kk ds vafre Nksjksa ij cS
(5) E
5. fuEu esa ls dkSu tkiku ls gS\ O;fDr;ksa dk eq[k foijhr fn'kk esa gSA (foijhr fn'kk esa eq[k dk vFkZ
(1) A vkSjB (2) C vkSj
D ;fn ,d O;fDr dk eq[k mÙkj dh vkjs gS] rks nwljs O;fDr dk eq[k
(3) E vkSj D (4) D vkSjF nf{k.k dhs vksj gksxk ,oa blh izdkj) fcV~Vw] psru ds Bhd ck,a cSBk
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha gSA eqacbZ okyk O;fDr] fgeka'kq ds Bhd nk,a cSBk gS rFkk fgeka
eq[k nf{k.k esa gSA psru rFkk nhid dk eq[k leku fn'kk esa gSA
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REASONING
Direction (1-5): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
Each of the Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F
works in a different companies, viz. HP, Dell, Intel,
Micromax, Lenovo and Samsung, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them
belongs to one of the four countries, viz. Japan,
China, Russia and India. At least one and atmost
two persons belong to one of the four countries.
Each of them knows one of the language among
Hindi, Japanese, Chinese and English. At least
one and atmost two know one of these four
languages. No two persons have the same
combination of the country and the language.
C knows Chinese language and works in Dell.
Two persons B and the person who works in Intel
know Japanese language. B belongs to Japan. E
belongs to China and works in Micromax. The
person who works in HP knows English language.
The persons working in Dell and Samsung know
the same language. Two persons know Chinese
language. Two persons belong to Japan and two
persons belong to India. C and F belong to the
same country and A and D belong to different
countries. Neither A nor the person who belongs
to India knows Japanese language.
1. Which country does D belongs?
(1) France (2) China
(3) Russia (4) India
(5) Cannot be determined
2. In which of the following company does F
work?
(1) HP (2) Dell
(3) Intel (4) Micromax
(5) Lenovo
3. Which of the following is true about the
persons who work in Lenovo and Samsung?
(1) They both know the same language
(2) One of them is F and the other one is B
(3) They both belong to the same country
(4) All of the above
(5) They do not have anything in common
4. Who Knows the Hindi Language?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
5. Which of the following belongs to Japan?
(1) A and B (2) C and D
(3) E and D (4) D and F
(5) None of these
Ph: 09555108888,
6. If ‘X + Y’ means that X is the mother of Y, X
÷ Y means that X is the brother of Y, X × Y
means that X is the son of Y, X – Y means
that X is the sister of Y, then which of the
following means that C is the sister of D?
(1) C – P ÷ D (2) P + D ÷ C
(3) D × P – C (4) D – C × P
(5) None of these
7. If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’, ‘P × Q’
means P is the brother of Q’; ‘P – Q’ means
‘P is the mother of Q’, then which of the
following is definitely true about C – A + B?
(1) B is the son of A
(2) A is the son of C
(3) B is the father of A
(4) C is the mother of B
(5) None of these
Direction ( 8-12): Study th e following
information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight persons Amar, Bittu, Chetan, Deepak,
Ebrahim, Farhan, Gautam and Himanshu are
sitting in a straight line, but not necessarily in
the same order. Some of them are facing north
while some of them are facing south. All of them
belongs to different states, viz. Delhi, Mumbai,
Chennai, Kolkata, Banglore, Bihar, Odisha and
Kerala, but not necessarily in the same order.
Amar sits fourth to right of the person who
belongs to Kerala. Himanshu belongs to Odisha
and sits second to right of Amar. There are two
persons sit between Himanshu and Gautam, who
belongs to Bihar. One of the
immediate neighbours of Gautam sits extreme
end. There are four persons sit between Amar
and Farhan, who belongs to Banglore. Immediate
neighbor of Gautam faces opposite direction
(opposite direction means if one neighbours of
Gautam faces north, then other neighbours of
Gautam faces south and vice-versa). Ebrahim
belongs to Kolkata and does not sit adjacent to
Himanshu. The person who belongs to Mumbai
sits second to right of Gautam. Amar does not
belong to Delhi. The persons who sits on the
extreme ends of the line faces opposite direction
(Faces opposite direction means if one friend
faces north, then other friend faces south and
vice-versa). Bittu sits immediate left of Chetan.
The one who belongs to Mumbai sits immediate
right of Himanshu, who faces south direction.
Chetan and Deepak face same direction.
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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
8.  vej fu Eu esa ls fdl jkT; ls gS\ funsZ'k
(16-20) : fuEu tkudkjh dk lkoèkkuhiwoZd vè;;u
(1) dksydkrk (2) fcgkj djsa ,oa fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
(3) eqacbZ (4) psUubZ lkr O;fDrL, M, N, O, P, Q rFkkR ,d lkr eaftysa Hkou
(5) mM+hlk ds fofHkUu eaftyksa ij jgrs gSaA fupyh eafty la[;k 1] igyh eafty
9. fdrus O;fDr;ksa dk eq[k mÙkj fn'kk esa gSa\ la[;k 2 rFkk blh izdkj lcls Åijh eafty la[;k 7 gSA buesa ls
(1) nks (2) pkj izR;sd fofHkUu jax ;Fkk] yky] uhyk] gjk] ihyk] liQsn] Hkwjk rFk
(3) rhu (4) ikap dkyk ilan djrk gS] ysfdu t:jh ugha gS blh Øe esaA
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha L ds eafty ds Åij dsoy rhu O;fDr jgrs gSaAL rFkk Hkwjk
10. fuEu esa ls dkSu xkSre ds nk,a ls ikapoka cSBkilan gS\djus okys ds chp dsoy ,d O;fDr jgrk Q, gSAuhyk ilan
(1) nhed (2) fgeka'kq djus okys ds Bhd uhps jgrk gSA uhyk ilan djus okyk le la[;k
(3) psru (4) fcV~Vq okys eafty ij jgrk gSA Hkwjk rFkk gjk ilan djus okys O;fDr ds chp
(5) iQjgku dsoy rhu O;fDr jgrs gSaA
P, N ds Bhd Åij jgrk gSAP, gjk ilan
11. fuEu eas ls dkSu fnYyh ls gSa\ ugha djrk gSA
M rFkk liQsn ilan djus okys ds chp dsoy nks O;fDr
(1) nhed (2) fgeka'kq jgrk gSA liQsn ilan djus okyk]
M ds eafty ds uhps jgrk gSA yky
(3) psru (4) fcV~Vq ilan djus okyk]M ds eafty ds Bhd Åij ;k Bhd uhps ugha jgrk
(5) iQjgku gSAO, L ds eafty ds Bhd Åij ;k Bhd uhps jgrk R, gSAihyk
12. ;fn iQjgku] fnYyh ls rFkk vej] dksydkrk ls lacaf/r gS]
ilan ugha djrk gSA
rks mlh izdkj fgeka'kq fuEu esa ls fdl jkT; ls lacaf/r gS\
16. fn, x, tkudkjh ds lkis{k esa R ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls D;k
(1) psUubZ (2) dksydkrk
lR; gSa\
(3) cSaxyksj (4) eqacbZ
(1) R ds Bhd uhps jgus okyk] uhyk ilan djrk gS
(5) dsjyk
(2) R, eafty la[;k lkr ij jgrk gS
13. larks"k iwoZ dh vksj 1 fdeh- tkrk gS rFkk tc og nf{k.k dh
vksj eqM+rk gS ,oa 5 fdeh- pyrk gSA iqu% og iwoZ dh R, P ds Bhd uhps jgrk gS
(3) vksj
eqM+rk gS rFkk 2 fdeh- pyrk gS ,oa mlds ckn og mÙkj(4) dhR, lcls uhpyh eafty ij jgrk gS
vksj eqM+rk gS ,oa 9 fdeh- pyrk gSA vc og vius izkjafHkd(5) R, Hkwjk ilan djrk gS
fcanq ls fdruk nwj gS\ 17. fuEu esa ls dkSu eafty la[;k rhu ij jgrk gS\
(1) 3 fdeh- (2) 4 fdeh- (1) og tks ihyk ilan djrk gS
(3) 5 fdeh- (4) 7 fdeh- (2) og tks liQsn ilan djrk gS
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) N
14. vius dk;kZy; lsB mÙkj dh vksj 15 fdeh- tkrk gSA rc (4) R
og if'pe dh vksj eqM+rk gS ,oa 10 fdeh- r; djrk gSA rc (5) P
og nf{k.k dh vksj eqM+rk gS ,oa 5 fdeh- r; djrk gSA
18.varr%
P ds Bhd Åij okys eafty ij dkSu jgrk gS\
iwoZ dh vksj eqM+dj og 10 fdeh- r; djrk gSA vius(1) L (2) M
dk;kZy; ls og fdl fn'kk esa gS\ (3) O (4) R
(1) nf{k.k (2) if'pe (5) Q
(3) iwoZ (4) mÙkj 19. O fuEu esa ls dkSu lk jax ilan djrk gS\
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (1) uhyk (2) Hkwjk
15. yyu] xksiky ls vf/d vftZr djrk gS] ysfdu jes'k ds (3) gjk (4) liQsn
ftruk ughaA lqjs'k] jes'k ls de vftZr djrk gS] ysfdu
(5) ihyk
xksiky ls de ughaA yksds'k] xksiky ls vf/d vftZr djrk
gS] ysfdu yyu ds ftruk ughaA fuEu esa ls dkSu eè; 20.esaOgSrFkk uhyk ilan djus okys ds eafty ds chp fdrus O;fDr
;fn mUgsa mudh dekbZ ds vk/kj ij j[kk tk,\ jgrs gSa\
(1) yyu (2) yksds'k (1) dskbZ ugha (2) nks
(3) lqjs'k (4) xksiky (3) ,d (4) rhu ls vf/d
(5) vkadM+s vi;kZIr (5) rhu

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
8.  Amar belongs to which of the following Direction (16-20): Study t he following
state? information carefully and answer the given
(1) Kolkata (2) Bihar questions.
(3) Mumbai (4) Chennai Seven people L, M, N, O, P, Q and R live on
different floors of a seven floor building.
(5) Odisha
Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is
9. How many persons face north direction? numbered 2 and so on until the topmost floor is
(1) Two (2) Four numbered 7. Each one of them likes different
(3) Three (4) Five colours, viz. Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, White,
(5) None of these Brown and Black, but not necessarily in the same
order.
10. Who among following sits fifth to the right
Only three people live above the floor on which
of Gautam?
L lives. Only one person lives between L and the
(1) Deepak (2) Himanshu one who likes Brown. Q lives immediately below
(3) Chetan (4) Bittu the one who likes Blue. The one likes Blue lives
(5) Farhan on an even-numbered floor. Only three people live
11. Who among the following belongs to Delhi? between the one who likes Brown and the one
(1) Deepak (2) Himanshu who likes Green. P lives immediately above N. P
does not like Green. Only two people live between
(3) Chetan (4) Bittu
M and the one who likes White. The one who
(5) Farhan likes White live below the floor on which M lives.
12. If Farhan is related to Delhi and Amar is The one who likes Red does not live immediately
related to Kolkata, then in the above or immediately below the floor on which M
same way Himanshu is related to which of lives. O does not live immediately above or
the following state? immediately below the floor on which L lives. R
(1) Chennai (2) Kolkata does not like Yellow.
(3) Banglore (4) Mumbai 16. Which of the following is true with respect
(5) Kerala to R as per the given information?
(1) The one who lives immediately below R,
13. Santosh walks 1 km towards East and then
likes Blue
he turns to South and walks 5 km. Again
(2) R lives on floor number seven
he turns to east and walks 2 km and after
(3) R lives immediately below P
this he turns to North and walks 9 km. Now,
(4) R lives on the lowermost floor
how far is he from his starting point?
(5) R likes Brown
(1) 3 km (2) 4 km
17. Who among the following lives
(3) 5 km (4) 7 km on floor number three?
(5) None of these (1) The one who likes Yellow
14. From his office, B went 15 km to the North. (2) The one who likes White
Then he turned west and covered 10 km. (3) N
Then, he turned south and covered 5 km. (4) R
Finally, turned to East, he covered 10 km. (5) P
In which direction is he from his office? 18. Who lives on the floor immediately above
(1) South  (2) West P?
(3) East (4) North (1) L (2) M
(5) None of these (3) O (4) R
15. Lalan earns more than Gopal but not as (5) Q
much as Ramesh. Suresh earns less than 19. O likes which of the following colour?
Ramesh, but not as less as Gopal. Laukesh (1) Blue (2) Brown
earns more than Gopal, but not as much as (3) Green (4) White
Lalan. Who amongst them will be in the (5) Yellow
middle if they are ranked based on their 20. How many people live between the floors on
earnings? which O and the one who likes Blue?
(1) Lalan (2) Laukesh (1) None (2) Two
(3) Suresh (4) Gopal (3) One (4) More than three
(5) Data Inadequate (5) Three

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
funsZ'k
(21-25) : fuEu tkudkjh dk lkoèkkuhiwoZd vè;;u funsZ'k
(26-30) : fuEu iz'uksa esa] dFkuksa dk ,d lsV rFkk mlds
djsa ,oa fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA ckn dqN fu"d"kZ fn;k x;k gS] ftlesa ,d fuf'pr vuqlj.k
lkr O;fDrA, B, C, D, E, H rFkkG ,d o`Ùkkdkj est ds ugha djrk gS (;k vkus dh laHkkouk ugha gS)A mÙkj ds :i esa
fu"d"kZ dk p;u djsaA
pkjks vksj cSBs gSaA buesa ls dqN dk eq[k dsUnz dh vksj rFkk dqN dk
26. dFku %
eq[k dsUnz ls ckgj dh vksj gSA os fofHkUu ns'k ;Fkk] ;w,l] ;wds]
dqN iSj gkFk gSaA
flaxkiqj] Úkal] vkWLVªsfy;k] phu rFkk tkiku tkrs gSa] ysfdu dqNt:jh
gkFk maxyh gSA
ugha blh Øe esaA lHkh twrs iSj gSA
H, G ds Bhd ck,a cSBk gS rFkk mudk eq[k foijhr fn'kk esa gSAflj maxyh gSA
lHkh
tkiku tkus okyk O;fDr]E ds nk,a ls rhljk cSBk gSA Hukukrks fu"d"kZ %
gh G, E ds lehi cSBk gSaAH;k;krksG tkiku tkrk gSA Úkal tkus I. dqN maxyh iSj gSA
okyk O;fDr]D ds ck,a ls nwljk cSBk gSA tkrk gSA uk rks II. dqN gkFk flj gSA
D, flaxkiqj
A uk ghB, D ds lehi cSBk gSA E dk eq[k dsUnz dh vksj D, gSA III. dqN gkFk twrs gSaA
E ds lehi ugha cSBkE,gSAÚkal ugha tkrkB,gSA
H ds nk,a ls nwljk IV. dksbZ maxyh iSj ugha gSA
cSBk gSA
A rFkkC ds chp nks O;fDr cSBsD dk eq[k dsUnz ls ckgj (1) dsoy fu"d"kZ
gSA I vuqlj.k djrk gS

dh vksj gSA
C rFkk A uk rks ;w,l uk gh ;wds tkrk
A rFkk
gSAE dk (2) dsoy fu"d"kZ
II vuqlj.k djrk gS
eq[k leku fn'kk esaBgSA rFkk tkiku tkus okys O;fDr dk eq[k (3) dsoy fu"d"kZ III vuqlj.k djrk gS
(4) dsoy fu"d"kZIV vuqlj.k djrk gS
lkeku fn'kk esaDgSAphu tkus okys O;fDr ds Bhd ck,a cSBk gSA
(5) ;k rks fu"d"kZ
I ;k IV vuqlj.k djrk gS
21. ;wds tkus okys O;fDr ds ck,a ls nwljk dkSu cSBk gS\
27. dFku %  
(1) og tks flaxkiqj tkrk gS
dqN fo|ky; FkSys gSaA
(2) og tks vkLVªsfy;k tkrk gS lHkh fo|ky; cDls gSaA
(3) og tks phu tkrk gS lHkh FkSys dye gSaA
(4) ;k rks(1) ;k (2) dksbZ dye isafly ugha gSA
(5) ;k rks(2) ;k (3) fu"d"kZ %
I. de ls de dqN fo|ky; dye gSA
22. D ds ck,a ls nwljs cSBs O;fDr ds nk,a ls rhljk dkSu cSBk gS\
II. de ls de dqN cDls dye gSA
(1) E (2) A
III. lHkh isaflyksa ds cDls gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
(3) B (4) C
IV. dksbZ isafly FkSyk ugha gSA
(5) H
V. dksbZ cDlk FkSyk ugha gSA
23. C rFkk tkiku tkus okys O;fDr ds Bhd chp dkSu cSBk gS\
(1) dsoy fu"d"kZI vuqlj.k djrk gS
(1) og tks Úkal tkrk gS
(2) dsoy fu"d"kZII vuqlj.k djrk gS
(2) og tks ;w,l tkrk gS (3) dsoy fu"d"kZIII vuqlj.k djrk gS
(3) og tks flaxkiwj tkrk gS (4) dsoy fu"d"kZIV vuqlj.k djrk gS
(4) og tks ;wds tkrk gS (5) dsoy fu"d"kZ I, II, III rFkkIV vuqlj.k djrs gSa
(5) og tks vkLVªsfy;k tkrk gS 28. dFku %
24. fdrus O;fDr;ksa dk eq[k dsUnz ls ckgj dh vksj gS\ dqN dkj cl gSA
(1) rhu (2) pkj
dqN cl thi gSA
lHkh thi jsyxkM+h gSA
(3) ikap (4) N%
lHkh jsyxkM+h lkbfdy gSA
(5) nks
fu"d"kZ %
25. ;gak fdrus laHko O;oLFkk gS\ I. dksbZ lkbfdy dkj ugha gSA
(1) ,d (2) rhu II. lHkh lkbfdyksa ds thi gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
(3) nks (4) pkj III. dksbZ lk;fdy thi ugha gSA
(5) ikap IV. dqN jsy xkM+h thi gSA

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Direction (21-25):  Study the following Direction (26-30): In the following question, a
information carefully and answer the given set of statements is followed by some
question.  conclusions, one of which definitely does not
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, H and G sit around follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence).
a circular table. Some of them are facing the Choose that conclusion as the answer.
centre while some are facing away from the
26. Statements: 
centre. They go to different countries, viz. US,
UK, Singapore, France, Australia, China and Some legs are hands. 
Japan, but not necessarily in the same order.  Some hands are fingers. 
H sits to the immediate left of G and they face All shoes are legs. 
opposite directions. The one who goes to Japan All heads are fingers. 
sits third to the right of E. Neither H nor G sits
Conclusions: 
beside E. Either H or G goes to Japan. The one
I. Some fingers are legs. 
who goes to France sits second to the left of D. D
goes to Singapore. Neither A nor B sits beside D. II. Some hands are heads. 
E faces the centre. D does not sit adjacent to E. E III. Some hands are shoes.
does not goes to France. B sits second to the right IV. No finger is leg.
of H. Only two people sit between A and C. D faces (1) Only conclusion I follows
away from the centre. C and A go to neither US
(2) Only conclusion II follows
nor UK. A and E face the same direction. B and
(3) Only conclusion III follows
the one who goes to Japan face same direction.
D sits to the immediate left of the one who goes (4) Only conclusion IV follows
to China. (5) Either conclusion I or IV follows
21. Who sits second to the left of the one who 27. Statements: 
goes to UK? Some schools are bags. 
(1) The one who goes to Singapore All schools are boxes. 
(2) The one who goes to Australia All bags are pens. 
(3) The one who goes to China
No pen is a pencil. 
(4) Either (1) or (2)
Conclusions: 
(5) Either (2) or (3)
I. At least some schools are pens. 
22. Who sits third to the right of the one who
sits second to the left of D? II. At least some boxes are pens. 
(1) E (2) A III. All pencils being boxes is a possibility. 
(3) B (4) C IV. No pencil is a bag. 
(5) H V. No box is a bag.
23. Who sits exactly between C and the one who (1) Only conclusion I follows
goes to Japan? (2) Only conclusion II follows
(1) The one who goes to France (3) Only conclusion III follows
(2) The one who goes to US
(4) Only conclusion IV follows
(3) The one who goes to Singapore
(5) Only conclusions I, II, III and IV follow
(4) The one who goes to UK
28. Statements: 
(5) The one goes to Australia
24. How many people face away from the Some cars are buses 
centre? Some buses are jeeps 
(1) Three (2) Four All jeeps are trains 
(3) Five (4) Six All trains are cycles 
(5) Two Conclusions: 
25. How many possible arrangements are I. No cycle is a car 
there? II. All cycles being jeep is a possibility 
(1) One (2) Three
III. No cycle is a jeep 
(3) Two (4) Four
IV. Some trains are jeeps
(5) Five
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(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ
I vuqlj.k ugha djrk gS funsZ'k
(31-35): iz'uksa esa fofHkUu rRoksa ds chp laca/] dFkuksa
(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ
I rFkkIII vuqlj.k ugha djrs gSa esa n'kkZ, x, gSA dFku] nks fu"d"kksZ }kjk vuqxeu fd;k tkrk
(3) dsoy fu"d"kZ
III vuqlj.k ugha djrk gS gSA fn, x, dFku ds vk/kj ij fu"d"kksZ dk vè;;u djsa vkSj
(4) dsoy fu"d"kZ
IV vuqlj.k ugha djrk gS mfpr mÙkj pqusaaA
(5) dsoy fu"d"kZ
II vuqlj.k ugha djrk gS (1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS
29. dFku % (2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS
lHkh dkMZ fdrkc gSA (3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kZ
I ;k II lR; gS
dksbZ doj Vksih ugha gSA (4) ;fn uk rks fu"d"kZ
I uk ghII lR; gS
dqN fdrkc dkxt gSA (5) ;fn nksuksa fu"d"kZ
I rFkkII lR; gSa
lHkh dkxt doj gSA 31. dFku %
fu"d"kZ % T < P < U; L > U > K; P < R
I. dqN doj ds dkxt gksus dh laHkkouk ugha gSA fu"d"kZ %
II. lHkh fdrkcksa ds doj gksus dh laHkkouk gSA I. K > R II. L > R
III. dqN dkxt Vksih gSA 32. dFku %
IV. dksbZ dkxt Vksih ugha gSA H = I < R; M > R < S
V. lHkh fdrkcksa ds Vksih gksus dh laHkkouk gSA fu"d"kZ %
(1) dsoy fu"d"kZI vuqlj.k ugha djrk gS I. M = I II. M > I
(2) dsoy fu"d"kZII vuqlj.k ugha djrk gS 33. dFku %
(3) dsoy fu"d"kZIII rFkkV vuqlj.k ugha djrs gSa D > H > N; S > I < H
(4) dsoy fu"d"kZI rFkkIV vuqlj.k ugha djrs gSa fu"d"kZ %
(5) dsoy fu"d"kZI rFkkIII vuqlj.k ugha djrs gSa I. N < S II. N < D
30. dFku % 34. dFku %
P < O < I; P > Y > W
dbZ jkrsa fnu gSaA
dqN izdk'k jkr gSaA fu"d"kZ %
Y < I II. O > W
dqN pkan izdk'k gSA
35. dFku %
dksbZ jkr lw;Z ugha gSA
A < B > C < F; Z < C < D < E
fu"d"kZ %
fu"d"kZ %
I. dqN pkan jkr ugha gSA
I. A > Z II. F < E
II. dqN fnu lw;Z ugha gSA
III. lHkh izdk'k ds fnu gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
IV. dksbZ izdk'k lw;Z ugha gSA
(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ
I rFkkIII vuqlj.k djrs gSa
(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ
III rFkkIV vuqlj.k djrs gSa
(3) dsoy fu"d"kZ
II, III rFkkIV vuqlj.k djrs gSa
(4) dsoy fu"d"kZ
I, III rFkkIV vuqlj.k djrs gSa
(5) lHkh vuqlj.k djrs gSa

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(1) Only conclusion I does not follow Direction (31-35): In each question, relationship
(2) Only conclusion I and III does not follow between different elements is shown in the
(3) Only conclusion III does not follow statements. The statements are followed by
two conclusions. Study the conclusions based
(4) Only conclusion IV does not follow
on the given statements and mark the
(5) Only conclusion II does not follow appropriate answer.
29. Statements:  (1) If only conclusion I is true
All cards are books.  (2) If only conclusion II is true
No cover is a cap. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true
Some books are papers.  (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
All papers are covers.  (5) If both conclusion I and II are true
Conclusions:  31. Statement : 
I. Some covers not being papers is a T < P < U; L > U > K; P < R
possibility.  Conclusions:
II. All books being covers is a possibility. 
I. K > R II. L > R
III. Some papers are caps. 
32. Statement: 
IV. No paper is a cap. 
H = I < R; M > R < S
V. All books being cap is a possibility.
Conclusions :
(1) Only conclusion I does not follow
I. M = I II. M > I
(2) Only conclusion II does not follow
33. Statement :
(3) Only conclusions III and V does not follow
D > H > N; S > I < H
(4) Only conclusions I and IV does not follow
Conclusions :
(5) Only conclusions I and III does not follow
I. N < S II. N < D
30. Statements: 
34. Statement : 
Many nights are days. 
P < O < I; P > Y > W
All lights are nights. 
Conclusions :
Some moons are light. 
Y < I II. O > W
No night is a sun. 
35. Statement: 
Conclusions: 
A < B > C < F; Z < C < D < E
I. Some moons are night. 
Conclusions: 
II. Some days are not sun. 
I. A > Z II. F < E
III. All lights being day is a possibility. 
IV. No light is a sun.
(1) Only conclusions I and III follow
(2) Only conclusions III and IV follow
(3) Only conclusions II, III and IV follow
(4) Only conclusions I, III and IV follow
(5) All follow

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la[;kRed vfHk;ksX;rk
funsZ'k
(36–40) : fuEufyf[kr iz'ukas esa iz'u(?)
fpUgosQ LFkku
42. gfj;k.kk rFkk ,eih ls ,d lkFk vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa
ij D;k eku vk,xk\ 'kkfey gksus okys mEehnokjksa dh dqy la[;k rFkk liQy gksus
36. 320 dk 18.5% + 450 dk 7.4% = ? okys mEehnokjksa dh dqy la[;kvksa ds chp vuqikr D;k gS\
(1) 90.5 (2) 92.8 (1) 27 : 31 (2) 21 : 23
(3) 86.3 (4) 98.6
(3) 27 : 22 (4) 17 : 23
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
37. (? ÷ 25) ÷ 0.16 = 1935 ÷ 9
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(1) 560 (2) 1860 43. fnYyh ls vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa liQy gksus okys
(3) 760 (4) 860 mEehnokjksa dh la[;k rFkk fcgkj ls vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha esa liQy gksus okys mEehnokjksa dh la[;kvksa ds chp vuqikr
38. 96 × 2117 ÷ 73 = (? – 198) × 32 D;k gS\
(1) 285 (2) 385
(3) 185 (4) 825 (1) 5 : 7 (2) 5 : 2
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 2
39. 5450 dk ?% – 750 dk 12% = 1654 (5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(1) 32 (2) 34 44. ;wih ls vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa 'kkfey gksus okys mEehnokjk
(3) 36 (4) 23 dh la[;k] lHkh czkapksa ls ,d lkFk vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
esa 'kkfey gksus okys mEehnokjksa dh dqy yxHkx
la[;kvksa dk
40. 108 dk (?)2 % = (17)2 + 386
fdruk izfr'kr gS\
(1) 24 (2) 25
(3) 15 (4) 35 (1) 26% (2) 13%
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) 16% (4) 18%
funsZ'k
(41–45) : fuEu naM vkjs[k dk è;kuiwoZd vè;;u djsa (5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
rFkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA 45. lHkh czkapksa ls ,d lkFk vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa 'kkfey
naM vkjs[k vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa dsMh dSEil ds fofHkUu
gksusczkapksa
okys mEehnokjksa dh vkSlr la[;k rFkk lHkh czkapksa ls ,
ls 'kkfey gksus okys rFkk liQy gksus okys mEehnokjksa dh la[;kvksa dks
lkFk vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa liQy gksus okys mEehnokjksa
n'kkZrk gSA
'kkfey liQy dh vkSlr la[;k ds chp varj D;k gS\
(1) 950 (2) 1250
4000 3750
3500 (3) 750 (4) 1525
3500 (5)buesa ls dksbZ ugha
y l a[ ; k

3250
3000 2750
3000
funsZ'k
(46–50) : fuEu la[;k J`a[kyk esa ,d la[;k xyr fn;k
2250 2500 x;k gSA xyr la[;k dk p;u djsaA
mEehnokjksad h d q

2500 2250

2000 46. 2 4 7 12 19 29
1500 (1) 4 (2) 7
1500
1500 (3) 12 (4) 19
1000 (5) 29
500 47. 3 3 6 12 24 48 95
(1) 3 (2) 6
0
fnYyh fcgkj gfj;k.kk ;wih ,eih (3) 12 (4) 48
jkT; (5) 95
41. gfj;k.kk rFkk ;wih ls ,d lkFk vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa
48. 2 6 ls
2 3 2 5 2 6 42
liQy gksus okys mEehnokjksa dh vkSlr la[;k] mlh czkapksa
,d lkFk vkbZchih,l ihvks ijh{kk esa 'kkfey gksus okys(1) 6 (2) 2 6
mEehnokjksa dh la[;kvksa ds vkSlr dk fdruk izfr'kr gS\
(1) 76% (2) 65% (3) 2 5 (4) 2 6
(3) 72% (4) 56%
(5) 42
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (36-40): What should come in place 42. What is the ratio between the total number
of the question mark (?) in the following of candidates appeared and the total
questions? number of candidates qualified in the IBPS
36. 18.5% of 320 + 7.4% of 450 = ? PO examination from Haryana and MP
(1) 90.5 (2) 92.8 together?
(3) 86.3 (4) 98.6 (1) 27 : 31 (2) 21 : 23
(5) None of these (3) 27 : 22 (4) 17 : 23
37. (? ÷ 25) ÷ 0.16 = 1935 ÷ 9 (5) None of these
(1) 560 (2) 1860 43. What is the ratio between the number of
(3) 760 (4) 860 candidates qualified in the I BPS PO
(5) None of these examination from Delhi and the number
38. 96 × 2117 ÷ 73 = (? – 198) × 32 of candidates qualified in the IPBS PO
(1) 285 (2) 385 examinations from Bihar?
(3) 185 (4) 825 (1) 5 : 7 (2) 5 : 2
(5) None of these (3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 2
39. ?% of 5450 – 12% of 750 = 1654 (5) None of these
(1) 32 (2) 34 44. The number of candidates appeared in the
(3) 36 (4) 23 I BPS PO examinations from UP is
(5) None of these approximately what percentage of the total
40. (?)2 % of 108 = (17)2 + 386 number of candidates appeared in the IBPS
(1) 24 (2) 25 PO examination from all the branches
(3) 15 (4) 35 together?
(5) None of these (1) 26% (2) 13%
Direction (41-45): Study the following bar graph (3) 16% (4) 18%
carefully and answer the given questions. (5) None of these
Bar graph shows the number of candidates 45. What is the difference between the average
appeared and qualified from different branches number of candidates appeared in the IBPS
of KD Campus in IBPS PO examination.  PO examination from all the branches
Appeared Qualified
together and the average number of
4000 3750 candidates qualified in the I BPS PO
3500 examination from all the branches
3500
Total no. of candidated

3250 together?
3000 (1) 950 (2) 1250
3000 2750
(3) 750 (4) 1525
2500 2250 2500 2250
(5) None of these
2000 Direction (46-50): In the following number
1500
1500 series, a wrong number is given. Find out that
1500 wrong number.
1000 46. 2 4 7 12 19 29
(1) 4 (2) 7
500
(3) 12 (4) 19
0 (5) 29
Delhi Bihar Haryana UP MP
47. 3 3 6 12 24 48 95
State
41. The average number of candidates qualified (1) 3 (2) 6
in the IBPS PO examination from Haryana (3) 12 (4) 48
and UP together are what percentage of the (5) 95
average number of candidates appeared in
48. 2 62 32 52 6 42
the IBPS PO examination from the same
branches together? (1) 6 (2) 2 6
(1) 76% (2) 65%
(3) 2 5 (4) 2 6
(3) 72% (4) 56%
(5) None of these (5) 42

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
49. 3 4 4 24 68 365 funsZ'k
(56–60) : fuEu rkfydk dk è;kuiwoZd vè;;u djsa
(1) 4 (2) 68 rFkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
(3) 3 (4) 24
rkfydk N% fofHkUu o"kkZsa esa dsMh ifCyds'ku ds dk;Zjr N% deZpk
(5) 21
dk ekfld osru (` esa
) n'kkZrk gSA
50. 10 16.5 35 90 273 961
(1) 10 (2) 961 o"kZ
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
(3) 35 (4) 273 deZpkjh
(5) 90 19200 20500 23400 25000 26600 28200
51. ikap yxkrkj fo"ke la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 27 gSA ;fn igyh] 28500 30100 31800 33000 34900 36000
rhljh rFkk ikapoh la[;k esa 2 tksM+k tk, rFkk nwljh rFkk pkSFkh
la[;k esa 3 ?kVk;k tk,] rks bu ikap la[;kvksa dk p;u vkSlr 22600 24000 26400 28100 29800 31000
Kkr djsaA 23000 24500 26100 27000 29300 31200
(1) 32 (2) 27 24800 26000 27900 29100 30800 33000
(3) 23 (4) 19
31500 35800 36600 40200 44000 45800
(5) 25
56. lHkh o"kksZa esaD,ddh
52. ;fn ,d fHkUu ds va'k dks 80» c<+k;k tk, rFkk mlh fHkUu
lkFk
vkSlr ekfld osru rFkk o"kZ
2015 esa
F ds ekfld osru ds chp varj D;k gS\
3
ds gj dks 25» ?kVk;k tk,] rks fHkUu
cu tkrk gSA izkIr (1) ` 17,250 (2) ` 18,150
5
(3) ` 17,510 (4) ` 17,150
fHkUu rFkk okLrfod fHkUu ds chp varj Kkr djsaA (5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
9 3 57. o"kZ 2016Cesa
ds ekfld osru] o"kZ 2016
A,esa
B rFkkE
(1) (2)
19 7 ds ,d lkFk dqy ekfld osru dkyxHkxfdruk izfr'kr
gS\
5 7
(3) (4) (1) 30% (2) 32%
6 20
(3) 38% (4) 42%
(5)buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
53. 72 fdeh-@?kaVk dh pky ls py jgh igyh jsyxkM+h] foijhr
58. o"kZ 2012Desa rFkk o"kZ 2014 esa dk ,d lkFk okf"kZd osru
fn'kk ls 90 fdeh@?kaVk dh pky ls vk jgh nwljh jsyxkM+h dks
,d
18 lsds.M esa ikj dj tkrh gSA nwljh jsyxkM+h dh yackbZ] lkFk ,oa o"kZ 2013BesarFkk o"kZ 2011A dk
esa,d
igyh jsyxkM+h dh nksxquh gS] rks igyh jsyxkM+hlkFk viusokf"kZd
ls osru ds chp vuqikr Kkr djsaA
vk/h yach IysViQkeZ dks ikj djus esa fdruk le; ysxh\ (1) 6 : 7 (2) 7 : 6
(1) 30 lsd.M (2) 25 lsd.M (3) 5 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
(3) 15 lsd.M (4) 20 lsd.M (5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha 59. o"kZ 2013Besa rFkkE dk ,d lkFk ekfld osru] o"kZ 2015
54. fdruh fofHkUu rjhdkss ls 5 dye rFkk 6 fdrkcksa dks ,d esaD rFkkF dk ,d lkFk ekfld osru dkyxHkxfdruk
iafDr esa bl izdkj O;ofLFkr fd;k tk, rkfd lHkh dye izfr'kr vf/d@de gS\
,d lkFk rFkk lHkh fdrkc ,d lkFk j[kk tk,\
(1) 19% vf/d (2) 16% de
(1)  17,28,00 (2) 16,25,80
(3) 19% de (4) 16% vf/d
(3) 17,52,00 (4) 16,95,00
(5) 18,52,00 (5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
5 60. F, vius ekfld osru dk 5» nku nsrk gS rFkk rc 'ks"k osru
55. 10 efgyk;sa ,d fnu esa 5 ?kaVs dk;Z djds dke
Hkkx
dk
6 ds 20» dks 3 o"kkZas ds fy, 5» dh okf"kZd pØo`f¼ C;kt nj
16 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrh gSA fdrus fnuksa esa 12 efgyk,a iwjs ds fy, dtZ nsrk gS] rks 3 o"kksZa ds ckn mlds }kjk
ij 3 o"kksZa
dke dks ,d fnu esa 8 ?kaVs dk;Z djds iwjk djsxh\ vftZr C;kt Kkr djsaA
(1) 12 fnu (2) 8 fnu (1) ` 1,381.745 (2) ` 1,317.745
(3) 10 fnu (4) 15 fnu  (3) ` 1,418.145 (4) ` 1,315.235
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
49. 3 4 4 24 68 365 Direction (56-60): Study the following table
(1) 4 (2) 68 carefully and answer the given questions.
(3) 3 (4) 24 Table shows the monthly salary (in `) of six
(5) 21 employees working in KD publication in six
50. 10 16.5 35 90 273 961 different years.
(1) 10 (2) 961
(3) 35 (4) 273 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
(5) 90
51. Average of five consecutive odd numbers is 19200 20500 23400 25000 26600 28200
27. If 2 is added in first, third and fifth 28500 30100 31800 33000 34900 36000
number and 3 is subtracted from second and
fourth number, then find the new average 22600 24000 26400 28100 29800 31000
of these five number.
23000 24500 26100 27000 29300 31200
(1) 32 (2) 27
(3) 23 (4) 19 24800 26000 27900 29100 30800 33000
(5) 25 31500 35800 36600 40200 44000 45800
52. If the numerator of a fraction is increased 56. What is the difference between the average
by 80% and the denominator of the same
monthly income of D in all the years
fraction is decreased by 25%, then the
together and the monthly income of F in
3 the year 2015?
fraction becomes . Find the difference
5 (1) ` 17,250 (2) ` 18,150
between the resultant fraction and the (3) ` 17,510 (4) ` 17,150
original fraction. (5) None of these
9 3 57. Monthly salary of C in the year 2016 is
(1) (2)
19 7 approximately what percentage of total
5 7 monthly salary of A, B and E together in the
(3) (4) year 2016?
6 20
(5) None of these (1) 30% (2) 32%
53. First train is running at 72 km/hr and (3) 38% (4) 42%
crosses another train that is coming from (5) None of these
opposite direction at 90 km/hr in 18 sec. 58. Find the ratio between annual salary of D
The length of second train is double of first in the year 2012 and F in the year in 2014
train, then in how much time take first together to that of B in the year 2013 and A
train cross a platform which is half of its in the year 2011 together?
length?
(1) 6 : 7 (2) 7 : 6
(1) 30 sec (2) 25 sec
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
(3) 15 sec (4) 20 sec
(5) None of these
(5) None of these
59. Monthly salary of B and E together in the
54. In how many different ways can 5 pen and
year 2013 is appr ox imately what
6 books be arranged in a row such that all
percentage more less than that of D and F
the pens place together and all the books
together in the year 2015?
place toether?
(1) 19% more (2) 16% less
(1)  17,28,00 (2) 16,25,80
(3) 17,52,00 (4) 16,95,00 (3) 19% less (4) 16% more
(5) 18,52,00 (5) None of these
55. 10 women working for 5 hours in a day can 60. F donated 5% of his monthly salary. and
then lent out 20% of remaining salary on
5
complete of the work in 16 days. In how Compound interest at 5% annually for 3
6
many days can 12 women working for 8 years in the year 2015, then find the
hours in a day complete the whole work? interest earned by after 3 years?
(1) 12 days (2) 8 days (1) ` 1,381.745 (2) ` 1,317.745
(3) 10 days (4) 15 days  (3) ` 1,418.145 (4) ` 1,315.235
(5) None of these (5) None of these

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
61. ` 12,540 dksP, Q rFkk R ds chp bl izdkj ckaVk tkrk 65. ;ksx pkj vkus dh izk;f;drk D;k gS tc nks leku iklksa dks
3 ,d lkFk iQsdk tkrk gS\
gS fdP, Q rFkkR ds }kjk ,d lkFk izkIr dk izkIr djrk
7
1 1
2 (1) (2)
gS ,oaQ, P rFkkR ds }kjk ,d lkFk izkIr dk izkIr djrk 12 18
9
gSAP ds }kjk izkIr jkf'k D;k gS\
2 1
(1) ` 3,762 (2) ` 2,280 (3) (4)
21 7
(3) ` 6,498 (4) ` 3,642
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
funsZ'k
(66–70) : fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa nks lehdj.k
I rFkkII
62. ,d O;fDr vius iq=k ls dgrk gS] eSa rqEgkjs tUe ds rhu o"kZ
fn;s x, gSaA lehdj.kksa dks gy djsa rFkk iz'uksa osQ mÙkj nsaA
igys] rqEgkjh eka dh vk;q dk rhu xq.kk FkkA ;fn O;fDr] iq=k
rFkk eka dh orZeku vk;q ds chp vuqikr 40 % 7 % 20 gS] mÙkj nsa ;fn
rks iq=k dh orZeku vk;q Kkr djsaA (1) x > y
(1) 7 o"kZ (2) 14 o"kZ (2) x  y
(3) 21 o"kZ (4) 28 o"kZ (3) x < y
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) x  y
63.  nks mEehnokjksa ds chp ,d ernku esa ernkrk lwfp ds 10»
(5) x = y ;k lacaèk LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk gSA
lwfpc¼ ernkrk er ugha fn,A 60 er voS/ FksaA ;fn66.
liQy I. x(x + 7) = 30
mEehnokjksa 308 erksa ls thr tkrk gS rFkk ernkrk lwph ij
lwfpc¼ ernkrk dk 49» leFkZu djrs gS] rks oS/ erksa dh
1
100  2
dqy la[;k Kkr djsaA II. y = 
 9 
(1) 5,440 (2) 5,320
67. I. 3x2 – 16x + 21 = 0
(3) 5,520 (4) 5,540
II. 6y2 + 25y + 21 = 0
(5) buesa ls
dksbZ ugha 68. I. 2x5 (x–2) = 128
64. ,d fØdsV Vhe ds 11 f[kykfM+;ksa dh vkSlr vk;q 2 o"kZ ?kV
1 9
tkrh gS] tc buesa ls 17 o"kZ rFkk 20 o"kZ ds nks f[kykfM+;ksa 1 11
II. y = y
3 24
dks nks fj”koZ f[kykfM+;ksa ls cny fn;k tkrk gSA fj”koZ f[kykfM+;ksa
dh vkSlr vk;q Kkr djsaA 69. I. 20x2 – 108x + 144 = 0
II. 25y2 – 90y + 72 = 0
(1) 17 o"kZ7 eghus
70. I. 2x2 + 18x + 36 = 0
(2) 17 o"kZ3 eghus
II. y2 – 3y – 18 = 0
(3) 17 o"kZ5 eghus
(4) 17 o"kZ
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
61. ` 1,25,40 is devided among P, Q and R in 65. What is the probability of getting the sum
3 four when two identical dice throw
such a way that P receives as much as Q simultaneously?
7
2
and R together receive and Q receives 1 1
9 (1) (2)
as much P and R together receive. What is 12 18
the amount received by A?
2 1
(1) ` 3,762 (2) ` 2,280 (3) (4)
21 7
(3) ` 6,498 (4) ` 3,642
(5) None of these
(5) None of these
62. A man says to his son, ‘I was thrice your Direction (66–70) : In the following question
mother's age three years before your birth.’ two equations I and II are given. Solve the
If the ratio between the present ages of equations and answer the questions.
man, son and mother is 40 : 7 : 20, then Give Answer if
find the present age of the son.
(1) x > y (2) x  y
(1) 7 years (2) 14 years
(3) 21 years (4) 28 years (3) x < y (4) x  y
(5) None of these (5) x = y or relation between x and y
63.  In an election between two candidates 10% cannot be established
voters listed on the voting list didn't vote.
60 votes were invalid. If the successful 66. I. x(x + 7) = 30
candidate won by 308 votes and was 1
supported by 47% of the voters listed on the 100  2
II. y = 
voting list, then find the total number of  9 
valid votes.
67. I. 3x2 – 16x + 21 = 0
(1) 5,440 (2) 5,320
II. 6y2 + 25y + 21 = 0
(3) 5,520 (4) 5,540
68. I. 2x5 (x–2) = 128
(5) None of these
64. The average age of 11 players of a cricket 1 9 1 11
II. y = y
team is decreased by 2 months, when two 3 24
of them aged 17 years and 20 years are 69. I. 20x2 – 108x + 144 = 0
replaced by two reserved players. Find the II. 25y2 – 90y + 72 = 0
average age of the reserved players.
70. I. 2x2 + 18x + 36 = 0
(1) 17 years 7 months
II. y2 – 3y – 18 = 0
(2) 17 years 3 months
(3) 17 years 5 months
(4) 17 years
(5) None of these

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION
Direction (71-80): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the
questions.
The UK has voted to leave the European
Union, of which it was a part from 1975. Theresa
May, Britain's new PM, has her task cut out to
provide her country with the best solutions, post
its separation from the EU. The precess of
separation is likely to be a slowburn and the jury
is still out on the extent of hit that could be taken
by the UK, the EU and the rest of the world.
The immediate direct impact on India could
be limited from the trade channel. India's goods
and services imports from the UK are 0.7 percent
of GDP while exports to the UK are 0.8 percent of
GDP. But, if global growth slows, the implications
for India's exports will be stronger. The impact
could be more from the financial markets side
as global markets remain volatile. There could
be a bias for the dollar to appreciate; implying
Emerging Markets (EM) currencies, including
India's, will have to depreciate.
There may also be bouts of volatility due to
rising Euro-scepticism across the EU and fringe
political parties gaining importance. India, as a
standalone, has, to a large extent, achieved
macro-ecomomic stability. This is partly due to
sharp corrections in commodity prices that
helped it stay on course for fiscal correction and
also lowered the current account deficit to levels
much better than the RBI's current account
deficit to levels much better than the RBI's
comport zone (2.5 percent fo GDP). This, and the
RBI's relatively tight monetary policy have led to
a decline in headline CPI levels. The government
and the RBI have initiatged measures to clean
bank balance sheets and infuse capital that will
enable banks to restart lending.
Despite improving macro-economic
fundamentals, growth has been, and will be, slow
to pick up. Most corporates have high debt and
with industrial capacity utilisation running at 70-
72 percent, private investment is unlikely to pick
up soon. The government's infrastructure related
expenditure is expected to help, though. However,
the key reliance will be on reviving consumption
demand. On the urban side this is expected via
rise in government employee wages through the
7th Pay Commission awards. On the rural side,
the expectation is that incomes will increase due
to good monsoon.
Ph: 09555108888,
This is hardly a good time for India to rest on
its laurels. Even as growth is expected to be
muted, there does not appear a significant
chance for oil prices to again race to the bottom.
And if oil prices do plummet, this would be
indicative of severse risk-off behaviour, implying
that the rupee will have to depreciate faster. We
will again be following a consumption-led growth
model that was also followed in the post-Lehman
period, with known disastrous results.
This will need to be avoided by policy makers.
Calculations show that if oil tends to go up to $60
per barrel, India's current account deficit could
inch back very close to the red mark of 2.5
percent of GDP. Further, fiscal policy could come
under stress as oil products' excise collections
pad up the revenue and might have to be given
up if global oil prices increase. Further, this could
add to inflation.
In this context, monetary policy also needs
to be carefully calibrated. Market expectations
are again building over another rate cut by the
RBI, especially in the likelyhood of further
easing of global monetary policy and
postponement of further rate rises in the US.
However, over the last three months, headline
CPI inflation has increased and actually moved
closer to the upper threshold level of 4 + 2 percent.
The outgoing RBI governor has explained that if
inflation is closer to the theresold it is more
likely to breach the threshold and hamper
growth. So, there isn't any logic for an immediate
rate cut. The final mantra? India must continue
to employ structural reform. Slow and steady
progress will win the race.
71. What has/have led to a decline in CPI
levels? Answer in the context of the
passage.
(A) RBI's tigth monetary policy
(B) Sharp corrections in commodity prices
(C) India's macro-economic stability
(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (B) and (C)
(3) Only (A) and (C) (4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) Only (C)
72. Find the incorrect statement on the basis
of the given passage.
(1) With industrial capacity utilisation
running at 70-72 percent, private
investment is unlikely to pick up soon.
(2) The UK has been part of the European
Union for over forty years.
09555208888 15
 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
(3) The impact of Brexit could be more from Direction (79-80): Choose the word which is
the financial markets side as global MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word
markets remain volatile. printed in bold as used in the passage.
(4) The oil prices appear to go down again 79. Volatile
in near future. (1) up and down (2) transient
(5) All the statements given above are (3) inconsistent (4) unsteady
correct
(5) stable
73. What could be the impact on India of the
UK leaving the European Union? 80. Laurels
(A) Since India's exports to the UK are only (1) kudos (2) crown
0.8 percent of the GDP there will be no (3) criticism (4) accolade
impact of any type of India. (5) prestige
(B) India's currency will depreciate. Direction (81-85): Rearrange the following
(C) India's import from the UK will increase sentences (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) to make a
significantly. meaningful paragraph and then answer the
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) questions which follow.
(3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (A) The Naxal would kill villagers or village
(5) Only (B) and (C) heads branding them as police inform-
74. What have the government and the RBI ers just to remind the People of their
done to enable banks to restart lending? power, he said.
(1) Both the government and the RBI have (B) The village is located inside a dense for-
infused the required capital. est about 25 kilometers from Darbha,
(2) The RBI has reduced the lending rate. which is itself about 350 kilometer away
from Raipur, Mr. Sundraraj said.
(3) The RBI has initiated measures to clean
bank balance sheets. (C) The Sarpanch of a village in
Chhattisgarh’s Bastar district was killed
(4) Only (1) and (2)
by a naxal at his home, the police said
(5) Only (1) and (3)
on Saturday.
75. What, according to the author, should India
(D) The official said that people from
do to maintain the pace of economic growth?
Chhindgur and nearby villages have
(1) The RBI should cut rates without
been opposing naxal activities for the
further delay.
past couple of months.
(2) I ndia should continue to employ
(E) The official said the Kanger Ghati area
strucural reforms.
committee of the Maoist, which operates
(3) India should minimise the import of oil
in the Darbha area, has suffered crip-
products from the Gulf countries.
pling blows in the past couple of years.
(4) India should make a strong fiscal policy
(F) A group of armed rebels stormed in the
to discourage imports.
house of the Sarpanch of Chhindgur
(5) India should follow the policy of 'wait and
village, identified as Pandru, 45, and slit
watch'.
his throat on Friday night, Deputy
76. The author of the passage appears to be (n)
Inspector-General of Police P.
(1) Analyst (2) Critic Sundararaj told.
(3) Politician (4) Economist
81. Which can be the second sentence?
(5) Financial Adviser
(1) C (2) A
Direction (77-78): Choose the word which is
(3) F (4) D
MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passages. (5) E
77. Plummet 82. Which can be the last sentence?
(1) ascent (2) shoot up (1) A (2) E
(3) plunge (4) raise (3) C (4) D
(5) wax (5) F
78. Breach 83. Which can be the fourth sentence?
(1) connect (2) respect (1) B (2) A
(3) uphold (4) break (3) D (4) E
(5) open (5) F

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 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
84. Which can be the first sentence? India wants to (91) a regional architecture, based
(1) F (2) E on the twin (92) of shared security and shared
(3) D (4) C prosperity, External Affairs Minister Sushma
(5) B Swaraj said on Saturday, as she (93) for a deeper
85. Which can be the fifth sentence? economic integration with the (94) Asean region.
Ms. Swaraj, who (95) the fifth Round Table of the
(1) A (2) B
Association of Southeast Asian Nations(ASEAN),
(3) C (4) D
(96) the need for enhancing (97) security, trade
(5) E and investment, education and (98) heritage
Direction (86-90): Read each sentence to find among the grouping.These are important
out whether there is any grammatical error in markers in our (99) with south east asia,in
it. The error, if any, will be in one port of the enhancing our (100) with asean across 3CS these
sentence. The number of that part will be the 3CS are Commerce, Connectivity and Culture,”
answer. If there is no error mark (5) as the she said.
answer,(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 91. (1) unfold (2) extend
86. (1) U.S. secretary of state/ (2) rex tillerson (3) expand (4) evolve
on friday found/ (3) himself obliged to
(5) advance
defend/ (4) Donald Trump fitness for office/
92. (1) proposition (2) theory
(5) No error
(3) postulate (4) principles
87. (1) A newly emerged Island in/ (2) the middle
(5) concepts
estuary of the Hooghly/ (3) river, was
completely barren, with hardly/ (4) no plant 93. (1) whoop (2) screech
or animal spicies./ (5) No error. (3) roar (4) called
88. (1) This publication is the most/ (2) unique (5) cried
in nature as it reveals how/(3) an 94. (1) spirited (2) aggressive
emerging landmass can gradually provide/ (3) positive (4) active
(4) habitats for diverse groups of organisim./ (5) dynamic
(5) No error 95. (1) initiated (2) extablished
89. (1) In 1989, when we/ (2) first survey the (3) inaugurated (4) originated
Island,/ (3) we found only three /(4) (5) begin
invertebrate soil fauna./ (5) No error 96. (1) emphasised (2) stroke
90. (1) The island not only has/ (2) recorded a (3) underlined (4) underscored
growth in species of fauna/ (3) but also (5) accentuate
increased in size over the/ (4) past five 97. (1) naval (2) maritime
decades./ No error (3) seaside (4) littoral
Direction (91–100) : In the following passage (5) seagoing
there are blanks, each of which has been num- 98. (1) ethnic (2) intellectual
bered. These numbers are printed below the (3) cultural (4) folk
passage and against each, five words are sug- (5) aesthetic
gested, one of which best fits the blank appro- 99. (1) commitment (2) assiciation
priately. Find out the appropriate word in each (3) sharing (4) engagement
case. (5) interview
100. (1) calculated (2) crucial
(3) essential (4) strategic
(5) deliberate

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

Rough

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