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My questions are in
pink. Sorry for being a pain in the ass.
• Locke: All our knowledge comes from experience and through our senses—that
"there is nothing in the mind except what was first in the senses."
Locke was a dualist. He was a realist. Realism: “things/object are whatever they appear to
be” (I have paraphrased this) but at the same time he said ”we are immediately aware of ideas
and not objects in themselves” through his Theory of Ideas…. (Quoted from Sean Sayer’s
Reality and Reason)
What was he actually then? Empiricist/Realist/dualist?
Khurram: Locke was an empiricist who believed that mind has nothing from inside and
whatever it has is because of the experience. He rejected Descartes’ dualism that matter and
mind are different substances. He was of the opinion that it is equally possible that mind and
matter are made of the same substance.
On the other hand Locke did believe in causal realism; He was of the belief that we can
determine the existence of external world with the help of chain of cause and effect. Berkley
considered causal dualism as inconsistent to Locke’s empiricism, because we only experience
the final stage of the chain of cause and effect, and as empiricists we believe that we can only
know which we experience.
• • We are beyond and above the laws we make in order to understand the world
of our experience; each of us is a center of initiative force and creative power. In a way which
we feel but cannot prove, each of us is free.
I didn’t understand this…. How are we above and beyond the laws that we make? How are
we free? Can you please explain this entire point?
Khurram: Because we make laws to understand the external world but morals are something
we made purely through our own minds and we are free (from external world) to act
according to those morals which our free mind has drafted or to act worldly.