SO GIAO DUC VA DAO TAO KY THI CHQN HQC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HOC 2017 - 2018 ———_ Mon: TIENG ANH pk CHIN THUC Negay thi: 25/3/2018. (Bé gém cé 05 trang) Thai gian lam bai: 150 phiit, khong ké thai gian phat dé I. LISTENING (4,0 marks) Part 1. Listen to six people giving their preferences. Listen to the recording twice. Decide if each sentence is true (T) or false (F). Write your answers on the answer sheet. 1. He prefers travelling by himself. 2. She likes those loud, trendy places. 3. She likes hotels with a swimming pool. 4, He can’t stand living in the suburbs. 5. She wants a small one that she can carry. 6. Making a lot of money isn’t important to him. Part 2. Listen 10 a radio presenter talking about weekend events in the Carlisle twice. Choose the correct answer A, B, or C. Write your answers on the answer sheet. 7. The concert starts at 7 A. 7.00 p.m. B. 7.30 p.m. C. 8.30 p.m. 8. The money from the concert will pay for___. A. books for the school library B. some school sport equipment C. a school trip to London 9. The members of Walking Club will meet A. in the market square B. atthe bus station _C. in the car park by the lake 10. You can hear a talk by the writer. A. in the library B.atthe bookshop _C.. in the theater 11. The writer will talk about ‘A. a famous person she has written about B. a recent journey she has made C. the next book she will write 12. To go to the talk you should E A. be a club member B. be over 16 C. book a ticket Part 3. You will hear a radio announcement about a fun run. Listen and fill in the missing information WITH NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in the numbered spaces. You will hear the recording twice. Write your answers on the answer sheet. ABINGTON PARK FUN RUN Time of the run: 11 a.m. Date: Sunday, (13) __ May Venue: Abington Park Distance: (14)___kilometres Race starts and finishes at the (15) ___in the park. Facilities for changing in the (16) Club Every runner gets a(I7)___. Cost of entry: Adults: £8 (in advance)/£(18)___(on the day) Children less than (19)__years old: free Get an entry pack from any (20) (or the website: www. funrun.org)II. PHONETICS (0,5 mark) A. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answers on the answer sheet. 1. A.employer B. reunite C. recommend D. understand 2. A.politician B. rhinoceros C. artificial D. controversial B. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answers on the answer sheet. 1. A. motion B. question C. contribution D. emotion 2. A.since B, sure C. sun D. sick 3. A. hatred B, sacred C. ware D. decided Ill. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY (3,5 marks) A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence. Write your answers on the answer sheet, 1. I suggest we outside the cinema tomorrow at 8:30 p.m.. A. met B, meeting C. meet D. will meet 2. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver in the crash. ‘A.was injured B. injured C. were injured D. had injured 3. His house is, mine. A. twice as big as, B. as twice big as C. as two times big as D. as big as twice 4, Don’t worry. He'll do the job as as possible. A. economizing B. economic C. economical D. economically 5. In 1849, Walter Hunt, American inventor, patented a design that served as the basis for modem safety pins. Avan B. he was an C. who D. was an 6. Itis very important for a company to keep the changes in the market. A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with 7.1 won't change my mind what you say. A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although 8. You to your teacher like that. It was very rude. A. shouldn’t talk B, mustn’t talk C. shouldn't have talked D. mustn’t have talked 9. The clown was wearinga __wig and a red nose. A. funny plastic red B. funny red plastic C. red plastic funny D. red funny plastic 10. The fire to have started in the furnace under the house. A. is believed B. that is believed _C. they believed D. that they believe B. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word ‘that fis in the space in the same line. Write your answers on the answer shect. ISLAND IN THE SUN With its (1) sunshine, clear, blue water and the warm welcome TROPIC you will receive, this island is hard to beat as a holiday destination. The island has something for everyone, but the (2) west coast is the perfect (3) DELIGHT for people who love water sports, such as water-skiing and CHOOSE windsurfing. For those who prefer a more relaxing holiday, there are beaches of fine, white sand, facing the calm Caribbean Sea and also an (4) IMPRESS selection of restaurants, where the local seafood is (5) recommended. HIGH 2C. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, but some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (\) in the space provided on your answer sheet. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the space provided on your answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00). Football Cup The most important match of the English football season was on in last weekend. Manchester United, the favorites, were playing Everton, an another team from the North of England. My father has been an Everton fan since that he was a young boy, but unfortunately I wasn’t there to watch the match with him as I was studying at abroad. A group of about fifteen English students met in the French College bar to cheer our teams. None one of us could believe it when the presenter appeared and apologised for not being able to get a picture. Instead of we were shown a long stretch of adverts. Every so often the presenter would appear again for to apologise for the lack of picture. At half-time I phoned home and asked what the score was it. My dad was full of joy. Apparently Everton had got a goal in the thirtieth minute. v. Bewrdauaun-Zo D. Complete the passage with the correct form of the verbs in the brackets, Write your answers on the answer sheet. When you first apply for a job, you might not succeed in (1) (get) it. It’s always a good idea to ask them to explain to you what prevented from beating the other candidates. Don't @) (complain) about the situation, but ask them to advise you of what you can do better next time, Perhaps the interviewer disapproved of or disagreed with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at your application and (3) (see) something that made it easy (4) (choose) between you and another candidate. Don’t regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. As long as you don’t worry too much about it and continue to believe in yourself, you'll eventually find the chance you (5) (wait) for. Then, your family and friends will be able to congratulate you on your success. E. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers on the answer sheet. 0. Could you deal with this problem? I'm rather busy. 1. John would like to specialize computer science. 2. The man was showing his new sports car to his friends. 3. Sally looks on everyone who isn’t as clever as her. 4. L admired him for being so confident his age. 5. She didn’t get well with her boss, so she left the company. IV. READING (4,0 marks) A. Choose the word which best completes each blank in the following passage. Write your answers on the answer sheet. In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play, so you shouldn't make jokes (1) you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like interruptions or (2) changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important, so you should arrive (3) for appointments. At meeting, it's important to follow the agenda and not interrupt the other speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (4) facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products. You should also prepare well, 3as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example “Doctor” or “Professor”, so you shouldn't use first names (5) a person asks you to. L.A. like B. asif C. such as D.as 2... sudden B. gradual C. abrupt D. prompt 3. A. at times B. on time C. at once D. for once 4. A.on B.to Cat D.i 5. A. if only B.as C. unless D. since B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each. There was an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers on the answer sheet. A student learning English occasionally (0) meets the following problems when he (1) to talks and lectures. It is difficult to decide where one word finishes and the next one starts. In speech, many sounds (2) a student some difficulty and he fails to identify them. Some words in English, which occur very commonly, have a weak form. An overseas student identifies them with difficulty. (3) addition, many students sometimes do not hear the unstressed syllable in a word. This problem never arises in print. The lecturer (4) uses an informal style and who pronounces his vowels with a strong accent will be difficult to follow. A student takes notes more (5) when the lecturer speaks with a BBC accent. C. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants. Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA). Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities. While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “polynucleated population groups,” “conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises,” and so on.1. What does the passage mainly discuss? ‘A. How cities in the United States began and developed. B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities. C. The changing definition of an urban area. D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census. 2. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D.1970 3. The word “distinguished” in line 2 is closest in meaning to A. differentiated B. removed C. honored D. protected 4. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban? A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000 5. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950? A. City borders had become less distinct. B, Cities had undergone radical social change. C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition. D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities. 6. The word “those” in line 8 refers to A. boundaries B. persons| C. units D. areas 7. The word “constituting” in line 14 is closest in meaning to___. A. located B. determined by _C. calling for D. making up 8. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA? A. Ithas a population of at least 50,000. _B. It can include a city’s outlying regions. C. It can include unincorporated regions. _D. It consists of at least two cities. 9. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA? 3/4 B.23 c.12 D.13 10. The Census Bureau first used the term “SMSA” in A. 1900 B. 1950 C. 1969 D. 1970 V. WRITING (4,0 marks) A. Write the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Write your answers on the answer sheet. 1, Susan isn’t as good at chemistry as Sarah is. Sarah is 2. Although Bod didn’t speak Dutch, he decided to settle in Amsterdam. In spite of 3. Our house really needs to be redecorated. It’s time we had 4. “I'm sorry I broke your glasses, Paul,” said Stacy. Stacy apologised 5. We didn’t go on holiday because we didn’t have enough time. Had B. In about 150 - 200 words, write an essay about the following topic on the answer sheet. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “Human activities make the environment become worse and worse.” Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. THE END. 5SO GIAO DUC VA DAO TAO TINH DONG THAP HUONG DAN CHAM (HDC gém cé 07 trang) I. LISTENING (4,0 marks) Part 1. Listen to six people giving their preferences. Listen to the recording twice. Decide if each sentence is true (T) or false (F). Write your answers on the answer sheet. KY THI CHON HOC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH NAM HOC 2017 - 2018 Mén: TIENG ANH Ngay thi: 25/3/2018 important to me. SENTENCES ANSWERS CONTENTS MARKS 1 io Iprefer travelling by myself. 02 2 F Thate those loud, trendy places. 02 I don’t like those big tourist hotels. They might have more facilities, like a 3 F or 0,2 gym, or a swimming pool, or a golf course, but it doesn’t matter to me. 4 F I prefer living in the suburbs. 0,2 ‘That's what I prefer — a small one I can 5 ‘ 02 __pick up and carry. 6 T Making a lot of money just isn’t that 02 Part 2. Listen to a radio presenter talking about weekend events in the Carlisle twice. Choose the correct answer A, B, or C. Write your answers on the answer sheet. SENTENCES | ANSWERS CONTENTS MARKS 7 B 7.30 p.m. 0.2 8 B ‘some school sport equipment 0.2 9 c in the car park by the lake 02 10 A in the library 0.2 ul B a recent journey she has made 0,2 12 Cc book a ticket 0,2 Part 3. You will hear a radio announcement about a fun run. Listen and fill in the missing information WITH NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in the numbered spaces. You will hear the recording twice. Write your answers on the answer sheet. SENTENCES ANSWERS MARKS 13 24% 0,2 14 3 02 15 football ground 0,2 16 Hockey 0,2 17 water bottle 0,2 18 10 02 19 15 0,2 20 newsagent E 0,2Il. PHONETICS (0,5 mark) A. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answers on the answer sheet. SENTENCES ‘ANSWERS MARKS I A O1 2 B OL B. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answers on the answer sheet. SENTENCES ANSWERS MARKS 1 B lemon 2 B [esrog 3 iG 0,1 TI. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY (3,5 marks) A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence. Write your answers on the answer sheet, SENTENCES ANSWERS MARKS. I G 0.1 2 A Ou. 3 A 0,1 4 D 0,1 3 A 0,1 6 D Ou fi B O1 8 c 0,1 9 B 01 10 A Ou B. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word ‘hat fits in the space in the same line. Write your answers on the answer sheet. WORD FORM OF THE WORD MARKS I. tropic tropical 01 2. delight delightful 0,1 3. choose choice OL 4. impress impressive 01 5. high highly _ OL C. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, but some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (\) provided on your answer sheet. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the space provided on your answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning in the space (and 00). LINES ANSWERS MARKS, 1 an O1 2 that [orLINES ANSWERS MARKS fi v OL 4 at 0.1 5 one 0.1 6 Bh 01 ii of O1 8 v O.1 9 for 0.1 10 it 0 D. Complete the passage with the correct form of the verbs in the brackets. Write your answers on the answer sheet. SENTENCES ‘ANSWERS MARKS 1 getting 01 2 complain 01 3 saw 01 4 to choose 0,1 3 have been waiting/have waited 01 E. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers on the answer sheet. SENTENCES ‘ANSWERS MARKS I in Ou 2 off Ou 3 down OL 4 at 0,1 5 on O1 answers on the answer sheet. IV. READING COMPREHENSION (4,0 marks) A. Choose the word which best completes each blank in the following passage. Write your SENTENCES ANSWERS CONTENTS MARKS 1 D as 02 2 A sudden 0.2 3 B on time 02 4 A on 0,2 3 @ unless 0.2 B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each. There was an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers on the answer sheet, SENTENCES ANSWERS MARKS 1 listens 02 a cause 0,2 3 In 0,2 4 who 0,2 5 easily 0,2C. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. SENTENCES | ANSWERS CONTENTS MARKS T Cc the changing definition of an urban area. 0.2 2 A 1870 0,2 3 A differentiated 0.2 4 B 8,000 0.2 A A city borders had become less distinct, 0,2 6 B persons 0.2 7 D making up 0.2 8 D it consists of at least two cities. 0,2 9 D 13 0,2 10 B 1950 0.2 V. Writing (4,0 marks) answers on the answer sheet. A, Write the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Write your SENTENCES ANSWERS MARKS 1 Sarah is better at chemistry than Susan. 0,2 In spite of not speaking Dutch, Bod decided to settle in 2 Amsterdam./In spite of the fact that Bod didn’t speak Dutch, 0,2 he decided to settle in Amsterdam. 3 It’s time we had our house redecorated. 0,2 Stacy apologised to Paul for breaking/having broken his . glasses. a2 5 ‘Had we had enough time, we would/could have gone on io holiday. , B. In about 150 - 200 words, write an essay about the following topic. I. Introduction + Cach 1: 04 cau Hook (Background statement) 0,125 Detailed background statement 0,125 Thesis statement 0,125, Outline sentence 0,125 + Cfch 2: 03 cau Background information (paraphrase the question) 0,125 0,25 Thesis statement 0,125 a Outline sentence : 0,25 + Cach 3: 02 cau Background information (paraphrase the question) 0,25 Thesis statement 0,25 * Ghi chi: Tay cach viét doan mé bai ciia hgc sinh 48 chon cach chim diém phi hop.TI. Body Paragraph 1 e Topic 0,125 Topicsentence | Controlling idea z 0,125 O28 5 Supporting sentence 0,125 Sepcoctiog | ‘Example/Explanation/Quotation/Statistic 0,125 ee Supporting2 | Supporting sentence 0,125 as Example/Explanation/Quotation/Statistic 0,125 Paragraph 2 ; Topic 0.125 Topic sentence | Controlling idea 0,125 = : Supporting sentence 0,125 Suepontag Example/Explanation/ Quotation/Statistic 0,125 oe Supporting 2 | Supporting sentence 0.125 os Example/Explanation/Quotation/Statistic 0,125 * Ghi chi: - Topic sentence = topic (0,125) + controlling idea (0,125) = 0,25 - Supporting sentence (0,125) + example/explanation,... (0,125) = 0,25 IIL. Conclusion (2-3 eu) ‘Summary of main points 0.25 Giving their own thought/impression/suggestion/... 0,25 * Tit ngit, cdu trite: = Sit dung ede tir ndi cau, ndiy mot cach phong phi 025 = Trinh bay mach lac, ngén ngtt, cfu tric da dang, dé hiéu 0.25 CHU ¥: 1, Tre diém sai ngt php, chinh t, 2. Thi sinh phai né tinh diém, nung 0,2 6i nlung khéng qué 0,6 it nhdt 02 § chink, Néu néu nhiéu hon 02 § chinh chon y hay nhdt dé ai dueoe tinh cho tt cd)TAPESCRIPT Part 1. Listen to six people giving their preferences. Listen to the recording twice. Decide if each sentence is true (T) or false (F). Write your answers on the answer sheet. 1. [hate those group tours. You know, the guide picks you up at the hotel every day, and you have to go and see all the sights. I prefer travelling by myself. That way, I can relax. Relaxation is very important to me. Ihave a very stressful job, and this is my only chance all year to lie on the beach and do nothing. 2. When I go out to eat. I want to have a nice conversation, and I don’t like to be disturbed. That's why I prefer quiet places. I hate those loud, trendy places. They play loud music in the background, and they’re full of loud people. You have to shout so the person you're with can hear you. It’s really annoying! 3. I prefer staying one of those small places, because J think the service is better. The people at the front desk remember your name, and the housekeeping people are really nice. It’s like staying in someone’s home. I don’t like those big tourist hotels. They might have more facilities, like a gym, or a swimming pool, or a golf course, but it doesn’t matter to me. What I care about is service. 4. I don’t know how people can stand living downtown. It’s too noisy, you can never find parking, and it’s dangerous, too. No, | prefer living in the suburbs, for a lot of reasons. For one thing, I like to have a lot of space. That’s a big thing for me. I need at least a couple of bedrooms. And I also like to have friendly neighbors around me. 5. A small one is great, especially if you live in a small apartment like I do. That's what I prefer —a small one I can pick up and carry. Big ones are too hard to take care of. And some of them are very noisy too. You shouldn’t have those big ones unless you are living out in the country, where they can run around and get plenty of exercise. 6. If could choose what I do, I’d prefer helping people. That’s really what I'm looking for in a position. I know that a lot of people are mainly interested in making a lot of money, but I really don’t think I'd like that kind of work. Making a lot of money just isn’t that important to me. I'd rather do something that is good for everyone and not just myself. Part 2, Listen to a radio presenter talking about weekend events in the Carlisle twice. Choose the correct answer A, B, or C. Write your answers on the answer sheet. Presenter: And that was a lovely song especially for Sandra. I hope you were listening Sandra. Now, it’s time for our “What's on around Carlisle”, this weekend. There are lots of things happening. First of all, Lambly schoo! has contacted us to tell us all about the concert they are giving on Saturday evening, that’s the 8®. The music starts at 7.30 not at 7 o'clock as advertised, and will finish about 8.30 after which coffee will be available. They say it’s an evening of songs and dances for everyone. There will be light refreshments afterwards in the library. That will be included in the cost of the ticket. Do go long to this concert as the school will use all the money to buy some new sports equipment for the children. Last year’s concert ‘was a great success and the school was able to buy a new computer for the children to use and also pay for a trip to London. 6Next, I have some details of a regular weekend activity. The Walking Club is going for a long distance walk around the lake this Sunday. Everyone should meet at 10 a.m. in the car park by the lake. Don’t forget you can get a bus from the market square if you don’t have any transport. Take a packed lunch and some warm clothes with you. If the weather’s nice, you'll be able to have a picnic by the side of the lake. Have fun! On Saturday evening, there’s a talk for the International Club by a well known local writer, Sarah John, who teaches at the university. You may have read her latest novel, it’s in the bookshop at the moment, Well, she’s giving a talk at 8 p.m, on Saturday evening in the library. That's the building next to the theater, in the centre of town, I’m sure you'll find it very interesting. Sarah has just retuned from Africa and will talk about all her experiences there. She travelled through three different countries and met lots of interesting people, including a famous actor. Now, the International Club would like to remind you that the talk is for everyone, not just members. They say it’s a family evening and under 16s get in free. They also say it’s best to make sure you book a ticket first. I'm sure the evening will be very popular, so take their advice and have a great time. Part 3. You will hear a radio announcement about a fun run. Listen and fill in the missing information WITH NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in the numbered spaces. You will hear the recording twice. Write your answers on the answer sheet. Announcer: And now here is Carol Johnson, the organizer of this year’s Abington Fun Run. Carol: Thank you. Yes, I’m delighted to be able to tell you that this year the Abington Fun Run will be at 11 a.m., on Sunday May 24", so make a note in your diary. It’s open to runners of any age and ability- children, their parents, grandparents, friends, couples or single runners and it’s an excellent opportunity to get out into the fresh air for some exercise. The course of the fun run will be through the beautiful environment of Abington Park and the total distance will be 3 kilometers. Starting and finishing at the football ground. That’s on the south side of the park, very close to the main entrance. Runners will be able to use the changing rooms in the Hockey Club. These are near the starting point for the run and are very big with excellent showers. There is also a large car park outside for those of you need it. Abington Fun Run is a race in which there are no winners or losers. Everyone who takes part will be given something to remember the day by. Last year it was a T-shirt. This year it will be a water bottle so it’s certain to be very useful. The cost for adults is £8 if you register in advance or £10 on the day. Any child under the age of 15 can take part free but there’s a lower age limit of eight. If you would like to join the fun run, entry forms and an information pack with lots of useful tips for improving your fitness and preparing for the run are available from any newsagent or you can download one from the sports development website at www.funrun.org. See you there! THE END.86 GIAO Dyc VA DAO TAO KY THI CHON HOC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD) Ngay thi: 25/3/2018 Thi gian chudn bj: 05 phit Théi gian trinh bay: 05 phiit (é thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC1 Concern for the environment is growing, and governments are calling for cooperative actions from every individual. ‘What will you do as an environmentally responsible citizen? Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!SOGIAODYC VADAOTAO ~—KY THI CHON HQC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD) Ngéy thi: 25/3/2018 Thoi gian chudn bj: 05 phiit Théi gian trinh bay: 05 phit (Bé thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC 2 On what ways are social networks helpful for your study? Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what ‘you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!SOGIAODYC VADAOTAO —_—KY THI CHON HQC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD) Ngiy thi: 25/3/2018 Thoi gian chudn bj: 05 phiit Thoi gian trinh bay: 05 phit (Bé thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC3 Nowadays, a great number of students in Vietnam go abroad to study. What is your idea about this? Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to ‘SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!s6 GIAO Dyc VA DAO TAO KY THI CHON HOC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD, Ngay thi: 25/3/2018 Théi gian chudn bj: 05 phiit That gian trinh bay: 05 phiit (Bé thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC 4 Between a laptop and a cell phone, which would you prefer to own? Why? Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!s6 GIAO DyC VA pAO TAO KY THI CHON HQC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD) Ngay thi: 25/3/2018 Thoi gian chudn bj: 05 phit Théi gian trinh bay: 05 phit (Bé thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPICS What is the most important life skill for students? Explain your ideas. Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!86 GIAO DyC VA BAO TAO KY THI CHON HOC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD) Negdy thi: 25/3/2018 Thi gian chudn bj: 05 phut Thdi gian trinh bay: 05 phit (Bé thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC 6 Do you prefer travelling with your friends or your family members? Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!SOGIAODYC VADAOTAO —KY THI CHQN HQC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD, Ngay thi: 25/3/2018 : 05 phitt Théi gian trinh bay: 05 phiit Thi gian chudn (é thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC7 | Children play video games rather than do outdoor sports. | What do you think about this? L Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to ‘SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!80 GIAO DYC VA DAO TAO KY THI CHON HOC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH BONG THAP NAM HOC 2017 - 2018 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH (PHAN THI KY NANG NOD, Ngéy thi: 25/3/2018 Thi gian chudn bj: 05 phut Thdi gian trinh bay: 05 phit (BE thi gdm cé: 01 trang) TOPIC 8 What should you do to be a good child in your family? Get ready to talk to an audience about the topic. You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full sentences and try to SPEAK as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes. Good luck!SO GIAO DUC VA DAO TAO KY THI CHON HOC SINH GIOI LOP 9 CAP TINH TINH DONG THAP NAM HQC 2017 - 2018 oa Mén: TIENG ANH (THI NOD, HUONG DAN CHAM Ngay thi: 25/3/2018 (HDC gém cé 01 trang) = NOI DUNG DIEM I. Phat trién 2,0 | Néu duge it nhat hai y chinh 1,0 Giai thich ¥ chinh 05 Din ching, vi du 05 IL. Sir dung ng6n tit 0,5 Phi hop n6i dung chi dé 0,1 ‘Sir dung vén tir vung phong phi va chinh xc 0,2 | Sir dung rat nhiéu tir khOng thong dung va thanh ngir 01 Sit dung nhigu collocations va rat chinh xc On IIL. Sir dung cu tric ngir phap da dang va chinh xéc 05 Sir dung da dang cu trite cu 03 Siz dung diing thoi, thé, hinh thire cua tir 01 Sir dung da dang, phi hgp va diing cau triic ngit php 0,1 IV. Phat 4m 0,5 Phat 4m céc nguyén Am (vowel) va phy 4m (consonant) cia tir 1 cdch chinh xae 0.1 Nhdn ding trong 4m (stress) 01 Cé ngit digu (intonation) - Ol Cé phat 4m cudi (final sound) 0,1 Neat giong ding ch 01 ‘V. D6 huru lost va sap xép y mach lac 0,5 Sir dung mot hrgng da dang cdc tir, cum tir ign két, tir ndi 01 C6 cde cau dé dan, cdc cau két luén 01 Sir dung cdc cum tir lién két mt céch chinh xéc_ 0,1 it khi ngap ngimg, lap lai 0,1 Cac cfu tra loi dua ra déu lién quan dén chi dé 0,1 -- HET—