1.

The main sources of Muslim law are

a) Sunnat and Ahadis
b) Koran, Ijma and Qiyas
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

2. A Muslim illegitimate child is kept in the custody of

a) Mother
b) Paternal Grandmother
c) Both father and mother
d) Neither father nor mother

3. A Shia Muslim man is entitled to perform a Muta Marriage with

a) A Christian woman or Jewish woman
b) A Muslim woman
c) A fire worshipper woman
d) Any of the above

4. Under Muslim law a woman’s acknowledgment of paternity once made

a) Can be revoked
b) Cannot be revoked
c) Can be revoked by previous order from the court of law
d) All of the above

5. Can a Muslim man give ‘Talaq’ in the state of intoxication or under

pressure?
a) Yes, acknowledged under the ‘Shia law’
b) Yes, acknowledged under the ‘Sunni law’
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

6. Hindu law is
a) Personal law
b) Criminal law
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

7. Old source(s) of Hindu law is/are

a) Customs, digest and commentaries
b) Smritis
c) Shrutis
d) All of the above

8. Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, ‘void marriage’ has
been provided?
a) Section 10
b) Section 8
c) Section 11
d) Section 12

9. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with the legitimacy of
children of
a) Voidable marriage
b) Void marriage
c) Void and Voidable marriage
d) Valid marriage

10. Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 prohibits

a) Bigamy
b) Monogamy
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

11. Son in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not
include
a) Step son
b) Adopted son
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

12. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for ‘judicial
separation’?
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 7
d) Section 8

13. As per section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 any property
possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired by her before or after the
commencement of this Act, shall be held as a
a) Half owner
b) Limited owner
c) Full owner
d) All of the above

14. Privilege to withhold documents/information under the administrative

law is provided under
a) Section140
b) Section154
c) Section 102
d) Section 123
15. Communication made without prejudice has been provided under which
section of the Evidence Act, 1872?
a) Section 21
b) Section 22
c) Section 23
d) Section 24

16. Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence has been given under which
section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a) Section 45
b) Section 33
c) Section 32
d) Section 31

17. The case of Pakala Narayan Swamy v. Emperor pertains to

a) Estoppel
b) Dying declaration
c) Hostile witness
d) Accomplice evidence

18. An admission under section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 can be
a) Oral only
b) Oral and  documentary
c) Oral, documentary, or a statement contained in electronic form
d) None of the above

19. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the

a) Legislative Council
b) State Legislature
c) Governor
d) President

20. Who among the following has the power to extend functions of the State
Public Service Commission?
a) Chief Minister
b) Governor
c) Advocate General of the State
d) State Legislature.
1. Assertion: The Constitution of India provides for the
appointment of a Governor for a period of five years.
Reason: The Governor holds office during the pleasure of
the President:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)

2. Assertion: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January

every year in the country.
Reason: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th
January 1950:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to
A
(b) Both A and R are individually, true but R is not correct explanation
of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following deals with execution of decrees

passed by Courts in reciprocating territory in the Code of
Civil Procedure?
A. Section 42
B. Section 44A
C. Section 40A
D. Section 45A
Ans. B

4. X, a Hindu, dies leaving a widow. The widow makes a gift

to her brother B, of certain property belonging to her
husband. After the death of the widow, A, alleging that he
and X were members of a joint family sues B for a
declaration that he is entitled to the property by right of
survivorship. The court finds that A and X were separate,
and A’s suit is dismissed. Subsequently, A sues B for the
recovery of the same property, alleging that as the nearest
reversionary heir of X, he became entitled to the property on
the death of the widow, and that the alienation made by her
in favour of B was not binding upon him.
A. The suit is a case of res judicata. A might and ought to have set up
the title by heir ship as a ground of attack in the former suit. However
it cannot be deemed to have been ‘directly and substantially in issue,
but it will also be deemed to have been ‘heard and finally decided’
against A
B. The suit is barred as res judicata. A might and ought to have set up
the title by heir ship as a ground of attack in the former suit. It will
therefore be deemed to have been ‘directly and substantially in issue,
and it cannot be deemed to have been ‘heard and finally decided’
against A
C. The suit is barred as res judicata. A might and ought to have set up
the title by heir ship as a ground of attack in the former suit. It will
therefore be deemed to have been ‘directly and substantially in issue,
and it will also be deemed to have been ‘heard and finally decided’
against A
D. None of these
Ans: C
5. A obtains a decree against X and attaches his properties in
execution. B obtains a decree against X and in execution of
his decree attaches the same properties, which are then
given as security for the decree by X. B then sells the
properties in execution.
A. The sale is hit by the section, as it is in furtherance of the
attachment as in enforcement of the security bond
B. The sale is hit by the section, as it is not in furtherance of the
attachment as not in enforcement of the security bond
C. The sale is not hit by the section, as it is in furtherance of the
attachment as not in enforcement of the security bond
D. None of these
Ans: C
6. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 became operative from:
(a) 1st January, 1908
(b) 1st April, 1908
(c) 31st December, 1908
(d) 1st January, 1909.
Ans. (d)
7. A applies to be appointed guardian of the person of X, The
application is opposed by B who claims that he has been
appointed guardian by the will X’s father. Meanwhile, B
dies. B’s representative is not entitled to continue the
proceedings. A’s claim based on a personal trust does not
survive the claimant’s representative. It is different,
however, where the claim is not based on a personal trust.
A. The legal representative of the deceased is entitled to continue the
proceeding
B. The legal representative of the deceased is entitled to contend that
the applicant is not a proper person to be appointed guardian
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
8. On the last day of the period of limitation prescribed for
the institution of a suit, A applies for leave to sue as a
pauper. The application is heard a fortnight later. It
transpires at the hearing of the application that A was
possessed of sufficient means to enable him to pay the
Court-fees. Before an order is made under this rule rejecting
the application, A pays the necessary Court- fees, and the
application is thereupon converted into a plaint.
A. The application not having been made in good faith, the suit will be
deemed to have been instituted on the day on which the Court-fees
were paid, and not on the day on which the application was filed
B. The Court-fees having been paid after the expiration of the period of
limitation, the suit is time-barred
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
9. Which of the following deals with the institution of suits
in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 18
B. Section 20
C. Section 22
D. Section 26
Ans. D
10. Which of the following deals with the liability of
ancestral property in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 46
B. Section 50
C. Section 53
D. Section 49
Ans. C
11. Which of the following deals with style of foreign Rulers
as parties to suits in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 90
B. Section 88
C. Section 87
D. Section 82
Ans. C
12. Which of the following is true of Section 14, Limitation
Act, 1963?
A. Endorsement on the plaint to the effect that the suit was bona fide
prosecuted in a court having no jurisdiction is sufficient explanation
under this section
B. It provides for the extension of limitation
C. The principle of the section is that limitation will remain in
suspense while the plaintiff is bona fide litigating for his right in Court
of justice
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
13. Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963 contains a general
principle based on which of the following?
A. Justice
B. Equity
C. Good conscience
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
14. Which of the following conditions has to be satisfied for
the application of Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963?
I. Both the prior and subsequent proceeding are civil proceedings
prosecuted by the same party
II. The prior proceedings had been prosecuted with due diligence and
in good faith
III. The failure of the prior proceedings was due to defect of
jurisdiction or cause of the nature
IV. The earlier proceedings and later proceeding must relate to the
same matter in issue
V. Both the proceedings are in Court
A. I, III, V
B. II, IV, V
C. I, V
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
15. A divorcee filed a suit before the civil Court for return of
money against her husband. During that period the Family
Court had been established but there was uncertainty about
the Forum to be chosen. On incorrect legal advice, the
plaintiff filed the suit before the civil Court bona fide. It was
erroneous to hold that she did not act with due diligence and
she cannot be deprived of the benefit of Section 14 as the
claim fell within the jurisdiction of the Family Court. Which
of the following is this case?
A. Smt. Swarnmoyee Dasi v. Debendranathkaram
B. Vijay Kumar Rampal v. DiwanDevi
C. Muhamed Dawood v. Hafsuth
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
16. The proceedings referred to in Section 14, Limitation Act,
1963 are proceedings dealt with under which of the
following?
A. Code of Criminal Procedure
B. Code of Civil Procedure
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
17. Which of the following are regarded as Courts for the
purposes of Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. Revenue Courts
B. Court of Wards under Jaipur Court of Wards Act, 1925
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
18. Which of the following are not regarded as Courts within
Section 14, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. Appellate Authority under Section 9 and Revising Authority under
Section 10 of U.P Sales Tax Act
B. An authority appointed under Section 15(1) of the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936
C. An Election Commissioner under the Madras Village Panchayats
Act
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
19. Which of the following has been regarded as causes of
like nature to defect of jurisdiction?
A. Where a claim for damages filed before the liquidator of a company
in winding up was rejected on the ground that it could not be disposed
of in a summary proceeding
B. Where the parties as the Court believed that there was lack of
jurisdiction in the Court
C. Where the prior proceeding was barred because of the existence of
an unvacated previous order on the matter
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
20. Which of the following statements hold true for a public
prosecutor?
A. He is representative of the police
B. Next in important to the impartiality of the tribunal is the integrity
of the public prosecutor
C. The ideal public prosecutor is concerned with securing convictions
D. All classes of public prosecutor are entitled to equal pay
Ans. B
21. Which of the following statements hold true for arrests
under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. Custody and arrest are synonymous
B. In every custody there is an arrest
C. In every arrest there is a custody
D. Custody and arrest are Antonyms
Ans. C
22. Section 54A of the Code of Criminal Procedure as
amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
provides that:
(a) if the person identifying the person arrested is mentally or
physically disabled, such process of identification shall take place
under the supervision of a Judicial Magistrate who shall take
appropriate steps to ensure that such person identifies the person
arrested using methods that person is comfortable with.
(b) if the per identifying the person arrested is mentally or physically
disabled, the identification shall be video-graphed.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
23. Which of the following section as inserted by Criminal
Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 mandates that compensation
payable by the State Government under section 357A shall
be in addition to the payment of fine to the victim under
section 326A or 376D of the Indian Penal Code:
(a) Section 357B
(b) Section 357C
(c) Proviso to section 357A
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
24. In a certain case the accused and victim were friends.
They were engaged in a friendly wrestling bout where
accidently the victim received fatal head injuries resulting in
his death. There was no foul play nor was there any motive.
It was held in the view of Section 87 of IPC, that the accused
is protected. The case was:
A. Gopinath Pillai TM (Dr.) v. State of Kerala (2000)
B. Tapan Das v. State AIR (2005)
C. Tunda v. Rex. AIR 1950
D. Prem Sagar v. Dharamvir (2004) SCC 113
Ans: C
25. Fraudulently suffering a decree to pass for a sum not
due, or suffering decree to be executed after it has been
satisfied, is dealt under
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 208 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans: C
26. Which of the following punishment have been
abolished?
A. Death penalty
B. Whipping
C. Detention in reformatories
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. D
27. A public servant concealing a design to commit an
offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be
punishable with death or imprisonment for life is dealt
under-
A. Section 118 of IPC
B. Section 119 of IPC
C. Section 120 of IPC
D. Section 121 of IPC
Ans. B
28. A entered into an agreement with B for exchanging
agriculture land belonging to A valued at Rs.1,23,411 for a
residential house of B valued at Rs.1,55,212. A transferred
the land to B. But B did not have clear title of the residential
house as such A was not allowed the possession of the same.
Which of the following remedies area available to A?
A. He can sue for the loss but not for the recovery of his property
B. He can sue for recovery of his property but not for the loss suffered
by him
C. He can sue for both recovery of the property and for the loss
suffered by him
D. He cannot sue B at all, because the responsibility to take possession
lies with A
Ans. (C)
29. A gift of immovable property effected by a deed of gift
but brought about by undue influence of the donee, though
the donor acted voluntarily in making it:
A. Is valid and binding
B. Is void
C. Is voidable at the donee’s option
D. Is voidable at the donor’s option
Ans. (D)
30. A charge can be enforced against:
A. A transferee of the property, who does not have notice of the charge
B. A transferee of the property who is a gratuitous transferee
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
31. Marriage is________________ ten sacraments,
enjoined by the Hindu religion for regeneration of men.
A. First of the
B. Seventh of the
C. Third of the
D. Last of the
Ans: D
32. Which of the following forms of marriage were recog-
nised under the law prior to enactment of the Hindu mar-
riage Act of 1955?
A. Brahama
B. Asura
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Ans: C
33. The Hindu marriage contemplated by the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 is ______ in nature.
A. Ceremonial
B. Not ceremonial
C. Ceremonial in certain cases
D. Not sacramental
Ans: A
34. On which date did The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 came
into force?
A. 17th March 1956
B. 17th June 1956
C. 11th March 1956
D. 11th June 1956
Ans. B
35. Which of the following persons does The Hindu
Succession Act, 1956, not govern?
A. A Buddhist who renounces Buddhism and becomes a Monk not
following any religion
B. Sikh who has converted to Buddhism
C. Christians in the state of Pondicherry
D. It governs all of the above
Ans. D
36. The person who is related to another through uterine
blood but not wholly through males will be called ___ under
The Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
A. Cognate
B. Agnate
C. Nambudri
D. None of the above
Ans. A
37. How many categories are there of Heirs as per Section 8
of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Ans. C
38. Who comes first in succession as per Section 8 of The
Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Cognate
B. Agnate
C. Relatives specified in Class III of the schedule
D. Relatives specified in Class IV of the schedule
Ans. B
39. Under section 8 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 what
will be the sequence of following heirs?
I. Daughter of a pre-deceased daughter of a predeceased daughter
II. Daughter’s son’s son
III. Brother’s son
IV. Father’s widow
A. II-III-I-IV
B. III-II-I-IV
C. IV-III-II-I
D. None of the above
Ans. D
40.__________ of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 prescribes
that the acceptance must be made in a reasonable manner. If
the proposer has prescribed a manner of acceptance, the
acceptance must be made in that manner, if not so made;
there is a contract only if the proposer ‘accepts the
acceptance’
A. Section 7(2)
B. Section 7(3)
C. Section 7(4)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
41. ____________ are not sureties’ under_________ of
the Indian Contract Act, 1872 hence S. 141 has no
application.
A. Joint promisors; S. 126
B. Several promisors; S. 126
C. Joint promisors; S. 127
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
42. ____________ describes a voidable contract as one
which is enforceable by the law at the option of the parties,
but not at the option of the others.
A. Section 2 (g) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
B. Section 2 (h) of Indian Contract Act, 1872
C. Section 2 (i) of Indian Contract Act, 1872
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
43. Contract is:
A. An agreement between two or more parties creating obligations
those are enforceable or otherwise recognizable at law (a binding
contract)
B. The writing that sets forth such an agreement (a contract is valid if
valid under the law of the residence of the party wishing to enforce the
contract)
C. An unenforceable agreement between two or more parties to do or
not to do a thing or set of things; a compact (when they finally agreed,
they had a contract)
D. All of them
Ans: D
44. Contract of guarantee is:
A. A contract to perform the promise of a third person in case of his
default
B. A contract to perform the discharge the liability of a third person in
case of his default
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
45. X, a vendor got an agreement of reconveyance from Y,
the vendee and later purported to release his rights of
reconveyance to Y. Property was in the possession of Y. X
then sold the property to Z residing next door to X. This sale
deed in favour of Z, made a mention of litigation between X
and Y. Which of the following sections and clause of the
Specific Relief Act, 1963 would apply to this case?
A. Z, was entitled to the protection of s. 19 (a) against the right of Y to
enforce his right of release
B. Z, was not entitled to the protection of s. 19 (b) against the right of Y
to enforce his right of release
C. Z, was entitled to the protection of s. 19 (c) against the right of Y to
enforce his right of release
D. None of these
Ans. B
46. Which of the following types of actions can be brought in
law for the recovery of specific immovable property?
A. A suit based on title by ownership
B. A suit based on possessory title
C. A suit based merely on the previous possession of the plaintiff,
where he has been disposed without his consent, otherwise than in
due course of law
D. All of these
Ans. D
47. Which of the following the Court cannot do under s. 6,
Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. To award damages
B. To direct defendant to pay to the plaintiff the cost of removing huts
and filling up of excavation
C. To direct defendant to pay to the plaintiff the cost for removal of
structures
D. All of these
Ans. D
48. Which of the following sections to which there is no
corresponding section in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 24A
B. Section 25A
C. Section 26A
D. Section 27A
Ans. D
49. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882, overrides s. 19 (b), Specific Relief Act,
1963?
A. s. 50, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
B. s. 51, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
C. s. 52, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
D. None of these
Ans. C
50. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 corresponds with s. 11 of the repealed Act and also adds
an explanation based on s. 12 of the repealed Act?
A. s.8
B. s. 9
C. s. 10
D. s. 11
Ans. A
51. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 enables a defendant to raise in a suit of specific
performance, all those defences which he is eligible, in a suit
on contract?
A. s. 5
B. s. 6
C. s. 7
D. s. 9
Ans. D
52. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 enumerates the cases in which specific performance
can be granted?
A. s. 4
B. s. 8
C. s. 10
D. None of these
Ans. C
53. The present Secretary General of the South Asia
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is:
(a) Arjun Bahadar Thapa
(b) Ahmed Saleem
(c) Fathimath Sadeed
(d) Q.A. Rahim.
Ans. (a)
54. The present membership of the South Asian Association
for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is:
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 8.
Ans. (d)
55. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ has been launched
for:
(a) Providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
(b) Promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas
(c) Promoting financial inclusion in the country
(d) Providing financial help to the marginalized communities.
Ans. (c)
56. What is correct meaning of transfer pricing:
1. It is a process involving transfer of money in bank
2. It is a process involving transfer of money between governments
3. It is the practice of setting prices in transactions between group
companies based in different countries, on an arm’s length basis.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) None of these.
Ans. (c)
57. Who has been chosen for the prestigious Jnanpith Award
for 2016:
(a) Nasira Sharma
(b) Shankha Ghosh
(c) Kamal Vora
(d) NandKishor.
Ans. (b)
58. Which reference to section 123(3) of the Representation
of the People Act, which was recently in news, which of the
following statement is/are correct:
1. The Constitution of India which empowers Parliament of India to
make laws regarding disqualification of MP and MLA also mentions
that on disqualification of an MP or an MLA, the seat becomes vacant
immediately.
2. Section 123(3) of the Act defines ‘corrupt practice’ as appeals made
by a candidate or his agents to vote or refrain from voting for any
person on the ground of his religion, race, caste, community or
language.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
59. Which is the living monument designed by Sir C.V.
Raman:
(a) Brindavan Gardens at Mysore
(b) Vidhan Saudha at Bangalore
(c) Chaar Minar
(d) Tipu Fort.
Ans. (a)
60. The book ‘At the Close of Play’ is an autobiography of:
(a) Gary Kristen
(b) Yuvraj Singh
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Ricky Ponting.
Ans. (d)
61. Dr. ‘Urijit Patel’ who has recently taken over as the:
(a) Chief Economist of the World Bank
(b) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(c) Professor of Economics at Cornell University, USA
(d) Chief Economist at NITI Aayog.
Ans. (b)
62. Who is sovereign in India:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) We, the people of India
Ans. (d)
63. Under which Article, ‘Power of President to Grant
Pardon’ is provided:
(a) Article 70
(b) Article 71
(c) Article 72
(d) Article 73.
Ans. (c)
64. The greatest variety of flowers is found in:
(a) Kerala
(b) Uttaranchal Himalayas
(c) Karnataka
(d) Jammu & Kashmir.
Ans. (b)
65. The Great Sandy Desert and the Great Victoria Desert
both are situated in:
(a) Australia
(b) Austria
(c) Armstrongdam
(d) Argentiana.
Ans. (a)
66. The Home Rule Movement started by Annie Besant
aimed at:
(a) Boycotting foreign goods
(b) Attaining self-rule for India
(c) Educating the Indian masses
(d) Agitating against the British Monopoly in administration.
Ans. (b)
67. In which year did Robert Clive accepted the Diwani of
Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal ruler:
(a) 1761
(b) 1765
(c) 1778
(d) 1781.
Ans. (b)
68. Which one among the following causes stomach pain in
human body?
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Salt
D. Bacterium
Ans: D
69. A public servant concealing a design to commit an
offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be not
committed is dealt under-
A. Section 116 of IPC
B. Section 117 of IPC
C. Section 118 of IPC
D. Section 119 of IPC
Ans. D
70. Abetment of an offence punishable with imprisonment,
if the abettor or the person abetted be a public servant,
whose duty is to prevent the offence is dealt under-
A. Section 116 of IPC
B. Section 117 of IPC
C. Section 118 of IPC
D. Section 119 of IPC
Ans. A
71. Which of the following is false of Section 67 of the IPC?
A. the imprisonment so awarded shall be simple
B. fine not exceeding Rs. 50 – term not exceeding 4 months
C. fine exceeding Rs. 100 to any amount – term not exceeding 6
months
D. the term shall not in any case be in excess of the Magistrate’s
powers under S. 32 of Cr. PC
Ans. B
72. In which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution mention certain principles of policy to be
followed by the state?
A. Article 38
B. Article 40
C. Article 39
D. Article 37
Ans. C
73. The expression ‘Material resources’ is mentioned in
clause B, of Article 39 of the Indian Constitution. Which of
the following can be included in ‘material resources’?
A. All natural and physical resources including movable or immovable
property
B. Electrical energy generated by a private undertaking
C. Mines and minerals and quarries the community for public use and
distribution
D. All of them
Ans. D
74. ‘Organization of the Village panchayats’ is the basis of
which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 38
B. Article 39
C. Article 40
D. Article 41
Ans. C
75. Right to work is a________ right.
A. Non-Justiciable
B. Justiciable
C. Fundamental
D. Civil
Ans. A
76. According to Article 42 of the Indian Constitution, the
State shall make provision for securing just and humane
conditions of work and for maternity relief. The benefits of
this provision may be made the basis for:
A. Social reform
B. Economic reform
C. Legal reforms
D. Police reform
Ans. D
77. Several trustees of a temple were removed from the
office of trustees by the District Temple Committee. A suit by
the trustees for a declaration that their removal was without
just cause.
A. It is bad for misjoinder on the ground that the dismissal of each
trustee given rise to a distinct cause of action
B. It is right for misjoinder on the ground that the dismissal of each
trustee cannot be taken with their consultation
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A
78. A sues B upon a promissory note, but the action fails
owing to a material alteration in the note.
A. A is not precluded from subsequently suing B on the original cause
of action, that is, from suing B to recover the consideration for which
the note was given
B. A is precluded from subsequently suing B on the original cause of
action, that is, from suing B to recover the consideration for which the
note was given
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A
79. A owes the partnership firm of B and C f 1,000. B dies,
leaving C surviving. A sues C for a debt of Rs. 1,500 due in
his separate character.
A. C may set-off the debt of? 1,000
B. C may set-off the debt of? 1,500
C. C may set-off the debt of? 2,000
D. None of these
Ans: A
80. A, the religious head of a community, passed an order
excommunicating B. B filed a suit for a declaration that the
order was invalid and claimed consequential reliefs.
Pending the action, B died.
A. The maxim action personalis maritur cum persona applies and the
suit abated
B. The suit abated
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
81. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit:
(a) for partition
(b) of partnership
(c) for possession and mesne profits
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
82. Preliminary decree is one:
(a) which determines the rights of the parties with regard to some or
one of the matters in controversy in the suit but does not finally
dispose of the suit
(b) which determines the rights of the parties with regard to some or
one of the matters in controversy in the suit, which may have the effect
of final disposal of the suit
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (a)
83. A decree becomes final:
(a) when it conclusively determines the rights of the parties
(b) when no appeal has been preferred against the decree
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)
84. Under the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973-
A. If the method of arrest is not performed as prescribed by section 47
of the CrPC, the arrest would be nugatory
B. It is not necessary for the police officer making an arrest to notify
the substance of warrant to person to be arrested
C. Woman cannot be arrested after sunset and before sunrise
D. None of these
Ans. D
85. ______________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 states that the person arrested shall not be subjected to
more restraint than is necessary to prevent his escape.
A. Section 46
B. Section 47
C. Section 48
D. Section 49
Ans. D
86. Under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973-
A. Summons can be oral
B. Summons cannot be served on corporate entities
C. Summons are either for appearance or for producing a
document/thing
D. Summons can be served to servants in case the person on whose
name summons are made cannot be found
Ans. C
87. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Magistrate is competent to issue a warrant of arrest for production
of a person before his own Court or before a police officer
B. A warrant once issued remains in force until it is cancelled or
executed even though it bears a returnable date
C. The magistrate does not have a power to issue non- bailable
warrants during an investigation
D. Police officer can delegate the execution of the warrant to civilians
under certain circumstances
Ans. B
88. In order to determine the number of witnesses, a Court
should take into account which of the following guidelines?
I. nature of litigation
II. number of issues required to be produced
III. nature of the issues
IV. the fact as to on whom the onus has been laid
V. the specified purpose for which a particular witness is required to
be produced
A. I, II, IV
B. III, IV, V
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
89. In the 69th Report the Law Commission of India formu-
lated which of the following tests to determine whether a
person or a body of persons, is to be regarded as court?
I. test of exercise of judicial functions under authority derived either
immediately or mediately from the Sovereign
II. test of definitive judgment
III. test of legal power to take evidence
IV. test of judicial power, or, being a part of the judiciary
V. test of exercise of powers otherwise exercisable by civil and revenue
courts
A. I, II and IV
B. II and V
C. III and V
D. all of them
Ans. D
90. Statement made under Section 27, though not
admissible under it may be admissible under which of the
following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. all of them
Ans. D
91. The Court has the discretion as to how much evidence
should be given of the statement when evidence is given of a
statement which forms a part of:
I. a longer statement
II. a conversation
III. an isolated document
IV. a document contained in a book
V. a series of letters or papers
A. I, III and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and V
D. all of them
Ans. D
92. Section 73, Indian Evidence Act deals with:
I. comparison of signature
II. handwriting
III. seal of a person purporting to have been written or made by such
person, with admitted or proved signature of that person
IV. finger print impressions
A. I, III and IV
B. II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. all of them
Ans. D
93. The doctrine of promissory estoppel cannot create any
new cause where none existed before, and it is subject to the
qualification:
A. that the other party has altered its position
B. that the promisor can resile from his promise on giving reasonable
notice, which need not be a formal notice, giving the promisee a
reasonable opportunity of resuming his position
C. the promise only becomes final and irrevocable if the promisee
cannot resume his position
D. all of them
Ans. D
94. Assaulting President Governor, etc., with intent to
compel or restrain the exercise of any lawful power is dealt
under-
A. Section 123 of IPC
B. Section 124 of IPC
C. Section 125 of IPC
D. Section 126 of IPC
Ans. B
95. A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A, in
the exercise to the best of his judgment exerted in good faith,
of the power which the law gives to all persons of
apprehending murderers in the act, seizes Z, in order to
bring Z before the proper authorities.
A. A has committed an offence, while Z was acting in self-defence
B. Both A and Z committed an offence.
C. A has committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was
acting in self-defence
D. None of them
Ans. C
96. A is at work with a hatchet; he head flies off and kills
who is standing by.
A. A’s act is excusable
B. A’s act is unpardonable
C. A’s act is one of deliberate act
D. None of them
Ans. A
97. A, in a great fire pulls down houses in order to prevent
the conflagration from spreading. He does this with the
intention in good faith of saving human life or property.
A. A is not guilty
B. A is guilty
C. The action was intentional
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
98. In a case the accused was alleged to kill four children at a
time. He raised the plea of insanity.
A. the plea is to be reject outright
B. the plea is to be considered only after the prosecution succeeds in
proving the case against the accused
C. the plea is must be considered putting aside the arguments of the
prosecution
D. None of them
Ans. B
99. A and Z agrees to fence each other for amusement. In the
course of fencing, without any foul play, A hurts Z.
A. A is guilty of offence
B. Both are guilty for indulging in a violent game
C. A is not guilty of any offence
D. None of them
Ans. C
100. A in good faith for his child’s benefit without the
consent of his child cut for the stone by a surgeon knowing it
to be likely that the operation will cause the child’s death,
but not intending to cause the child’s death.
A. A is guilty as he acted without the consent of his child attracts
punishment as per Section 89 of IPC
B. A is guilty as he knowingly caused the death of his child and attracts
punishment Section 89 of IPC
C. A is within the exception of Section 89 of IPC as inasmuch his
object was the cure of his child
D. None of them
Ans. C
101. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause riot, if
rioting be committed is dealt under-
A. Section 152 of IPC
B. Section 153 of IPC
C. Section 154 of IPC
D. Section 155 of IPC
Ans. B
102. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national
integration is dealt under-
A. Section 153B of IPC
B. Section 154B of IPC
C. Section 155B of IPC
D. Section 156B of IPC
Ans. A
103. Agent of owner or occupier for whose benefit a riot is
committed not using all lawful means to prevent it is dealt
under-
A. Section 154 of IPC
B. Section 155 of IPC
C. Section 156 of IPC
D. Section 157 of IPC
Ans. C