‫بيت التمريض‬ PALNURSE YOUR ACCESS TO SUCCESS

1. The home health nurse is visiting the client who has had a prosthetic valve replacement for
severe mitral valve stenosis. Which statement by the client reflects an understanding of specific
postoperative care for this surgery?
A. "I threw away my straight razor and brought an electric razor."
B. "I have to go to the bathroom several times at night"
C. "I count my pulse everyday"
D. "I still do my deep breathing exercise"

2. A client has been diagnosed with thromboangitis obliterans. The nurse is considering
measures to help the client cope up with lifestyle changes needed to control the disease
process. The nurse plans to refer the client to a:
A. medical social worker
B. dietician
C. smoking cessation program
D. pain management clinic

3. The nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client with deep pain thrombosis of the right
leg. Which of the following interventions does the nurse avoid when delivering care to this
client?
A. elevation of the right leg
B. ambulation in the hall twice per shift
C. application of moist heat to the right leg
D. administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol)

4. The client was hospitalized 5 days ago have developed left calf tenderness and have a positive
Homan's sign. The nurse assigned to this client, assesses the client for:
A. coolness and pallor of the affected limb
B. diminished distal peripheral pulses
C. increased calf circumference
D. bilateral edema

5. The nurse is monitoring a client with leukemia who is receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) by
IV infusion. Which of the following assessment findings indicate toxicity of the medication?
A. Elevated BUN
B. elevated creatinine
C. ECG changes
D. a red coloration of the urine * one of the adverse rxn, but transient

6. A 45-year-old male returned to his room an hour ago following a bronchoscopy. He is

requesting for some water. The nurse must:
A. keep the client NPO until n order is written
B. check the vital signs first
C. check the gag and swallowing reflex
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D. encourage coughing and deep breathing

7. A 45-year-old client is receiving heparin sodium for a pulmonary embolus. The nurse
evaluates which of the following laboratory reports of partial thromboplastin time as indicative
of effective heparin therapy.
A. within normal range
B. one to 1.5 times the control value
C. two to 2.5 times the control value
D. three times the control value

8. A client is taking Wafarin (coumadin) following the placement of an artificial mitral valve. The
nurse instructs this client to avoid taking the following commonly used drug:
A. Maalox plus
B. sudafed
C. C. Tylenol cold and flu medication
D. D. aspirin

9. A client with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) is being discharged. The
nurse knows that the client has understood essential teaching when the following
statement is heard:
A. "I need to cut my nails straight across"
B. "I can't make any substitutions in my diet"
C. "my insulin should be given into my arms"
D. "I should eat less before exercising"

10. A client is on chemotherapy for acute myelogenous leukemia. The nurse assesses the
following laboratory test daily:
A. complete blood count
B. electrolyte studies
C. prothrombin time - for bleeding time
D. BUN and creatinine

11. A client has developed depression of the bone marrow from anti-neoplastic drugs. The nurse
states the nursing diagnosis of highest priority as:

A. fluid volume deficit C. ineffective thermoregulation

B. High risk for aspiration D. high risk for infection

12. Radioactive iodine is being used to treat a client with cancer of the thyroid gland. The nurse
knows that the client has understood teaching about the treatment when the following
statement is heard:
A. "only my thyroid gland will be radioactive"
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B. "I need not be concerned about radioactivity"

C. "my whole body will be radioactive"
D. "my body fluids will be radioactive for a short time"

13. A client's TPN is 6 hours behind schedule. The nurse would:

A. run the fluid at rate to make up the lost time.
B. report the situation to the physician
C. run the IV at the prescribed site
D. check the blood glucose level

14. A 45-year-old client is in acute congestive heart failure. The nurse and client establish a goal
of highest priority as:
A. rest mentally as well as physically
B. learn stress management
C. train for a less demanding job
D. prevent complications of immobility

15. A client diagnosed with IDDM becomes irritable and confused; the skin is cool and clammy
and the pulse rate is 110. The first action of the nurse would be to:
A. give a half-cup of orange juice
B. check the serum glucose
C. administer regular insulin
D. call the physician

16. A client with IDDM is recovering from DKA. Information of the serum level of the following
substance will be very important to the nurse:

A. sodium C. potassium

B. calcium D. magnesium

17. A 17-year-old client's mother has been recently diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. The
nurse would expect the doctor to order which of the following tests initially?

A. the mantoux C. a sputum culture

B. an X-ray D. gram stain of the sputum

18. The nurse injects 0.1 ml. of purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally into the inner
aspect of the forearm of a client. This nurse will interpret the reaction to this test as positive
when the following is seen:
A. redness greater than 5mm.
B. swelling greater than 7mm.
C. induration greater than 10mm.
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D. exudates covering more than 12mm

19. A 29-year-old has been taking Prednisolone 60 mg. daily for an inflammatory condition for
the past 6 months. The physician just wrote an order to discontinue the medication. The nurse
should:
A. stop the medication as ordered
B. continue the medication until physician is available
C. call the physician and question the order
D. hold the medication until the physician is available

20. A 55 year old has a chest tube connected to a Pleur Evac system to remove blood from the
pleural cavity. While turning the client the nurse remembers to:
A. keep the Pleur Evac below the level of the wound
B. Remove the suction from the Pleur vac
C. Clamp the tubing connected to the Pleur Evac
D. drain the sterile water from the Pleur Evac

21. A client on anti-neoplastic therapy has a platelet count of 20,000/cu.mm (N wbc 5,000 to
10,000). An appropriate intervention for the nurse to use would be:
A. administering Vit. K IM
B. massaging injection sites to avoid absorption
C. encouraging the use of firm toothbrushes and vigorous flossing
D. avoiding rectal temperatures and other rectal procedures

22. A nurse assumes responsibility for the care of the client at 7 A.M. NPH insulin is ordered for
7:30 A.M. Before giving the insulin, the nurse checks to see if the client will eat that day and for
the:
A. signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia
B. previous sites of injection
C. serum glucagons level
D. serum glucose level

23. A nurse is teaching a client to observe for signs of hypoxia. The nurse explains that cyanosis
is not reliable indicator of the amount that tissues are receiving because the blue color is caused
by:
A. reduced hemoglobin
B. a low partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
C. inability of oxygen to enter the cell
D. increased pH of the blood

24. A client has ARDS. The lowest fraction of inspired oxygen possible for optimizing gas
exchange is used. The nurse explains to the family that the reason for this precaution is to:

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A. avoid respiratory depression

B. prevent oxygen toxicity
C. increase lung compliance
D. promote production of surfactant

25. A client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction demonstrates that touching has been
effective with the statements:
A. "if my chest pain lasts for more than 5 minutes, I should get myself to the emergency room"
B. "I just need to avoid salty foods and not add salt to my food"
C. C. "I need to avoid constipation and all activities that have caused me chest pain in
the past"
D. D. "I need to get to the drugstore to get some medicine for my cold"

26. A client is admitted to the hospital complaining of nervousness, heat intolerance and muscle
weakness. Her pulse rate is 118 and she has exopthalmos. An essential part of her assessment
will be:
A. palpation of the thyroid gland
B. evaluation of fluid and electrolyte balance
C. evaluation of deep tendon reflexes
D. use of the Glasgow Coma Scale

27. A client is scheduled for thyroidectomy. The nurse explains that PTU or an iodine
preparation is given prior to surgery in order to:
A. increase the size of the thyroid gland
B. render the parathyroid glands visible
C. induce a euthyroid state in the body
D. Separate the thyroid from the laryngeal nerve

28. A client is being evaluated for the possibility of Grave's disease. The nurse teaches that the
best laboratory test for evaluating whether a client has hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism is
the serum level of:

A. thyroxine (T4) C. TSH

B. triiodothyroinine (T3) D. epinephrine

29. A client is taking Levothyroxine (synthroid) for hypothyroidism. The nurse teaches the client
to:
A. monitor the pulse regularly
B. restrict sodium in the diet
C. take the drug with meals
D. measure urinary output

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30. A client with NIDDM is admitted to the hospital. The client is confused and has dry mucus
membranes and poor skin turgor. The serum sodium is 149; the blood pressure
90/60 mmHg; the pulse is 118; and the serum glucose 465 mg/dl. The nurse anticipates that
insulin and the following will be needed:

A. a potassium drip C. intravenous fluids

B. sodium bicarbonate D. calcium gluconate

31. A nurse is teaching a diabetic client how to attain the optimal level of health. When
assessing for other risk factors stroke and heart attack, this nurse looks for:

A. hypervolemia C. proteinuria

B. hypokalemia D. hypertension

32. A nurse stops at the sight of a motor vehicle accident to find a young woman slumped over
the wheel. She is breathing with a regular rhythm at a rate of 22; ventilation efforts normal. Her
pulse rate is 110. The nurse's next action would be:
A. check the level of consciousness
B. immobilize the spine
C. call the rescue squad
D. check for bleeding

33. A 57-year-old client is being prepared for discharge following a myocardial infarction. The
nurse knows that her teaching has been understood when she hears:
A. "I guess my sex life is over"
B. "depression is bad for me. I must stay happy and optimistic"
C. " the best way to know the amount of exercise I should take is to watch my pulse"
D. "the injured area will be replaced with a new heart tissue"

34. A client with IDDM has just been admitted to the ER after hitting a telephone pole with her
car. Bystanders said she acted as if she has been drinking. Her temperature is 37.4 degrees
Celsius, pulse 80, resp. 44 and deep. She complained of headache and acted confused. A fruity
odor was noted on her breath. Her ABG report read= pH= 7.32, pCO2= 36, and bicarbonate= 18.
The nurse prepared for the treatment of:

A. metabolic acidosis C. respiratory acidosis

B. metabolic alkalosis D. respiratory alkalosis

35. A client with peptic ulcer is taking Maalox, Amoxicillin and Famotidine. The nurse teaches
the client to take the Maalox:

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A. 1-2 hours before meals C. V2 hour before meals

B. with meals D. 1-2 hours after meals

36. A client with varicose veins tells the nurse, "I am afraid they will burst while I am walking."
Which response by the nurse would be the BEST?
A. "the only way to prevent rupture is to have surgery"
B. "you must find another job, one that requires less walking"
C. "if that happens, you could bleed to death"
D. "rupture of varicose veins rarely occur"

37. A client asks why is it important to check the pupils. The nurse replies that changes in the
pupils are a reflection of how well the following area of the nervous system is functioning:

A. spinal cord C. midbrain

B. brain stem D. cerebellum

38. A 32-year-old client is being evaluated in the clinic today for possible Addison's disease. The
nurse knows that the most common cause of the disease is attributed to:

A. autoimmune response C. disseminated tuberculosis

B. blastomycosis D. diabetes mellitus

39. The nurse knows that the recommended diet for a client with Addison's disease includes:

A. 1 mg. Na C. low fat, low cholesterol

B. 3 gms. Na D. high potassium, high cholesterol

40. A 36-year-old client with a history of Cushing's disease is being seen in the ER for complaints
of anorexia, vomiting, weakness and muscle cramps for the past 24 hours. The nurse recognizes
that these clinical findings are a result of:
A. hypernatremia C. hyperglycemia

B. hypoglycemia D. hypokalemia

41. When teaching a patient about home care related to outpatient corticosteroid therapy, th e
nurse emphasizes that side effects of corticosteroid therapy include:
A. hyperglycemia and weight loss
B. hyponatremia and hypotension
C. hypoglycemia and gastric ulcers
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D. hyperglycemia and weight gain

42. Additional teaming to a newly diagnosed diabetic client related to the effects of regular
insulin is necessary when the client asks, "if I take my regular insulin at 8 A.M., when might I
experience signs of low blood sugar reaction?
A. 8:30 am
B. 11 am
C. 1:30 pm
D. 4 pm

43. The nurse recognizes which of the following as signs of early hypoxia?
A. bradycardia, hypotension, facial flushing
B. confusion, bradycardia, headache
C. hypotension, tachypnea, lethargy
D. restlessness, yawning, tachycardia

44. A 68-year-old client has a new colostomy and is being treated today at the clinic for diarrhea.
When discussing diet with the client, the nurse explains to him that the one food that caused
this problem was:

A. cabbage C. tapioca

B. eggs D. fried chicken

45. The nurse is caring for a client with folic acid deficiency. The nurse recalls that one of the
most frequent causes of folic acid deficiency is:
A. poor nutritional intake due to alcoholism
B. lack of absorption of the intrinsic factor
C. a diet that consists of vegetables only and no meat
D. a complicated pregnancy during the second trimester

46. When planning care for a patient who is pancytopenic, the major goal should be:
A. prevent hemorrhage and infection
B. administering an oral iron preparation
C. preventing fatigue and fluid overload
D. encouraging consumption of a neutropenic diet

47. when explaining different effects of chemotherapy to students, the nurse correctly identifies
which group of chemotherapy drugs that does not affect DNA synthesis to kill tumor cells?

A. hormones C. antimetabolites

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B. vinca alkalosis D. alkylating agents

48. The nurse evaluates the client's ability to self-monitor blood glucose level at home. What
information BEST indicates the average degree of diabetes control during the past 2 to 4
months?
A. serum glycosylated hemoglobin
B. postprandial blood glucose level
C. a written record of daily blood glucose levels
D. a written record of daily double voided urine glucose levels

49. Which of the findings would the nurse most likely note during an Addisonian crisis?
A. serum potassium of 3 mEq/L, BP=158/72 mmHg
B. serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L, BP=62/48 mmHg
C. serum sodium of 150 mEq/L, BP= 158/72
D. serum sodium of 135 mEq/L, BP=62/48

50. Propanolol (Inderal) is commonly prescribed for clients with hyperthyroidism to:
A. block formation of the thyroid hormone
B. decrease the vascularity of the thyroid gland
C. inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 and T3
D. decrease CNS stimulation

51. The client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. Which
goal should be given the highest priority in the NCP?
A. ambulation tree times a day
B. monitoring temperature
C. monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit
D. monitoring for pathologic fractures

52. The nurse assesses the oral cavity of a client with cancer and notes white patches on the
mucous membranes. The nurse determines that this occurrence:
A. is common
B. is characteristic of thrush infection
C. indicates that oral hygiene need to be improved
D. suggests that the client is anemic

53. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results of a client preparing to receive chemotherapy.
The nurse determines that the WBC count is normal if which of the following results is present?
A. 3,000 to 8,000/cu.mm.
B. 4,000 to 9,000/cu.mm.
C. 7,000 to 15,000/cu.mm.
D. 2,000 to 5,000/cu. Mm.

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54. The client suspected of having an abdominal tumor is scheduled for a CT scan with dye
injection. Which of the following is an accurate description of the scan?
A. the test maybe painful
B. the dye injected may cause a warm, flushing, sensation
C. fluids will be restricted following the test
D. the test takes approximately 2 hours

55. The client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor. Several diagnostic test are prescribed.
Which of the following test will confirm the diagnosis of the malignancy?

A. MRI C. abdominal ultrasound

B. CT scan D. biopsy of the tumor

56. The oncology nurse is preparing to administer chemotherapy to the client with Hodgkin's
disease. A multiagent medication regimen known as MOPP is prescribed. The medications
included in the therapy are:
A. belomycin, oncovin, vincristine, prednisone
B. adrimycin, vincristine, oncovin, prednisone
C. adriamycin, cytoxan, prednisone, oncovin
D. procarbazine, mechlorethemine, oncovin, prednisone

57. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who received a
regimen of chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse note
specifically as a result of massive cell destruction that occurred from chemotherapy?

A. anemia C. decrease platelets

B. decreased WBC D. increased uric acid level

58. The client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The MOST likely
side effect to be expected is:

A. constipation C. sore throat

B. dyspnea D. diarrhea

59. The nurse is providing instructions to the client receiving external radiation therapy. Which
of the following is NOT a component of the instructions?
A. avoid exposure to sunlight
B. wash the skin with a mild soap and pat dry
C. apply pressure on the irritated area to prevent bleeding
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D. eat a high protein diet

60. The nurse teaches skin care to the client receiving external radiation therapy. Which of the
following statements, if made by the client indicates the need for further instruction?
A. "I will handle the area gently"
B. "I will avoid the use of deodorants"
C. "I will limit sun exposure to 1 hour daily"
D. "I will wear loose fitting clothing"

61. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving chemotherapy. The platele t
count is 10,000/cu.mm. Based on this laboratory value, the priority nursing assessment is which
of the following?
A. assess level of consciousness
B. assess temperature
C. assess bowel sounds
D. assess skin turgor

62. The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of suspected Hodgkin's disease. Which
of the following assessment signs would the nurse MOST likely to note in the client?

A. weakness C. weight gain

B. fatigue D. enlarged lymph nodes

63. The client with leukemia is receiving Busulfan (myleran). Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is prescribed
for the client. The purpose of Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is to:
A. prevent gouty arthritis C. prevent hyperuricemia

B. prevent stomatitis D. prevent diarrhea

64. A gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative
period, the nurse notes bloody drainage from the NGT. Which of the ff. is the MOST appropriate
nursing intervention?

A. notify the physician C. continue to monitor the drainage

B. measure abdominal girth D. irrigate the NGT

65. The nurse is reviewing the history of a client with bladder cancer. The MOST common
symptom of this type of cancer is which of the following?

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‫بيت التمريض‬ PALNURSE YOUR ACCESS TO SUCCESS

A. frequency of urination C. hematuria

B. urgency of urination D. dysuria

66. The nurse is assessing the stoma of a client following a ureterostomy.

Which of the following does the nurse expect to note?

A. a pale stoma C. a red and moist stoma
B. a dry stoma D. a dark-colored stoma

67. The nurse is caring for a client following a radical mastectomy. Which of the following
nursing interventions would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected
arm?
A. placing cool compress on the affected arm
B. elevating the affected arm on pillow below the heart level
C. maintaining an IV site below the antecubital area of the affected side
D. avoiding arm exercises in the immediate post-operative period

68. The nurse is teaching BSE to a client who had a hysterectomy. The MOST appropriate
instruction regarding BSE should be performed is:
A. 7 to 10 days after menstruation
B. just before menses begin
C. at ovulation time
D. at a specific day of the month and on the same day every month thereafter

69. The nurse is instructing the client, Ben how to perform testicular self-examination. Which
instruction is correct?
A. examine testicles when lying down
B. the best time for the examination is after a shower
C. gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
D. testicular examination should be done at least every 6 months

70. The nurse is instructing a group of female about BSE. The nurse instructs the clients to
perform the examination:
A. at the onset of menstruation
B. one week after menstruation begins
C. every month during ovulation
D. weekly at the same time of the day

71. The client has undergone esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD).

The nurse places highest priority on which of the following items as apart of the client's care
plan?

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A. assessing for the return of the gag reflex

B. giving warm gargle for sore throat
C. monitoring temperature
D. monitoring complaints of heartburn

72. The client being seen in a physician's office has just been schedule for a barium swallow the
next day. The nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow
before the test?
A. removal all metal and jewelry before the test
B. eat regular supper and breakfast
C. continue to take all oral medication as scheduled
D. monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation

73. The client is diagnosed with bleed and the bleeding has been controlled antacid are
prescribed to be administered every hour. The nurse should plan on maintaining an
approximately gastric pH of:

A. 3 B. 9 C. 6 D. 15

74. The nurse is caring for a client following a Billroth II Procedure. On review of the post-
operative orders, which of the following, if prescribed, does the nurse question and verify?
A. irrigating the NG tube
B. coughing and deep breathing exercises
C. leg exercises
D. early ambulation

75. A client who has a peptic ulcer is schedule for a vagotomy. The client asks about the purpose
of this procedure. The BEST nursing response is which of the following?
A. "decreases food absorption in the stomach"
B. "heal the gastric mucosa"
C. "halts stress reaction"
D. "reduces the stimulus to acid secretion"

76. The nurse ins monitoring a client for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome.
Which of the following syndrome indicate this occurrence?
A. abdominal cramping and pain
B. bradycardia and indigestion
C. sweating and pallor
D. double vision and chest pain

77. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized patient with a diagnosis of ulcerative H ulcerative colitis

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colitis (inflammation). When assessing the client, which finding, if noted, would the nurse report
to the physician?

A. bloody diarrhea C. hemoglobin level of 12 mg/dl

B. hypotension D. rebound tenderness

78. The nurse is providing discharge instruction to a client following gastrectomy, which of the
following measures will the nurse instruct the client to the following assist in preventing
dumping syndrome?
A. eat high carbonated food
B. limit the fluid taking with food
C. ambulate following a meal
D. sit in a high-fowler's position during meals

79. The nurse is caring for a client post-operatively following the creation of a colostomy. Which
of the ff. nursing diagnosis does the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. altered nutrition; more than body requirements
B. body image disturbance
C. fear related to poor diagnosis
D. sexual dysnfunction

80. The nurse is reviewing the record of the client with Crohn's disease (inflammation). Which of
the following stool characteristic does the nurse expect to note in this client?
A. bloody stool
B. diarrhea
C. constipation alternating with diarrhea
D. stool constantly oozing from the rectum

81. The client with cirrhosis has ascites and a fluid volume excess. Which measure will the nurse
include in the plan of care for this client?
A. increase the amount of sodium in diet
B. restrict the amount of fluids consumed
C. encourage ambulation frequently
D. administer magnesium antacids

82. The client with ascites is schedule for a paracentesis. The nurse is assisting the physician in
performing the procedure. Which of the following positions will the nurse assist the client to
assume for this procedure?

A. supine C. right side lying

B. left side lying D. upright

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83. An ultrasound of the gallbladder is schedule for the client with a suspect diagnosis of
cholecystitis. The nurse explain to the client that this test:
A. requires the client to lie still for short intervals
B. requires that the client be NPO
C. requires the administration of oral tables
D. is uncomfortable

84. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy.
Which of the following interventions is of highest priority in the preoperative teaching plan ?
A. teaching coughing and deep breathing exercises
B. teaching leg exercises
C. instructions regarding fluid restrictions
D. frequent need to work overtime on short notice

85. A client with peptic ulcer states that stress frequently causes exacerbation
(aggrevate;increase) of the disease. The nurse interprets that which of the following items
mentioned by the client is most likely responsible for the exacerbations?
A. sleeping 8 hours a night
B. eating 5 to 6 small meals per day
C. ability to work at home periodically
D. frequent need to work overtime on short notice

86. The client with peptic ulcer disease needs dietary modification to reduce episode of
epigastric pain. The nurse plans to teach the client that which of the following items, which the
client enjoys, does not need to be limited or eliminated with this disease?

A. wine C. coffee

B. baked chicken D. fresh fruit

87. The medication history of a client with peptic ulcer disease reveals intermittent use of the
following medications. The nurse teaches the client to avoid which of these medications
altogether because of the irritating effects on the lining of the GI tract?
A. (Prilosec)
B. ibuprofen (Motrin)
C. sucralfate (Carafate)
D. Nizatidine (Axid)

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88. The nurse instructs the ileostomy client to do which of the following as part of essential care
of the stoma?
A. cleanse the peristomal skin meticulously
B. take in high-fiber foods such as nuts
C. massage the area below the stoma
D. limit fluid intake to prevent diarrhea

89. The client who has undergone creation of a colostomy has a nursing diagnosis of Body Image
disturbance. The nurse evaluates that the client is making the most significant progress toward
identified goals if the client:
A. watches the nurse empty the ostomy bag
B. looks at the ostomy site
C. reads the ostomy product literature
D. practices cutting the ostomy appliance

90. The client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor from stool in the ostomy drainage
bag. The nurse should teach the client to include which of the following foods in the diet to
reduce odor?

A. yogurt C. cucumbers

B. broccoli D. eggs

91. The nurse is giving dietary instruction for the client who has a new colostomy. The nurse
encourages the client to eat foods representing which of the following diets for the first 4 to 6
weeks postoperatively?

A. high protein C. low calorie

B. high carbohydrates D. low residue

92. The nurse has given instructions to the client with an ileostomy about foods to eat to thicken
the stool. The nurse evaluates that the client did not fully understand the instructions if the
client stated that eating which of the following foods makes the stool less watery?

A. pasta C. bran

B. boiled rice D. low-fat cheese

93. The client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the
immediate postoperatively period for which of the following most frequent complications of
this type of surgery?

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A. intestinal obstruction
B. fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. malabsorption of fat
D. folate deficiency

94. The client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe pain from the disorder. The nurse
teaches the client to avoid which of the following positions that could aggravate the pain?

A. sitting up C. leaning forward

B. lying flat D. flexing the left leg

95. The nurse is evaluating the effect of dietary counseling on the client with cholecystitis. The
nurse evaluates that the client understands the instructions given if the client stated that which
of the following food items is acceptable in the diet?

A. baked scrod C. fried chicken

B. sauces and gravies D. fresh whipped cream

96. The nurse assesses the client experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis for pain that is
located in the right:
A. upper quadrant and radiates to the left scapula and shoulder
B. upper quadrant and radiates to the right scapula and shoulder
C. lower quadrant and radiates to the umbilicus
D. lower quadrant and radiates to the back

97. The client is beginning to show signs of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse plans a dietary
consult to limit the amount of which of the following ingredients in the client's
diet?
A. fat
B. carbohydrates
C. protein
D. minerals

98. The client with Crohn's disease has an order to begin taking antispasmodic medication. The
nurse should time the medication so that each dose is taken:
A. 30 minutes before meals
B. during meals
C. 60 minutes after meals
D. upon arising and at bedtime

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‫بيت التمريض‬ PALNURSE YOUR ACCESS TO SUCCESS

99. The client with ulcerative colitis is diagnosed with mild case of the disease. The nurse doing
dietary teaching gives the client examples of foods to eat that represent which of the following
therapeutic diets?
A. high-fat with milk
B. high-protein without milk
C. low-roughage without milk
D. low-roughage with milk

100. It has been determined that the client with hepatitis has contracted the infection from
contaminated food. What type of hepatitis is this client most likely experiencing?
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B
C. hepatitis C
D. hepatitis D

1A 2C 3B 4B 5C 6C 7C 8D 9A 10 C
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‫بيت التمريض‬ PALNURSE YOUR ACCESS TO SUCCESS

11 D 12D 13 D 14 A 15 A 16 C 17 A 18 C 19 D 20 A
21 D 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 C 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 A 30 C
31 D 32 D 33 C 34 A 35 D 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 D
41 D 42 B 43 D 44 B 45 B 46 A 47 A 48 A 49 B 50 D
51 C 52 B 53 B 54 C 55 D 56 D 57 D 58 C 59 C 60 C
61 A 62 D 63 C 64 C 65 C 66 C 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 B
71 A 72 A 73 C 74 A 75 D 76 B 77 A 78 B 79 B 80 B
81 B 82 D 83 A 84 A 85 D 86 B 87 B 88 C 89 B 90 A
91 D 92 B 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 A 97 C 98 A 99 C 100 A

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