28 Mock Test Series For Olympia - Disha Experts

EBD_7095
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Contents
English
1. Mock Test 1 E-1-7
Mathematics
1. Mock Test 1 M-1-8
Science
1. Mock Test 1 S-1-7

EBD_7095
General Knowledge
1. Mock Test 1 G-1-5
Logical Reasoning
1. Mock Test 1 R-1-6
Cyber
1. Mock Test 1 C-1-6
Hints and Explanations 1-54

ENGLISH
MOCK TEST 1–5
EBD_7095
Mock Test 1
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 3): For the (a) Proper noun
following sentences, select which kind (b) Common noun
of noun the underlined word is: (c) Collective noun
1. Ram is going to the market. (d) Abstract noun
(a) Proper noun DIRECTION (Qs. 4): Tick the appro-

priate verbs (use of ‘being’ verbs):
(b) Common noun
4. Last year they _____ too young to
(c) Collective noun
go by themselves.
(d) Abstract noun
(a) is (b) am
2. Sita went to the garden and
(c) was (d) were
studied a flock of birds.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5 & 6): Fill the
(a) Proper noun
blanks with suitable Pronoun:
(b) Common noun
5. Jolly is a pretty girl. ______ has
(c) Collective noun
long hair.
(d) Abstract noun
(a) He (b) They
3. The women went to see the
butterflies. (c) It (d) She
Space for Rough Work

EBD_7095
E-2 Mock Test-1
6. Mandy is crying. Those toys that DIRECTION (Qs. 11): Fill in the
broke are _____. correct prepositions in the blanks:
(a) theirs (b) his 11. I received a letter _____ my
grandma.
(c) hers (d) ours
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 7 & 8): Select the (a) from (b) soon
adjectives in the following sentences: (c) at (d) with
7. Kohinoor is the world’s biggest DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12 & 13): Fill in
diamond. the blanks using conjunction (and /
but/so/because):
(a) Kohinoor (b) Is
12. My name is Jim ____ I’m your new
(c) World’s (d) Biggest teacher.
8. Manohar loves red roses. (a) and (b) but
(a) Manohar (b) Love (c) so (d) because
(c) Red (d) Roses 13. We’ll have to go shopping _____
we have nothing for dinner.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9 & 10): Select the
adverbs in the following sentences: (a) and (b) but
9. Mr. Rochester wants to meet the (c) so (d) because

ladies tonight. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14 & 15): Choose
the correct form of verb accordingto
(a) Wants (b) To meet the tense specified in the brackets:
(c) Ladies (d) Tonight 14. The doctor _________ the patient.
10. He fell asleep and slept soundly. (Present Tense)
(a) He (b) Slept (a) treat (b) treats
(c) Soundly (d) Asleep (c) treated (d) will treat

Mock Test-1 E-3
15. Sheela ________ a white dog. 20. Blunt

(Simple Past Tense)
(a) Dull (b) Rounded
(a) Buys (b) Bought (c) Honest (d) Sharp
(c) Will buy (d) Buying 21. The shopkeeper showed me a range
DIRECTION (Qs. 16): Select the of pens. He showed me pens of every
type and colour, from the cheapest
correct article. Some options may not
to the most expensive. He showed
require the use of an article.
me ball pens, ink pens, gel pens and
16. She is _______ attractive girl. many more. In the sentence above,
“range” MEANS “__________”
(a) a (b) an
(a) wide variety
(c) the (d) nothing
(b) large size
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17 & 18): Select
the synonym of the words given below: (c) beautiful set
(d) good quality
17. Wealthy
22. Choose the word with the
(a) Poor (b) Hungry CORRECT SPELLING for the
sentence below. I was so sleepy
(c) Miserable (d) Rich
that I fell asleep at the ______table
18. Middle
(a) dineing (b) dinning
(a) Corner (b) Centre
(c) dining (d) diening
(c) End (d) Beginning 23. Today I was late for school. But since
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19 & 20): Select it had happened for the first time,
the antonyms of the words given below: the teacher did not punish me.Which
word can replace “did not punish” in
19. Attack the sentence given above?
(a) Defend (b) Damage (a) Excused (b) Explained
(c) Hurt (d) Harm (c) Examined (d) Expected

EBD_7095
E-4 Mock Test-1
24. Imagine yor are Samir.It is your 25. (a) ali invited suresh and anil on
birthday the next week and you his birthday party.
are hosting a party for your friends (b) Ali invited suresh and anil on
at your home in the evening at his birthday party
6.30.
(c) Ali invited Suresh and Anil on
Complete the following invitation his birthday party.
to Vikas with choice given below:
(d) ali invited Suresh and Anil on
13th August 2017 his birthday party.
12 Green Park 26. (a) What is your full name ?
Sadhna Enclave, (b) what is your full name ?
New Delhi-110004 (c) What is your full name.
Dear Vikas, (d) what is your full name.
It is my birthday on Sunday ,20 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27 to 29): Read
August. I am giving a party for the passage and answer the following
my friends. I am organising many questions:
games. My didi is planning to -----
------ our favorite dishes. It will be PASSAGE
fun time for all the friends. Please India is an ancient country. Many
do join us great kings have ruled over India.
At 6.30 PM my house. Some of them built wonderful
buildings that today remind us of
Samir them. The most famous of these is
(a) Eat (b) Cook the Taj Mahal at Agra.
(c) Drink The Mughal kings built many
(d) None of these
buildings. One of the greatest Mughals
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25 & 26): From
was Emperor Shah Jahan. He was
the following options given, select the known to be fond large and beautiful
one which is correct. buildings. Shah Jahan loved his wife

Mock Test-1 E-5
Arjumand Bano Begum very much. In each year. On a particular full moon
fact, he changed her name to Mumtaz night in October, there are a very large
Mahal. When she died, the emperor number of tourists. This is night when
the Taj looks more beautiful than on
was very sad. He wanted something any other night. Indians are proud of
which would remind him of her and this monument.
her beauty. 27. Taj Mahal is located at
Shah Jahan decided to build a (a) Agra (b) Mumbai
marvelous tomb for her. This tomb was (c) New Delhi (d) Jaipur
to be no ordinary grave. It was to be 28. Who built the Taj ?
the Taj Mahal, a grand monument in (a) Akbar
memory of a beloved empress. If took
(b) Ashoka, the great
twenty-two years to build. Hundreds
(c) Shah Jahan
of workers toiled at the task of getting
(d) Humayun
it ready. The best materials were
29. How long did it take to build the
brought from all over. It cost about Taj ?
three crores to build. Shah Jahan left
(a) 5 years (b) 22 years
no stone unturned in planning and
building the tomb. He wanted the (c) 34 years (d) 10 years
world to see and wonder at the beauty DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30 to 32): Read
the poems given below and answer the
of the Taj Mahal. questions that follow:
The Taj Mahal is built of white Freedom is the right to do
marble that shines with different Anything that pleases you,
hues at different times of the day. As long as you keep in sight
This magnificent structure looks That others also have a right,
especially beautiful on a full moon Have you the right to kill a cat?
night. Thousands of tourists from Oh no! It’s wrong, just consider that
India and abroad come to visit the Taj The cat has the right to live like you
EBD_7095
E-6 Mock Test-1
A right to eating and drinking too! 32. How should students conduct
So remember that it’s certainly wrong themselves in the school ?
To deprive a nightingale its song (a) They should shout and scream
To cheat the poor people,as rich men do and disrespect the teachers
To rob the innocent, as robbers do (b) They should not shout and
To insure someone to win a race scream and disrespect the
To despise some and others embrace teachers
To disobey every order and rule (c) They should rob the innocent
And drown a swimmer in the pool (d) They should scold younger
And shout and scream like a fool students/
Disrespecting the teachers in the school. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33 to 35): Read
So never forget that although you are free, the story given below and answer the
following questions:
You should think of others,
not only ‘ME’. PASSAGE
30. What are the rights of a cat similar A long time ago, when animals could
to ours ? talk, there lived in a forest four wise
creatures - a hare, a jackal, an otter
(a) The right to live and a monkey.
(b) The right to eat They were good friends, and every
(c) The right to drink evening they would sit together in a
forest glade to discuss the events of
(d) All of the above the day, exchange advice and make
31. What similarity has the poet good resolutions. The hare was the
pointed out between rich men and noblest and wisest of the four. He
robbers ? believed in the superiority of men and
women, and was always telling his
(a) Rob the innocent friends tales of human goodness and
(b) Hide from the police wisdom.
(c) Give alms to the poor One evening, when the moon rose in
the sky and those days the moon’s
(d) None of the above
Mock Test-1 E-7
face was clear and unmarked, the mustn’t steal.” Instead he called out,
hare looked up at it carefully and said, “Does anyone own this fish ?”
“Tomorrow good men will observe a There being no answer, the otter
fast, for I can see that it will be the carried the fish off to his home, setting
middle of the month. They will eat no it aside for his evening meat.
food before sunset, and during the day
Ruskin Bond (from The Hare in the
they will give alms to any beggar to
holy man who may meet them. Let us Moon)
promise to do the same. In that way, 33. How many wise animals lived in
we can come a little closer to human the forest ?
beings in dignity and respect.” (a) 4 (b) 2
The others agreed, and then went (c) 3 (d) 5
their different ways. 34. Every evening the four friends
Next day, the otter got up, stretched (a) Discussed the events of the
himself, and was preparing to get his day, exchanged advice and
breakfast when he remembered the made good resolutions.
vow he had taken with his friends. (b) Went hunting for food and
shared their meals.
“If I keep my word, how hungry I
shall be by evening!” he thought.” I’d (c) Sat around a campfire are
better make sure that there’s plenty shared old stories.
to eat once the fast is over.” He set off (d) None of the above
towards the river. 35. What noble deed was usually
A fisherman had caught several large performed on the day of the fast?
fish early that morning, and had (a) Give alms to beggars or a holy
buried them in the sand, planning to man
return for them later. The otter soon
smelt them out. (b) Sing prayers
“A supper all ready for me,” he said (c) Give sweets to children
to himself. “But since it’s holy day, I (d) All of the above

EBD_7095
Mock Test 2
1. Living things usually live and DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4 to 6): Fill the
move together in groups. Tick the blanks with suitable pronoun:
correct animal corresponding to
the group 4. The cruel farmer hit _____ ox so
A shoal of badly that it fell down.
(a) Monkeys (b) Fish (a) Their (b) Hers

(c) Lions (d) Tigers (c) His (d) Theirs
2. What is the prefix in disassociate?
5. _____ went for a long walk in the
(a) ate (b) dis park.
(c) sociate (d) as
(a) Them (b) Theirs
DIRECTION (Q. 3): Tick the appro-
(c) Ours (d) We
priate verbs (Use of ‘being’ verbs):
6. The teacher gave ____ a surprise
3. Hansel and Gretel _____ characters
in a fairytale. treat for being good children.
(a) Is (b) Are (a) Us (b) Her

(c) Am (d) Was (c) Him (d) It

Mock Test-2 E-9
7. In the second sentence below, what DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 & 12): Fill in
does the underlined word it refer to? the correct prepositions in the blanks:
Neha bought a sandwich at the
store. She decided to buy some 11. I got up _____ six o’ clock.
chips and a lemonade to eat with it. (a) At (b) In
(a) The sandwich (c) Into (d) On
(b) The store 12. I drove a car ______ the morning.
(c) The chips (a) Up (b) On
(d) The lemonade (c) In (d) Onto
DIRECTION (Qs. 8): Select adjectives DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13 to 15): Fill in
from the following sentences: the blanks using conjunctions (and/
but/so/because):
8. Manish went to the garden to hear
the black bird sing beautifully. 13. The history test was difficult _____
(a) Garden (b) To hear the English one was easy.
(c) Black (d) Beautifully (a) And (b) But
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9 & 10): Select the (c) So (d) Because

adverbs in the following sentences. 14. We didn’t go to the beach yesterday
_______ it was raining.
9. Once there was very good and brave
Japanese man named Hidesato. (a) And (b) But
(a) Once (b) Man (c) So (d) Because

(c) Brave (d) Named 15. We have a test on Monday _______
10. A week _____ has seven days I’ll have to study this weekend.
(a) Always (b) Never (a) And (b) But
(c) Sometimes (d) Rarely (c) So (d) Because

EBD_7095
E-10 Mock Test-2
DIRECTION (Qs. 16): Choose the 20. Admire
correct form of verb according to the (a) Praise (b) Allow
tense specified in the brackets : (c) Obey (d) Play
16. Mr. Sharma ______ a red car. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21 to 23): Select
(Present Tense) the antonyms of the word given below:
(a) Owns (b) Will own 21. Expensive

(c) Owned (d) Own (a) Costly (b) Dear
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17 & 18): Select (c) Cheap (d) Steep

the correct article. Some options may 22. Famous
not require the use of an article. (a) Unknown (b) Well-known
17. Alice drives ____ old car that (c) Eminent (d) Infamous
belonged to her uncle. 23. Deep
(a) A (b) An (a) Shallow (b) Open
(c) The (d) Nothing (c) Tall (d) Long
18. Do you have ______ computer ? 24. What change in capitalization

should be made to the sentence
(a) A (b) An below?
(c) The (d) Nothing The author t.s.Eliot wrote a poem
about a man Alfred Prufrock who
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19 & 20): Select walked the streets of London.
the synonym of the words given below:
(a) change author to Author
19. Accurate (b) change t.s. to T.S.
(a) Correct (b) Incorrect (c) change poem to Poem
(c) Wrong (d) Possible (d) change Alfred to alfred

Mock Test-2 E-11
25. Which possessive noun completes DIRECTION (Qs. 29): From the
the sentence? following options given, select the one
The jacket belongs to the man. It which is correct:
is the ________ jacket.
29. (a) can! you speak English?
(a) man’s (b) mans’
(b) can you speak english
(c) mans (d) men’s
(c) Can you speak English?
26. Choose the correct phrase to finish
(d) can you speak English
the sentence.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30 to 32): Read
Melissa keeps quiet when she is
the passages and answer the following
________ .
questions:
(a) at the park (b) in the library
PASSAGE
(c) on the boat (d) in the party
Coconut oil is used in India as cooking
27. Choose the correct word to fill in oil, hair oil, body oil and industrial oil.
the blank. It accounts for 6 percent of the total
I have six ________ . vegetable oil pool in the country.
(a) pencils’ (b) pencil’s Coconut oil is colourless to pale
(c) pencils (d) pencil brownish yellow. It is extracted from
dried coconut kernel. The oil is fluid
28. What is the punctuation mark in as water under warm conditions but
the word school’s? solidifies at cooler temperatures. It is
(a) comma (b) semi-colon neutral; in its effects on blood, fats and
cholesterol. It is also an excellent hair
(c) hyphen (d) apostrophe oil. It prevents dandruff and keeps

EBD_7095
E-12 Mock Test-2
the skin soft and moist In addition Where the nestlings chirp and flee,
the oil extensively used in ice-creams, That’s the way for Billy and me.
whipped cream, biscuits and similar
Where the mower’s mow the cleanest,
products.
Where the hay lies thick and greenest,
30. Coconut oil is used in India as
There to track the homeward bee,
(a) Hair oil (b) cooking oil
That’s the way for Billy and me.
(c) Body oil (d) All of these
Where the hazel bank is steepest
31. Coconut oil is extracted from
Where the shadow falls the deepest,
(a) Dried coconut kernel
Where the clustering nuts fall free,
(b) Bark of coconut tree
That’s the way for Billy and me ......
(c) Coconut tree leaves
Write the words from the poem which
(d) Coconut water describe the given words:
32. Coconut oil is _________ at warm 33. The pool
temperature but solidifies at (a) Bright and deep
________ temperature.
(b) Shallow and steep
(a) Fluid, warm (b) Solid, cool
(c) Dirty and green
(c) Fluid, cool (d) Solid, warm
(d) Blue and deep
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33 to 35): Read
the poem given below and answer the 34. Hay
questions that follow: (a) Thick and brown
Where the pools are bright and deep (b) Thick and green
(c) Grey and yellow
Where the grey trout lies asleep;
(d) Thin and green
Up the river and o’er the lea,
35. Trout
That’s the way for Billy and me.
(a) Grey and awake
Where the blackbird signs the latest, (b) Blue and awake
Where the hawthorn blooms the (c) Grey and asleep
sweetest (d) Blue and asleep
Mock Test 3
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 4): Choose 4. Wre this work ?
the correct part of speech. (a) Reflexive Pronoun
1. Zacob’s bike is old. (b) Demonstrative Pronoun
(a) Proper noun (c) Interrogative Pronoun
(b) Common noun (d) Possessive Pronoun
(c) Collective noun 5. What is the Present Continuous
form (V4) of Shine ?
(d) Material noun
(a) Shining (b) Shone
2. The doctor is checking patients
(c) Shines (d) Shones
(a) Proper noun
6. Identify the negative words in the
(b) Collective noun sentence.
(c) Common noun I hardly have no choice.
(d) Material noun (a) hardly (b) have
3. That is a bat. (c) no (d) choice
(a) Reflexive Pronoun 7. Which word uses un- in the same
(b) Personal Pronoun way as in the word unhappy?
(c) Interrogative Pronoun (a) under (b) unite
(d) Demonstrative Pronoun (c) unicorn (d) unsafe

EBD_7095
E-14 Mock Test-3
8. There is _________ awesome game 14. What is the past form (V2) of sleep ?
in that place.
(a) Sleeps (b) Slept
Which word is an article and best
completes the sentence? (c) Sleeping (d) Sleep
(a) a (b) an 15. What is the Past Participle form
(c) many (d) crazy (V3) of Eat ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9 to 13) : Fill in (a) Eat (b) Eats
the correct preposition.
(c) Ate (d) Eaten
9. Who is _____ the room ? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : Fill in
(a) To (b) From the correct article.
(c) For (d) Inside
16. Everybody respects Sanjay as he
10. January comes ____ February.
is _______ honorable person.
(a) To (b) With
(a) A (b) An
(c) Before (d) Under
(c) The (d) None of these
11. He earns money _______ teaching
the children. 17. ______ Himalayas is one of the
(a) By (b) For youngest mountains in the world.
(c) From (d) With (a) A (b) An
12. He cannot run _____ he is injured. (c) The (d) None of these
(a) Though (b) Because DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19): Choose
(c) As (d) So the correct form of verb.
13. He was punished ______ he was
not guilty. 18. I have not _____ him today. (see)
(a) Though (b) But (a) Seen (b) Sea
(c) As (d) So (c) Saw (d) Sees

Mock Test-3 E-15
19. I have _____ to him yesterday. 23. Choose the correct word/phrase to
(talk) complete each sentence.
(a) Talks (b) Talked There were too many people at the
(c) Talking (d) Talkative party and there wasn’t ________
20. Which word uses -ly in the same food for everyone.
way as in the word nicely? (a) too much (b) many
(a) sly (b) fondly
(c) some (d) enough
(c) family (d) tally
24. Choose the correct word/phrase to
21.
Identify the option with complete each sentence.
CORRECT spelling to complete
the sentence given below. Saleem is a ________ swimmer
The_________________took his than Kapil.
sheep and goats to graze on the
(a) better (b) good
mountains.
(a) Shepard (b) Shepherd (c) best (d) slowest
(c) Shepperd (d) Sheepherd 25. Select the phrase/word to match

the description.
22. Shahrukh Khan is a “famous”
actor today.But when he came You can pour this; it has no fixed
to Mumbai several years ago, he shape and takes the shape of its
was almost _____________.Which container. It’s_____________.
word is OPPOSITE in meaning
to “famous” and can be used (a) flexible
to complete the sentence given
(b) fluid
above?
(c) stretchable
(a) Poor (b) Unknown
(c) Familiar (d) Worthless (d) stiff

EBD_7095
E-16 Mock Test-3
26. Choose the best reply to complete celebrations on the day or eve of the
each conversation. equinox. Western Christians celebrate
Easter on the Sunday on or after the
Babu : Hey, it’s New Years Eve,
full moon that follows the nominal
why aren’t you dancing? Let’s
date of the Equinox — Mar-21. The
dance.
Eastern Orthodox churches follow
Rinku : I’m not __________. a different calculation; their Easter
(a) at a dancing party celebration is often many weeks after
the date selected by the Western
(b) a moody dancer churches.
(c) in a dancing mood 27. In which of the following religions
(d) at my party Easter is celebrated ?
Read the following paragraph (a) Hinduism

and answer the questions
(b) Parsee
Modern-day Easter is derived from
two traditions : one Judeo-Christian (c) Christianity
and other Pagan. Both christians and (d) Jewish
Pagans have celebrated death and
resurrection themes following the 28. What is the belief of religious
Spring Equinox for millennia. Most about Easter ?
religious historians believe that many (a) Elements of Easter were
elements of the Christian observation derived form earlier Pagan
of Easter were derived from earlier celebrations
Pagan celebrations. The equinox (b) Pagan celebrations is par and
occurs each year on March 20, 21, or parcel of Easter
22. Both Neo-pagans and Christians
(c) Elements of Easter were
continue to celebrate religious rituals
derived from Judeo - Christian
linked to the equinox. Wiccans and
other Neopagans usually hold their (d) All of these

Mock Test-3 E-17
29. When do western Christian 32. Whom do you praise?

celebrate Easter ? (a) Interrogative pronoun
(a) On the Sunday (b) Demonstrative pronoun
(b) On the Sunday on or after (c) Possessive pronoun
the full moon that follows the
nominal date of the Equinox - (d) Personal pronoun
MAR - 21 33. People pray to God at different
places.
(c) After the full moon that
follow the nominal date of the (a) Collective noun
Equinox MAR-21 (b) Common noun
(d) All of these (c) Proper noun
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30 to 33): Choose (d) Material noun
the correct option.
34. Which words correctly complete
30. He has good knowledge of English. this sentence?
(a) Proper noun ____ honest complaint is better than
____ false compliment.
(b) Common noun
(a) A . . . a (b) An . . . an
(c) Collective noun
(c) An . . . a (d) A . . . an
(d) Abstract noun
35. What is the correct possessive
31. He himself told me about this form of the phrase?
matter. swim team for boys
(a) Reflexive pronoun (a) boys swim team
(b) Emphasizing pronoun (b) boy’s swim team
(c) Demonstrative pronoun (c) boys’ swim team
(d) Interrogative pronoun (d) boys’s swim team

EBD_7095
Mock Test 4
Part of speech: 4. What is the Past Tense form (V2)
of Shine ?
1. He is fond of wine.
(a) Shine (b) Shone
(a) Common noun
(c) Shining (d) Shined
(b) Material noun 5. The first match will take place
(c) Proper noun _____ India and Pakistan.
(d) Collective noun (a) Between (b) Among
(c) To (d) For
2. The bird is flying.
6. She will reach there ______
(a) Proper noun Monday.
(b) Collective noun (Abstract none) (a) At (b) On
(c) Material noun (c) To (d) In
(d) Common noun 7. I told you ______ he will not dance.
3. She has lose their bunch of keys. (a) Though (b) But
(a) Proper noun (c) As (d) That
8. What is the Past Tense (V2) of
(b) Common noun Grow ?
(c) Material noun (a) Grow (b) Grow
(d) Collective noun (c) Grew (d) Growing

Mock Test-4 E-19
9. What is the Past Particle form 15. Which word uses -er in the same
(V3) of take ? way as in the word tougher?
(a) Tooks (b) Took (a) flower (b) blender
(c) Take (d) Taken (c) cuter (d) shower
10. The woman found ________ one 16. Choose the correct spelling of the
rupee coin on the road. word.
(a) An (b) The
The ending of the story was ______
(c) A (d) None of these because unicorns do not really
11. He _______ me yesterday. (meet) exist.
(a) Met (b) Meet (a) illogical (b) ilogical
(c) Meets (d) Meeting (c) illogikal (d) illojical
12. Titanic ______ in the ocean. (sink) 17. Choose the best word to fill in the
(a) Sank (b) Sinks blank.
(c) Sunk (d) Sinking Jess sang ______ than Justin.
(Comparative)
13. She _______ watching TV for 15
minutes. (watch) (a) most graceful
(a) Has watching (b) more gracefullest
(b) Have watched (c) most gracefullest
(c) Has been watching (d) more gracefully
(d) All of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 to 20): Read
14. Choose the best form of LOUD to the passage carefully and answer the
complete the sentence. following questions.
Amber is the ______ girl in the
choir. (Superlative) 18. Abraham Lincoln was elected as
the 16th President of the United
(a) loudest (b) louder
States in 1860. He did many
(c) loud (d) more loud
EBD_7095
E-20 Mock Test-4
things as President. Many people 21. Those boys answered all the
think he was the best American questions smartly in class this
morning.
President of all time. He is most
remembered for freeing the slaves. What word would you use as a
substitute for the words ‘those
He was President of the United boys’?
States during the time the Civil
(a) he (b) she
War was fought. The Civil War
(c) me (d) they
was fought between the Northern
and Southern states. 22. Taught / school / he /in / us /
English / to
How many Presidents were there Which of the following is the best
before Abraham Lincoln? rearrangement of the words given
above?
(a) 16 (b) 15 He to us taught in English school.
(c) 14 (d) 13 He taught English to us in school.
19. What is Abraham Lincoln most Taught us is he English to school.
remembered for? Us taught to he English in school.
(a) freeing slaves 23. Which one from the following is
not a noun?
(b) doing many things
(a) Tail (b) Tell
(c) becoming President during (c) beak (d) head
the wa
24. Read the sentence carefully and
(d) None of these identify the noun marked in bold.
20. Who fought in the Civil War? Cutlery is made of steel.
(a) Proper noun
(a) British
(b) Collective noun
(b) Spanish
(c) Common noun
(c) Northern and Southern states
(d) Material noun
(d) all of the above
Mock Test-4 E-21
25. Read the sentence carefully and 28. Choose the correct adjective to
identify the noun marked in bold. complete the sentence. Neither
Amar nor Anil likes to talk in
I was very naughty in my
front of a _____ group.
childhood.
(a) large (b) nice
(a) abstract noun
(c) police (d) dry
(b) Collective noun
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29 & 30): Choose
(c) Common noun
the correct conjunctions to complete
(d) Material noun the sentence.
26.
Choose the correct verb to 29. The bus stopped ______ the man
complete the sentence. got off.
We have a maid. The maid is (a) And (b) But
honest.
(c) Or (d) So
(a) We have a maid he is honest.
30.
We stayed at home _______
(b) We have a maid who is honest. watched a film.
(c) We have a maid whom is (a) And (b) But
honest.
(c) Or (d) So
(d) We have a maid that is honest.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31 & 32): Choose
27.
Choose the correct verb to the correct preposition to complete the
complete the sentence. sentence.
You are crazy if you _____ I will
31. I’ll be ready to leave ______ about
have a pet snake. twenty minutes.
(a) trudge (b) swam (a) in (b) on
(c) wait (d) think (c) at (d) with

EBD_7095
E-22 Mock Test-4
32. He usually travels to Philadelphia 38. What type of sentence is this?
_______ train.
I hope it snows ten inches on
(a) in (b) on Saturday!
(c) by (d) with (a) exclamatory
33. Change the underlined proper (b) imperative
noun to a common noun in the
following sentence. (c) interrogative
We went to the Golden Gate Park (d) declarative
last weekend.
DIRECTION (Qs. 39 & 40): Complete
(a) City (b) Park the sentence using the word or set of
(c) Team (d) Country words for each blank that best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
34. Replace the noun in the bracket
with a correct object pronoun. 39. Unlike the actual building, which
She is going to circus with (Henry). was quite sturdy, Cam’s model of
(a) He (b) You the building was ______.
(c) Him (d) Himself (a) plastic (b) stable
35. My family often ___ out for dinner. (c) false (d) fragile
(a) Go (b) Goes 40. The gymnast was very ______, but
her younger sister was completely
(c) Going (d) Gone ______.
36. He _____watch the T.V. on
Saturdays. (a) heavy … weighty
(a) Doesn’t (b) Don’t (b) hollow … skinny
(c) Does (d) Doing (c) flexible … rigid
37. What type of sentence is this? (d) soft … crafty
Are Jessica and Lily sisters?
(a) Declarative
(b) Imperative
(c) Exclamatory
(d) Interrogative

Mock Test 5
1. Which one from the following is (c) This is the radio that I bought
not a noun? last month.
(a) Dancer (b) Painter (d) This is the radio I bought it
(c) Singer (d) Hotter last month.
2. Which one from the following is
4. The students were absent.
not a noun?
Students were fined.
(a) Belt (b) Black
(a) The students were absent who
(c) Shoe (d) Lace
were fined.
DIRECTIONS (QS. 3 & 4): Join the
following pairs of sentences by using a (b) The students were absent
suitable Relative Pronoun. whom were fined.
3. This is the radio. I bought it last (c) The students were absent
month. which were fined.
(a) This is the radio whom I (d) The students who were absent
bought it last month.
were fined.
(b) This is the radio who I bought
it last month.

EBD_7095
E-24 Mock Test-5
DIRECTION (Q. 5): Choose the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9 to 11): Choose
correct verbs to complete the sentence. the correct preposition to complete the
sentence.
5. The ducks _______ in the pond.
9. I think she spent the entire
(a) trudge (b) swam
afternoon ______ the phone.
(c) wait (d) think
(a) In (b) on
DIRECTIONS (Q. 6 to 8): Choose the
(c) at (d) with
correct word to complete the sentence.
10. My fingers were injured so my
6. The _______ officers created a sister had to write the note _____
road barrier to try to catch the me.
criminal.
(a) for (b) on
(a) large (b) nice (c) at (d) with
(c) police (d) dry 11. I am not interested _____ buying a
7. He is very rich _____he doesn’t new car now.
spend a lot of money. (a) for (b) on
(a) And (b) But (c) in (d) with
(c) Or (d) So 12. Which punctuation mark shows a
question?
8. Do you want tea _____ coffee?
(a) . (b) ?
(a) And (b) But
(c) ! (d) :
(c) Or (d) So

Mock Test-5 E-25
13. Change the underlined common 17. The shop ____ open until 12
noun to a proper noun in the o’clock.
following sentence. I bought some (a) Do (b) Doesn’t
fruits for them.
(c) Does (d) Don’t
(a) Dozens
18. A complete sentence must have:
(b) That (a) subject and article
(c) Apples and Oranges (b) predicate and conjunction
(d) He (c) conjunction and article
14. Change the underlined proper (d) subject and predicate
noun to a common noun in the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19 & 20): Choose
following sentence. My friend the word that is most nearly opposite in
wanted to join Foreign Language meaning to the word in capital letters.
club.
19. CAPTIVITY
(a) Country (b) People
(a) slavery (b) permission
(c) Friend (d) Club
(c) freedom (d) limitation
15. Replace the noun in the bracket 20. REVEAL
with a correct object pronoun.
(a) develop (b) showcase
I saw (Kris and his dad) at the
cricket match last night. (c) cover (d) thwart
(a) Us (b) Them 21. Choose the correct synonym for
(c) You (d) Whom the following words.
16. Lisa never ______ her homework. HUGE
(a) Does (b) Doing (a) Light (b) Tiny
(c) Don’t (d) Done (c) Determined (d) Giant
EBD_7095
E-26 Mock Test-5
22. Choose the sentence that makes as used in the sentence above,
sense for the word given. means__________
DEFINITION (a) Slowly, without hurry
(b) Suddenly, without warning
(a) Baby sheep: lamb
(c) Loudly, with a hard bang
(b) Baby duck : man
(d) Quietly, in an unusual manner
(c) Baby cow : chicken
26. Find the correct answer.
(d) Baby lion : calf (a) There going two help us.
23.
Choose the correct word or (b) They are going to help us
phrase to complete the idiomatic
(c) Going to help her to us
phrase in the question. I think I
understand the nuts and _____ of
the operation. 27. Find the correct answer.
(a) screws (b) hammer (a) John washd the cars yesterdae.
(b) John washed the car yesterday.
(c) nails (d) bolts
(c) John washed yesterday the cars.
24. Choose the correct word or phrase
to complete the idiomatic phrase (d) None of the above.
in the question. Just a moment, 28. Arrange the sentence properly
I’ve got the answer on the ____ of and choose the correct option. Are/
my tongue. harmless/to people/most bats
(a) top (b) tap (a) Most bats are harmless to
people.
(c) tip (d) back
(b) Bats are most people harmless.
25. The car in front of our scooter
stopped abruptly.Since we were (c) Harmless to people are most
bats.
not prepared for that, we banged
hard into it!the word abruptly (d) None of the above.
Mock Test-5 E-27
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29 to 31): Complete DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32 to 39):

the sentence using the word or set of Read the passage. Then answer the
words for each blank that best fits the questions below.
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Lilly loves her new town. She loves
29. Jackie is full of ______ and believes the mall. She loves the parks. She also
she can achieve almost any goal loves her school. Most of all, though,
she sets for herself. Lilly loves the seasons. In her old
(a) confidence (b) courage town, it was hot all of the time.
(c) concern (d) comfort Sometimes it is cold in Lilly’s new

town. The cold season is in winter.
30. While Johnny is not ______, he is
Once in a while it snows. Lilly has
not necessarily ______, either.
never seen snow before. So for her,
(a) hungry … tired the snow is exciting as well as very
(b) tall … short beautiful. Lilly has to wear gloves to
(c) smart … intelligent keep her hands warm. She also wears
a scarf around her neck.
(d) fat … thick
In spring, flowers bloom and the trees
31. Although the message was meant turn green with new leaves. Pollen
to be ______, I don’t mind if you falls on the cars and windowsills and
tell it to your friends. makes Lilly sneeze. People work in
(a) special (b) secret their yards and mow their grass.
(c) permanent (d) educational In summer, Lilly wears her old shorts

EBD_7095
E-28 Mock Test-5
and sandals- the same ones she used to 32. Which of the following words best
wear in her old town. It’s hot outside, describes the way Lilly feels about
and dogs lie in the shade. Lilly and living in her new town?
her friends go to a pool or play in the (a) Skeptical, meaning
water sprinkler. Her father cooks questioning or showing doubt
hamburgers on the grill for dinner.
(b) Apprehensive, meaning
Lilly’s favorite season is autumn. anxious or worried
In autumn, the leaves on the trees
(c) Overjoyed, meaning extremely
turn yellow, gold, red, and orange.
happy
Halloween comes in autumn, and
this is Lilly’s favorite holiday. Every (d)
Content, meaning satisfied
Halloween, Lilly wears a costume. with what one is or has
Last year she wore a mouse costume. 33. This passage is mainly about
This year she will wear a fish costume.
(a) Lilly’s favourite season
One evening in autumn, Lilly and her
(b) Lilly and the four seasons
mom are on sitting together on the
(c) Lilly’s favourite activities
porch. Mom tells Lilly that autumn is
during winter
also called “fall”. This is a good idea,
Lilly thinks, because in fall all of the (d) Lilly’s favourite Halloween
leaves fall down from the trees. costumes

Mock Test-5 E-29
34. What is Lilly’s favorite thing (a) The author talks about Lily’s
about her new town? new town, and then talks
about how the seasons are
(a) Her school
changing.
(b) Going to the pool (b) The author introduces Lilly,
(c) The food and then describes her in
relation to the four seasons.
(d) The seasons
(c) The author introduces Lilly,
35. In paragraph 2 the author writes, and then explains why autumn
“She also wears a scarf around is her favourite season.
her neck.” What is the best way (d) The author discusses the four
to rewrite this sentence while seasons, and then describes
keeping its original meaning? which one Lilly likes best.
(a) In addition, she wears a scarf 37. How is Lilly’s new town different
around her neck. from her old town?
(b) However, she wears a scarf I. It snows in her new town.

around her neck. II. Lilly wears different summer
clothes in her new town.
(c) Nevertheless, she wears a
scarf around her neck. III. Lilly wears a Halloween
costume in her new town.
(d) As a result, she wears a scarf
(a) I only
around her neck.
(b) I and II only
36.
Which of the following best
describes the structure of this (c) II and III only
passage? (d) I, II, and III
EBD_7095
E-30 Mock Test-5
38. Based on information in paragraph 40. Use comas to separate items in a
5, which of the following costumes list of three or more. Carlos wants
is Lilly most likely to wear next to visit Paris Italy Germany and
year? China.
(a) A princess costume (a) Carlos wants to visit Paris
(b) A fairy costume -Italy -Germany and China.
(c) A ghost costume (b) Carlos wants to visit Paris,

Italy, Germany, and China.
(d) A bird costume
(c) Carlos wants to visit Paris;
39. Based on information in the
Italy; Germany and China.
passage, we can understand that,
which season has two names? (d) Carlos wants to visit Paris.
Italy. Germany and China.
(a) Spring (b) Summer
(c) Fall (d) Winter

MATHEMATICS
MOCK TEST 1–5
EBD_7095
Mock Test-1 M-1
Mock Test 1
1. Which one of the following 4. Which number is a common factor
numbers should be added to of 42 and 70 ?
563876 such that the sum becomes (a) 14 (b) 10
twice of 986456? (c) 21 (d) 8
(a) 1409063 (b) 1409036 5. Match the following columns.
(c) 1049036 (d) 1400936 Column - I Column - II
2. Find the greatest number that
(A) Cube (1)
divides 57 and 67 leaving 7 as
remainder.
(B) Cone (2)
(a) 3000 (b) 10
(c) 665 (d) 50
3. Which one of the following Roman (C) Cylinder (3)
Numerals is correct for 985 ?
(a) MCLXXXV (b) CMLXXVX (D) Cuboid (4)
(c) CMLXXXV (d) MLCXXXV

EBD_7095
M-2 Mock Test-1
A B C D find how many pickles Anjali put
(a) 3 1 4 2 on each sandwich?
(b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 50 – 10 = 40
(c) 3 4 1 2 (b) 50 × 10 = 500
(d) 4 2 3 1 (c) 50 + 10 = 60
6. Look at the numbers shown below. (d) 50 ¸ 10 = 5

Subtract 2 from the 3rd number 8. Consider the following statements.
from the left. The answer is the Statement 1 : 6.7, 67, 0.67 and
same as the _______ number from 0.067 are unlike decimals.
the right. 5 5 5 5
Statement 2 : , , and are
2 2 9 3
like fractions.
3 8 7 2 5
Now, choose the correct option.
Left Right
(a) Statement 1 is true and 2 is
(a) 1st (b) 2nd
false.
(c) 3rd (d) 4th
(b) Statement 1 is false and 2 is
7. Anjali put 50 pickles on 10 true.
sandwiches. She put the same
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are
number of pickles on each
true.
sandwich. Which of the following
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are
number sentence can be used to
false.

Mock Test-1 M-3
9. What fraction of the figure is 12. Which digit should come in place
unshaded ? of , so that the following addition
is correct ?
8 7 6 5
+ 7 6
9 5 5 1
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 5
(a) Three eighths
13. Guru put a number into the
(b) One quarter
‘START’ box of the sentence below.
(c) One half
– 10 –5 +7
(d) One third = 20
10. Raghu is 21 years old and Kavita START END
is 22 years old. Write the sum of The “END” number was 20. What
their ages in Roman systems. number did Guru put into the
(a) XXXIII (b) XLIII ‘START’ box ?
(c) LIII (d) XLCIII (a) 20 (b) 28
11. The product of place values of two (c) 35 (d) 42

‘9’s in 89091 is _________. 14. Each part on the number line
(a) 81 (b) 81,000 drawn below is of 1 cm. The sum of
AC + DE + GJ is equal to
(c) 8,10,000 (d) None of these

EBD_7095
M-4 Mock Test-1
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
B : Perimeter of rectangle
= length + breadth
A B C D E F G H I J
C : A triangle having two of its
(a) AF (b) BH sides equal is an isosceles
(c) DG (d) FJ triangles.
15. The time 1 hour 28 min after 4 : 15 D : A triangle having all its sides
p.m. is different is an equilateral
triangle.
(a) 3 : 58 p.m. (b) 5 : 30 p.m.
(a) TTFF (b) TFTF
(c) 5 : 43 p.m. (d) 3 : 30 p.m.
(c) TFFT (d) FFTT
16. Vasu is arranging his father’s
books in a new bookshelf which has 18. A B C i s a t r i an gl e. I f ÐABC = 64°
5 shelves. After putting 12 books in and ÐBCA = 78° then ÐBCA is a:
each shelf, he finds that 9 books are (a) Acute angle (b) Obtuse angle
still left outside. How many books (c) Right angle (d) All of these
are there in total ?
19. There are two rods of equal length.
(a) 69 (b) 75 One rod is bent into a square shape.
(c) 21 (d) 108 Length of the one side of the square
17. State which of the following are is 9 cm. Other rod is bent into a
true/False. rectangle shape whose length is
11 cm and breadth is 7. Which
A : Area of square = side × side
encloses more area?

Mock Test-1 M-5
(a) Rectangle 22. Find the perimeter of the shaded
(b) Square part of the given figure.

1 cm
(c) Both are equal
1 cm
(d) All of these
20. I have 6 faces, all of which are

squares of same size. I am ____.
I have _____ vertices ______ edges.
(a) Cuboid, 12, 8 (a) 12 cm (b) 14 cm

(c) 16 cm (d) 18 cm
(b) Cube, 8, 12
23. A _______ is a chord that passes
(c) Sphere, 0, 1
through the centre of the circle.
(d) None of these
(a) radius (b) chord
21. Kamal plans to cover the boundary
(c) centre (d) diameter
of park with tiles. What should
24. Find the missing length of the
Kamal know to make sure he buys
following figure.
enough tiles ? 4 cm
(a) Length of park 5 cm Perimeter
= 23 cm ?
(b) The perimeter of the park
(c) Area of park 8 cm

(a) 6 cm (b) 4 cm
(d) None of these
(c) 2 cm (d) 5 cm
EBD_7095
M-6 Mock Test-1
25. Direction: Given below question (Note: weight = 500 g)
consists of two sets of figures.
Figures A, B, C and D constitute
the problem set. There is a definite
relationship between figures A and (a) 250 g (b) 350 g
B. Find a similar relationship (c) 450 g (d) 500 g
between figures C and D by
27. If 500 g of apples cost ` 50, what is
choosing a suitable figure D.
the cost of 1 kg apples?
Problem set :
(a) ` 75 (b) ` 100
(c) ` 50 (d) ` 95
A B
28. Vessels P and Q contain water as
shown below. The amount of water
in them is marked in millilitres.
?
30 ml
C D 25 ml 200 ml
20 ml 160 ml
15 ml 120 ml
(a) (b) 10 ml 80 ml
5 ml 40 ml
Vessel P Vessel Q
(c) (d) If the water in vessels P and Q is

completely poured into a third
26. The weight of each of the 6 identical
vessel R, how many litres of water
balls is ______.
Mock Test-1 M-7
will there be in vessel R? 31. What scale has been chosen in

making the bar graph ?
(a) 0.12 litre (b) 0.18 litre (a) 1 cm = 1 student
(c) 0.2 litre (d) 20 litres (b) 1 cm = 10 students
29. A bus runs 234 km in 18 litres of (c) 1 cm = 20 students
petrol. Find the distance it will run (d) 1 cm = 30 students
in 45 litres of petrols. 32. How many students participated in

the competition from class IV?
(a) 550 km (b) 575 km (a) 30 (b) 40
(c) 585 km (d) 595 km (c) 50 (d) 60
33. Name the classes from which same
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30 to 33) : In the
number of students participated in
following bar graph students from dif-
the competition ?
ferent classes who participated in a com-
(a) Class I and Class II
petition has been shown.
(b) Class I and Class VI
60
50
(c) Class II and Class III
40
30
20 (d) Class VI and Class V
10
0 34. Complete the pattern given below
in the following questions.
30. How many students participated in
the competition ?
(a) 150 (b) 170
(c) 200 (d) 250 ?

EBD_7095
M-8 Mock Test-1
(a) 34. (b) One box will increase in next
figure.
35. Identify the rule for the given
(b)
pattern in the following question.
3, 6, 12, 24, 48, 96.
(c)
(a) Multiply by 3
(b) Multiply by 2
(d) (c) Multiply by 4

(d) Add 3

Mock Test-2 M-9
Mock Test 2
1 2 (a) 442 (b) 104
1. Sanjay painted of a wall blue,
3 7 (c) 24 (d) 14
green and the rest of it yellow. The
part of the wall painted yellow is 4. Nirmal ride his bike on two days.
He ride a total of 12 kilometres in
13 1
(a) (b) two days. On the first day, Nirmal
21 4
1
3 8 ride 7 kilometres. How many
(c) (d) 2
10 21 kilometres did Nirmal ride on the
2. The decimal form of the number second day?
9 7 5 4
given by + + + is: 1
100000 1000 100 10 (a) 19 kilometres
2
(a) 0.45709 (b) 0.40579
1
(c) 0.90754 (d) 0.97054 (b) 5 kilometres
2
3. The product of two numbers is 476. 1
(c) 4 kilometres
2
If one number is 34, what is the
other number? 1
(d) 3 kilometres
2
EBD_7095
M-10 Mock Test-2
5. A piece of paper is torn. What is the
sum of the numbers in Row 10?
(a) (b)
Row 1 0
Row 2 1 2
Row 3 3 4 5
(c) (d)
Row 4 6 7 8 9
Row 5 10 11 12 13 14
8. How many more boxes must be
Row 6 15 16 17 18 19 20
1
Row 7 21 22 shaded in order to have of the
4
Row 8 figure shaded?
(a) 442 (b) 495

(c) 505 (d) 550
6. On Sports Day, 161 children are in
the school playground. They are
standing in 7 equal rows. How many
children are there in each row?
(a) 22 (b) 23
(c) 25 (d) 52
1 (a) 7 (b) 8
7. Which figure represents th
4 (c) 18 (d) 25
shaded part?

Mock Test-2 M-11
9. The value of (1 + .1 + .01 + .001) is: 12. Match the following.

(a) 1.003 (b) 1.111 Column-I Column-II
(c) 1.011 (d) 1.001 A
10. Amisha makes a figure and divides (A) 45° (1) Right angle
it into some equal parts. Now she B C
shades few parts thus decimal
P
representation for the shaded part
(B) 120° (2) Acute angle
is 0.03. How many parts of the
Q R
figure is unshaded?
(a) 3 (b) 30 M
(c) 97 (d) 7 (C) 90° (3) Straight angle

O N
11. Which square must be shaded so
that the figure has a line of 180°
symmetry? (D) (4) Obtuse angle
R S P
1 A B C D
3 (a) 2 1 4 3
2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
4
(d) 1 3 2 4
(a) 1 (b) 2
13. In the following figure, there are
(c) 3 (d) 4
three equal hexagons whose each

EBD_7095
M-12 Mock Test-2
side is equal. If length of one side is 3 1 cm
cm, find the perimeter of the figure. (a) 1 cm
1 cm
1 cm
(b)
(a) 54 cm (b) 48 cm
(c) 42 cm (d) 36 cm
1 cm
14. The perimetre of the figure as given
below is: (c)
1 cm
7c
m
7c
m 7c
7c 5 cm m
5 cm
5 cm 1 cm
7c 5 cm m
m
7c (d) 1 cm
7c
m
7c
m
(a) 48 cm (b) 56 cm
(c) 50 cm (d) 54 cm
15. Which of the following figures has
1 16. Tina found a triangular flag. She
a perimeter that is of 56 cm? traced the flag on graph paper, as
4
shown.
Mock Test-2 M-13
y
6 cm
10 10 cm
9
(a) (b)
8
Height = ?
7 3 cm
6
8 cm
5
4
3 (c) 2 cm (d) 7 cm
2
1
0 x 4 cm
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
What was the height of the 19. In the diagram, the square and the
triangular flag? rectangle have the same area.
20 cm
(a) 4 units (b) 8 units
(c) 9 units (d) 10 units 25 cm
20 cm
17. Raghu walks around a park every ?
day. How far does he walk in one
round?
66 m Find the breadth of the rectangle.
(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
85 m Park 75 m (c) 15 cm (d) 16 cm
20. Consider the following statements.
102 m Statement 1 : The diameter is the
(a) 198 m (b) 298 m longest chord in a circle.
(c) 228 m (d) 328 m Statement 2 : A polygon made of
18. Which of the following shapes has 4 straight lines is called triangle.
the greatest perimeter? Now, choose the correct option.
EBD_7095
M-14 Mock Test-2
(a) Statement 1 is true and 2 is 23. Sumanth born in 1976. How old
false. was he in 1993?
(b) Statement 1 is false and 2 is
(a) 20 yrs (b) 17 yrs
true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are (c) 18 yrs (d) 19 yrs
true. 24. Consider the following statements.
A: V, L and D can be repeated
false.
and subtracted.
21. The number of grams in one and
half kilogram are _________. B: Adding 1 to a number gives
(a) 1000 (b) 1050 its predecessor.
(c) 1500 (d) 1005
C: A fraction is in its simplest
22. In how many different ways can we
form, if numerator and
combine the weights shown here to
add upto 2 kg? denominator do not have any
common factor other than 1.
D: A number having only two
1 kg 500 g 500 g
factors, 1 and the number
itself, is called prime number.
250 g 250 g 100 g 100 g (a) TTFF (b) FFTT
(c) TFTF (d) TFFT
50 g
25. Find the dividend, when divisor =
(a) 2 ways (b) 3 ways 23, quotient = 35 and remainder

(c) 4 ways (d) 5 ways = 21.
Mock Test-2 M-15
(a) 518 (b) 826 (a) 45 cm (b) 30 cm

(c) 60 cm (d) 105 cm
(c) 805 (d) 483
DIRECTIONS (28 to 30): Study the
26. How much does the cost?
graph and answer the questions that
+ + = ` 720
follows.
+ + = ` 960
(a) ` 100 (b) ` 320
Rohan
(c) ` 200 (d) ` 240
Samrat
27. The given bar graph shows the
Aman
height of five children. What is the
Raj
difference between the height of
the tallest child and the shortest 0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35
child?
28. _________ has 5 toy cars more than
Samrat.
105
(a) Raj (b) Rohan
Height (in cm)
90
75 (c) Aman (d) None of these
60
45 29. _________ has 2 times as many toy
30 cars as Raj.
15
(a) Aman (b) Rohan
0 Pratik George Mohit John Amit
(c) Samrat (d) None of these

EBD_7095
M-16 Mock Test-2
30. The four boys have _________ toy 33. Riya is 17th from the front in a
cars altogether. queue. She is 19th from the end.
Then how many students are there
(a) 95 (b) 100
in a queue?
(c) 105 (d) 110
(a) 35 (b) 36
31. Find the odd one out.
(c) 7 (d) 20
34. Find the missing number in
(a) (b) Fig. (X).
64
8
40 5 8 ? 56
(c) (d) 4
32
32. In its first year of business, a Figure X
company had 5 employees. In its
(a) 5 (b) 6
second year, there were 25
(c) 7 (d) 8
employees, and in its third year,
there were 125 employees. If the 35. If the pattern continues, what is
pattern continues, how many the next number ?
employees will the company has in 5, 8, 7, 10, 9, 12, 11, ____
fourth year.
(a) 14 (b) 12
(a) 250 (b) 625
(c) 10 (d) 8
(c) 3,125 (d) 15,625

Mock Test-3 M-17
Mock Test 3
1. 3 × 0.0001 + 4 × 0.001 + 7 × 0.01 + (a) X (b) V
9 × 0.1 + 7 × 1 (c) L (d) C
= ________? 4. Find the value of
(a) 34.797 (b) 7.9743 7432 – 2684 ¸ 4 × 3 + 3261
(c) 0.34797 (d) 3.4797 (a) 7432 (b) 7655
2. Which one of the following numbers (c) 8680 (d) 10916
should be inserted in the blank box
5. 6 + 6 + 6 + .... 695 times = ?
in the following pyramid ?
(a) 4170 (b) 4200
200 (c) 4270 (d) 4110
80 120 6. Which digit should come in place
of , so that following
30 ? 70
multiplication is correct ?
10 20 30 40
4 8
(a) 154 (b) 85
´ 8
(c) 26 (d) 50
3 9 8 4
3. Which one of the following symbols
should be inserted between L and (a) 1 (b) 5
I in the Roman numeral XLIII such
(c) 7 (d) 9
that it can represent 48?
EBD_7095
M-18 Mock Test-3
7. When Rahul multiplies A by 59, (c) Three - thousandth
the product he gets 322376. Find (d) Three-ten thousandth
the value of A.
10. Which one of the following is the
(a) 5406 (b) 4123 equivalent decimal of 623.523?
(c) 3214 (d) 5464 (a) 623.52300 (b) 623.5023
8. Match the following columns : (c) 62.3523 (d) 0.623523
Column - I Column - II 11. Sum of 2 hrs 45 min. 23 sec and
7 3 hrs 35 min. 53 sec. is
2 7 1
(A) 6 - -2 (1) 2
3 9 6 8 (a) 6 hrs 20 min. 16 sec.
(b) 6 hrs 21 min. 16 sec.
5 1 5 3
(B) - + (2) 3 (c) 5 hrs 82 min. 75 sec.
8 4 2 4
(d) 5 hrs 21 min. 16 sec.
2 2 5 13 12. The fraction represented by shaded
(C) 3 + 4 - 2 (3) 3
3 3 6 18 region in the following figure is
equivalent to:
3 1 1 1
(D) 2 +4 -3 (4) 5
4 2 2 2
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4 (a) (b)
(d) 3 4 1 2
9. Which one of the following is true
for 0.003?
(c) (d)
(a) Three - tenth
(b) Three - hundredth
Mock Test-3 M-19
13. Which of the following is not true ? Find the missing digit if it has 11
(a) 0.4 + 0.4 + 0.4 = 1.2 and 13 as factors.
(b) 2.1 – 1.11 = 0.99 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 0.7 + 0.7 + 0.7 + 0.7 = 4 × 0.7 (c) 6 (d) 8
(d) 0.36 – 0.6 = 0.30 17. Which of the following statements
14. The diagram shows a straight line is true/false?
KLMN. A : A line segment joining any two
points on the circle is chord of
7.5 cm the circle.
3.3 cm
B : A ray has a fixed length.
K L M N C : The diameter passes through

the centre of the circle.
8.4 cm
D : Two radii of a circle are of
What is the distance between different length.
points K and N? Now, choose the correct option.
(a) 11.7 cm (b) 12.6 cm (a) TTFF (b) TFTF
(c) 15.9 cm (d) 19.2 cm (c) TFFT (d) FFTT
15. Write the least 2-digit number that 18. The perimeters of square A and
has 2, 5 and 8 as factors. rectangle B are equal. Find the
(a) 80 (b) 40 sides of square A.
(c) 16 (d) 10
16. Ravi wrote two digits of a 3 - digit A B 4 cm
number on the blackboard as 8 cm
shown below. (a) 6 cm (b) 8 cm
1 ? 3 (c) 32 cm (d) 36 cm

EBD_7095
M-20 Mock Test-3
19. Name the angle which measures 23. In the following figure BCDE is a
between 0° and 90°. square and ABE is an equilateral
(a) Acute angle triangle. Find the perimeter of the
figure given below:
(b) Obtuse angle
(c) Right angle
A
(d) Straight angle
20. Which kind of triangle is given
below?
A
B E
3.2 cm 3.2 cm
B C
3 cm C 5 cm D
(a) Equilateral triangle
(b) Isosceles triangle (a) 20 cm (b) 22 cm
(c) Scalene triangle (c) 24 cm (d) 25 cm
(d) Irregular triangle 24. Mr. Gupta travelled 75 km 800 m
21. Which of the following is an even by car and 1800 km 40 m by air.
prime number? What distance did he travel in all ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1875 km 840 m
(c) 4 (d) 5 (b) 1675 km
22. Which of the following is greatest ? (c) 175800 km
(a) 0.106 (b) 0.9 (d) 255840 km
(c) 0.23 (d) 0.09

Mock Test-3 M-21
25. The following is the bill of clothes chips, 1 pizza and 2 juices. How
Mr. Verma bought from a shop. much he has to pay?
(a) ` 750 (b) ` 700
Shirt ` 720
Pant ` 950 (c) ` 770 (d) ` 720
Tie ` 250 28. For buying 5 cups of tea and 1
pizza, Rohit should carry __.
If he paid ` 20, how much will he
get back ? (a) ` 770 (b) ` 550
(a) ` 280 (b) ` 180 (c) ` 700 (d) ` 560
(c) ` 80 (d) ` 270 29. Consider the following statements.
Statement 1 : The product of the
DIRECTIONS (26-28): Read the menu numbers does not change even if
of a famous hotel and answer the order of numbers is changed.
following questions.
Statement 2 : 1 is smallest prime
number.
Menu
Item Cost (`) Item Cost (`) Now, choose the correct option.
Soup 300 Chips 100 (a) Statement 1 is false and 2 is
Juice 100 Coffee 150 true.
Pizza 370 Tea 80 (b) Statement 1 is true and 2 is
Cutlet 500 Water bottle 50 false.
(c) Both statement 1 and 2 are
26. If Sonia bought 2 soups, how much
true.
she has to pay ?
(a) ` 300 (b) ` 420
false.
(c) ` 600 (d) ` 700
30. How many minutes should be
27. Rohan has given a party to two of added to the time shown by the
his friends. He bought 2 packet of clock to make it quarter past four ?

EBD_7095
M-22 Mock Test-3
32. The figure X given below is
11 12 1 incomplete. Which figure given in
10 2 options is required to complete the
9 3 figure?
8 4
7 5
6
(a) 10 minutes (b) 15 minutes

(c) 25 minutes (d) 30 minutes
31. Complete the pattern in the given
figure by selecting one of the
figures from the four alternatives.
Fig. X
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
33. Saurav is building a pyramid. He
uses 9 blocks in the first row, 7
blocks in the second row, and 5
blocks in the third row. If the
(c) (d) pattern continues, how many
blocks will he use in the fifth row ?

Mock Test-3 M-23
35. Find the area of shaded part in the

figure below.
1 cm
(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) 1
5
4
3
2
1
(a) 21 cm2
34. If + + = 120 and
(b) 25 cm2
× = 100, then – = (c) 26 cm2
(d) 29 cm2
?
(a) 15 (b) 110

(c) 45 (d) 65

EBD_7095
M-24 Mock Test-4
Mock Test 4
1. Arrange the following numerals in (a) 5 (b) 9
descending order: (c) 1 (d) 7
LXIV, LXVI, CLI, CXXXVII 3. A + B + 45896 = C + D. If C + D
(a) LXIV, CLI, LXVICXXXVII = 96023 + B. Find the value of A.
(b) LXIV, LXVI, CLI, CXXXVII (a) 50120 (b) 50127
(c) CLI, LXVI, CXXXVII, LXIV (c) 30127 (d) 20127
(d) CLI, CXXXVII, LXVI, LXIV 4. In a magic box if you put a number
2. The successor of a number is one then the number is first added by
more than the number and the 16 and reduced by 10 and then
predecessor is one less than the again it is reduced by 2 and added
number. Which one of the following by 15. If Sameer puts 24 into the
digits does not occur in the box what will be the result?
difference between the successor of (a) 43 (b) 33
67854398 and the predecessor of (c) 45 (d) 46
54677456 ?
Mock Test-4 M-25
5. If A is divided by B, then quotient parts. Find the correct expression

is C and remainder is D then find for the shaded part.
which one of the following is
1 10
correct? (a) (b)
100 100
(a) A = B × C × D 30
3
(c) (d) 100
(b) A < B × C + D 100
(c) D < B 8. How many parts should be shaded
(d) A = B × C + D in the figure (ii) such that fractional

representation of the shaded part
6. How many parts of the following becomes equivalent to the shaded
figure would you like to shade such part of figure (i) ?
that shaded part of the figure can
represents unit fraction ?
Figure (i)
(a) One part (b) Two parts

(c) Three parts (d) Four parts Figure (ii)
7. John makes a rectangular figure (a) 7 parts (b) 14 parts
and divides it into 100 equal parts.
(c) 21 parts (d) All the parts
He shaded 3 parts out of every 10

EBD_7095
M-26 Mock Test-4
9. What should be placed in the empty Now, choose the correct option
space so that the sum of the fraction
(a) TFTF (b) TFFT
on each side of the triangle is
same? (c) TTFF (d) FFTT
1 11. What is the fraction used to
15
represent the shaded parts ?
? 5
15
2 4 5 +
15 15 15
7 9 2 3 1 3
(a) (b) (a) + (b) +
15 15 4 4 4 4
6 8 3 3 1 1
(c) (d) (c) + (d) +
15 15 4 4 4 4
10. Consider the following statements ? DIRECTIONS (12 & 13): In an

(A) V, L, D are never subtracted aquarium there are 4 sea shells, 5 gold
while writing roman numerals fishes and 1 star fish.
(B) Symbol I can be subtracted 12. Which fraction represents the gold
from V and X only once fish ?
(C) X cannot be subtracted from L 5 1

(a) (b)
10 10
(D) [X can be repeated maximum 2
4 3
times] (c) (d)
10 10

Mock Test-4 M-27
13. Which of the following statements (c) Week 2, Week 1, Week 3

about gold fish is true ? (d) Week 3, Week 1, Week 2
(a) Half of the fish in aquarium are 15. Which digit should come in place
gold fish. of , so that the following
subtraction is correct ?
(b) More than half of the fish in
5 6 3 8
aquarium are gold fish.
- 2 1 9
(c) None of the fish is gold fish
3 4 4 9
(d) All fishes are gold fish
(a) 7 (b) 8
14. The given table shows the number
of buttons that were made at a (c) 6 (d) 5
button factory each week for three 16. Match the following columns.
weeks. Which of the following Column -I Column-II
shows correct order of the week
(A) Area of a (1) 14 cm
with the greatest number of
buttons made to the week with the
least number of buttons made? 4 cm
square
Buttons Made
Week Number of Buttons
Week 1 84,503 (B) Perimeter of (2) 24 cm2
Week 2 80,968 rectangle
Week 3 84,551
5 cm
(a) Week 1, Week 3, Week 2 2 cm
(b) Week 2, Week 3, Week 1

EBD_7095
M-28 Mock Test-4
(C) Area of rectangle (3) 10 cm
6 cm
4 cm
(D) Perimeter of (4) 16 cm2 Geeta and her friends ate 9 pieces
of the cake. Which fraction
2.5 cm
represents the amount of the
square
original cake that was left?
3 3
(a) (b)
A B C D 12 9
(a) 4 2 1 3 6 9
(c) (d)
(b) 2 4 3 1 9 12
(c) 4 1 2 3 19. Which of the following figures
(d) 2 3 4 1 correctly shows a line of symmetry ?
17. Which number should come in
place of ?
(a)
1 2 3
+ + =1
7 7 7 7
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 7
(b)
18. The cake given in the picture is cut
into 12 equal-sized pieces.

Mock Test-4 M-29
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
22. The following figure is an isosceles

triangle. Why ?
(d) A
20. Which type of angle best describes 3.2 cm 3.2 cm

angle Q.
Q
B C
3 cm
(a) Because it has two equal sides
(b) Because it has two different
(a) Obtuse (b) Acute
angles
(c) Right (d) Straight
(c) Because AB is greater than BC
21. Varun made a shape by folding the
(d) All of these
given cardboard. Which shape did
Varun make ? 23. Consider the following statements.
Statement 1 : Triangles have
only three angles wh ereas
quadrilateral has four angles

EBD_7095
M-30 Mock Test-4
Statement 2 : Sum of angles of a (b) ÐX is an acute angle whereas
triangle is 360°. ÐZ is an obtuse angle
(a) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true. (c) ÐX is an obtuse angle whereas
ÐZ is an acute angle
(b) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false.
(d) Both ÐX and ÐZ are obtuse
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
angles
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
26. AB and AC are two radii of a circle.
24. A farm land which is 350 m long Which one of the following is not
and 150 m wide is divided into four true?
equals and different types of crop
(a) length of the diametre of the
is grown in each part. Find the
circle is equal to the sum of AB
perimeter of each part.
and AC
(a) 500 m (b) 450 m
(b) BC is the diametre of the circle
(c) 540 m (d) 660 m
(c) A is the centre of the circle
25. Look at the following picture.
X (d) AB and AC are equal in length
27. The greatest number that divide 42
and 67 leaving 7 as remainder is
(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 10 (d) 6
Y Z 28. Simplify : 42 ¸ 7 × 5 + 4 – 9
Which one of the following is
(a) 30 (b) 34
correct ?
(c) 25 (d) 45
(a) Both ÐX and ÐZ are acute angles
Mock Test-4 M-31
29. If the length of rope needed to make If the water in vessels P and Q is
border X is 14 cm, find the length completely poured into a third
of rope needed for border Y. vessel R, how many litres of water
will there be in vessel R?
(a) 0.02 litre (b) 0.18 litre
(c) 0.27 litre (d) 20 litres
31. Sridhar is trying to find a long
Border X straight branch to break into three
equal places to use as cricket
stumps. A branch of which of these
lengths would be most suitable for
Sridhar to use?
(a) 210 cm (b) 210 mm
Border Y
(c) 21 cm (d) 21 m
(a) 16 cm (b) 20 cm 32. Mary went to vegetable market to
(c) 22 cm (d) 24 cm purchase some vegetables. She
purchased 2 kg of potato at the rate
30. Vessels P and Q contain water of ` 10.5 per kg, 3 kg onion at the
shown below. The amount of water rate of ` 25.50 per kg, 1 kg tomato at
in them is marked in millilitres. the rate of ` 34.75 per kg. Find the
amount she had spend on marketing.
30 ml
25 ml 250 ml
20 ml (a) ` 132.25 (b) ` 101.75
200 ml
15 ml 150 ml
10 ml 100 ml
(c) ` 125.75 (d) ` 105.75
5 ml 50 ml
33. Given map is showing the
Vessel P Vessel Q
distances between Rehaan’s house,

EBD_7095
M-32 Mock Test-4
his school and shopping mall. house is shorter than the
Which of the following statement
is CORRECT ? distance between his school and
the shopping mall.
34. Veena wanted to take the bus at 5 :

1 km 60 m
House 10 p.m. She arrived at the bus stop
School
3k
5m
25 minutes before 5 : 10 p.m. What
m5
m5
35
time did Veena arrive at the bus

2k
m
stop ?
Shopping mall (a) 5 : 35 p.m. (b) 4 : 45 p.m.
(c) 4 : 40 p.m. (d) 4 : 25 p.m.

(a) The distance between Rehaan’s
house and his school is 1600 m. 35. The value of 5 + 5.01 + 51.051
(b) The distance between Rehaan’s + 515.515 is

house and his school is greater (a) 576.567 (b) 567.567
than the distance between his
(c) 576.576 (d) 567.576
school and the shopping mall.
36. The date on 10th day from today will
(c) The distance between the
be 28th of February. Find the date
shopping mall and Rehaan’s
before 6 days from today.
house is 3535 m.
(a) 10th Feb (b) 12th Feb
(d) The distance between the
shopping mall and Rehaan’s (c) 13th Feb (d) 15th Feb

Mock Test-4 M-33
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 37 & 38): Refer 38. Which of the following is the
given table and pictograph which show correct representation of the
the number of Government employees number of employees in Mumbai ?
in some towns.
(a)
Name of Town Number of Govt. Employees (b)
Delhi 4200
Mumbai 5400
(c)
Chennai 3000
(d)
DIRECTION (Q. 39) : Find the figure

Name of Town Number of Govt. Employees
from the alternative which will continue
Delhi the series given in the problem set.
Chennai
39.
Problem Set
37. How many employees

represent ?
(a) 500 (b) 600 I II III
(c) 700 (d) 800
IV V

EBD_7095
M-34 Mock Test-4
40.
(a)
(b) is same as ________.

(a) 121221222
(b) 121121112
(c)
(c) 1221112222111122222
(d) None of these
(d)

Mock Test-5 M-35
Mock Test 5
1. Three-fifth of 15 is denominator divisible by 2.
and two-fourth of 16 is numerator (a) 1 (b) 2
of a fraction. Find the fraction.
(c) 3 (d) 4
8 8
(a) (b) 5. The expanded form of 987.564 is:
7 9
(a) 9 × 100 + 8 × 100 + 7
9 9
(c) (d) 5 6 4
8 16 + + +
10 100 1000
2. Sum of all the factors of a prime
number is (b) 9 × 100 + 8 × 10 + 7
(a) 1 more than the prime number 5 6 4
+ + +
(b) 1 less than the prime number 10 100 10000
(c) Equal to the prime number (c) 9 × 100 + 8 × 10

(d) All of these 5 6 4
+7+ + +
3. If 3x means 1 × 2 × 3, thus 3x = 6 10 100 1000
and if 4x means 1 × 2 × 3 × 4, thus
4x = 24 then 6x is equal to: 5 6 4
(d) 9 × 100 + 8 + + +
10 1000 10000
(a) 120 (b) 384
6. Which is the smallest?
(c) 720 (d) 1008
(a) 27.027 (b) 207.27
4. The smallest number that should
be added to 4321 to get a number (c) 270.27 (d) 27.27
EBD_7095
M-36 Mock Test-5
1 2 3 4 Runs
, , , in Batsman Caught and bowled Balls
7. Arrange the fractions score
2 5 4 7 d
V. Sehwag C. Hayden B. Bracken 0 2
ascending order.
Sachin C. Christ B. Bracken 100 119
1 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 V.V.S Laxman Runout 102 133

(a) < < < (b) < < <
2 5 4 7 5 2 7 4 Yuvaraj C. Symonds B. Bracken 44 33
Agarkar C. Symonds B. Bracken 22 10
4 2 3 1 1 4 3 2
(c) < < < (d) < < < Kaif Not Out 1 1
7 5 4 2 2 7 4 5
Extras 15
8. Which one of the following is a Total 284/5 in 50 overs 284
greatest? 11. Who was the top scorer in the
3 11 Indian batting line up?
(a) 4 (b) (a) Sachin Tendulkar
11 35
(b) V.V.S Laxman
7 3 (c) Yuvaraj Singh
(c) (d) (d) Ajit Agarkar
4 9
12. What was the total number of balls
9. Solve the following question and faced by Sachin, Laxman, Yuvaraj
write the result in Roman and Agarkar?
Numerals: 55 ¸ 11 × 17 – 78 + 32. (a) 246 (b) 275
(a) XXX (b) XXVII (c) 295 (d) 300
(c) XXXVIII (d) XXXIX 13. Consider the following statements.
10. The value of 0.6 +7.09 – 3.0 02 is Statement 1: There are 300 tens
(a) 4.13 (b) 3.95 in 3 hundreds.
Statement 2 : Face value of a digit
(c) 4.688 (d) 4.67
in a number is the digit it self.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 & 12): This is Now, choose the correct option.
the score card of a cricket match between (a) Statement 1 is true and 2 is
India and Australia. Study it carefully false.
and answer questions. (b) Statement 1 is false and 2 is
true.

Mock Test-5 M-37
(c) Both statements are true. (a) prime

(d) Both statements are false. (b) co-prime
14. If the cost of 1 packet of TIGER (c) composite
biscuits is ` 5, how many packets (d) twin prime
can I get for ` 30 with the FREE 17. The product of even numbers
OFFER shown here? between 1 and 9 is
(a) 386 (b) 380
(c) 382 (d) 384
18. Find the angles from the options
given below which represents a
free! free! free!
quadrilateral.
with every 2 packets
of TIGER biscuits, (a) (80°, 150°, 90°, 70°)
get 1 packet absolutely (b) (80°, 150°, 60°, 80°)
free (c) (70°, 160°, 50°, 90°)
(d) (90°, 120°, 80°, 70°)
19. Match the following columns.
(a) 6 (b) 9 Column -I Column-II
(c) 10 (d) 12 9 5 4
A. – 1. 1
15. Each letter A to F stands for the 14 14 35
given digits respectively: 2 5 5
B. + 2. 4
5 7 7
1 3 4 6 8 9
2 2
C. 5– 3.
Then, the value of (F × B) = ? 7 7
(a) (C × D) + E 3 3
(b) (C × C) + F D. 3+ 4. 3
7 7
(c) (C × D) + B A B C D
(d) D × E
(a) 1 3 4 2
16. Two numbers which have no other
(b) 3 1 2 4
common factor except 1 are called
_________ numbers. (c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
EBD_7095
M-38 Mock Test-5
20. The number of vertices of a cuboid (a) 270 m
is (b) 230 m
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 540 m
(c) 12 (d) 18 (d) None of these
21. The value of 22222 – 2222 + 222 – 26. Priya wants to visit her daughter
22 + 2 is living in New York in a hostel which
(a) 20220 (b) 22022 is 345 km 255 m from her residence.
(c) 20202 (d) 22020 Due to some work she will have to
22. In which of the following figures first visit her sister who is living at
dotted lines shows a line of a distance of 69 km from her
symmetry? residence and then she will go to see
her daughter. If New York is at a
R
S
distance of 389 km 540 m from her
P Q sister’s residence then find the extra
distance she will have to travel.
(a) P (b) Q (a) 112 km 265 m
(c) R (d) S (b) 145 km 772 m
23. Which of the following set has (c) 113 km 285 m
equivalent fractions? (d) 172 km 228 m
1 1 1 1 2 3 4 5
27. Arrange the boxes in order,
(a) , , , (b) , , , beginning from the heaviest to
2 3 4 5 7 7 7 7
lightest.
2 8 6 4
(c) , , , (d) None of these Q
3 12 9 6 P R S
24. The smallest 5-digit number formed 0 0 0 0
1000 (g) 200
by using the digits 2, 0, 3, 6, 5 is (g)
900
(g)
300 300
(g)
100
(a) 0 2 3 5 6 800
600
70 40 600 200
(b) 2 0 3 5 6
(c) 3 0 2 5 6 (a) P, Q, R, S (b) Q, R, S, P
(d) 6 5 3 2 0 (c) R, P, S, Q (d) S, Q, R, P
25. A playground which is 250 m long 28. The capacity of a small container is
and 20 m broad is to be fenced with 380 mL and the capacity of a big
wire. How much wire is needed? container is 1250 mL. If Aakash
Mock Test-5 M-39
uses 8 small containers and 1 big 32. The number of weeks in 147 days
container of water to fill up an are
empty tank, then what is the (a) 27 (b) 21
capacity of the tank? (c) 23 (d) 22
(a) 3750 ml (b) 4290 ml 33. How many days are there in
(c) 3040 ml (d) 4190 ml February 2003?
29. Which of the following figure has (a) 27 (b) 28
exactly 3 lines of symmetry? (c) 29 (d) 30
(a) (b) 34.
What is the time shown on the

digital clock?
(a) A quarter past one in the
(c) (d) afternoon.
(b) A quarter to one in the afternoon.
30. Five day before today was Sunday, (c) One fifty in the afternoon.
then what will be the day after 7 (d) One fifteen in the morning.
day from today? 35. Pandu, Ravi, Bijji and Raghu are
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday friends. They all collect toy cars.
(c) Thursday (d) Friday This graph shows how many toy
31. Find the difference in the time of two cars each of them have.
clocks as shown below in seconds.
11 12 1 11 12 1 Pandu
10 2 10 2
Ravi
9 3 9 3
8 4 8 4 Bijji
7 5 7 5
6 6
Raghu
(a) 620 sec (b) 580 sec
(c) 600 sec (d) 590 sec
10 20 30 40
EBD_7095
M-40 Mock Test-5
What can we conclude from the 38. Find the missing term from the
above graph? figure shown below:
(a) Bijji has one-third the number
of cars Pandu has. 5 14
(b) Three children have more than 4 15
20 210
20 cars.
(c) Ravi has twice as many cars as 110 ?
Bijji. 10 19
(d) Bijji has 1 car less than Raghu. 11 13
36. If 3# represents 3 + 2 + 1 and 3*
(a) 227 (b) 236
represents 3 – 2 1 then the value of
(c) 247 (d) 249
(6#) × (4*) is
39. The product of XXIX and XXXI is
(a) 42 (b) 32
(a) 651 (b) 899
(c) 21 (d) 2
(c) 989 (d) 1131
37. Find the missing term from the
40. Consider the following statements.
figure shown below:
A : A number having more than
two factors is a composite
61 110 number
85 146 222 112 B : A number having only 1 factor
is a prine number
? 328 113
423 C : Two numbers subtracted in any
517 215 order gives same difference.
D : 0 multipliedf to a number gives
(a) 940 (b) 222 0.
(c) 945 (d) 228 (a) TTFF (b) TFFT
(c) TFTF (d) FFTT

SCIENCE
MOCK TEST 1–5
EBD_7095
Mock Test-1 S-1
Mock Test 1
1. Which of the following is a (a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
characteristics of all living things? (b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(a) Reproduce (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) Have a brain (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) Exchanges gases
4. During photosynthesis, plants use
(d) Both (a) & (c) ______ gas and release ______ gas.
2. Which of the following would be
(a) carbon dioxide, oxygen
classified as ‘living’?
(b) oxygen, carbon dioxide
(a) Volcano (b) Cloud
(c) oxygen, nitrogen
(c) Virus (d) Bacteria
(d) nitrogen, oxygen
3. Match the following and select the
correct answer. 5. Which of the following is
List-I List-II ectoparasite ?
A. Ginger 1. Leaf (a) Roundworm
B. Radish 2. Seed (b) Tapworm
C. Spinach 3. Root (c) Hookworm
D. Rice 4. Stem (d) Leech

EBD_7095
S-2 Mock Test-1
6. Match the animals given in table 9. Match the internal organs shown
‘A’ to their young ones given in in the figure with their respective
table ‘B’. names.
A B P Q R S
A. Butterfly 1. Fry
B. Frog 2. Nymph
C. Fish 3. Larva
D. Cockroach 4. Tadpole
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (a) P- Heart, Q-Lungs, R-Kidney,
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 S-Stomach
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) P-Lungs, Q-Kidney, R-Stomach,
7. Which of the following life cycles is S-Heart
correct?
(c) P-Heart, Q-Lungs, R-Stomach,
(a) Baby ® teenager ® child ® adult
S-Kidney
(b) Seed ® flower ® plant ® fruit
(c) Cocoon ® larva ® egg ® adult (d) P-Heart, Q-Kidney, R-Lungs, S-
(d) Egg ®caterpillar®pupa®butterfly Stomach
8. Which of the following correctly 10. Mr. Kim touches a hot metal and
represents the passage of oxygen spontaneously withdraws his hand
in the respiratory system? from the metal. Why does he react
(a) Nose ® Lungs ® Windpipe ®Blood spontaneously?
(b) Nose ® Blood ® Windpipe ®Lungs (a) He wants to maintain the
(c) Nose ® Blood ® Lungs ®Wind pipe temperature of his hand
(d) Nose ® Windpipe ® Lungs ®Blood (b) He is shocked by the hot metal

Mock Test-1 S-3
(c) His body has a system that 14. The teeth that are well developed
responds to the high temperature in carnivores are:
(d) He is under pressure (a) incisors (b) canines
11. Which of the following food (c) premolars (d) molars
components are needed in small 15. This picture shows:
quantities? (a) a canine tooth
(a) Proteins (b) an incisor tooth
(b) Vitamins (c) a premolar tooth
(c) Fats (d) a molar tooth
(d) Carbohydrates 16. Which gas is responsible for the
12. How does digestion take place in the Global warming ?:
small intestine?
(a) Methane
(a) By crushing of food
(b) By the release of juices (b) Nitrogen
(c) By cutting of food (c) Carbon dioxide
(d) By heating and boiling (d) Oxygen
13. A runner participating in a race
17. By recycling:
takes some glucose just before the
race begins. This means that (a) we can make useful things from
glucose: waste materials
(a) makes running easier (b) we can save natural resources
(b) builds muscles instantly
(c) we can control pollution
(c) gives energy instantly
(d) all of these
(d) stops sweating of the body

EBD_7095
S-4 Mock Test-1
18. Observe the chart given below. (a) more light enters the house
(b) to facilitate cross ventilation
(c) to move easily
Plastic Organic matter
(d) to have good view of
Separate
your surroundings
waste
21. Which of the following statements
Paper Glass & metal
are correct?
Which of these cannot be recycled? (a) The condition of the atmosphere
(a) Plastic is known as weather
(b) Paper (b) Average weather conditions at
(c) Glass & metal
a place are known as climate
(d) Organic matter
(c) When a particular weather
continues for months, it is a
is not true?
season
(a) Igloos are found in places where
it rains throughout the year (d) All of these
(b) Tents protect nomads from heat 22. In which place would the weather
and dust storm remain almost the same whole
(c) Animals and birds also have year?
shelters (a) On a hill station
(d) Sheds and stables must be kept (b) Near the coast
clean every day
(c) Near a desert
20. The windows should be in opposite
(d) Near a river
direction to the door so that:

Mock Test-1 S-5
23. Deforestation will cause: 26. Which of the following conversions

i. soil erosion is correct?
ii. depletion of water catchment (a) Water ¾¾¾heat Steam
↑ Ice
heat
↑ ¾¾¾
areas
(b) Steam ¾¾¾ cool
↑ Water ¾¾¾
cool
↑ Ice
iii. global warming
(c) Water ¾¾¾ cool
↑ Ice ¾¾¾
cool
↑ Steam
(a) i and ii only (b) i and iii only
(c) ii and iii only (d) i, ii and iii (d) Steam ¾¾¾ heat
↑ Ice ¾¾¾
cool
↑ Water
24. Most of the metals are found: 27. A football kicked by a boy rolls on
(a) in the wood of trees the ground to some distance and
(b) on the top of mountains stops. The force which stops the
(c) deep inside the earth ball is:
(d) dissolved in water
(a) muscular force
25. Different amounts of air with
(b) gravitational force
different pressures are in balloons
of the same material and size. (c) mechanical force
Which of them will be the easiest (d) frictional force
to prick? 28. The following diagram shows a boy
pushing a table. The boy is
applying ______ on the table.
(a) work
(a) (b)
(b) force
(c) energy
(d) muscles
29. Manoj wants to find out how hot or
(c) (d) cold a glass of milk is. He should
use a ______ to check.

EBD_7095
S-6 Mock Test-1
(a) metre rod 33. Which of the following order of
(b) weighing machine development of technology in
(c) stop watch communication is correct?
(d) thermometer (a) Telephone ® Telegraph ®
30. The nearest star to the earth is Smoke signal
(a) Sirius (b) Telegraph ® Smoke signal ®
(b) Alpha Century Telephone
(c) Moon (c) Smoke signal ® Telegraph ®
(d) Pole Star Telephone
31. Which of the following does not (d) Smoke signal ® Telephone ®
represent advances in Telegraph
communication technology? 34. Which of the following statements
(a) Cell phone is NOT correct?
(a) Days and nights are caused due
(b) Computer
to the rotation of earth
(c) DTH (Direct to Home) dish
(b) The moon is not visible on all
antenna
nights
(d) A microwave oven
(c) Earth takes 365 days to
32. Which of the following is a
complete one revolution
disadvantage caused by
(d) Moon takes 365 earth days to
development of technology?
complete one revolution around
(a) Technology saves time
the sun
(b) Work can be easily done by
35. Mercury can be seen only in the
technology
morning and evening because:
(c) Technology improves quality of
(a) it is very close to the sun
life
(b) it is very small
(d) Technology has resulted in
(c) it is very hot
increasing atmospheric pollution. (d) it does not have any light of its own
Mock Test-1 S-7
36. Which of the following animals 39. The excretory system works to
breathe through the gills? remove wastes from the body. The
(a) Tadpole (b) Fish body produces liquid, solid and
(c) Both a & b (d) Crab gaseous wastes. Which organ is
37. We call an animal that hunts for responsible for eliminating liquid
its food as a: waste?
(a) carnivore (b) consumer (a) Lungs
(c) predator (d) scavenger (b) Heart
38. Which of the following activities is (c) Kidneys
an example of telecommunication? (d) Small intestine
(a) Using the internet to send 40. At which age, 90% of weight of
messages brain is achieved?
(b) Playing computer games (a) 2 years (b) 4 years
(c) Typing on a computer (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
(d) Listening to songs

EBD_7095
S-8 Mock Test-2
Mock Test 2
1. Which of the following describes 3. When clothes dry in air which of the
living things? following process takes place ?
(a) Rocks are living things (a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(b) Living things do not need air
(c) Boiling
(c) Living things do not grow
(d) Melting
(d) Living things respond to their 4. Which of the following animals
environment make their own shelter?
2. What did you find out when you (a) Pigeon (b) Tiger
planted rocks and seeds? (c) Lion (d) Cuckoo
(a) When we planted rocks and 5. In radish, food is stored in:
(a) leaves (b) stem
seeds, only the seeds grew
(c) roots (d) flowers
(b) When we planted rocks and
6. Cactus is a desert plan t. To
seeds both rocks and seeds grew minimise loss of water it does not
(c) Rocks need sunlight to grow have leaves. The stem is green and
(d) When we planted rocks and waxy and prepares food for the
seeds, only the rocks grew plant. This shows that:

Mock Test-2 S-9
(a) habitat changes according to reproduce by laying eggs?

plants (a) I and III only
(b) plants modify according to (b) I and IV only
habitats (c) II and IV only
(c) cactus is insectivorous in (d) I, III and IV only
nature 9. The method by which animals
(d) wax is obtained from cactus blend with the surrounding and
7. The eggs of fish are called: protects them from predators is
(a) larva (b) pupa known as _____
(c) spawn (d) cocoon (a) Hibernation
8. I. Snakes II. Cats (b) Aestivation
III.Birds IV. Frogs (c) Camouflage
Which of the above animals (d) None of these
10. Match the following and select the correct answer.

A. Kidney 1. Control and coordination
B. Brain 2. Sense of hearing
C. Tongue 3. Nitrogenous waste
D. Ear 4. Taste buds
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-4, B-3, C-4, D-1
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
11. Which of the following systems is (b) Circulatory system
responsible for controlling all the
(c) Respiratory system
activities in the human body?
(d) Nervous system
(a) Excretory system
EBD_7095
S-10 Mock Test-2
12. In the figure given below, urine is 13. Which of the following is a rich
stored in: source of protein?
(a) Wheat
(b) Pulses
P (c) Meat
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q 14. Which of the following can be
R prepared in our body with the help
S of sunlight?
(a) Proteins
(a) P (b) Q (b) Vitamin B
(c) R (d) S (c) Vitamin D
(d) Magnesium
15. Match the following and select the correct answer.
A. 1. Saliva mixes with food
B. 2. Absorption of food takes place
C. 3. Secrete bile juice
D. 4. Churning of food takes place
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
Mock Test-2 S-11
16. The teeth that are used for cracking 20. Germs present in water can be
hard food are: killed by:
(a) molars (a) boiling
(b) premolars (b) decantation
(c) canines (c) filtration
(d) incisors (d) condensation
17. In the diagram given below, the 21. Minu and her friends went on a
teeth marked ‘X’ are called: picnic and threw banana peels on
the beach. Which one of these is the
reason that this should not be
X X
done?
(a) Banana peels do not mix with
(a) molars
the soil for number of years.
(b) premolars
(b) Banana peels make the beach
(c) incisors
unhygienic and dirty.
(d) canines
18. Which of the following is not a (c) Banana peels are harmful to
natural source of water. animals on the beach that eat
(a) River (b) Lakes them.
(c) Stream (d) Dams (d) Banana peels pollute the water
19. Which of the following diseases is because they contain harmful
caused because of unclean chemicals.
surroundings and bad food habits? 22. In the areas having highest rain
(a) Cancer (b) AIDS and snow fall, the houses have
(c) Small Pox (d) Diarrhoea (a) Flat roofs

EBD_7095
S-12 Mock Test-2
(b) Circular roofs 26. Which of the following activities
(c) sloping roofs requires the presence of air?
(d) rectangular roofs (a) Burning of wood
23. Which of these does not belong to (b) Respiration
the group formed by others? (c) Flying of aeroplane
(a) Cement (b) Brick (d) All of these
(c) Iron (d) Straw
27. Animal dung and rotten
24. Ghee in winter solidifies. When it
vegetables can be used:
is kept on burning stove it liquifies
(a) as insecticides
again. This type of change in
(a) No change (b) as manure
(b) Chemical change (c) in making bricks
(c) Physical change (d) to make oil
(d) Both b and c 28. Garden soil is most suitable for
25. Water droplets that can be seen on plant growth because:
grass in winter mornings is (a) it contains humus which makes
because of: the soil fertile.
(a) the secretion of water from the (b) it holds enough water for plants
leaves to grow.
(b) rains that take place every (c) its loose soil texture contains
night
air.
(c) condensation of water particles
(d) all of these
in the air
29. Which of the following
(d) excessive absorption of water
transformations is occurring in the
from the soil
given figure?

Mock Test-2 S-13
(b) Force can change the shape of

? an obect.
(c) Force can stop a moving object.
Solid Liquid (d) The ball stopped due to
(a) Condensation (b) Melting frictional force.
(c) Evaporation (d) Boiling 33. The least measurement that can be
30. Which of the following is NOT an done accurately by using a
outcome of condensation? standard scale is:
(a) Hail (b) Fog (a) 1 metre
(c) Air currents (d) Frost (b) 1 centimetre
31. If we take three samples of a soild, (c) 1 millimetre

liquid and gas, each having a fixed (d) 1 kilometre
volume of 1cm3, then which of them 34. Which of these can be used to
will have the most number of meaure the length of a curved
molecules? wire?
(a) Solid (a) A ruler
(b) Liquid (b) A thread
(c) Gas (c) A thread and a ruler
(d) It will be same in all the three (d) A measuring jar
32. A goal keeper stopped a moving ball 35. Your teacher has asked you to
by applying force. What inference measure the length of one side of
can you draw from this example? your classroom. Which of the
(a) The ball was slow. following will you use to measure
it?

EBD_7095
S-14 Mock Test-2
(a) Measuring cylinder 38. Cactus and camel might live in this
(b) Measuring tape habitat.
(c) Ruler (a) Ocean
(d) None of these (b) Rain forest
(c) Desert
36. Which of the following is not a part
(d) Polar region
of the solar system?
39. Water evaporates slowly when the:
(a) Earth (b) Moon
(a) weather is hot
(c) Jupiter (d) Pole star
(b) weather is windy
37. The sizes of the Sun, the Earth and (c) a large surface area is exposed
the Moon arranged in ascending (d) the weather is humid
order is: 40. What is soil fertility?
(a) Sun, Moon, Earth (a) The amount of nutrients in soil
(b) Sun, Earth, Moon (b) The Composition of soil
(c) Moon, Earth, Sun (c) The type of soil
(d) Moon, Sun, Earth (d) All of these

Mock Test-3 S-15
Mock Test 3
1. The small organisms, which cause 4. Which one of the following is a
diseases are called___. mammal?
(a) Pathogens
(b) Pesticides
(a) (b)
(c) Microbes
(d) Insecticides
2. Growing of canine teeth and strong
(c) (d)
claws in Carnivorous animals is an
adaptation ____.
5. The force by which earth attracts
(a) easily suit the climatic moon is _____.
condition (a) frictional force
(b) to catch and kill its prey (b) mechanical force
(c) for chewing the flesh (c) gravitational force
(d) both (b) and (c) (d) magnetic force
3. Name the biggest natural satellite 6. Which one of the following is the
of the planet saturn fossil fuel?
(a) Moon (b) Ganymede (a) Wind (b) Water
(c) Europa (d) Titan (c) Sunlight (d) Petroleum

EBD_7095
S-16 Mock Test-3
7. Which one of the following is the 9. Which one of the following gasses
correct description for reflection of is essential for the process of
light? burning?
(a) Sending back the coming light (a) Carbon dioxide
by an object (b) Hydrogen
(b) Change in the direction of (c) Oxygen
coming light (d) Methane
(c) Change in the speed of coming 10. When a solid substance is changed
light into gas without coming into liquid
(d) Entering of light from one state, the process is called_____.
medium to another medium (a) evaporation
8. Galaxies have been classified into (b) vaporization
three groups according to their (c) sublimation
shape. Look at the shape of given (d) condensation
galaxy carefully and identify what 11. When the same amount of force is
kind of galaxy is this? applied on two different surfaces,
the surface having greater area will
produce ____ pressure.
(a) less (b) more
(c) same
(d) all of these
12. Which one of the following
(a) Spiral instrument converts chemical
(b) Elliptical energy into mechanical energy?
(c) Irregular (a) Bus (b) Bull
(d) All of these (c) TV (d) Radio

Mock Test-3 S-17
13. In which one of the following layers (d) In all states of matter,
of atmosphere, the layer of ozone intermolecular force remains
is present? same
16. When water starts boiling, bubbles
are formed. Which one of the
following reason is responsible for
this?
(a) These bubbles are actually
dissolved gases which separate
from water on heating
(b) These bubbles are nothing just
(a) Troposphere
water droplets which keep on
(b) Stratosphere
changing into gas
(c) Mesosphere
(c) These bubbles are water
(d) Thermosphere vapours which formed due to
14. Identify the hardest part of the boiling of water
human body. (d) All of these
(a) Dentine (b) Enamel 17. A substance is in solid state. If we
(c) Pulp (d) Gums heat the substance, the force
15. In which one of the following states between the molecules gets____.
of matter, intermolecular force is (a) Strengthen
least? (b) Weaken
(a) Solid (c) Remained same independent of
(b) Liquid heat
(c) Gas (d) Inter molecular force is
EBD_7095
S-18 Mock Test-3
18. Which one of the following planets 22. Which one of the following is a
is the second largest planet of our metamorphic rock?
solar system? (a) Slate
(a) Jupiter (b) Saturn (b) Limestone
(c) Mars (d) Neptune (c) Shale
19. Which one of the following are (d) Granite
biodegradable substances? 23. The two objects of same mass are
(a) Wood moving with different speed. The
(b) Dead plants object which has greater speed, has
(c) Dead animals possessed_____ amount of kinetic
(d) All of these energy.
(a) greater
20. Which one of the following is the
(b) smaller
carnivorous animal?
(c) same
(d) all of these
(a) (b) 24. Observe the following figure
carefully. Is it helpful for the
environment?
(c) (d)
21. Which one of the following is a

chemical change?
(a) Bursting of tyre (a) It is polluting the environment
(b) Turning milk sour therefore it is not good
(c) Breaking up of stones (b) It is cleaning the environment

therefore it is good
(d) Falling an object from a height

Mock Test-3 S-19
(c) It has nothing to do with the place in the object?

environment (a) Chemical change
(d) All of these (b) Physical change
25. While walking on the road you step (c) Both chemical and physical
on an object (plastic bottle) and change
crush it. The shape of the object is (d) Partially physical and partially
changed. What kind of change takes chemical
26. Match the following:

List-I List-II
A. Exists in all the three states. 1. Physcial change
B. Changing of ice into water. 2. Water
C. Basic unit of matter. 3. Molecules
D. Smallest particles that exist 4. Atoms
independently.
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 (d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
27. While playing in the ground, Steve 28. Which one of the following
strikes a football with greater force pollutions is called hydrospheric
and the ball hits another ball in the pollution?
way. What kind of energy is (a) Land Pollution
transferred by the ball kicked by (b) Water Pollution
Steve to another ball? (c) Soil Pollution
(a) Potential (b) Kinetic (d) Air Pollution
(c) Mechanical (d) Light
EBD_7095
S-20 Mock Test-3
29. When something delicious is cooked (a) Electromagnetic force
in our kitchen we smell it and can (b) Gravitational force
imagine its taste. How is it possible? (c) Weak force
(a) Sense of smell and taste are (d) Strong force
linked 33. Kidney removes waste products
(b) Nose and tongue are close to from our body. What are the waste
each other products that are removed by
(c) Smell itself shows taste
kidney?
(d) All of these
(a) urea and water
30. What kind of force does the
stretched rubber band has? (b) carbon dioxide and water
(a) Balance force (c) urea and salts
(b) Unbalanced force (d) urea, water and salts
(c) Tension force 34. Which type of joints permit a wide
(d) Air resistance force range, mostly sideways movements
31. Rocks are the chief source of the as well as movements in one
parent materials from which soils direction.
are developed. The main kinds of (a) Ball-and-Socket Joints
rocks which play an important role (b) Hinge Joints
in the formation of soils are ____.
(c) Gliding Joints
(a) igneous rocks
(d) Saddle Joints
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks 35. Which one of the following is the
(d) all of these biotic component of the
32. Which type of force is weak, but environment?
very long ranged. Furthermore, it (a) Plastics
is always attractive, and acts (b) Microorganisms
between any two pieces of matter (c) Air
in the universe since mass is its (d) Water
source?
Mock Test-4 S-21
Mock Test 4
1. Brain is protected by a bony 4. Who between the following two
structure called ________ . friends is correct ?
(a) Rib cage (b) Skull
Rahul: Biodegradable substances
(c) Spinal chord (d) Bladder
are the main cause of land
2. If an object is placed at greater
height, the potential energy of the pollution.
object is _______ . Aman: Non-biodegradable
(a) Increased substances play important role in
(b) Decreased polluting the soil as they do not get
(c) Remains same easily degraded.
(d) All of these
(a) Rahul
3. When one atom of oxygen and two
(b) Aman
atoms of hydrogen are combined
together, one molecule of water is (c) Both are correct
formed. This type of change is (d) Both are incorrect
called ________ . 5. Hibernation is a process in which
(a) Physical change animals goes for winter sleep.
(b) Chemical change
What is the reason behind this?
(c) Biological change
(a) Due to tiredness
(d) All of these
EBD_7095
S-22 Mock Test-4
(b) Due to scarcity of food and 8. When we put a piece of wood in the
extreme cold water, it floats and does not sink.
(c) To compensate the consumed Which one of the following forces
energy is responsible for this?
(d) To digest the food (a) Frictional force
6. Name the animal which is also (b) Gravitational force
known as “Touch me not”. (c) Upthrust force
(a) Lion (b) Fish (d) Magnetic forces
(c) Porcupine (d) Rat 9. Sometimes in the sky we see a
7. Some organisms go through string of light for a very few
several changes before being an moment. Actually these are
adult, this process is called meteors which burn on entering
metamorphosis. In which one of the into the atmosphere of the earth.
following options different stages of Which one of the following gives
metamorphosis has been correctly the required heat energy to the
arranged for a butterfly? meteors to be burnt?
(a) Egg - pupa - caterpiller - adult (a) Friction
butterfly (b) Gravitation
(b) Egg - caterpiller - pupa - adult (c) Upthrust
butterfly (d) All of these
(c) Pupa - egg - caterpiller - adult 10. We measure the potential energy
butterfly of a body with the help of the
(d) Pupa - caterpiller - egg - adult formula “m × g × h”. Here ‘g’ stands
butterfly for _______ .

Mock Test-4 S-23
(a) Gravitational force 14. Terrace farming or step farming

(b) Gravitational acceleration helps in _____ soil erosion.
(c) Gravitational constant (a) Reducing
(d) All of these
(b) Increasing
11. Belt of asteroids lies between the
(c) Removing
orbit of the planets _____?
(d) All of these
(a) earth and mars
(b) neptune and jupiter 15. Malaria is a disease caused by
(c) mars and jupiter ______ .
(d) jupiter and saturn (a) Virus (b) Bacteria
12. Which one of the following systems (c) Ring worm (d) Protozoa
is responsible for exchanging the 16. Observe the following figure
information between body parts carefully:
and the brain?
(a) Excretory system
(b) Respiratory system
(c) Nervous system
(d) Circulatory system What kind of change are you
13. In the soil which one of the observing?
following is most helpful to the (a) Physical change
growth of the plant?
(b) Chemical change
(a) Humus (b) Clay
(c) Biological change
(c) Porous rocks (d) Sand
(d) Both (a) and (b)

EBD_7095
S-24 Mock Test-4
17. Which one of the following organs 20. Which one of the following is an
is specialized for filtering water invertebrate animal ?
from blood? (a) Lion (b) Fish
(a) Heart (b) Lung (c) Rat (d)
(c) Liver (d) Kidney Earthworm
18. When clothes dry in air, which of 21. Waxy coating on the surface of the
the following process takes place? leaves of aquatic Plants is for.
(a) Evaporation
(a) Shining
(b) Condensation
(b) Preventing rotting
(c) Boiling
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Melting
(d) Respiration
19. In the following figure, molecular
22. The ________ allows movement of
structure of a substance has been
shown. The substance is in the wrist and ankle.
________ state. (a) Gliding joint
(b) Pivot joint
(c) Hinge joint
(d) Ball and socket joint
23. Which kind of food give us strength
to fight against disease?
(a) Carbohydrates rich food
(b) Fats rich food
(a) solid
(c) Proteins rich food
(b) liquid
(d) Vitamin and mineral rich food
(c) gaseous
(d) all of these
Mock Test-4 S-25
24. Which one of the following forces (a) Liver

works only when objects are in (b) Gall bladder
contact with each other ? (c) Stomach
(a) Magnetic force (d) Kidney
(b) Gravitational force 29. Which one of the following is non-
renewable source of energy?
(c) Frictional force
(a) Tidal energy
(d) Electrostatic force
(b) Wind energy
25. Name the state that produces the
(c) Solar energy
highest amount of electricity using
(d) Fossil fuels
wind energy
30. Given below are the features of
(a) Gujarat (b) Delhi leaves of plants.
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerela 1. Submerged leaves, which are
26. Green plants make their own food very thin and narrow, often
by the process of photosynthesis. In highly dissected and very
what form does the photosynthesis flexible.
provide food to the green plants? 2. Floating leaves, broader leaves
(a) Starch (b) Glucose those are firm or leathery but
(c) Carbohydrate (d) All of these flexible enough to resist tearing
27. You get energy by eating food. This by wave action.
is an example of ____. Which one of the following plants
(a) Physical change possess the type of leaves
mentioned above?
(b) Chemical change
(a) Desert plants
(c) Nuclear change
(b) Plants in the hilly areas
(d) Atomic change
(c) Aquatic plants
28. Which one of the following have no (d) All of these
role in digestion of food ?
EBD_7095
S-26 Mock Test-4
31. Consider the following two 33. The earth rotates from ________ .
statements: (a) West to East
Statement A: Energy is the (b) East to West
ability to do work. (c) North to South
(d) South to North
Statement B: Potential energy of
34. You are holding a stone in your
the object is due to its motion.
hand. What kind of energy does the
Which of the following is correct stone have?
with respect to the above (a) Potential energy
statements? (b) Kinetic energy
(a) Statement A is correct (c) Simple energy
(b) Statement B is correct (d) All of these
35. Match the following:
(c) Both, Statement A and
A. Heart 1. is located
Statement B are correct between the
(d) Both, Statement A and stomach and
Statement B are incorrect the anus.
32. Which type of canned milk is made B. Stomach 2. are paired
by removing half of the water from organs
C. Intestine 3. digests food
whole milk. It is then highly
D. Lungs 4. is a hollow,
sweetened as a result this milk has
muscular
very high calories? organ
(a) Sweetened condensed A B C D
(b) Pasteurized (a) 2 3 1 4
(c) Homogenized (b) 4 1 3 2
(d) Skimmed (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2

Mock Test-5 S-27
Mock Test 5
1. Now a days, many _________ travel 4. The pull or push of an object is
at a supersonic speed. called __________.
(a) Trains (a) Gravity (b) Friction
(b) Planes (c) Force (d) Inertia
(c) Ships
5. Plants use sunlight to make sugar
(d) Two wheelers
in the process of
2. When the layer of air that
surrounds the earth presses down, (a) Oxidation
this is called __________. (b) Reproduction
(a) Heat (c) Photosynthesis
(b) Temperature (d) Fertilization
(c) Air pressure 6. Name the nerves that carries the
(d) Precipitation messages from the sense organs to
3. The energy an object gets from its
the spinal cord or brain are
motion is
(a) Sensory nerves
(a) Electrical energy
(b) Chemical energy (b) Motor nerves
(c) Kinetic energy (c) All of the above
(d) Potential energy (d) None of the above

EBD_7095
S-28 Mock Test-5
7. Rubber, glass and plastic are good (a) Condensation
__________. (b) Evaporation
(a) Conductors (c) Precipitation
(b) Generators (d) Runoff
(c) Insulators 10. In which of the following, will the
(d) Electromagnets force of attraction between the
molecules be highest?
8. Study the following Venn diagram
carefully. Which letter represents (a) Water
the hen? (b) Ice
Lays
(c) Steam
Q
Eggs (d) Liquid
Y X
Z R Breathes through 11. House in hot and dry regions have
Breathes through P
lungs
gills __________.
(a) thick flat roof
(b) slopping roof
(a) Y (b) X
(c) dome roof
(c) Z (d) R
(d) circular roof
9. Which process is occurring at S?
12. The nutrients that protects our
body from various diseases and
keep up fit and healthy are
(a) Carbohydrate and fat
(b) Proteins and vitamins
(c) Proughage and minerals
(d) Vitamins and minerals

Mock Test-5 S-29
13. A ball is hit on the wall. The 15. The time it takes the Earth to orbit
direction of the movement of the the Sun is one
ball after it hits the wall is changed, (a) Year (b) Season
can you explain why?
(c) Month (d) Day
16. A force that pulls two objects
together is
(a) Speed
(b) Friction
(c) Force of attraction
(d) Inertia
17. In the game of billiards, which type
of energy players give to cue the
ball by striking it with the cue
stick?
(a) Due to application of force
(a) Friction
(b) Due to hardness of the wall
(c) Due to softness of the ball (b) Kinetic energy
(d) All of these (c) mechanical energy

14. We sprinkle powder on the carrom (d) potential energy
board. Why? 18. The tiny part of a seed that can grow
(a) To increase friction into a plant is the
(b) To get pleasant smell (a) Pistil
(c) To decrease friction (b) Spore
(d) To make the source white so (c) Fruit
that it looks beautiful (d) Embryo

EBD_7095
S-30 Mock Test-5
19. A definite shape and a definite (c) drink coca cola often
volume are properties of which (d) smoke tobacco occasionally
state of matter? 23. The main function of a fish's fins is
(a) solid only to help the fish to____
(b) liquid only (a) reproduce (b) see
(c) solid and liquid (c) breathe (d) move
(d) liquid and gas 24. Which two processes are common
20. When a cup of water at room to all living things?
temperature is put in a freezer, the (a) flying and breathing
state of water will change from (b) migrating and reproducing
(a) liquid to gas (c) using nutrients and growing
(b) gas to liquid (d) eliminating waste and
(c) liquid to solid hibernating
(d) solid to liquid 25. Trees start as seeds and grow into
21. During which process are pieces of mature trees that produce more
rock material being moved over seeds. This pattern represents a
Earth's surface by water and wind? _______.
(a) Conduction (a) food chain
(b) Deposition (b) life cycle
(c) Erosion (c) food supply
(d) Revolution (d) life span
22. In order to maintain good health, 26. What do we call a group of camels
humans should _____. together?
(a) eat foods high in fat (a) Herd (b) Flock
(b) exercise regularly (c) Gang (d) Group

Mock Test-5 S-31
27. Which of the following animals (particles, chemicals or substances

have external ear? that make water contaminated) are
(a) Snakes discharged directly or indirectly
(b) Lizards into water bodies without enough
treatment to get rid of harmful
(c) Insects
compounds.
(d) Cow
(a) Water pollution
28. What do we call the roots that are
(b) Air Pollution
present above the ground?
(c) River contamination
(a) Terrestrial roots
(d) Water spiollage
(b) Tap roots
32. Each of the following containers
(c) Aerial roots
contains an equal volume of water.
(d) Fibrous Roots
In which container will the water
29. Off all the flowers grown in evaporate at the slowest rate?
different seasons, not all are edible.
Which of the following flower in the
option is not edible?
(a) Test tube with water
(a) Lavender (b) Ivy
(c) Rose (d) Jasmine
30. Animals that live in water are
known as________. (b) Cup with water
(a) terrestrial animals
(b) amphibians
(c) Glass with water
(c) aquatic animals
(d) water bodies
(d) Flat pan with water
31. __________ occurs when pollutants

EBD_7095
S-32 Mock Test-5
33. The method that is used to retain 34. When a gas changes into a liquid,
the quality of soil and its mineral it is called
content is (a) condensation
(a) Crop rotation (b) melting
(b) Terrace farming (c) solidification
(c) Afforestation (d) evaporation
(d) Deforestation 35. The largest river of India is
(a) Yamuna (b) Satluj
(c) Ganga (d) Ravi

GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
MOCK TEST 1–5
EBD_7095
Mock Test 1
1. Voice box is the portion of the (a) Stomata (b) Spiracles
respiratory tract which produces (c) Cuticle (d) Vein
sound. It is also called
(a) Trachea (b) Larynx 5. Bakers usually add a substance to
(c) Pharynx (d) Oesophagus flour while making bread. Which of
2. Select the incorrect match from the following is added to the flour?
the following pairs.
(a) Deer – Herbivore
(b) Tiger – Carnivore
(c) Man – Omnivore
(d) Cow – Carnivore
3. What makes up the roots of your (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
teeth and attaches to your jawbone? (c) Protozoa (d) Viruses
(a) Cementum (b) Cement 6. A gas is one of the main causes
(c) Paste (d) Mucus of global warming and is also
4. Plant leaves bear small openings utilized by plants for performing
through which water vapor and photosynthesis. Identify the gas.
gases are exchanged with the
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
outer environment. What these
(c) Ozone (d) Carbon dioxide
openings are called?

EBD_7095
G-2 Mock Test-1
7. People belong to which class of 11. The telescope is one of the most
animals? important inventions which helped
(a) Reptiles (b) Amphibians scientists to observe the Earth and
(c) Birds (d) Mammals other planets in the universe. Who
8. Which of the following Mughal invented the telescope?
emperors started his own religion
Din-e-Ilahi?
(a) Babur (b) Aurangzeb
(c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan
9. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ is the national
anthem of India. It is the Hindi (a) Hans Sanderson
version of a song originally composed (b) Hans Christian Anderson
in Bengali by which poet?
(c) Hans Lippershey
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim (d) Hans Galilie
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 12. Read the following statements.
(d) Sri Aurobindo I. Saturn has beautiful rings
10. How many spokes are there in surrounding it.
‘Ashoka Chakra’ situated in our II. Earth has one large natural
national flag? satellite, known as the Sun.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I is true
(b) II is true
(a) 24 (b) 26 (c) Both I and II are true
(c) 25 (d) 22 (d) Both I and II are false

Mock Test-1 G-3
13. Water cycle is a natural process in problem it faces degradation.

nature which helps in maintaining Which of the following might have
balance in water level under the caused its degradation?
Earth and in the environment.
Which of the following sequence
of events correctly show a water
cycle? (a) Acid rain (b) Lightning
(a) Water released in the atmosphere (c) Storm (d) Sunlight
through evaporation and by 15. Fill in the blank with the correct
plants Formation of Cloud adjective - “Ramesh is the --- boy
Condensation Rainfall in the class.”
(b) Water released in the atmosphere (a) Tall (b) Taller
through evaporation and by
(c) Tallest (d) Short
plants Condensation
Formation of Cloud Rainfall 16. After completing Master’s degree,
one goes in for higher studies.
(c) Condensation Water released
What does the higher degree PhD
in the atmosphere through
stand for?
evaporation and by plants
Formation of Cloud Rainfall (a) Doctor of Philosophy
(d) None of these (b) Doctor of Politics
14. Taj Mahal is known for its beauty (c) Degree in Philosophy
but due to some environmental (d) None of the above

EBD_7095
G-4 Mock Test-1
17. ‘The Jungle Book ‘is a collection of Which dance form is being talked
stories by English author Rudyard about in the above paragraph?
Kipling. A principal character is
(a) Bharatanatyam
the boy Mowgli, who is raised in
the jungle by wolves. A powerful (b) Kathakali
snake is one of Mowgli’s mentors (c) Kuchipudi
and friends. What is the name of
(d) Odissi
the snake?
19. Which of the following adventures
is correctly matched?
(a) Caving
(a) Kaal (b) Kaa
(c) Crowley (d) Salmissra
18. This dance form is one of the (b) Rafting
major forms of classical Indian
dance. It involves colorful make-
(c) Paragliding
up, costumes and facemasks
that the traditionally male
actor-dancers wear. It developed
in the Malayalam-speaking (d) Trekking
southwestern region of India
(Kerala).

Mock Test-1 G-5
20. The person shown below is famous (c) No passing allowed

for which of the following games? (d) No parking allowed
23. Who is the present President of
India?
(a) Ram Nath Kovind

(a) Cricket (b) Football
(b) Pranab Mukherjee
(c) Hockey (d) Chess
(c) Pratibha Patil
21. Every game in the Olympics has
its own pictogram. Which sports (d) Meira Kumar
does the given pictogram depict?
24. Which city in India has launched
first biogas run bus?
(a) Bangalore (b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai

(a) Football (b) Hockey
(c) Wrestling (d) Archery 25. Which of the following countries
will host the 2019 Cricket World
22. What does the given traffic signal
Cup?
sign depict?
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) West Indies and Zimbabwe
(a) No playing on the street (c) Australia and New Zealand

(b) No pedestrian traffic (d) England and Wales

EBD_7095
Mock Test 2
1. Heart plays an important role in 3. Tear is an important liquid that
circulating blood throughout our keeps our eyes in moist condition
body. The heart has four chambers and prevents eye infection by
which contain blood for circulation. killing germs. Which of the
What is the lower chamber called? following glands is responsible for
producing tear?
(a) Lacrimal gland
(a) Auricle (b) Ventricle (b) Salivary gland
(c) Alveoli (d) Lymph node (c) Pancreas
2. Select the incorrect match from (d) Pituitary gland

4. Which of the following is an
(a) Lung¬ --- Alveoli example of plant?
(b) Heart --- Auricle
(a) E. coli (b) Yeast
(c) Kidney --- Neuron
(c) Petunia (d) Lichen
(d) Eye --- Retina
Mock Test-2 G-7
5. Which of the plant is different 8. What is the currency of Switzerland?

from other plants? (a) Kroner (b) Franc
(a) Apple (b) Rose (c) Dollar (d) Ringgit
(c) Mustard (d) Cactus 9. Lord Buddha was born in
6. Which of the following acts
(a) Lumbini (b) Vaishali
as a decomposer hand helps
in recycling of matter in the (c) Bodh Gaya (d) Patliputra
environment? 10. Identify the country to which the
given national flag belong to?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(a) Bhutan (b) Burma

(c) Fungi
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal
(d) Both A and C 11. He was a Greek mathematician
7. When an animal takes the and astronomer who became the
appearance of its environment for chief librarian at the Library
protection, is it called of Alexandria. He invented the

discipline of geography and is known
(a) Hibernation (b) Aestivation for calculating the circumference of
(c) Camouflage (d) Masking the earth. Who is he?

EBD_7095
G-8 Mock Test-2
14. Refer to the processes given below
with codes.
O-Plant matter breaks down into

soil.
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Galileo P-Decomposers break down

organic matter.
(c) Wegener (d) Eratosthenes
Q-Soil stores nutrients
12. The device dynamo is used to
R-Plant takes up the nutrients.
convert
(a) E
lectrical energy into heat Choose the correct option that
energy shows the correct sequence for
(b) E
lectrical energy into light nutrient cycle.
energy
(a) O, P, Q, R (b) Q,P, O, R
(c)
Mechanical energy into
electrical energy (c) O, P, Q, R (d) O, R, P, Q
(d) Heat energy into light energy 15. Which of the following indicates
13. Who invented the Printing the suphur dioxide pollution?
press.
(a) Mosses
(a) Johannes Gutenberg
(b) Lichens
(b) Thomas Edison
(c) Charles Babbage (c) Algal Blooms
(d) Karl Benz (d) None of these

Mock Test-2 G-9
16. Study the given diagram. What 18. Which of the following idioms
can the car owner do to reduce the means ‘ignore someone’?
air pollution caused by his car?
(a) Give someone the cold shoulder
(b) Be in the same boat
(c) But a bug in his ear
(d) A bull in a china shop
(a) Use a bigger exhaust pipe
19. Solve the given quiz. Which letter
(b) Seal the exhaust pipe with a
should be removed from the word
plastic bag
formed after combing the given
(c) Check the quality of petrol
figures, to get the name of an
(d)
Send the car for regular object, which is used for decoration
servicing in birthday?
is/are true?

(a) Cutting down of trees is called
reforestation. (a) M (b) A
(b)
Tree cutting causes more (c) C (d) O
rainfall.
20.
When was the first Olympic
(c) CNG is less polluting than Games held?
diesel.
(a) 1896 (b) 1898
(d) Terrace farming does not help
(c) 1873 (d) 1891
in preventing landslides.

EBD_7095
G-10 Mock Test-2
21. Which of the following cricketers 23. When will the next Cricket World
has scored highest runs in one- Cup be held?
day international cricket? (a) 2022 (b) 2018
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (c) 2020 (d) 2019
(b) Ricky Ponting
24. Which state has banned polythene
(c) Sanath Jayasuriya bag from May 2017?
(d) Rahul Dravid
(a) Uttar Pradesh
22. If you touch chicken, before you (b) Haryana
touch anything else you should
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(a)
Wash your hands with hot, (d) Rajasthan
soapy water.
25. Who has been appointed as Chief
(b) Wipe your hands on a paper
Election Commissioner of India?
towel.
(a) Achal Kumar Jyoti
(c)
Wipe your hands on yout
pants. (b) Nasim Zaidi
(d) Rinse your hands under cold (c) H.S. Brahma

water. (d) None of these

Mock Test 3
1. Which type of tooth is pointy, 4. Which of the following is the
sharp, and made to help tear food? smallest bone in our body?
(a) Tibia (b) Carpel
(c) Humerus (d) Stapes
5. Which of the following is not
(a) Molars (b) Premolars
required by plants to prepare food?
(c) Incisors (d) Canines
(a) Water
2. Select the incorrect match from
the following pairs. (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Light
(A) Urine formation--Kidney
(B) Blood circulation-- Heart (d) None of these
(C) Blood oxygenation--Liver 6. Cockroach breathe through

(D) Food digestion--Stomach
3. Egg is rich in
(a) Starch (b) Glucose (a) Gills (b) Skin
(c) Protein (d) Carbohydrates (c) Lungs (d) None of the above

EBD_7095
G-12 Mock Test-3
7. The natural home of an animal is
called
(a) House (b) Water

(c) Nest (d) Habitat (a) Alnitak (b) Alpha Centauri
8. Which of the following is an (c) Aldebaran (d) Antares
example of stem modification?
12. Which of the following will be
(a) Rhizomes (b) Radish attracted by magnets?
(c) Carrot (d) Beetroot
9. What are the people of Tibet called?
(a) Tibetans (b) Tibs

(a) Iron (b) Plastic
(c) Tibetanins (d) Tibets
(c) Paper (d) Wood
10. The bird given in the given figure
is the national bird of 13. Which of the following statements
is/are true?
(a)
Fertilizers cause water
pollution.
(a) Australia (b) New Zealand
(b) Carbon dioxide causes global
(c) Nepal (d) Finland warming.
11. This is the closest star system to the (c) Both of these are true.
Solar System. It consists of three
stars. Identify the star system. (d) None of these are true.

Mock Test-3 G-13
14. Match the following. (a) Kalidas
Column I Column II (b) Premchand

(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(a) Soil Pollution 1. Lung disease
(b) Water pollution 2. Minamata
18. Which child actor was in lead role
(c) Air pollution 3. Barren Land
in the film ‘Taare Zamin Par’?
4. Acid Rain
(a) Darsheel Safary
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3 (b) a-1, b-4, c-3
(b) Shivansh Kotia
(c) a-3, b-2, c-1 (d) a-1, b-2, c-4
(c) Namit Shah
15. Which of the following practices
improves soil fertility without (d) Sanoop Santosh
damaging the environment? 19. He is the classical Indian musician
(a) Use of chemical fertilizer known for Sarod. He has received
the prestigious award Padma
(b) Crop rotation
Vibhushan in 2001. Who is he?
(c) Use of bio-fertilizer
(d) Both B and C
16. Please vote____________Mr. Paul.
(a) to (b) for
(c) with (d) at (a)
Ali Akbar Khan
(b) Amjad Ali Khan
17. Who among the following authors
is also known as the ‘Shakespeare (c) Ravi Shankar
of India’. (d) Shiv Kumar Sharma

EBD_7095
G-14 Mock Test-3
20. What is the national game of Italy? (a) Jagdish Singh Khehar
(a) Hockey (b) Football (b) PN Bhagwati
(c) Basketball (d) Tennis (c) KG Balkrishnan

21. Stan Wawrinka represents and (d) Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal
belongs to which country?
24. Which of the following cities has
India’s first multi-sports museum?
(a) Russia (b) Switzerland
(c) USA (d) France

(a) Kolkata (b) Bangaluru
22. While reading a story in the class,
(c) Hyderabad (d) Delhi
you should not
25. Who is the brand ambassador of
(a)
Make eye contact with the
the Women’s Cricket World Cup
audience
2017?
(b) Exhibit confidence
(a) (b)
(c) Chew gum
(d) Speak slowly

(c) (d)
23. Who is the current Chief Justice of
India?

Mock Test 4
1. Which of the following organs is 4. The fluid in the human eye is called
not used during digestion? (a) Aqueous humor
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (b) Vitreous humor
(c) Liver (d) Lung (c) Amniotic fluid
2. Select the incorrect match from (d) Both A and B
5. Function of plant roots includes
(a) Protein--Egg
(a) Absorb water from soil
(b) Carbohydrate--Rice
(b) Absorb nutrients from soil
(c) Fiber--Meat
(c) Anchor plant
(d) Fat—Ghee
(d) All of these
3. There would be no urine formation
in the body if which of the following 6. Animals undergoes inactive stage
organs is removed? during winter, is known as
(a) Heart (b) Kidney (a) Aestivation (b) Hibernation
(c) Liver (d) Lung (c) Adaptation (d) Acclimatization

EBD_7095
G-16 Mock Test-4
7. Match the column. dance form dance gets its name
Column I Column II from the word Mohini – a mythical
enchantress avatar of the Hindu
a. Stomata 1. Human being
god Vishnu. Which dance form is
b. Lungs 2. Earthworm
being talked about?
c. Gills 3. Plants
d. Skin 4. Fish
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(c) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2 (a) Odissi
(d) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 (b) Kuchipudi
8. Which part of the venus flytrap (c) Mohiniyattam

plant is modified into a structure (d) Bharatnatyam
that is used to trap insects? 10. The ancient art of India can be
seen in the murals in the caves
of Maharashtra. Besides murals,
there are magnificent stone
sculptures of Hindu deities, The
(a) Stem (b) Leaf
Buddha and Jain Thirthankaras.
(c) Root (d) Flower There are three such caves which
9. This Indian classical dance is have been declared UNESCO
one of two classical dances of World Heritage Sites. Two are the
India that developed and remains Ajanta and the Elephanta. What is
popular in the state of Kerala. The the third one?

Mock Test-4 G-17
12. The discovery of the laws of

floating bodies was considered
an important achievement for
(a) Aihole caves the movement of boats and ships
(b) Badami caves on the surface of water. Who is
(c) Ellora caves credited with this discovery?
(d) Caves at Aurangabad
(a) Pierre Simon de Laplace
11. She is an American astronaut
(b) Edwin Hubble
and United States Navy officer
of Indian-Slovenian race. She (c) Archimedes
formerly held the records for (d) Joseph J. Thomson
total spacewalks by a woman and
13. Which of the following is/are non-
most spacewalk time for a woman
(50 hours, 40 minutes).She was biodegradable?
assigned to the International (a) Paper (b) Plastic toys
Space Station as a member of
(c) Credit card (d) Both B and C
Expedition 14 and Expedition 15.
Who is she? 14. Which of these is a type of green
energy?
(a) A petrol pump
(b) A coal burning fire
(a) Valentina Tereshkova
(b) Kalpana Chawla (c) A wind turbine
(c) Sunita Williams (d) An electric cable
(d) Laika
EBD_7095
G-18 Mock Test-4
15. Given below are a few events from they hit metal. Then the device
daily life, along with their codes. beeps. This lets the person with the
1.
We stirred the ingredients device know that metal is close. The
together. first metal detectors were meant to
2. The brownies cooked in the oven help miners. They were big. They
for 15 minutes. cost a lot of money. They used a

lot of power. And worst of all, they
3. We ate the brownies.
didn’t work well. People kept trying
Choose the option which shows correct
to make them better.
sequence of events.
Which was not one of the problems with
(a) 2, 1, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1 the first metal detectors?
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 3, 2
(a) They were too big.
16. Read the following passage and (b) They were too expensive.
answer the following question.
(c) They didn’t work well.
ave you ever been to the beach?
H
(d) They were unsafe.
Did you see a man with a headset
pointing a long pole at the ground? 17. What are we supposed to do after
If so you might have seen a person ---------- ?
using a metal detector. People use (a) finish the graph
these devices to find metal.
(b) finishing the graph

Metal detectors make magnetic
(c) do the graph
waves. These waves go through the
ground. The waves change when (d) graph

Mock Test-4 G-19
18. Which of the following is the (a) (b)

synonym of abstain?
(a) Refrain (b) Ingest
(c) Take in (d) Consume
(c) (d)
19. ‘Charlotte’s Web’ is a children’s
novel by American author E. B.
White. The novel tells the story
of a pig named Wilbur and his 21. Which feature film was named
friendship with a barn spider. Best Feature Film at the 64th
When Wilbur is in danger of being National Film Awards ceremony?
slaughtered by the farmer, the (a) Kaasav (b) Alifa
spider writes messages praising (c) Dhanak (d) Ventilator
Wilbur in her web in order to
22. Dhanak is a 2016 Indian Hindi-
persuade the farmer to let him live.
language film, which features
What is the name of the spider? Hetal Gadda and Krrish Chhabria
as the two children, playing
brother and sister, in the leading
roles. Who played the role of
‘Dungaram’?
(a) Charlotte (b) Templeton (a) Vipin Sharma

(b) Gulfam Khan
(c) Arable (d) Fussy
(c) Idhant Singh
20. Who played the role of “Rajamatha”
in the film ‘Baahubali 2’? (d) Swastik Chavan

EBD_7095
G-20 Mock Test-4
23. ‘Godan’ is a Hindi novel, which 25. Which of the following states won
has been translated into English the 2017 Santosh Trophy?
as ‘The Gift of a Cow’. It was first (a) Tamil Nadu
published in 1936 and is considered (b) Maharashtra
one of the greatest Hindustani (c) Andhra Pradesh
novels of modern Indian literature. (d) West Bengal
Who has written the novel?
26. Who among the following cricket
(a) Rabindranath Tagore players has been selected Indian
(b) Munshi Premchand Cricket Coach?
(c) Kalidas
(a) (b)
(d) Yashpal
24. What is the name of the Octopus
(c) (d)
that predicted the results of
matches in the Football World
Cup 2010? 27. Which game is shown in the
picture given below?

(a) John (b) Paul
(a) Polo (b) Rugby
(c) Peter (d) Smith (c) Billiards (d) Triathlon

Mock Test-4 G-21
28. What is the new name of the LED- 32. Which of the following is true?
based Domestic Efficient Lighting
(a) Skin is not an organ.
Programme (DELP)?
(b) Alcohol consumption damages
(a) Jyoti (b) Ujala the liver.
(c) Disha (d) Prakash (c) Humans can control heart beat.
29. Who is the current Army Chief of (d) Plants do not require carbon
dioxide.
India?
33. Tomato plant is a
(a) Bipin Rawat
(b) Bikram Singh
(c) VK Singh
(d) Dalbir Singh Suhag
30.
The central sector scheme (a) Herb (b) Shrubs
“Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY)” (c) Trees (d) None of these
will be launched from which state?
34. Which part of the camel is used to
(a) Uttar Pradesh store fat?
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
31. Our body contains several (a) Neck (b) Stomach
chemical substances which help (c) Hump (d) Mouth
in the digestion of food. These 35. Which of the following diseases is
substances are called caused by bacteria?
(a) Hormone (b) Catalyst (a) Typhoid (b) Influenza
(c) Enzyme (d) Starch (c) Mycosis (d) Malaria

EBD_7095
G-22 Mock Test-4
36. Which of the following vitamins is 39. Which of the following diagrams
found in lemon? represents the process used to get
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C pure petrol?
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin D (a)
37. Which of the following process
can be used to prevent food from
getting spoiled? (b)
(a) Heating (b) Cooling
(c) Drying (d) All the above
38. Which of the following organisms
uses sound to locate food? (c)
(a)
(b) (d)
(c)
40. Which of the following can cause
death in a closed room?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(d) (b) Ozone
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Methane

Mock Test 5
1. Windpipe is a tube that allows the (a) Lungs (b) Heart
passage of air in almost all air- (c) Skin (d) Liver
breathing animals with lungs. The
5. How many bones do adult human
windpipe is also called as
beings have?
(a) Trachea (b) Larynx
(a) 209 (b) 206
(c) Pharynx (d) Diaphragm
(c) 190 (d) 220
2. Which of the following can be eaten
6. Which of the following pigments is
raw, after washing?
responsible for providing color to
(a) Radish (b) Potato human skin?
(c) Brinjal (d) Bitter gourd (a) Melanin
3. Which of the following does not (b) Carotene
have any function in the body? (c) Chlorophyll
(a) Bile duct (b) Urethra (d) Hemoglobin
(c) Gall Bladder (d) Appendix 7. Yeast is a kind of
4. Which of the following organs is (a) Fungi (b) Virus
damaged by alcohol consumption? (c) Bacteria (d) Plant
EBD_7095
G-24 Mock Test-5
8. Which of the following happens 11. Building blocks of the body are
only in plants, not in animals? (a) Glucose (b) Fats
(a) Respiration (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins
(b) Reproduction
12. Which of the following digestive
(c) Photosynthesis
juices is secreted by liver?
(d) Growth
9. The colorful parts of flowers that
protect the flower parts where
seeds are made are called
(a) Saliva (b) Pepsin

(d) Bile (d) Trypsin
(a) Petals (b) Stamens 13. Which of the following activities
(c) Pistils (d) Sepals helps bears to live in cold condition

in winter months?
10. Monkeys are called
(a) Terrestrial animals (a) Hunting

(b) Aerial animals (b) Fishing
(c) Arboreal animals (c) Hibernation
(d) Aquatic animal (d) Aestivation
Mock Test-5 G-25
14. In India, which is called Orchid (c) A-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
Paradise? (d) A-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(a) Arunachal Pradesh 16. Which of the following is the
(b) Himachal Pradesh largest museum in India?
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Uttarakhand
15. Column I shows the name of states
and column II depicts their chief
ministers. (a) Indian Museum , Kolkata
(b) National Museum of India, Delhi
Column I Column II
(c) Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad
a. Goa 1. Manohar
(d) Gandhi Smriti, Delhi
Parrikar
17. Which of the following is the
b. Odhisha 2. Sarbananda
spacecraft for Saturn planet?
Sonowal
c. Sikkim 3. Naveen
Patnaik
d. Assam 4. Pawn Kumar

Chamling (a) Messenger
Choose the correct option. (b) Curiosity
(a) A-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (c) Cassini
(b) A-4, b-2, c-3, d-2 (d) Skylab

EBD_7095
G-26 Mock Test-5
18. She was the first American of 20. Which of the following instruments
Indian origin to explore space. is used for measuring relative
She first flew on Space Shuttle density of liquids?
Columbia in 1997 as a mission (a)
specialist. In 2003, she was one of
the seven crew members who died
in the Space Shuttle Columbia
Galvanometer
disaster. Who among the following
is being described here? (b)
(a) (b)
Fathometer
(c)
(c) (d)
Hydrometer
(d)
19. Which of the following travels with
maximum speed?
(a) Airplane (b) Light
(c) Bullet Train (d) Meteors Calorimeter

Mock Test-5 G-27
21. Read the following statements. 24. Which of the following is an

1. I am present in the air. example of pollution?
2. No organism can live without me. (a) Oil spill in the ocean
3. I am produced by plants.
(b) Burning fossil fuels
These statements are regarding
(c) Littering trash on the ground
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen (d) All of the above
(c) Nitrogen 25. Read the following statements
(d) Hydrogen given with codes.
22. Read the following statements. P-The referee blew his whistle and
I. Soil erosion may be increased by held up the hand of the winner
cutting down trees in a forest.
of the match.
II. Coal is renewable resource.
Q-Each wrester worked hard,
Choose the correct option.
trying to defeat his opponent.
(a) A is true
(b) B is true R-The referee said “Shake
(c) Both A and B are true hand, boys, and wrestle a
(d) Both A and B are false fair match”
23. Which of the following activities Choose the option which shows
can help in preventing soil erosion? the correct sequence of events in
(a) Terrace farming the wrestling game.
(b) Tree plantation
(a) P, Q, R (b) P, R, Q
(c) Grazing
(c) R, P, Q (d) R, Q, P
(d) Both A and B
EBD_7095
G-28 Mock Test-5
26. Which of these words rhymes with Why are pill bugs nicknamed “roly-
‘hour’? poly”?
(a) Tear (b) Near (a) Pill bug rolls up into a tight
(c) Cloud (d) Sour little ball to protect itself.
27. Read the following passage and (b) Pill bug likes to eat egg-rolls.
answer the following question. (c) Pill bug rolls up into a tight
little cylinder.
(d) Pill bug looks like a road
roller.
28. ‘Titanic’ is a 1997 American
Some people are afraid of bugs such Hollywood film, which is based
as spiders or beetles. But there is one on the sinking of the ship ‘RMS
bug that just about everybody likes— Titanic’, and features stars like
pill bugs. If you ever pick one up, you Leonardo DiCaprio and Kate
know why its nickname is “roly-poly.” Winslet. Who directed the film?
A pill bug rolls up into a tight little
ball to protect itself. This bug is scared
of you, not the other way around!
These little gray or brown bugs can
be found almost everywhere in the

United States except the desert. That
is because they need to stay moist. (a) David Fincher
But they can live in dry places like (b) James Cameron
California thanks to lawn sprinklers. (c) Clint Eastwood
One of their favorite hang-outs is
(d) Michael Bay
under damp flower pots.
Mock Test-5 G-29
29. She was an Indian theatre and 31. India played its first test match
screen actress known for her work against
in Hindi and Marathi cinema. She (a) England (b) South Africa
began her acting career in the (c) Pakistan (d) Australia
Marathi theatre. She is known for
32. Which of the following is not an
her notable role in the film ‘Hum
aerobic exercise?
Saath Saath Hain.’ She passed
away recently. Who among the (a) Walking (b) Jumping
following is being described above? (c) Talking (d) Swimming
(a) (b) 33. Trying to find a solution to a
problem is known as
(a) Problem solving
(c) (d)
(b) Decision making
(c) Self-awareness
30. Who among the following cricket (d) Critical thinking
players was declared ‘man of the 34. When should your family make a
match’ in the Cricket World Cup fire escape plan?
2015? (a) Never. My family does not
(a) (b) need a plan.
(b) A
fter you have called to report
the fire.
(c) (d)
(c) Before there is a fire in your
home.
(d) When the smoke alarm beeps.
EBD_7095
G-30 Mock Test-5
35. What should you do if you need to (a) Hyderabad
cross the street? (b) New Delhi
(a) Ask an adult to help if you
(c) Chennai
are under age 10.
(d) Bhubaneswar
(b) Look left, right and left again
for traffic. 39. Who among the following has been
(c) Make sure drivers see you. honored with the 2016 Saraswati
Samman?
(d) All of the above.
(a) (b)
36. When is the National Youth Day
celebrated in India?
(a) 14 February
(b) 14 November
Naiyer Sugatha
(c) 12 January Masud Kumari
(d) 1 December (c) (d)
37. Which Indian personality has won
the 2017 Goldman Environmental
Prize?
(a) Prafulla Samantra Surji Mahabaleshwar
Paatar Sail
(b) Rashida Bee
40. Which city hosted India’s first sport
(c) Champa Devi Shukla theme literary festival ‘SporTale’?
(d) Ramesh Agrawal (a) Shillong
38. Which city will host the 105th (b) Pune
edition of the Indian Science (c) Chennai
Congress (ISC)-2018? (d) New Delhi

LOGICAL
REASONING
MOCK TEST 1–5
EBD_7095
Mock Test-1 LR-1
Mock Test 1
1. What are the next two numbers in DIRECTIONS : Find out the word
the pattern below? which CANNOT be made from the
8, 10, 14, 20, ? , ? letters of the given words.
(a) 28, 30 (b) 30, 28 3. REASONABLE
(c) 28, 38 (d) 20, 30 (a) BRAIN (b) BONES
DIRECTIONS : In each of the (c) NOBLE (d) ARSON
question, some letters are given which
are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 followed 4. If 'Green' is called 'Red', 'Red' is
by four options containing called 'Yellow' and 'Yellow' is called
combinations of these numbers. Find 'Blue', what is the colour of parrot?
the combination of numbers so that (a) Green (b) Red
letters arranged accordingly to form a
meaningful word. (c) Yellow (d) Blue
2. I P E L O C 5. In a certain code ROPE is written
1 2 3 4 5 6 as $3%6 an RITE is written as
$4#6. How is PORT written in that
(a) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 6
code?
(b) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6
(a) % 4 $ # (b) $ 3 % #
(c) 2, 5, 4, 1, 6, 3
(c) $ 64 % (d) % 3 $ #
(d) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2, 6
EBD_7095
LR-2 Mock Test-1
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 to 8) : Look at 9.
the figure below and answer the 1 2
following questions. 3 4
Mirror Figure (X)
3 4
(a)
6. Which tree is 3rd to the left of second
tree from right end?
3 4
(a) Q (b) T
(b) 1 2
(c) R (d) S
7. If tree Q and S interchange their
positions, then which of the
(c)
following trees of adjacent to Q?
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) U
1 2
(d) 3 4
8. If tree R is removed from the row,
then which tree is in middle of the
row? DIRECTIONS : Find the mirror image
of combination of letters.
(a) P (b) Q
(c) S (d) T 10.
DIRECTIONS : Which of the following (a) (b)

figures is the mirror image of figure
(c) (d)
(X)?

Mock Test-1 LR-3
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11&12) : One (a) South-east

problem figure is followed by four (b) South-west
options. In one of the option, the figure
similar to the problem figure is exactly (c) North-east
embedded/hidden without any (d) North-west
orientation. Find the option.
14. Garima walks towards east, after
11. travelling some distance she take a
left turn and again travelling some
distance she again turns to left. In
(a) (b)
which direction she will be facing
now?
(c) (d)
(a) North (b) East
12. (c) West (d) South

15. If the day before yesterday was
(a) (b) Friday, what day will be day after
tomorrow?
(a) Friday (b) Thursday
(c) (d)
(c) Wednesday (d) Tuesday
DIRECTION (Q. 13) : Use the figure 16. Rohan's birthday falls on the day
given below to answer the questions. just after 4th Monday of the January
13. If P and Q interchanges their 20XX. The day on which Rohan
position and S and R interchanges celebrates his birthday is _________.
their position. Then S and Q move January 20XX
diagonally and meet at the centre.
S M T W Th F S
P is in __________ of S.
. .
1 2 3
S R
(a) 21st (b) 23rd
. .
P Q
(c) 22nd (d) 26th
EBD_7095
LR-4 Mock Test-1
DIRECTION (Q. 17) : There is a
certain relationship between the pair
of figures on the either side of : :.
Identify the relationship and find the
missing figure.
17.
(a) 8 and 10 (b) 10 and 5
(a) (b) (c) 8 and 12 (d) 8 and 9
21. Which of the following Venn-
(c) (d) diagram correctly illustrates the
relationship among the classes :
DIRECTION (Q. 18) : Find odd one out. Carrot, Food, Vegetables
18. (a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22 to 25) : Read
19. Find the number which when added the information carefully to answer the
to itself 13 times, gives 112. questions.
(a) 6 (b) 10
Anu, Preeti, Rahul, Manu, Kanika
(c) 8 (d) 4 and Zara are sitting in a row.
20. How many rectangles and circles Kanika and Zara are in the centre.
are there in the given picture? Anu and Preeti are at the ends.
Rahul is sitting to the left of Anu.

Mock Test-1 LR-5
22. Who is sitting right to the Rahul? Pigeons, Birds, Dogs

(a) Zara (b) Manu
(a) (b)
(c) Anu (d) Preeti
23. Who sits in the middle of the row? (d) (d)
(a) Preeti and Anu
27. Complete the picture.
(b) Kanika and Zara
(c) Manu and Rahul
(d) Zara and Rahul
24. Which one of the following
statement is correct?
(a) (b)
(a) Zara sits third to the right of
Anu.
(b) Kanika is sitting second to the (c) (d)
left of Rahul.
(c) Preeti and Anu are neighbours 28. In the question, a piece of paper is
folded and cut and then folded. One
(d) None of the above of the four options resembles the
25. Who is sitting immediate left of unfolded paper. Select the correct
Kanika? option.
(a) Manu (b) Kanika
(c) Anu (d) Preeti
26. Select from four alternative
diagrams, the one that best (a) (b)
illustrates the relationship among
the three classes : (c) (d)

EBD_7095
LR-6 Mock Test-1
29. Find the water image of the given
picture.
(d)
30. The f igure below shows six

containers filled with water to the
(a) brim. What is the total volume of
water in the six containers?
(b)
(a) 5000 ml
(b) 4 litres 50 ml
(c)
(c) 900 ml
(d) 4500 ml

Mock Test-1 LR-7
Mock Test 2
1. Find the missing number. DIRECTION (Q. 3) : Find out the
word which CANNOT be made from the
letters of the given words.
(a) 93 (b) 111 3. CONSCIOUS
(c) 918 (d) 981 (a) SON (b) COIN
DIRECTIONS : In each of the (c) SUN (d) NOSE
question, some letters are given which 4. In a certain code BOARD is written
are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 followed as 54#12 and MORE is written as
by four options containing 941$. How is DREAM written in
combinations of these numbers. Find that code?
the combination of numbers so that
letters arranged accordingly to form a (a) 21$#9 (b) 21$#9
meaningful word. (c) 51$#9 (d) 25$#9
2. T R I F U 5. If 'Frog' is called 'Lizard', 'Lizard' is
1 2 3 4 5 called 'Fish', 'Fish' is called 'Snake'
and 'Snake' is called 'Mole', then to
(a) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 which is fisherman related?
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (a) Snake (b) Lizard
(c) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 (c) Fish (d) Frog
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
EBD_7095
LR-8 Mock Test-2
DIRECTIONS (6&7) : Ten balls are (a)
put in a row. Look at the figure and
answer the questions based on it. (b)
(c)
6. If two more balls are added on the (d)

left of ball 1, how many balls will be DIRECTION (Q. 10): Find the mirror
on right of ball 4? image of combination of letters or
(a) 6 (b) 5 numbers.
(c) 4 (d) 7
10.
7. If two more balls are added between
ball 5 and 6, how many balls there (a) (b)
between ball 3 and ball 9?
(c) (d)
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 9 DIRECTIONS (11&12) : One problem
figure is followed by four options. In one
8. Nitika ranks eighteenth in a class of the option, the figure similar to the
of 27 students. What is her rank
problem figure is exactly embedded/hidden
from the last?
without any orientation. Find the option.
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 16 11.
DIRECTION (Q. 9): Which of the
following figures is the mirror image of
figure (X)? (a) (b)
(c) (d)
Mirror
Mock Test-2 LR-9
(a) Sunday (b) Monday

12.
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
16. Garima's birthday falls on the next
(a) (b) day of her parents anniversary. Her
parents anniversary will be on 2nd
Sunday of July 20XX. When will
(c) (d) Garima celebrate her birthday?
DIRECTIONS (13&14) : Use the figure July 20XX

given below to answer the questions. S M T W Th F S
. R . (a) 13th
1 2 3
(b) 14th
. .
V
N
(c) 15th (d) 16th
. .
P S
DIRECTION : There is a certain
Q U T
. relationship between the pair of figures
on the either side of : :. Identify the
13. Which Point is South - east of P? relationship and find the missing
figure.
(a) T (b) R
(c) Q (d) V
17. : :: : ?
14. Which point is in North of S?
(a) V (b) T
(a) (b)
(c) R (d) U
15. If the second day of a 30 days month
is Friday, which of the following (c) (d)
would be the last day of the month?

EBD_7095
LR-10 Mock Test-2
DIRECTION (18) : Find odd one out. 21. The figure X given below is
incomplete. Which option figure is
18. (a) (b) required to complete the figure?
(c) (d) ?
19. What is the weight of the teddy bear
in the adjoining figure?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(a) 400 g (b) 450 g 22. Select from the five alternative
diagrams, the one that best
(c) 300 g (d) 600 g illustrates the relationship among
20. Which of the following figures the three classes :
below is not a symmetric figure? Truck, Ship, Goods
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)

Mock Test-2 LR-11
23. In the following question, a square Six girls are sitting in a circle. Annie
transparent sheet with a pattern is is facing to Beenu. Beenu is to the
given. Figure out from amongst the right of Esha and left of Cheenu.
four alternatives as to how the Cheenu is to the left of Deepu.
pattern would appear when the Lovely is to the right of Annie. Now,
transparent sheet is folded at the Deepu exchanges her seat with
dotted line. Lovely and Esha with Beenu.
25. Who will be sitting to the left of
Deepu?
(a) Esha (b) Annie
(c) Cheenu (d) Lovely
(a) (b)
26. Who will be sitting to the left of
Cheenu?
(c) (d) (a) Annie (b) Beenu
(c) Esha (d) Lovely
24. How many triangles are there in the
given figure? 27. Who will be sitting opposite to
Annie?
(a) Lovely (b) Esha
(c) Beenu (d) Deepu
28. Who are the neighbours of Lovely?
(a) 5 (b) 7
(a) Cheenu, Annie
(c) 9 (d) 10
(b) Esha, Lovely
DIRECTIONS (25 to 29) : Study the
information carefully and answer the (c) Deepu, Esha
questions. (d) None of these

EBD_7095
LR-12 Mock Test-2
29. Which statement is correct 30. Find the water image of the
regarding Annie? following picture.
(a) Annie faces Beenu
(b) Annie is sitting second to the
right of Esha
(c) Annie is sitting next to Cheenu
(d) Annie is sitting to the right of
lovely (a) (b)
(c) (d)

Mock Test-3 LR-13
Mock Test 3
1. Identify the rule followed in the (c) Gives news
number series given below. (d) Gives money
2 4 8 16 32 64 128DIRECTION (Q. 3) : Choose one word
which can be formed from the letters of
(a) Add 2 in previous term to get
the given word.
the next term
(b) Multiply previous terms by 2 to 3. MEASUREMENT
get the next term (a) MASTER
(c) Subtract 2, 4 ............. (b) MANTLE
sequentially
(c) SUMMIT
(d) Multiply the number by itself to
get the next term (d) ASSURE
DIRECTION (Q. 2): Find the category 4. If 'City' is called 'Village', 'Village'
of given word so formed by combination is called ' Forest' and 'Forest' is
of letters arranged accordingly to form called 'Building', then where do
a meaningful word. deers live?
3. R A S T (a) City (b) Village
(a) Gives light (c) Forest (d) Building
(b) Give water
EBD_7095
LR-14 Mock Test-3
5. If in a certain language LATE is Riya : She has only one girl behind
coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded her.
as 7*3$, then how will HAIL be Megha : She is not the first.
coded in the same language?
Kirti : She is after sapna.
(a) 7&8* (b) &7*8
Komal : She is before Riya.
(c) 7*&8 (d) 7&*8
_____ and _____ stood at first and
6. If flowers are arranged in the order last positions respectively.
from P to W (as in alphabetical
(a) Kirti, Sapna
series), then how many flowers are
to the left of U? (b) Sapna, Riya
(c) Komal, Kirti
(d) Megha, komal
(a) 5 (b) 6 DIRECTION (Q. 9) : Find the mirror

image of figures along dotted line MN.
(c) 3 (d) 4
M
7. If the given below numbers are 1 2
9.
arranged in ascending order, then
+ –
which number will be in the middle × ¸
place? 3 4
110, 315, 913, 517, 593, 890, 193, N
498, 423, 723, 973
(a) 498 (b) 517
34
(c) 423 (d) 593 ¸ ×
(a) (b)
– +
8. In a race competition, there are 5 12
finalists.
Sapna : She stood just after Megha.

Mock Test-3 LR-15
(c) 11.
(X)
12
+
(a) (b)
–
(d) ¸ ×
34
(c) (d)
DIRECTION (Q. 10): Find the mirror 12.

image of letters combination given
below.
(X)
(a) (b)
10.
Mirror
(a) (c) (d)
(b) 13. Priya walks towards north, after

(c) travelling some distance she turns
left, again travelling some distance
(d) she turns right, in which direction
DIRECTIONS (11 & 12) : Which of she will be facing now?
the following part is exactly embedded (a) North (b) East
or hidden in figure (X)?
(c) West (d) South

EBD_7095
LR-16 Mock Test-3
14. Megha is facing the library. If she DIRECTION (Q. 17) : Find odd one out.
turns to her left, she will face the
community centre. She turn B
_______ to her left. 17. (a) M B
N
School M
Police post Mall
5
(b)
5
N
Church Megha Library
M
(c)
Train station Park
Community centre N
1 3
(a) turn (b) turn (d) M N
4 4
(c)
1
turn (d) DIRECTION (Q. 18) : There is definite
1
turn
2 relationship between figures (i) and (iii).
3
15. How many possible combinations of Establish a similar relationship
1 one pencil and one eraser from 3 between figures (ii) and (iv) by selecting
pencils and 3 erasers can be a suitable figure from the options that
formed? would replace (?) in figure (iv).
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 15 18.
: :: :?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
16. If today is Friday, 24th February,
than previous friday fell on ______. (a) (b)
(a) 17th (b) 16th
(c) (d)
(c) 18th (d) 19th
Mock Test-3 LR-17
19. There are 5 children in a class. Each 22. Who is good in Football, Volleyball,
shook hands each other. How many Baseball and Cricket?
handshakes took place? (a) Rohit (b) Sagar
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) Kapil (d) Gaurav
(c) 10 (d) 5 23. Who is good in Hockey, Volleyball
20. How many horizontal lines are and Baseball?
there in the adjoining figure? (a) Gaurav (b) Kapil
(c) Sagar (d) Rohit
24. Which of the following diagrams
correctly represents Elephants,
Wolves, Animals?
(a) 6 (b) 3
(a) (b)
(c) 5 (d) 4
DIRECTIONS (21 to 23) : Read the
(c) (d)
information carefully and answer the
given questions. 25. Choose a figure which would most
Raghav and Kapil are good in closely resemble the unfolded form
Hockey and Volleyball. Sagar and of Figure (Z).
Rohit are good in Hockey and
Baseball. Gaurav and Kapil are
good in Cricket and Volleyball. X Y Z
Sagar, Gaurav and Mohit are good
in football and Baseball.
(a) (b)
21. Who is good in Cricket, Volleyball
and Hockey?
(a) Kapil (b) Rohit (c) (d)
(c) Sagar (d) Gaurav

EBD_7095
LR-18 Mock Test-4
Mock Test 4
1. How many circles will be there in DIRECTION (Q. 3) : Choose one word
Pattern 5? which can be formed from the letters of
the given word.
3. PROGRAMME
(a) ROAST
Pattern 1 Pattern 2 Pattern 3 (b) MOARSE
(a) 16 (b) 13 (c) MORE
(c) 14 (d) 7 (d) GRAMS
DIRECTION (Q. 2) : Find the category
4. If means means
of given word so formed by combination
of letters arranged accordingly to form means and
a meaningful word.
2. R A W E T means then which has exactly
(a) Used in sleeping four lines of symmetry?
(b) Used for talking (a) (b)

(c) Used for drinking
(c) (d)
(d) Used for writing

Mock Test-4 LR-19
5. If 2 means 5, 5 means 7 and 7 means taller than Raman but shorter than
13, then which is prime factor of 45? Ajay. Aman is taller than two boys
(a) 2 (b) 5 and shorter than two boys. Who is
the tallest?
(c) 7 (d) 13
(a) Ajay (b) Sahil
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6&7) : Eight
(c) Raman (d) Aman
students are in the queue of science
museum ticket counter. Observe the figure DIRECTION 9 : Find the mirror image
and answer the questions based on it. of figure/letters combination given
below.
9.
6. How many students are behind Mirror

Garima, it two more students are
added in the queue? (a)
(a) 7 (b) 5 (b)
(c) 4 (d) 8
(c)
7. If Beena and Megha interchange
their positions, then Priya is ______ (d)
girl behind Beena.
DIRECTION : Find the mirror image
(a) 2nd (b) 4th of figures along dotted line MN.
(c) 3rd (d) 5th
M
8. There are five friends Sahil, Ajay, 10.
A C
Aman, Raman and Rohit. Ajay is
D F
shorter than only one boy. Rohit is
shorter than Raman and Aman is N

EBD_7095
LR-20 Mock Test-4
F D DIRECTIONS (13 & 14) : Answer the
questions based on the direction and
(a) C A (b) places given in the figure.
Home
School Library
(c) (d)
Park Latika Mall
DIRECTIONS (11 & 12) : Which of
the following part is exactly embedded
or hidden in figure (X)? Church Post-office
Temple
13. Latika is facing home. She will be

11. 1
facing _______ if she makes a
Figure (x) 4
turn to her right.
(a) School (b) Library
(a) (b)
(c) Temple (d) Mall
14. Latika is facing park. She will be
(c) (d) 1
facing ______ if she makes a turn
2
to her left.
12. (a) School (b) Mall
(c) Temple (d) Library
(a) (b) 15. How many possible combinations of
1 butterfly and 1 flower can be
(c) (d)

Mock Test-4 LR-21
formed from 3 butterflies and 4

flowers? (c) (d)
(a) 12 (b) 10 DIRECTION : Find odd one out.

(c) 11 (d) 9
16. Latika practices her dance 18. (a) (b)
competition on every 2nd day of
june 20XX starting from first (c) (d)
Monday of month. How many days
will she practice for her 19. Choose a figure which would most
competition? closely resemble the unfolded form
of Figure (Z).
June 20XX
S M T W Th F S
1
X Y Z
(a) 13 days (b) 14 days
(c) 15 days (d) 16 days (a) (b)
DIRECTION : There is a definite
relationship between figures (i) and (iii). (c) (d)
Establish a similar relationship
between figures (ii) and (iv) by selecting 20. Which of the following diagrams
a suitable figure from the options that correctly represents Sparrows,
would replace (?) in figure (iv). Birds and Mice
17.
: :: :? (a) (b)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
EBD_7095
LR-22 Mock Test-4
21. What is the height of the rabbit? There are five different houses A to E,
in a row. A is to right of B and E is to the
left of C and right of A, B is to right of D.
23. Which one of the houses is in the
middle of the row?
(a) D (b) A
(c) B (d) C
24. Who sits immediate right of A?
(a) B (b) A
(a) 36 cm (b) 37 cm
(c) E (d) C
(c) 38 cm (d) 39 cm
25. The figure X given below is
22. How many squares are there in the incomplete. Which option figure is
figure below? required to complete the figure?
(X)
(a) 15 (b) 17
(a) (b)
(c) 19 (d) 20
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 23-24) : Read the
information carefully and answer the (c) (d)
questions.

Mock Test-5 LR-23
Mock Test 5
1. What is the number on Doll 10? (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) Zero
4. If VII means XI, XI means XII, XII
means C, then which comes
(a) 2 (b) 1 immediately after XI in counting?
(c) 3 (d) 4 (a) XII (b) XI
2. How many meaningful words could (c) IX (d) X
be formed with the third, fifth,
fifteen and seventeenth letter of 5. If means , means
alphabets given below. If more than
and means , then which is
two words are formed give M as the
answer, if no such word is formed formed using squares?
give X as the answer.
(a) (b)
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) (d)
(c) M (d) X
6. Three persons A, B and C are
3. How many possible words could be standing in a queue.
formed from the letters U, N and R?

EBD_7095
LR-24 Mock Test-5
(i) There are five persons between DIRECTION (Q. 9) : Find the mirror
A and B image of figures along dotted line MN.
(ii) There are eight person s
9. M
between B and C
N
(iii) A is standing behind B E S
W
If three persons are ahead of C, N
what could be the number of
persons in the queue?
(a) 19 (b) 17 (a) (b)
(c) 18 (d) 20
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 7 & 8) : Answer (c) (d)
the questions based on the given series.
A3QR1WXPTUI4ES6VYZ DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10 & 11) : Which
7. If 1 and 6 interchange their of the following part is exactly
positions, then how many letters embedded or hidden in figure (X)?
and numbers are there between S
10.
and R?
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 11 (d) 8 Figure (X)
8. If all the numbers are removed from

the Series, then the remaining
letters are _______. (a) (b)
(a) 14 (b) 15
(c) 16 (c) 13 (c) (d)

Mock Test-5 LR-25
11. (a) North (b) East

(c) West (d) South
14. Priya remembers her cousin's
Figure (X)
birthday falls between 18th March
to 21st March, her father
(a) (b) remembers that date is an odd
number. What will be the date of
Priya's cousin birthday?
(c) (d) (a) 19th March
(b) 20th March
DIRECTIONS (Q. 12 & 13) : Use the
(c) 21st March
diagram below to answer the questions.
(d) 18th March
15. How many possible combinations of
1 watch and1 cell phone can be
used from given information?
Watches Cell phones

Titan Nokia
12. Apple tree is _______ of papaya tree. Maxima Motorola
Fastrack Samsung
(a) North (b) East
Sonata Tata
(c) West (d) South Reliance
13. Jerry faces mango tree goes HTC
straight, take a left turn to reach at Blackberry
orange tree, then again a left turn
to reach at apple tree. At which (a) 18 (b) 14
direction will he face now?
(c) 11 (d) 28

EBD_7095
LR-26 Mock Test-5
DIRECTION (Q. 16) : Which of the
following figures is same as the Problem (c) B (d) B
Figure?
DIRECTION (Qs. 18-19) : Study the
16. following information carefully and
answer the questions.
The picture shows Avika and her three
sisters, Liya, Bulbul and Janvi. Avika
(a) (b) does not have a star on her T-shirt.
Bulbul does not have a flower or a flag
on her T-shirt. Janvi's T-shirt has polka
(c) (d) dots. Liya does not have a flag on her
T-shirt.
DIRECTION (Q. 17) : There is a
definite relatoinship between figures (i)
and (iii). Establish a similar
relationship between figures (ii) and (iv)
by selecting a suitable figure from the
options that would replace (?) in figure
(iv).
17.
18. Which sister has flag printed T-
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) shirt?
(a) Janvi (b) Avika
(a) (b) A (c) Liya (d) Bulbul

Mock Test-5 LR-27
19. Which sister has star printed T- 22. Find the water image of the picture.
shirt?
(a) Bulbul (b) Janvi
(c) Avika (d) Liya
20. Count the number of triangles in
the figure?
(a)
(b)
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c)
(c) 9 (d) 12
(d)
21. Kajal had to solve 9 problems on
division for going to museum along
with her parents. She took 1 hr 30 23. Which of the following diagrams
minutes to complete the work. correctly represents Boys, Students,
Athletes.
Number of minutes she took to solve
one problem is ______.
(a) 9 mins (b) 12 mins (a) (b)
(c) 10 mins (d) 8 mins

(c) (d)

EBD_7095
LR-28 Mock Test-5
24. Nihal has to wear a shirt, trouser 25. How many side does the figure
and shoes for an interview. He has have?
the following options available.
Shirt Trou s ers Sho es

Pink Black Black
Green Blue Bro wn
W hite
(a) 13 (b) 14
How many possible combinations (c) 15 (d) 16
can be made?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 18

CYBER
MOCK TEST 1–5
EBD_7095
Mock Test 1
1. Zip disks were launched (at the (a) Optical mark reader
time of its first release) with the
capacity of……….. (b) Keyboard
(c) Barcode Reader
(d) Scanner
3. The various parts of computer

(a) 100MB
(b) 1MB are connected to each other with
(c) ITB ………….
(d) 1GB
(a) Power cables
2. Which input device can be used
to read data from packaging and (b) Data cables
book covers?
(c) Fiber cables
(d) Wirelessly

EBD_7095
C-2 Mock Test-1
4. Which of the following determines 7. What piece of hardware do EIDE
the power of a computer? cables connect to?
(a) Speed of its processor and (a) hard disk
capacity of RAM. (b) CPU

(c) Keyboard
(b) Speed of its processor and
(d) Mouse
capacity of ROM.
8. What is a peripheral hardware
(c) Speed of its operating system device?
and process. (a) Any device connected to a
computer but not a part of it.
(d) Only capacity of hard disk.
(b) All websites available on
5. Abacus was the first internets.
(a) electronic computer (c) All the software running on
the computer.
(b) mechanical computer
(d) Paper used in a printer.
(c) electronic calculator
9. What is full form of CMOS?
(d) mechanical calculator
(a) Complementary metal oxide–
6. Which generation of computer is semiconductor
still under development (b) Common metal-oxide-
(a) Fourth Generation semiconductor.
(c) Conductance metal-oxide-
(b) Fifth Generation
semiconductor.
(c) Sixth Generation
(d) Compact metal-oxide-
(d) Seventh Generation. semiconductor.
Mock Test-1 C-3
10. Which of the following options 12. Which of the following is/are
system software’s?
is/are correct about the software
program? (a)
(a) A set of instruction for your

computer. (b)
(b) Type of computer code.
(c) A computer language.

(c)
(d) A set of computer code.
11. Which of the following is/are
software? (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) 13. While working with MS-Paint
which option is used to add name
(b)
to your drawing?
(a) Text tool
(c) (b) Pencil tool
(c) Air brush tool
(d) Erase tool
(d) All of these.

EBD_7095
C-4 Mock Test-1
14. Which of the following can create 17. Which of the following not a social
an effect that can be used in making networking site?
an illusion of 3D perspective? (a)
(a) Skew
(b)
(b) Rotate
(c) Stretch (c)
(d) Flip (d)
15. Which of the following tools is/

18. Which of the following is a correct
are used to enter the text in your
internet address?
drawing?
(a) www.yahoo.im
(a)
(b) www.cartoonnetwork.co
(b)
(c) www.hotmail.com
(c)
(d) www.indiatime.comm
(d) 19. Which of the following was the
name of the first network?
16. Internet can be used for ________.
(a) ARPANET
(a) Checking exam results
(b) EXTRANET
(b) Chatting
(c) INTRANET
(c) E-mailing
(d) ERPANET
(d) All of these
Mock Test-1 C-5
20. Which of the following is/are 22. In MS-Word 2010, which color
correct about the networking? wavy line under a word indicates
(a) Easy sharing of internet a spelling or grammar mistake?
among connects computers. (a) Red

(b) Easy in transfer of data from (b) Green
one computer to another.
(c) Yellow
(c) Easy in sharing printers
(d) Both (A) and (B)
and other devices among
connected computers. 23. Microsoft Word 2010 is what type
of application software?
(d) All of these.
(a) Word processing software.
21.
Which of the following is/
are computer network that (b) Word accessing software
interconnects computers within a (c) Word writing software.
limited area such as a residence,
(d) None of these.
school, and laboratory?
24. A pop-up menu is displayed when
(a) Local Area Network (LAN)
we do right click on a desktop icon.
(b) Metropolitan Area Network Which of the following options
(MAN)
holds the pop-up menu depicted
(c) Wide area Network (WAN) in the given image in Windows 7?
(d) None of these.

EBD_7095
C-6 Mock Test-1
(a) (c) Windows is a web-based
language.
(b) (d)
Windows is application
software.
(c) 26.
Which of the following NOT
present in control panel?
(d) (a)
25. Which of the following is/are (b)

correct about windows?
(a) Windows is an operating (c)

system.
(b) Windows is a programming

(d)
language.

Mock Test 2
1. The most suitable output device for (c) Handheld scanner
producing a wage slip printed on a
(d) Handheld sensor.
carbonized paper is a ……………
(a) Inject printer 3. Which printer would you
(b) Laser printer recommend to your school
(c) Plotter administrative department which
(d) Dot matrix printer wants to print out large quantities

of black and white mail merged
2. Identify the given device.
letters?
(a) Laser
(b) Inkjet
(c) Dot matrix

(a) Flatbed scanner
(b) Optical flatbed scanner (d) Daisy-wheel

EBD_7095
C-8 Mock Test-2
4. Which was the most popular first (b) Because they can stop or
generation computer? allow the flow of current
(a) IBM 1650 (c) Both of above
(b) IBM 360 (d) None of above
(c) IBM 1130 7. A tiny piece of silicon which has

electric circuits on it is called …….
(d) IBM 2700
(a) IC Chip
5. When was the world’s first laptop
computer introduced in the (b) Vacuum tube
market and by whom? (c) Memory
(a) Hewlett-Packard, 1980 (d) Transistor
(b) Epson, 1981 8. Identify the given device?
(c) Laplink Traveling Software
Inc, 1982
(d) Tandy Model-200, 1985
6. Why are vacuum tubes also called

(a) CMOS battery
valves?
(b) NMOS battery
(a) Because they can amplify the
weak signals and make them (c) PMOS battery
strong (d) Mobile battery

Mock Test-2 C-9
9. A computer must have………… 12. What kind of software coordinates

(a) An Operating System. the operations between application
(b) A virus checking program. software and the computer?
(c) A word processing software. (a) Utility Software
(d) A printer attached to them. (b) System software

10. Which of the following statements (c) Package software
is/are correct about the type of
(d) Special software
software?
13. Observed the given image,
1. Operating system software.
2. Application software.
3. System software.
(a) (i) and (ii) In which color 1, color 2 boxes are
(b) (ii) and (iii) used to……………..
(c) (i) and (iii) (a)
Select the Foreground
(d) All of these. color and Background color
respectively,
11. System software includes ...……
(b)
Select the Background
(a) Device driver color and Foreground color
(b) BIOS respectively.
(c) Operating System (c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) All of these. (d) None of these

EBD_7095
C-10 Mock Test-2
14. Select the correct match of the
following columns, which are (c)
related to the MS- Paint. (d)
Column-I Column-II 16. Internet is used for audio and
1. Copy i) video calling across geographies.

A popular tool for such internet
2. Select ii)
calls is _________
3. Paste iii)
(a)
4. Resize iv)
(b)
5. Rotate v)
(c)
(a) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II, 5-V
(d)
(b) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-V, 5-III
17. Which of the following is a popular
(c) 1-III, 2-V, 3-IV, 4-I, 5-II
website to view video of latest
(d) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-V, 5-II
songs and movies?
15. Which tool should you use to bring
(a)
a zoomed in or a zoomed out image
(b)
to its original size?
(a) (c)
(d)
(b)

Mock Test-2 C-11
18. Which of the following software 20. Which of the following is/are the
programs that is/are used to popular networking software?
look at various kinds of internet (a) Windows NT

resources?
(b) MS-windows
(a) yahoo
(c) Unix
(b) Google
(d) All of these.
(c) Browsers
21. Which of the following are an
(d) You-tube initial and end systems connected
19. Who setup the first network? to a network?
(a) Department of defense (a) Client, host
(b) Rubin Balua (b) PC, server
(c) Blaise Pascal (c) Modem, host
(d) Roger Benjamin. (d) Client, server.

EBD_7095
C-12 Mock Test-2
22. Select the correct match of the following columns.
Column-1 Column-2
1. System and security I)
2. Network and Internet II)
3. Hardware and sound III)
4. Ease to access center IV)
(a) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
(b) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
(d) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III

Mock Test-2 C-13
23. To select your desktop’s (a) Shake 3D

background and theme, you (b) Clip 3D
should ………..
(c) Flip 3D
(a) Right click on the desktop and
(d) Peek
click personalize
25. Which of the following is the
(b) Type personalization in the
search bar of the start menu. default operating system for
Macintosh computers?
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Windows
(d) None of these.
(b) Mac OS X
24. Which of the following is called
the windows preview mode shown (c) iOS
in figure given below? (d) Linux OS

EBD_7095
Mock Test 3
1. In which of the following devices, a ball on the top rolled with a finger to
move the cursor on the screen?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
2. Select the correct match of the following columns.
Column 1 Column 2
1. Portable hard disk i)
2. Pen drive ii)

Mock Test-3 C-15
3. USB card iii)
4. Memory card reader iv)
(a) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II (b) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
(c) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I (d) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
3. Which of the following is a cloud storage and cloud computing services
from apple Inc?
(a) Cloud sync (b) eCloud
(c) mCloud (d) iCloud
4. Which of the following is/are media player and media library application
developed by Apple Inc.?
(a) iTune (b) eTune
(c) mTune (d) Apple Tune.

EBD_7095
C-16 Mock Test-3
5. Which of the following is a free 7. Identify the display given image.
video chat service from Google
that enables both one-on-one
chats and group chats with up to
ten people at a time?
(a) Google + Trends
(b) Google + Nexus.
(c) Google + Next

(a) Control panel
(d) Google + Hangouts
(b) Windows Explorer
6. How you can change your desktop’s
(c) Desktop
background and aero themes in
windows7? (d) Start menu
8. Identify the icon.
(a) Right click on the desktop
and click personalize or type
personalization in the search
bar of the start menu. (a) Appearance and
(b) Select the desktop’s Personalization
background and aero themes (b) Computer and mobile.
as you want.
(c) Network and internet
(c) Both (a) & (b).
(d) Computer and programs
(d) None of these.
Mock Test-3 C-17
9. Which feature can you use to (a) Menu Bar

combine two or more cells into a (b) System bar
single cell?
(c) Command prompt
(a) Insert
(d) Ribbon
(b) Merge
12. Which of the following is not a
(c) Split type of computer network?
(d) Delete (a) Local Area Network (LAN)
10. Which of the following is that can be (b) Personal Area Network (PAN)
used different page format within
(c) Wide area Network (WAN)
the same document by separating
(d) Remote Area Network (RAP)
the differently formatted area?
13. Which of the following is/are type
(a) Format break
of twisted pair cable?
(b) Line break
(a) Coaxial cable.
(c) Section break
(b) Shielded Twisted pair
(d) Document break
(c) Unshielded Twisted Pair
11. In menu system containing the
(d) Both (b) & (c)
tabs and the commands is called
the …………….. .

EBD_7095
C-18 Mock Test-3
14. Which of the following is correct 17. Which of the following is/are the
full form of NIC? companies that provide you access
(a) New Internet Connection
to the internet?
(b) Network interface card
(a) Internet service providers
(c) Network interface connection
(d) Network internet connection (b) Interpol address providers
15. Which of the following is/are not a (c) Intranet policy providers
search engine?
(d) None of these.
(a)
18. Which of the following options is
(b)
not used to select the particular
(c)
section of the image?
(d) (a)
16. Which of the following is the set of (b)

rules followed in the transmission (c)
of information on the internet?
(d) None of these.
(a) Internet policy.
19. What is use of invert selection?
(b) Internet prime.
(c) Internet address.
(d) Internet Protocols.

Mock Test-3 C-19
(a) It is used to select the (a) Application software

perticuler part of the image.
(b) Operating system software
(b) It is used to select the
(c) Utility software
reverse portion of the current
selection. (d) None of these.
(c) It is used to select all portion 22. Which of the following device have
of the image. both the qualities of hardware and
(d) It is used to select the free software?
form selection area.
(a) Firmware
20. Which of the following steps is
(b) CPU
correct to change the height and
width of the picture? (c) UPS
(a)
Image-Resize and skew- (d) BIOS
resize 23. Which of the following software is
(b) Image-Resize and skew- Flip used to play music and videos on
vertically windows?
(c) Image-Resize and skew- Flip
(a) Windows Media Player
horizontally
(b) Windows Sync Center
(d) All of these
21. What type of software is an (c) Windows Sound Recorder
antivirus software? (d) None of these.

EBD_7095
C-20 Mock Test-3
Which of the following is a
24. (a) They combine the functionality
latest android operating system of a tablet and a smart phone.
version7.0? (b) It having a screen which is
(a) Marshmallow intermediate in size between
that of a typical smart-phone
(b) Nougat
and a tablet computer.
(c) Lollipop
(c) There screen sizes range
(d) Kit-Kat varies from 5’’ to 6.9’’.
25. Which of the following options is/ (d) All of these.
are correct about phablets?

HINTS &
EXPLANATIONS
EBD_7095
ENGLISH
MOCK TEST 1
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 8 (c) 15 (b) 22 (c) 29 (b)

2 (c) 9 (d) 16 (b) 23 (a) 30 (d)
3 (b) 10 (c) 17 (d) 24 (a) 31 (a)
4 (d) 11 (a) 18 (b) 25 (c) 32 (b)
5 (d) 12 (a) 19 (a) 26 (a) 33 (a)
6 (c) 13 (d) 20 (d) 27 (a) 34 (a)
7 (d) 14 (b) 21 (a) 28 (c) 35 (a)
1. (a) A p r o p e r n o u n h a s t w o 6. (c) We use possessive pronouns

distinctive features: one, it will to refer to a specific person/
name a specific (usually a one- people or thing/things (the
of-a-kind) item, and second, it “antecedent”) belonging to a
will begin with a capital letter person/people (and sometimes
no matter where it occurs in belonging to an animal/animals
a sentence. Here, ‘Ram’ is a or thing/things). Here the
proper noun. toys belong to Mandy whose
2. (c) Collective noun is the name we possessive form is ‘hers’.
give to a group of nouns to refer 7. (d) An adjective is a kind of
to them as one entity. word that modifies a noun.
3. (b) A common noun is the word for The adjective gives more
something (e.g., boy, cat, lake, information about the noun
bridge). that goes with it.
4. (d) The verb be takes on different 8. (c) Here the adjective ‘red’ modifies
forms in the present and past. the noun ‘roses’; hence, it is
Here with the pronoun is adjective.
plural, so it would take the 9. (d) A w o r d o r p h r a s e t h a t
‘were’ form of be. modifies the meaning of an
5. (d) A noun that denotes FEMALE adjective, verb, or other adverb,
SEX is called Feminine Gender. expressing manner, place,
Here with Jolly, the pronoun time, or degree (e.g. slowly,
‘she’ will be used. there, now, today).
EBD_7095
2 Hints & Explanations
10. (c) Here the adverb ‘soundly’ 20. (d) The antonym of blunt which
modifies the verb ‘sleep’. means having a broad or
11. (a) Prepositions are words that rounded end is sharp.
give the additional information 25. (c) Ali, Suresh and Anil are
to the reader like where proper nouns and they should
something takes place, when begin with a capital letter no
or why something takes
matter where they occur in the
place and general descriptive
sentence.
information.
26. (a) ‘What is your full name? is an
12. (a) A conjunction is a word used to
connect clauses or sentences or interrogative sentence, so, it
to coordinate words in the same should end with the question
clause (e.g. and, but, if ). mark and begin with a word
13. (d) The conjunction ‘because’ is beginning with a capital letter.
used for giving reasons, here 27. (a) Taj Mahal is located at Agra.
having nothing for dinner is the 28. (c) Taj Mahal was built by Mughal
reason for shopping. Emperor Shah Jahan.
14. (b) The present tense uses the 29. (b) It took to build 22 years.
verb’s base form (write, work), 30. (d) According to the poem, the cat
or, for third-person singular has the same rights as human
subjects, the base form plus
beings.
an -s ending (he writes, she
31. (a) The poet has drawn a parallel
works).
15. (b) The simple past of ‘buy’ is between the rich people
‘bought’. and robbers as both rob the
16. (b) There are two types of articles: innocents.
The Definite Article (the) and 32. (b) Stud ents should c onduct
The Indefinite Article (a and themselves in the school by
an) because they are used to keeping themselves calm
indicate something unspecific. and quiet and respecting the
17. (d) A word or phrase that means teachers.
exactly or nearly the same as
33. (a) A hare, a jackal, an otter and a
another word or phrase in the
same language, here rich is a monkey lived in the forest.
synonym of wealthy. 34. (a) All the four friends discussed
18. (b) Here centre is the synonym of events of the day, exchange
middle. advice and made good
19. (a) Antonym is a word opposite resolutions every evening.
in meaning to another (here 35. (a) On the day of fast, alms were
attack and defend). given to beggars or a holy man.
Hints & Explanations 3
MOCK TEST 2
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 8 (c) 15 (c) 22 (a) 29 (c)

2 (b) 9 (a) 16 (a) 23 (a) 30 (d)
3 (b) 10 (a) 17 (b) 24 (b) 31 (a)
4 (c) 11 (a) 18 (a) 25 (a) 32 (c)
5 (d) 12 (c) 19 (a) 26 (b) 33 (a)
6 (a) 13 (b) 20 (a) 27 (c) 34 (b)
7 (a) 14 (d) 21 (c) 28 (d) 35 (c)
1. (b) Any group of fish congregating 8. (c) Here black describes the bird
together is called a shoal. that sang beautifully.
2. (b) The prefix is an element placed 9. (a) A w o r d o r p h r a s e t h a t
at the beginning of a word to modifies the meaning of an
adjust or qualify its meaning. adjective, verb, or other adverb,
3. (b) Hansel and Gretel are in the expressing manner, place,
plural form; hence, will take time, or degree (e.g. slowly,
there, now, today). Here once
‘are’ of the be form.
is an adverb.
4. (c) ‘His’ pronoun is used to refer
10. (a) The adverb ‘always’ means at
to a thing or things belonging
all times; on all occasions.
to or associated with a male
11. (a) The preposition ‘at’ is used to
person or animal previously point out specific time: I will
mentioned. meet you at 10 p.m., The bus
5. (d) ‘We’ pronoun is used by a will stop here at 6:00 p.m.
speaker to refer to himself or 12. (c) If you say that something will
herself and one or more other happen in the morning, you
people considered together. mean that it happened or will
6. (a) ‘Us’ pronoun is used by a happen during the morning.
speaker to refer to himself or 13. (b) The conjunction ‘but’ is used
herself and one or more other to introduce a phrase or clause
people as the object of a verb or contrasting with what has
preposition. already been mentioned.
EBD_7095
14. (d) The conjunction ‘because’ is 20. (a) Here praise is a synonym of
used for the reason that; since. admire.
Ex- He went to school on foot 21. (c) Antonym is a word opposite
because the school bus did not in meaning to another (here
turn up. cheap and costly).
15. (c) The conjunction ‘so’ is used as 22. (a) The antonym of famous is
‘and for this reason’; ‘therefore’. unknown.
16. (a) The present tense uses the 23. (a) D e e p m e a n s e x t e n d i n g
verb’s base form (write, work),
relatively far inward while
or, for third-person singular
shallow means not deep or
subjects, the base form plus
strong.
an -s ending (he writes, she
29. (c) Can you speak English? Is the
works).
correct option which begins
17. (b) There are two articles: the and
a/an. ‘The’ is used to refer to with the letter in capital and
specific or particular nouns; a/ ends with a question mark.
an is used to modify non-specific 30. (d) Coconut oil is used in India as
or non-particular nouns. an + hair oil, cooking oil and body
singular noun beginning with oil.
a vowel: an elephant; an egg; 31. (a) Coconut oil is extracted from
an apple; an idiot; an orphan. dried coconut kernel.
18. (a) a + singular noun beginning 32. (c) Coconut is fluid at warm
with a consonant: a boy; a car; temperature but solidifies at
a bike; a zoo; a dog. cool temperature.
19. (a) A word or phrase that means 33. (a) According to the poem, the
exactly or nearly the same as pools are bright and deep.
another word or phrase in the
34. (b) The hay is thick and green.
same language, here correct is
35. (c) The trout is grey and asleep.
a synonym of accurate.
MOCK TEST 3
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 8 (b) 15 (d) 22 (b) 29 (b)

2 (c) 9 (d) 16 (b) 23 (d) 30 (d)
3 (d) 10 (c) 17 (c) 24 (a) 31 (b)
4 (c) 11 (a) 18 (a) 25 (b) 32 (a)
5 (a) 12 (b) 19 (b) 26 (c) 33 (a)
6 (c) 13 (a) 20 (b) 27 (c) 34 (c)
7 (d) 14 (b) 21 (b) 28 (a) 35 (c)
1. (a) A noun that denotes a particular that. Ex- Though he is poor, he

thing; usually capitalized. Here does not borrow money from
Zacob is the proper noun. anybody.
2. (c) A noun that denotes any or all 14. (b) The past form of sleep is slept.
members of a class. Here doctor 15. (d) The past participle form of eat
is the common noun. is eaten.
3. (d) A pronoun that points out an 16. (b) There are two articles: the and
intended referent. Here that is a/an. ‘The’ is used to refer to
a demonstrative pronoun. specific or particular nouns; a/
4. (c) Here who is the interrogative an is used to modify non-specific
pronoun. or non-particular nouns. an +
5. (a) The present continuous form of singular noun beginning with
shine is shining. a vowel: an elephant; an egg;
9. (d) The preposition ‘inside’ means an apple; an idiot; an orphan.
Internal to, not outside; located 17. (c) Use ‘the’ to refer to people
in the bounds of which fits and or objects that are unique.
makes a meaningful sentence. EXAMPLES- The sun rose at
10. (c) The preposition before indicates 6:24 this morning. You can go
earlier than in time. anywhere in the world.
11. (a) The preposition by indicates by 18. (a) The PRESENT PERFECT
means of; with aid of; through TENSE is formed with a
the act or agency of. present tense form of “to have”
12. (b) The conjunction ‘because’ plus the past participle of
is used for giving reasons, the verb (which can be either
signifies for the reason that; on regular or irregular in form). I
account of. have done my job.
13. (a) The conjunction though means 19. (b) The present perfect of any verb
even though, in spite of the fact is composed of two elements : the
EBD_7095
appropriate form of the auxiliary 31. (b) When reflexive pronouns are
verb to have (present tense), plus used to put emphasis on a
the past participle of the main particular noun they are called
verb. emphatic pronouns. He himself
27. (c) E a s t e r i s c e l e b r a t e d i n told me this. I finished the job
Christianity. myself.
28. (a) Most religious historians 32. (a) We use interrogative pronouns
believe that many elements to ask questions. The interrog-
of the Christian observance ative pronoun represents the
of Easter were derived from thing that we don’t know (what
earlier Pagan celebrations. we are asking the question
29. (b) According to the Bible, Jesus’ about). There are four main
death and resurrection occurred interrogative pronouns: who,
around the time of the Jewish whom, what, which.
Passover, which was celebrated 33. (a) Some pronouns seem to be
on the first full moon following plural but are really singular.
the vernal equinox. Take, for instance, everyone.
30. (d) An abstract noun is a type of Such pronouns require a
noun that refers to something singular verb.
with which a person cannot
physically interact.
MOCK TEST 4
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 9 (d) 17 (d) 25 (a) 33 (b)

2 (d) 10 (c) 18 (b) 26 (b) 34 (c)
3 (d) 11 (a) 19 (a) 27 (d) 35 (b)
4 (b) 12 (a) 20 (c) 28 (a) 36 (a)
5 (a) 13 (c) 21 (d) 29 (a) 37 (d)
6 (b) 14 (a) 22 (b) 30 (a) 38 (a)
7 (d) 15 (c) 23 (b) 31 (a) 39 (d)
8 (c) 16 (a) 24 (d) 32 (c) 40 (c)
1. (b) Material Noun is the name of 2. (d) A common noun is the word for
a material or a substance or an something (e.g., bird, boy, cat,
ingredient of an alloy. lake, bridge).
Examples: Cotton dress is 3. (d) Collective noun is the name we
cheap. give to a group of nouns to refer
to them as one entity. Ex- a Ex- They have been waiting
bunch of keys. here for two hours.
4. (b) Past tense of shine is shone. 23. (b) Tail, beak, head are all nouns
5. (a) We use between to refer to but tell is verb.
two things which are clearly 24. (d) Material Noun is the name of
separated. We use among to a material or a substance or an
ingredient of an alloy.
talk about things which are not
Examples: Bangles are made of
clearly separated because they
gold.
are part of a group or crowd or 25. (a) An abstract noun is a type of
mass of objects. noun that refers to something
6. (b) Prepositions of Time: at, in, with which a person cannot
on. We use: at for a PRECISE physically interact. Ex-
TIME, in for MONTHS, YEARS, Beauty, Bravery, Brilliance,
CENTURIES and LONG Brutality etc.
PERIODS, on for DAYS and 26. (b) A relative pronoun is used to
DATES. connect a clause or phrase
7. (d) That introduces a subordinate to a noun or pronoun. Ex-
clause expressing a statement who, whom, which, whoever,
or hypothesis. Ex- She said whomever, whichever, and
that she was disappointed. that.
8. (c) Past tense of grow is grew. 27. (d) The verb trudge, swam and
9. (d) Past participle form of take is wait do not fit in the sentence.
taken. 28. (a) In the sentence, nice, police
10. (c) The rule about a/an is based on and dry do not fit but large is
the sound of the beginning of an appropriate word.
the following word, not on its 29. (a) The coordinating conjunction
first letter. The first sound of “and” is used to link different
one is “w” even though it begins parts of the sentence, which is
with the vowel “o”. Therefore the main job of conjunctions.
the indefinite article must be Basically, conjunctions join
“a” not “an”. words, phrases and clauses
11. (a) The past tense is a grammatical t o g e t h e r. C o o r d i n a t i n g
tense whose principal function Conjunctions are And, But,
is to place an action or situation Or, Nor, For, Yet, So.
in past time. Here the verb 30. (a) The coordinating conjunction
meet becomes met in past “and” will be used to link
tense. different parts of the sentence.
12. (a) The past form of sink is sank. 31. (a) The preposition ‘in’ is used for
13. (c) We use the Present Perfect months - in July, in September,
Continuous to show that for year- in 1998, in 2014, for
something started in the past seasons- in summer, in the
and has continued up until now. summer of 72.
EBD_7095
32. (c) The preposition ‘by’ is used to spot -they always end with a
indicate a mean or method: question mark (?)
Please send this package to 38. (a) An exclamatory sentence is a
Mumbai by airmail. I came sentence that expresses great
here by train. emotion such as excitement,
33. (b) The Golden Gate Park is surprise, happiness and anger,
the proper noun and park is and ends with an exclamation
common noun. point.
34. (c) The object pronoun of Henry is 39. (d) The meaning of preposition
him. UNLIKE is: not like: as a :
35. (b) The present tense uses the marked by lack of resemblance
verb’s base form (go, play), : different. The two books are
or, for third-person singular quite unlike. b : marked by
subjects, the base form plus an inequality : unequal. Hence,
-s ending (he goes, she plays). the opposite of sturdy is fragile.
36. (a) Negatives in the simple present 40. (c) We usually use but as a
are formed by adding don’t or conjunction linking two
doesn’t before the simple form contrastive sentences or
of the verb. clauses. Ex-
37. (d) Sentences that ask a question They had very little money,
are called interrogative but (they) always bought their
sentences. They’re easy to children expensive toys.
MOCK TEST 5
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 9. (b) 17. (b) 25. (b) 33. (b)

2. (b) 10. (a) 18. (d) 26. (b) 34. (d)
3. (c) 11. (c) 19. (c) 27. (b) 35. (a)
4. (d) 12. (b) 20. (c) 28. (a) 36. (b)
5. (b) 13. (c) 21. (d) 29. (a) 37. (a)
6. (c) 14. (d) 22. (a) 30. (b) 38. (d)
7. (b) 15. (b) 23. (d) 31. (b) 39. (c)
8. (c) 16. (a) 24. (c) 32. (c) 40. (b)
1. (d) Dancer, painter, singer are 2. (b) Belt, shoe, lace are all nouns
all nouns but hotter is an but black is the adjective.
adjective.
3. (c) A relative pronoun is used to 11. (c) The preposition ‘in’ is used to
connect a clause or phrase express while doing something:
to a noun or pronoun. Ex- In preparing for the final
who, whom, which, whoever, report, we revised the tone
whomever, whichever, and three times. Advertising needs
that. to be impressive in marketing
4. (d) T h e s t u d e n t s w h o w e r e a product.
absent… is the correct answer 12. (b) The preposition ‘in’ is used to
as the who acts as a relative indicate a location or place: She
pronoun. looked me directly in the eyes.
5. (b) The ducks swam in the pond is I am currently staying in a
correct option. hotel. My hometown is Mumbai,
6. (c) Only police officers can create which is in Maharashtra.
road barrier; hence, police is 13. (c) The common noun in the
the correct fill-in. sentence is fruit while the
7. (b) The conjunction ‘but’ is used proper noun is Apples and
to introduce a phrase or clause oranges.
contrasting with what has 14. (d) Foreign Language club is the
already been mentioned. proper noun while club is
8. (c) The conjunction ‘or’ is used to common noun.
express POSSIBILITIES. Ex- 15. (b) The object pronoun of ‘Kris and
Is it Tuesday or Wednesday his dad’ is ‘them’.
today? 16. (a) In the SIMPLE PRESENT, with
You can pay now or when you THIRD PERSON SINGULAR,
come back to pick up the paint. the verb always ends in -s:
he wants, she needs, he gives,
Are you listening to me or not?
she thinks.
9. (b) The preposition ‘on’ is used to
17. (b) Negatives in the simple present
indicate a device or machine, are formed by adding don’t or
such as a phone or computer: doesn’t before the simple form
He is on the phone right of the verb. The baby doesn’t
now. She has been on the sleep at night. I don’t like
computer since this morning. mangoes.
My favourite movie will be on 18. (d) A complete sentence must
TV tonight. have a subject and predicate.
10. (a) The preposition ‘for’ is used to A predicate is a verb that
mean because of. Ex- I am so expresses the subject’s action
happy for you. We feel deeply or state of being.
sorry for your loss. For this 19. (c) Captivity means the state of
reason, I’ve decided to quit this being imprisoned or slave;
freedom is the condition of
job.
being free.
EBD_7095
20. (c) Reveal means make visible and 32. (c) Lily felt overjoyed about living
cover means provide with a in her new town.
covering or cause to be covered. 33. (b) The passage is mainly about
21. (d) Huge means unusually great Lily and the four seasons i.e.
in size or amount or degree or winter, spring, summer and
especially extent or scope and autumn.
giant also means anything of 34. (d) All the four seasons are Lily’s
exceptional size. favourite thing in the new
22. (a) The baby sheep is also known town.
as Lamb. 35. (a) In addition means also, as well.
23. (d) Nuts and bolts means detailed 36. (b) In the passage, Lily as well
practical information about as the four seasons have been
how something works or how described.
37. (a) It snows in her new town, hence
something can be accomplished.
option I.
24. (c) The idiomatic phrase ‘on the
38. (d) In paragraph 5, we learn
tip of one’s tongue’, means a
about the costumes that Lilly
thought or idea is about to be
likes to wear. The author
said or almost remembered.
writes, “ Last year she wore
Ex- I have his name right on a mouse costume. This year
the tip of my tongue. she will wear a fish costume”.
26. (b) They are going to help us. Using this information, we
(subject+ aux.verb+ verb+ to- can understand that Lilly
infinitive+object) like to wear animal costumes.
27. (b) John washed the car yesterday. Therefore, it makes sense that
(subject+verb+object+adverb). she would wear a bird costume
28. (a) Most bats are harmless to next year. Choice (d) is correct.
people. (subject+ aux.verb+ The passage does not provide
adjective+ preposition+ noun) information to support choices
29. (a) You can only be confident about (a), (b), and (c). Therefore they
the goals which you set for are incorrect.
yourself. 39. (c) Autumn is also called ‘fall’.
30. (b) Tall is in contrast with ‘short’, 40. (b) Commas are used to separate
hence, the correct option. the individual words or phrases
31. (b) Telling something to friends or that together make up a list.
revealing a secret is in contrast Ex- The fish kept in the ponds
with something meant to be were eels, tench, pike, perch
secret. and carp.
MATHEMATICS
MOCK TEST-1
A N S W ER S K E Y
1. (b) 8. (a) 15. (c) 22. (d ) 29. (c)
2. (b) 9. (c) 16. (a) 23. (d ) 30. (c)
3. (c) 10. (b) 17. (b) 24. (a) 31. (b)
4. (a) 11. (c) 18. (a) 25. (b) 32. (d)
5. (c) 12. (c) 19. (b) 26. (a) 33. (b)
6. (a) 13. (b) 20. (b) 27. (b) 34. (b)
7. (d) 14. (b) 21. (b) 28. (b) 35. (b)
1. (b) Twice of 986456 = 1972912 7. (d) Anjali put 50 Pickles on 10

\ Required number Sandwiches.
= 1972912 – 563876 Number of Pickles on one
= 1409036 Sandwich = 50 ¸ 10 = 5
2. (b) 57 – 7 = 50 and 67 – 7 = 60 5 5 5 5
8. (a) , , and are unlike
2 7 9 3
fractions.
9. (c) One small rectangle contains 2
equal triangle.
Total number of triangles
HCF of 50 and 60 = 10 = 2 × 16 = 32
Hence, 10 is the greatest Number of shaded triangles
number that divides 57 and 67 = 16
leaving remainder 7. Number of unshaded triangles
3. (c) 985 = 900 + 50 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 5 = 32 – 16 = 16
CM + L + X + X + X + V 16 1
Fraction = = .
CMLXXXV. 32 2
4. (a) 42 = 2 × 3 × 7 10. (b) Sum of ages of Raghu and
70 = 2 × 5 × 7 Kavita = 21 + 22 = 43 years
Common factor = 2 × 7 = 14. 43 = 40 + 3
5. (c) (A) ® 3, (B) ® 4, (C) ® 1, (D) ® 2 = XL + III
6. (a) 3rd number from the left is 7 = XLIII.
7–2=5 11. (c) Place value of 9 at thousands
5 is 1st number from right. place = 9,000
EBD_7095
Place value of 9 at tens place 16. (a) Number of books in 5 shelves
= 90 = 5 × 12 = 60
Product = 9000 × 90 Total number of books
= 8,10,000. = 60 + 9 = 69.
12. (c) 5 + 6 = 11 17. (b) Perimeter of rectangle
Carry 1 is given to tens place = 2 × (length + breadth)
6+1+ = 15 A triangle having all its sides
7+ = 15 different is a scalene triangle.
= 15 – 7 = 8. 18. (a) ÐBCA = 78°
78° is an acute angle.
13. (b) ? +7 = 20
19. (b) Area of square = 9 × 9 = 81 cm2
Area of rectangle
? = 20 – 7 = 13
= 11 × 7 = 77 cm2
Square encloses more area.
Now, ? –5 = 13 20. (b) Cube has 6 faces. Each face is a
square of same size. It has 8
? = 13 + 5 = 18 vertices and 12 edges.
21. (b) Length of boundary of park
Now, ? – 10 = 18 means perimeter of park.
22. (d) Length of boundary of shaded
shape = 18 cm
? – 18 + 10 = 28
Therefore perimeter of shaded
part = 18 cm
14. (b) AC + DE + GJ = 2 cm + 1 cm + 24. (a) (4 + 5 + 8 +? ) = 23
3 cm = 6 cm 17 + ? = 23
From the given options ? = 6 cm
BH = 6 cm. 25. (b) Arrow in fig. B is in opposite
15. (c) 4 : 15 p.m. = 16 : 15 hours direction to that in fig. A.
Now, 26. (a) Total weight
= 3 × 500 g = 1500 g
Hours Minutes
Weight of one ball
16 15
1500
+1 28 = = 250 g
6
17 43 27. (b) 500 g of apple costs = ` 50
50
1 g of apple costs = `
17 : 43 hours = 5 : 43 p.m. 500
1 kg of apple costs In 45 litres of petrol bus runs
13 × 45 = 585 km
50
= ´ 1000 = ` 100. Sol. (Qs. 30 to 33):
500
30. (c) Number of students
28. (b) Amount of water in vessel P
participated in the competition
= 20 ml = 30 + 50 + 10 + 60 + 20 + 30
Amount of water in vessel Q
= 200.
= 160 ml
33. (b) In class I and IV, 30 students
Amount of water in R participated in the competition
= 20 + 160 = 180 ml from each class.
= 0.18 litre 34. (b) One box will increase in next
29. (c) In 18 litres of petrol, bus runs figure.
234 km 35. (b) 3 × 2 = 6, 6 × 2 = 12,
In 1 litre of petrol, bus runs 12 × 2 = 24 24 × 2 = 48,
234 48 × 2 = 96
= 13 km
18
MOCK TEST-2
A N S W ER S K E Y
1. (d) 8. (a) 15. (c) 22. (b) 29. (a)
2. (a) 9. (b) 16. (c) 23. (b) 30. (c)
3. (d) 10. (c) 17. (d ) 24. (b) 31. (c)
4. (c) 11. (c) 18. (a) 25. (b) 32. (b)
5. (b) 12. (c) 19. (d ) 26. (c) 33. (a)
6. (b) 13. (c) 20. (a) 27. (a) 34. (c)
7. (b) 14. (b) 21. (c) 28. (c) 35. (a)
1. (d) Part of wall painted blue and 2. (a) 0.00009 + 0.007 + 0.05 + 0.4
1 2 = 0.45709
green = + 3. (d) 34 × second number = 476
3 7
7 + 6 13 476
= Second number = = 14
= 34
21 21
Part of wall painted yellow 4. (c) Total distance covered in two
days = 12 km
13 21 - 13 8 distance covered on first day
= 1- = =
21 21 21 = 7½ km
EBD_7095
distance covered on second day 3
10. (c) Shaded part = 0.03 =
æ 15 ö 100
= 12 – 7½ ç 12 - ÷ km
è 2 ø
100 - 3 97
unshaded part = =
= 4½ km 100 100
5. (b) Row 1 0 97 parts out of 100 is unshaded.
Row 2 1 2 11. (c) If we shade square 3 figure will
Row 3 3 4 5 be symmetrical.
Row 4 6 7 8 9
12. (c) (A) ® 2, (B) ® 4, (C) ® 1, (D) ® 3
Row 5 10 11 12 13 14
13. (c) Length of boundary of figure =
Row 6 15 16 17 18 19 20
42 cm
Row 7 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
14. (b) Perimeter = 7 + 7 + 7 + 7 + 7 +
Row 8 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
7 + 7 + 7 = 56 cm
Row 9 36 37 38 39 40 41 4243 44
Row 10 45 46 47 48 49 50 5152 53 54 1
15. (c) Perimeter = × 56 cm = 14 cm
Sum of number in Row 10 4
= 45 + 46 + 47 + 48 + 49 + 50 + fig (c) has 14 cm perimeter
51 + 52 + 53 + 54 = 495 16. (c) Height of flag = 10 – 1 = 9 units
6. (b) Number of children in each row 17. (d) Distance covered in 1 round
= Perimeter of park
161 Perimeter of park
= = 23
7 = 66 m + 75 m + 102 m + 85 m
7. (b) Except fig (b). Other figures do = 328 m
not have equal areas. 18. (a) Perimeter of figure given in
8. (a) Total number of small squares option (a) is longest.
= 10 × 10 = 100 fig (a) ® 4 × 6 = 24 cm
1 fig (b) ® 10 + 10 + 3 = 23 cm
th of total small squares fig (c) ® 2 (8 + 2) = 20 cm
4
fig (d) ® 2 (7 + 4) = 22 cm
1 19. (d) Area of square
= ´ 100 = 25
4 = 20 × 20 = 400 cm2
Shaded squares = 18 Area of rectangle
Number of squares shaded in = Area of square
order to have 25 figure ? × 25 = 400
Shaded = 25 – 18 = 7.
400
9. (b) 1 + .1 + .01 + .001 = 1.11 ?= = 16 cm
25
20. (a) A polygon made of 4 straight 27. (a) Height of tallest child = 105 cm
lines is called a quadrilateral. Height of shortest child = 60 cm
21. (c) 1 kg = 1000g difference
0.5 kg = 500 g = 105 cm – 60 cm = 45 cm
1.5 kg = (1000 + 500) g = 1500 g Sol. (28 to 30):
22. (b) 1 kg + 500 g + 500 g = 2 kg 28. (c) 5 toys more than Samrat
1 kg + 500 g + 250 g + 250 g = 5 + 25 = 30
= 2 kg Aman has 30 toys.
1 kg + 500 g + 250 g + 100 g + 29. (a) 2 times as many as Raj has
100 g + 50 g = 2 kg
= 2 × 15 = 30 toys.
23. (b) Sumanth was (1993 – 1976)
Aman has 30 toys.
= 17 years old in 1993.
30. (c) Total toys
24. (b) A : V, L and D are never
= 35 + 25 + 30 + 15 = 105
repeated or subtracted.
31. (c) All other figures has half part
B : Adding 1 to a number gives
shaded.
its successor.
32. (b) 5 × 5 = 25
25. (b) Dividend = (Quotient × Divisor)
+ Remainder 25 × 5 = 125
= (35 × 23) + 21 125 × 5 = 625
= 805 + 21 = 826 In fourth year company has

625 employers.
26. (c) Cost of 3 umbrellas = ` 960
33. (a) In both way Riya is counted
Cost of 1 umbrella two times.
960 Number of students in queue
= = ` 320 = (17 + 19) – 1 = 35
3
Cost of 2 hats 34. (c) 8 × 4 = 32; 8 × 5 =40
= 720 – 320 = ` 400 8 × 8 = 64; 8 × 7 = 56

Cost of 1 hat +3 +3
35. (a) 5 ¾¾ –1
® 8 ¾¾® 7 ¾¾® 10
400 –1 +3 –1
= = ` 200 ¾¾® 9 ¾¾ ® 12 ¾¾®
2
+3
11 ¾¾ ® 14
EBD_7095
MOCK TEST-3
A N S W ER S K E Y
1. (b) 8. (b) 15. (b) 22. (b) 29. (b)
2. (d) 9. (c) 16. (b) 23. (d ) 30. (c)
3. (b) 10. (a) 17. (b) 24. (a) 31. (d)
4. (c) 11. (b) 18. (a) 25. (c) 32. (a)
5. (a) 12. (d) 19. (a) 26. (c) 33. (d)
6. (d) 13. (d) 20. (b) 27. (c) 34. (c)
7. (d) 14. (b) 21. (b) 28. (a) 35. (d)
1. (b) 0.0003 + 0.004 + 0.07 + 0.9 + 7 11. (b)

= 7.9743
hours minutes seconds
2. (d) 200
2 45 23
80 120 +3 35 53
30 50 70 5 80 76
10 20 30 40
5 hrs 80 min 76 sec.
3. (b) XLIII = 43 = 5 hrs (60 + 20) min. (60 + 16) sec
48 – 43 = 5 = (5 + 1) hrs (20 + 1) min. 16 sec.
5 = V should be inserted = 6 hrs 21 min 16 sec.
between L and I. 12. (d) Fraction reprsented by shaded
5. (a) 6 + 6 + 6 + ... 695 times
1
= 6 × 695 = 4170 region =
4
6. (d) 3984 ¸ 8 = 4 9 8
Which is same as in option (d)
7. (d) A × 59 = 322376 13. (d) 0.36 – 0.6 = 0.30
A = 322376 ¸ 59 14. (b) KM = 8.4 cm
A = 5464 KL = KM – LM
7432 – 2684 ¸ 4 × 3 3261 8.4 cm – 3.3 cm = 5.1 cm
= 7432 – 671 × 3 + 3261
KN + LN
= 5419 + 3261 = 8680
= 5.1 cm + 7.5 cm = 12.6 cm
8. (b) (A) ® 3, (B) ® 1, (C) ® 4, (D) ® 2
15. (b) L.C.M. of 2,5 and 8
9. (c) 0.003
3 2 2, 5, 8
= ® three - thousandth 1, 5, 4
1000
= 2 × 5 × 4 = 40
10. (a) 623.523 = 623.52300
16. (b) L.C.M. of 11 and 13 Sol. (Qs. 26 to 28):
26. (c) Cost of 2 soups = 2 × 30 0 = ` 600
11 11, 13
27. (c) Cost of 2 packet of chips
13 1, 13
1, 1 = 2 × 100 = ` 200
cost of 1 pizza = ` 370
L.C.M. of 11 and 13
cost of 2 juices = 2 × 100 = ` 200
= 11 × 13 = 143
total cost = ` (200 + 370 + 200)
\ ?=4
= ` 770
17. (b) B : A ray has no fixed length.
D : Two radii of a circle are of 28. (a) Cost of 5 cup of tea
same length. = ` 5 × 80 = ` 40
18. (a) Perimeter of rectangle Cost of 1 pizza = ` 370
= 2 (8 + 4) = 24 cm Total cost = ` (370 + 400) = ` 77
Perimeter of rectangle 29. (b) 1 is neither composite nor
= perimeter of square prime becasue it has only one
4 × side = 24 cm factor that is 1.
24 30. (c) 4 : 15 – 3 : 50 = 25 minutes
side = = 6 cm
4
19. (a) Angle between 0° and 90° is 33. (d) 5
4
known as Acute angle.
3
20. (b) Isosceles triangles has two 2
equal sides. 1
22. (b) 0.9 is the greatest among all
options. 34. (c) × = 100
23. (d) AB = ED = CD = BC = 5cm 10 × 10 = 100
perimeter of the figure
= 10
= AB + BC + CD + DE + EA
= 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 = 25 cm 2 = 120 – 10 = 110
(BE is not included because this 110
line is inside the figure). = = 55
2
24. (a) Total distance travelled ? = 55 – 10 = 45
= 75 km 800 m + 1800 km 40 m 35. (d) Number of complete square = 26
= 1875 km 840 m
Number of half squares = 6
25. (c) Total bill = ` (720 + 950 + 25)
Area of shaded parts
= ` 1920
He will get back ` (2000 – 1920) 6
= 26 + = 29 cm2
= ` 80 2
EBD_7095
MOCK TEST-4
A N S W ER S K E Y
1. (d) 9. (d) 17. (d ) 25. (a) 33. (c)
2. (a) 10. (c) 18. (a) 26. (b) 34. (b)
3. (b) 11. (b) 19. (d ) 27. (b) 35. (c)
4. (a) 12. (a) 20. (b) 28. (c) 36. (c)
5. (d) 13. (a) 21. (c) 29. (d ) 37. (b)
6. (a) 14. (d) 22. (a) 30. (c) 38. (b)
7. (d) 15. (b) 23. (b) 31. (a) 39. (d)
8. (b) 16 . (c) 24 . (a) 32 . (a) 4 0. (a)
1. (d) LXIV = 64, LXVI = 66, 1

6. (a) Unit fraction =
CLI = 151 8
CXXXVII = 137 We have to shade one part out
151 > 137 > 66 > 64 of eight.
7. (d) He shade 3 part out of every 10
2. (a) Successor of 67854398 is
part
67854399
In total he shade 3 × 10 = 30
Predecessor of 54677456 is part
54677455
30
Difference Shaded fraction =
100
= 67854399 – 54677455
8. (b) In figure (i) 7 part is shaded out
= 13176944 of 12
3. (b) A + B + 45896 = C + D In figure (ii) total squares = 24
A + B + 45896 = 96023 + B shaded box 7
=
A = 96023 + B – 45896 – B 24 12
A = 50127 7
shaded box = ×24 = 14
4. (a) 24 + 16 – 10 – 2 + 15 12
= 40 + 15 – 10 – 2 1 2 1 5 5
9. (d) + + ? = 15 + 15 + 15
= 55 – 10 – 2 15 15
= 45 – 2 = 43 3 1+ 5+5 11
+? = =
5. (d) Dividend = Divisor × Quotient 15 15 15
+ Remainder 11 3 8
?= - =
A=B×C+D 15 15 15
10. (c) X = 10, L = 50 25. (a) In a right angled triangle, one
L – X = 50 – 10 = 40 angle measures 90° and other
X can be subtracted from L. two angles are acute angle.
X can be repeated maximum 3 27. (b) 42 – 7 = 35 and 67 – 7 = 60
times. To find H.C.F. of 35 and 60
12. (a) Fraction represented by gold
35 60 1
5 5 35
fish = =
4 + 5 + 1 10 25 35 1
14. (d) 84,551 > 84,503 > 80,968 25
15. (b) 5638 – 21 9 = 3449 10 25 2
20
5638 – 3449 = 2189 = 21 9 5 10 2
10
16. (c) (A) ® 4, (B) ® 1, (C) ® 2, (D) ® 3
×
17. (d) 1 + 2 + =1
3 Hence, 5 is the greatest number
7 7 7 7 that divides 42 and 67 leaving 7 as
remainder.
3 10
+ = 28. (c) 42 ¸ 7 × 5 + 4 – 9
7 7 7
=6×5+4–9
3+ = 30 + 4 – 9
=10
7 = 34 – 9 = 25
29. (d) Distance between two dots
Þ Number in place of
should be 7. 14
= cm = 1 cm
14
18. (a) Fraction of cake left
Length of rope needed for
12 - 9 3 border Y
= =
12 12 = 24 × 1 cm = 24 cm
23. (b) Sum of angles of a triangle is 30. (c) Water in vessel P = 20 ml
180°.
Water in vessel Q = 250 ml
24. (a) Length of small farm land
Water in vessel R
350 = (250 + 20)
= = 175 m
2
= 270 ml = 0.27 l
Width of small farm land
31. (a) If length of branch = 210 cm
150 Length of each stump
= = 75 m
2
Perimeter 210
= = 70 cm
3
= 2(175 + 75) = 500 m
EBD_7095
32. (a) Total amount spend on 37. (b) 5 × = 3000
marketing
= 2 × 10.5 + 3 × 25.50 + 34.75 3000
= = 600
= 21 + 76.50 + 34.75 5
= ` 132.25 38. (b) As represents 600
34. (b) 17 : 10 hours – 25 minutes employees
= 16 : 45 hours 5400
=9
= 4 : 45 p.m 600
35. (c) 5 + 5.01 + 51.051 + 515.515 In represents the numbers
= 576.576 of employees in Mumbai.
36. (c) (28 – 10 – 6) + 1 = 13 Feb
28 February is counted.
Therefore
We have to add 1.
MOCK TEST-5
ANSWERS KEY
1. (a) 9. (c) 17. (a) 25. (b) 33. (c)
2. (c) 10. (b) 18. (b) 26. (c) 34. (c)
3. (a) 11. (a) 19. (c) 27. (a) 35. (c)
4. (b) 12. (c) 20. (d) 28. (b) 36. (c)
5. (c) 13. (b) 21. (c) 29. (a) 37. (b)
6. (a) 14. (a) 22. (a) 30. (b) 38. (b)
7. (b) 15. (c) 23. (a) 31. (b) 39. (c)
8. (b) 16. (a) 24. (a) 32. (a) 40. (c)
3 4. (a) A number is divisible by 2 if it

1. (b) Denominator = × 15 = 9 has at its once place 0, 2, 4, 6
5
or 8.
2
Numerator = × 16 = 8 So, we add 1 to 4321 to get 4322,
4
which is divisible by 2.
8 5. (c) 987.564 = 9 × 100 + 8 × 10 + 7 +
Fraction =
9
5 6 4
2. (a) Prime number has only two + +
10 100 1000
factors 1 and the number itself.
6. (a) 27.027 is smallest among all.
3. (c) 6x = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 720
7. (b) L.C.M. of 2, 5, 4, 7 17. (d) 2 × 4 × 6 × 8 = 384
2 2, 5, 4, 7
18. (d) Sum of all angles of a
1, 5, 2, 7
quadrilateral is 360°
19. (b) (A) ® 3, (B) ® 1, (C) ® 2, (D) ® 4
= 2 × 5 × 2 × 7 = 140
1×70 70 2×28 56
= ; =
2×70 140 5×28 140 20. (b)
3×35 105 4×20 80
= ; =
4×35 140 7×20 140
2 1 4 3
< < <
5 2 7 4 21. (c) 22222 – 2222 + 222 – 22 + 2
9. (d) 55 ÷ 11 × 17 – 78 + 32 = 20000 + 200 + 2
= 5 × 17 – 78 + 32 = 20202
= 85 – 78 + 32 23. (c) 2 2 × 4 8
= = ,
= 117 – 78 = 39 3 3 × 4 12
39 = XXXIX
2×3 6 2×2 4
10. (c) 0. 6 + 7.09 – 3.002 = , =
3×3 9 3×2 6
= 7.69 – 3.002
25. (c) Wire needed = Perimeter of
= 4.688 playground
12. (c) Total balls = (119 + 133 + 33 + Perimeter of playground =
10) = 295 2(250 + 20) = 540 m
13. (b) There are 30 tens in 3 26. (c) Total distance she has to cover
hundreds. to reach her daughter
14. (b) Cost of 1 packet of TIGER = 69 km + 389 km 540 m = 458
biscuit = ` 5 km 540 m
30 Distance between Priya’s home
In ` 30, number of packets =
5 and New York
=6 = 345 km 255 m
For every two packet 1 packet Extra distance = 458 km 540 m
biscuit is free then for 6 packet – 345 km 255 m
we get 3 packets free
= 113 km 285 m
Total packets = 6 + 3 = 9
28. (b) Capacity of tank = (8 × 380 +
15. (c) F × B = 9 × 3 = 27 1250) mL
(C × D) + B = (4 × 6) + 3 = 27 = (3040 + 1250) mL = 4290 mL
EBD_7095
36. (c) (6 #) × (4*)
= (6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1)
× (4 – 3 )
29. (b)
= 21 × (1) = 21
37. (a) 6 + 8 = 14; 10 + 12 = 22
30. (d) Total days after Sunday = 7 + 13 + 15 = 28 ; 23 + 17 = 40
5 = 12
38. (c) 11 × 10 = 110; 4 × 5 = 20
7 days = 1 week,
31. (c) Difference in time, 1 : 30 – 1 : 14 × 15 = 210; 19 × 13 = 247
20 = 10 minutes 39. (b) XXIX = 29
10 × 60 = 600 seconds XXXI = 31
32. (b) 1 week = 7 days 29 × 31 = 899
147 40. (b) B : A number having only 2
Number of weeks = = 21
7
factors (i.e. 1 and the
33. (b) 2003 is not a leap year. number itself) is a prime
Therefore February 2003 had number.
28 days. C : Two numbers added in any
35. (c) Ravi has 30 toy cars. order gives same sum.
Bijji has 15 toy cars
30 = 2 × 15
SCIENCE
MOCK TEST-1
A N S W ER S K E Y
1. (d) 9. (d) 17. (d) 25. (c) 33. (c)
2. (d) 10. (c) 18. (d) 26. (b) 34. (d)
3. (b) 11. (b) 19. (a) 27. (d) 35. (a)
4. (a) 12. (b) 20. (b) 28. (b) 36. (c)
5. (d) 13. (c) 21. (d) 29. (d) 37. (c)
6. (b) 14. (b) 22. (b) 30. (b) 38. (a)
7. (d) 15. (d) 23. (d) 31. (d) 39. (c)
8. (d) 16. (c) 24. (c) 32. (d) 40. (c)
1. (d) Reproduction and exchange of 6. (b) Animals Young ones

gases is the most important Butterfly Larva
characteristic feature of living Frog Tadpole
organism. Fish Fry
2. (d) Bacteria is considered as living. Cockroach Nymph
Virus become alive only when 7.
(d) The life cycle of a butterfly
they are present inside a living involves different stages in the
host. order: Eggs ® caterpillar ®
pupa and then finally into adult
3. (b) Ginger — modified stem
butterfly.
Radish — modified root
8. (d) In the respiratory system
Spinach — leaf is edible oxygen follows the following
Rice — seed is the path: Nose ® Wind pipe ®
edible part. Lungs ® blood.
4. (a) During photosynthesis plants 9. (d) P - H e a r t , Q - K i d n e y , R -
use carbondioxide and water in Lungs, S-Stomach
presence of sunlight to produce 10. (c) Our body shows reflex action, in
which our body reacts
glucose and oxygen.
spontaneously to sudden
5. (d) Leech is an ectoparasite.
changes like heat and cold.
EBD_7095
11. (b) Vitamins are needed in small 22. (b) The weather remains constant
quantities for the maintenance throughout the year, near
of vital biochemical reactions in coastal regions.
the body. 23. (d) Deforestation will cause soil
12. (b) In the small intestine, digestion erosion, depletion of water
takes place by the release of catchment areas and global
juices warming.
13. (c) Glucose gives instant energy. 24. (c) Most of the metals are found
That is why athletes take deep inside the earth.
glucose just before the race
25. (c) The balloon shown in the figure
begins.
c will be easiest to prick as it is
14. (b) Carnivores have well
the most inflated and stretched
developed canines which help
one.
in crushing and tearing the
26. (b) Steam converts into water upon
food.
cooling and on cooling water
15. (d) The figure shows a molar tooth.
converts into ice.
16. (c) Increase in the level of CO2
27. (d) Frictional force is responsible
causes global warming.
17. (d) Recycling can save natural for stopping a moving body.
resources, control pollution and 28. (b) The boy is applying force in
can make useful things from pushing the table.
waste materials. 29. (d) The instrument that should be
18. (d) Organic matter cann ot be used to measure the
recycled. temperature of a glass of milk
19. (a) Igloos are found in very cold is thermometer.
places as they are made up of 30. (b) Alpha centuary is 4.3 light
ice blocks. year to the earth.
20. (b) The windows should be in 31. (d) Microwave oven is not used in
oppoiste direction to the door in communication. It is an
order to facilitate cross appliance used for cooking food.
ventilation. 32. (d) The development of technology
21. (d) All of the given statements are has resulted in increased
correct. atmospheric pollutions.
33. (c) Smoke signal is one of the 37. (c) An animal that hunts for its
oldest forms of long distance food is called a predator.
communication. This was 38. (a) Telecommunication is the
followed by telegraph. exchange of information
Telephone is the most recent between two entities by the use
among the three. of technology. Now a days we
34. (d) Moon takes 27.5 days to use internet to sent messages
complete one revolution around and communicate with others.
the earth. 39. (c) Kidneys are responsible for
35. (a) Mercury is very close to the sun. eliminating liquid wastes.
This is why it can be seen in the Lungs eliminate gaseous waste.
morning and evening. Small intestine is responsible
36. (c) Fishes breathe through gills. for absorption of digested food
Tadpole, which gives rise to and heart is responsible for
adult frog also respires through circulation of blood.
gills although the adult frogs 40. (c) At the age of 5 years, 90% of
have developed lungs. weight of brain is achieved.
MOCK TEST-2
ANSWERS KEY
1. (d) 9. (c) 17. (b) 25. (c) 33. (c)
2. (a) 10. (d) 18. (d) 26. (d) 34. (c)
3. (a) 11. (d) 19. (d) 27. (b) 35. (b)
4. (a) 12. (d) 20. (a) 28. (b) 36. (d)
5. (c) 13. (d) 21. (b) 29. (b) 37. (c)
6. (b) 14. (c) 22. (c) 30. (c) 38. (c)
7. (c) 15. (b) 23. (d) 31. (a) 39. (d)
8. (d) 16. (b) 24. (c) 32. (d) 40. (a)
1. (d) Living things need air Rocks are non-living because

(oxygen), they grow and they do not possess the above
reproduce and living things mentioned characteristics.
respond to their environment.
EBD_7095
2. (a) When we planted rocks and 10. (d) A. Kidney – 3. Nitrogenous
seeds, only the seeds grew and waste
gave rise to a new plant. B. Brain – 1. Control and
Whereas the rocks remained as coordination
such, because rocks are non- C. Tongue – 4. Taste buds
living. D. Ear – 2.Sense of
3. (a) The clothes dry up in air due to hearing
evaporation. 11. (d) Nervous system is responsible
4. (a) Pegions make their own for controlling all the activities
shelter. They build their own in human body.
nest. Cuckoos lay their eggs in 12. (d) Urine is stored in the urinary
the nest of other birds. Lion and bladder (S) temporarily from
tiger live in a den or a cave or where it is released out from
in a dense forest. But they don’t time to time.
build their home. 13. (d) Pulses (gram, pea, mung etc.)
5. (c) In radish, food is stored in roots. and meat are good sources of
Hence the edible part of radish protein.
are their roots. 14. (c) Vitamin D can be synthesized
6. (b) Cactus plants live in desert in our body in the presence of
where there is water scarcity. sunlight with the help of
Thus to prevent water loss they precursors.
do not have leaves, stem 15. (b) A – Liver –
becomes green to perform 3. Secrete bile juice
photosynthesis. This is called B – Stomach –
adaptation. Plants modify
4. Churning of food takes place
accordiing to the habitat.
C – Small intestine –
7. (c) The eggs of fish are called
2. Absorption of food takes place
spawn.
D – Mouth –
8. (d) Snakes, birds and frogs lay
eggs whereas cats give birth to 1. Saliva mixes with food
young ones. 16. (b) The teeth that are used for
9. (c) Comouflage cracking hard food are
premolars.
17. (b) The teeth marked ‘X’ are called contain air. Hence it is most
premolars. suitable for plant growth.
18. (d) Dams are man made sources of 29. (b) Conversion of solid into liquid
water. is known as melting.
19. (d) Diarrhoea is caused due to 30. (c) Air currents are not caused due
to condensation. Rest all are
unhygienic surroundings and
caused due to condensation.
bad food habits. 31. (a) For a given volume, solid will
20. (a) Germs present in drinking have the maximum number of
water can be killed by boiling. molelcules
21. (b) Banana peels make the beach 32. (d) A moving body stops due to
unhygienic and dirty. We frictional force.
should avoid littering. 33. (c) A standard scale can measure
minimum 1 millimeter with
22. (c) Houses have sloping roofs in
accuracy.
the areas of high rain and snow
34. (c) To measure a curved wire, first
fall. a thread is used and then the
23. (d) Straw is used to make kuccha length of the thread is
house. Rest all, cement, brick measured with the help of a
and iron are used in making ruler.
pucca house. 35. (b) Ruler will be too small.
24. (c) This type of change is chemical Measuring cylinder is used to
measure liquid. So measuring
change.
tape is the correct option.
25. (c) The water droplets seen on
36. (d) Earth, Moon and Jupiter are
grass in the winter mornings parts of solar system.
are due to condensation of 37. (c) Moon is the smallest and sun is
water vapour present in the air. the largest.
26. (d) Burning of wood, respiration 38. (c) Cactus and camel are both
and flying of aeroplane, all adapted for a xerophytic
require presence of air. habitat such as a desert.
27. (b) Animal dung and rotten 39. (d) Evaporation is quickest in hot
and dry weather. Humidity will
vegetables are both a very good
slower the rate of evaporation.
source of manure.
40. (a) The amount of nutrients in soil
28. (b) Garden soil contains humus, is known as soil fertility.
holds enough water and
EBD_7095
MOCK TEST-3
A N S W ER S K E Y
1. (a) 8. (a) 15. (c) 22. (a) 29. (a)
2. (d) 9. (c) 16. (a) 23. (a) 30. (c)
3. (d) 10. (c) 17. (b) 24. (a) 31. (d)
4. (a) 11. (a) 18. (b) 25. (b) 32. (b)
5. (c) 12. (a) 19. (d) 26. (b) 33. (d)
6. (d) 13. (b) 20. (c) 27. (b) 34. (c)
7. (a) 14. (b) 21. (b) 28. (b) 35. (b)
1. (a) Pathogens are the 12. (a) Bus

microorganism which cause 13. (b) Ozone is found in the
diseases. stratosphere.
2. (d) Canine teeth and strong claws 14. (b) Enamel
help the carnivorous animals to 15. (c) Intermolecular force is
catch and kill their prey and to minimum in gases and
chew the flesh. maximum in solid.
3. (d) The biggest natural satelllite of 16. (a) The bubbles are formed when
the planet saturn is ‘Titan’. the gases dissolved in water get
4. (a) Elephant is a mammal. separated on heating.
5. (c) Earth attracts moon with 17. (b) On heating the substance, the
gravitational force. force between the molecules gets
6. (d) Petroleum is the fossil fuel. weaken and the molecules is
7. (a) When the incoming light is sent start moving apart.
back after hitting an object, the 18. (b) Jupiter is the largest planet,
phenomena is called reflection saturn being the second
of light. largest.
8. (a) The given figure shows a spiral
19. (d) Wood, dead plants and animals
galaxy.
all are biodegradable.
9. (c) Oxygen is essential for the
process of burning.
10. (c) Sublimation is the process of
conversion of solid directly into 20. (c)
gas without going into liquid
state. Dog is carnivorous animal, rest
11. (a) Pressure is defined as force other are herbivorous animals.
applied per unit area. Thus 21. (b) Souring of milk is a chemical
greater surface area means less change.
pressure.
22. (a) Slate is a metamorphic rock. are the smallest particles that
23. (a) Kinetic energy is directly exist independently.
proportional to the speed. 27. (b) Since the balls is in motion it
Hence, the object moving with has kinetic energy.
greater speed will possess 28. (b) Water Pollution.
higher amount of kinetic 29. (a) Sense of smell and taste is
energy. linked.
24. (a) The figure shows air pollution 30. (c) Stretched rubber band has
caused by smokes released from tension force.
factories. It is polluting the 31. (d) Soil is formed by weathering of
environment therefore it is not rocks.
good. 32. (b) Gravitational force is a weak
25. (b) Change of shape is a physical force which acts between any
change as the properties of the two pieces of matter.
new object (plastic bottle) 33. (d) urea, water and salts are
remain the same. removed by kidney.
26. (b) A water exists in all three 34. (c) Gliding joints is responsible for
states. Change of ice into water sideways movement.
is physical change. Atom is the 35. (b) Micro-organism are biotic, rest
basic unit of matter. Molecules all are abiotic.
MOCK TEST-4
ANSWERS KEY
1 (b) 8 (c) 15 (d) 22 (a) 29 (d)
2 (a) 9 (a) 16 (d) 23 (d) 30 (c)
3 (b) 10 (b) 17 (d) 24 (c) 31 (a)
4 (b) 11 (c) 18 (a) 25 (c) 32 (a)
5 (b) 12 (c) 19 (a) 26 (b) 33 (a)
6 (b) 13 (a) 20 (d) 27 (b) 34 (a)
7 (b) 14 (a) 21 (b) 28 (d) 35 (d)
1. (b) Brain is protected by a hard are different from properties of

bony structure called skull. hydrogen and oxygen.
2. (a) Potential energy increases with 4. (b) Aman is right Rahul is wrong
increase in height. because biodegradable
3. (b) This is a chemical change substances do not cause
because the properties of water pollution.
EBD_7095
5. (b) Animals go for a winter sleep so 15. (d) Malaria is caused by a female
as to avoid extreme cold mosquito which is a protozoa.
condition and scarcity of food. 16. (d) Burning of candle is both
physical and chemical change.
6. (b) Porcupine is also known as
Burning of candle melts the
“Touch me not”. They puff their wax and hence physical state of
spine, when in danger and wax had changed from solid to
become difficult to touch. liquid. (which is a physical
change)
7. (b) The correct sequence of changes
Wax combines with the
in a butterfly are – egg – atmospheric oxygen and
cater pillar – pupa – adult. changes to carbon dioxide, heat
8. (c) An object floats in water due to and light. (which is a chemical
upthrust force. change)
17. (d) Kidney is responsible for
9. (a) The meteors burn due to
filtering water from blood.
friction. 18. (a) When clothes dry in air, water
10. (b) ‘g’ is gravitational acceleration. present in the clothes get
11. (c) Asteroids occur between mars converted into water vapour.
and jupiter. This process is known as
evaporation.
12. (c) Nervous system brings about
19. (a) The given substance is in solid
transfer of information from state. The space between the
brain to different parts of body. molecules are very less in solid.
13. (a) Humus is most helpful to the 20. (d) Earthworm is an invertebrate.
21. (b) Waxy coating present on the
growth of plant.
surface of the leaves of aquatic
14. (a) Terrace farming helps in plants are to prevent rotting.
reducing soil erosion. Terrace 22. (a) The gliding joint allows
farming uses steps that are movement of the wrist and
built into the side of a ankle.
23. (d) Food rich in vitamin and
mountain. On each level,
mineral give us strength to
various crops are planted.
flight against diseases.
When it rains, instead of
24. (c) Frictional force works only
wasting away all the nutrients when objects are in contact
in the soil, the nutrients are with each other.
carried down to the next level. 25. (c) In the world, Tamil Nadu holds
the 2nd position in the use of 30. (c) The characteristic of leaves
wind energy to produce mentioned here are possessed
electricity. by aquatic plants (that live in
26. (b) Photosynthesis produces water).
glucose. 31. (a) Potential energy of an object is
27. (b) The food we eat, is digested and due to its position while kinetic
ultimately energy is released energy is due to its motion.
through a series of chemical 32. (a) Sweetened and condensed milk
reaction. Hence it is a chemical is rich in calories.
change. 33. (a) The earth rotates from West to
28. (d) Kidney is involved in excretion East.
and has no role in digestion. 34. (a) The stationary stone (which is
29. (d) Fossil fuels are non-renewable, not in motions) has potential
rest all are renewable. energy.
35. (d) A. Heart – 4. is a hollow, muscular organ

B. Stomach – 3. digests food
C. Intestine – 1. is located between the stomach and the anus.
D. Lungs – 2. are paired organs
MOCK TEST-5
ANSWERS KEY
1 (b) 8 (a) 15 (a) 22 (b) 29 (b)
2 (c) 9 (b) 16 (c) 23 (d) 30 (c)
3 (c) 10 (b) 17 (b) 24 (c) 31 (a)
4 (c) 11 (a) 18 (d) 25 (b) 32 (a)
5 (c) 12 (d) 19 (a) 26 (b) 33 (a)
6 (a) 13 (a) 20 (c) 27 (d) 34 (a)
7 (c) 14 (c) 21 (c) 28 (c) 35 (c)
1. (b) Aeroplanes travel at a 4. (c) Force is the push or pull of an
supersonic speed. object.
2. (c) Air pressure is the pressure 5. (c) Photosynthesis is the process
exerted by the air in the used by green plants to prepare
atmosphere. food in the presence of sunlight.
3. (c) Kinetic energy of an object is 6. (a) Sensory nerves carries the
the energy that it possesses due messages from the sense organs
to its motion. to the spinal cord or brain.
EBD_7095
7. (c) Rubber, glass, plastic are good will form ice (which is a solid).
insulators which do not allows 21. (c) Erosion is the process in which
heat to pass through their body. rock material being moved over
8. (a) ‘Y’ represents hen. Hen is a bird Earth surface by wind and water.
which lays egg and breathes by 22. (b) In order to maintain good
the help of lungs. health human should exercise
9. (b) ‘S’ represents evaporation in regularly.
which water changes into water 23. (d) The fins of a fish helps the fish
vapour. to move in water.
10. (b) Ice is solid. The forces of 24. (c) All living things need nutrients
attraction is highest in solid. and has the capacity to grow.
11. (a) Houses in hot and dry regions 25. (b) This process represents life
have thick flat roof as these cycle in which seed get
houses are warmer in winter
converted into a mature tree
and cooler in summer.
which produce more seeds.
12. (d) Vitamins and minerals are
26. (b) A group of camel is known as
protective nutrients.
flock.
13. (a) The direction of ball will be
opposite due to the application 27 (d) Cow have external ear.
of force by the wall. 28. (c) The roots that are present
14. (c) Talcum powder is sprinkled on above the ground are called
the carrom board to reduce aerial roots.
friction force so that the carrom 29. (b) Ivy is not an edible flower.
coins can move faster on the 30. (c) Aquatic animals lives in water.
carrom board. 31. (a) Water pollution occurs when
15. (a) The time taken by the earth to pollutants are discharged
move around the sun is 1 year directly or indirectly into water
(365 days). bodies.
16. (c) A force that pulls the object 32. (a) Evaporation of water in test-
together is called force of tube will be slowest because the
attraction. surface area of the mouth of the
17. (b) Players gives kinetic energy test-tube is very less as
during striking the ball with compared to others.
cue stick. 33. (a) Crop rotation is used to retain
18. (d) The tiny part of a seed that the quality of soil and its
grows into a plant is known as mineral content.
embryo. 34. (a) Condensation is the process of
19. (a) Solid has definite shape and changing the water vapour
volume. (gas) into water (liquid).
20. (c) When a cup of water (which is a 35. (c) The largest river of India is
liquid) is put into a freezer it
Ganga.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
MOCK TEST 1
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 6. (d) 11. (c) 16. (a) 21. (c)

2. (d) 7. (d) 12. (a). 17. (a) 22. (d)
3. (a) 8. (c) 13. (a) 18. (b) 23. (a)
4. (a) 9. (a) 14. (a) 19. (c) 24. (c)
5. (b) 10. (a) 15. (c) 20. (d) 25. (d)
1. (b) Larynx is located between 7. (d) Human beings belong to the

the pharynx and the trachea class of mammals as they give
and contains the vocal cords birth to young ones and are
which produce sound. warm-blooded. Amphibians
live in both land and water
2. (d) Cow eats only plants, so it is a and lay eggs. Birds have
herbivore. feathers and also lay eggs.
3. (a) Cementum is a specialized Reptiles are cold-blooded and
substance covering the root of also lay eggs.
a tooth. It attaches the teeth 8. (c) The Din-e-Ilahi or “Religion
to the jaw bone. of God” was started by the
Mughal emperor Akbar the
4. (a) Stomata help in respiration
Great in 1582 AD, to have the
and transpiration of plants best quality of all the religions
through exchange of carbon of his empire.
dioxide, oxygen and water 9. (a) The song was adopted in
vapor. its Hindi version by the
5. (b) Yeast is a category of fungi Constituent Assembly of
which is added while making India as the National Anthem
bread. on 24 January 1950.
10. (a) There are 24 spokes in our
6. (d) Carbon dioxide is also called
national flag which signifies
a greenhouse gas as it causes
dharma.
global warming. It is also used
11. (c) Hans Lippershey is known
by plants along with water to for the earliest written record
carry out photosynthesis. of a refracting telescope.
EBD_7095
12. (a) Saturn is the sixth planet in stories and is one of Mowgli’s
the Solar system and, when mentors and friends.
seen through a telescope,
18. (b) Kathakali dance form
appears as the most beautiful
is inspired by folk arts
planet. Earth has one large
and involves music, vocal
natural satellite, known as
performers, choreography
the Moon.
and hand and facial gestures.
13. (a) Water is released in the
19. (c) Paragliding is the recreational
atmosphere through
sport of flying paragliders.
evaporation and by plants.
20. (d) Viswanathan Anand is
Water vapor then forms cloud
an Indian chess player
which then condenses back to
Grandmaster and a former
water. Water then fall on the
World Chess Champion.
Earth in the form of rainfall.
He became India’s first
14. (a) Acid rain is caused due to grandmaster in 1988.
presence of some gases like
21. (c) The given pictogram depicts
carbon dioxide in the rain
the game of wrestling.
water. Acid rain causes
22. (d) The given sign shows that no
damage to buildings.
parking is allowed in a given
15. (c) The adjective ‘Tallest’, which
area.
is the superlative degree of
23. (a) Ram Nath Kovind and
the adjective “Tall”, is used
former Bihar Governor is the
here because the height of
14th President of India who
“Ramesh” is compared with
assumed office on 25 July
the height of all remaining
2017.
students of the class.
24. (c) Kolkata became the first city
16. (a) PhD stands for Doctor of
to have biogas run buses to
Philosophy, which is a type
of doctoral degree awarded control air pollution
by universities in many 25. (d) England and Wales will host
countries the 2019 Cricket World Cup
17. (a) Kaa is a fictional character to be held from 30 May to 15
from ‘The Jungle Book’ July 2019.
MOCK TEST 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 6. (d) 11. (d) 16. (d) 21. (a)

2. (c) 7. (c) 12. (c) 17. (d) 22. (a)
3. (a) 8. (b) 13. (a) 18. (a) 23. (d)
4. (c) 9. (a) 14. (a) 19. (a) 24. (c)
5. (d) 10. (d) 15. (b) 20. (a) 25. (a)
1. (b) Lower chambers of the heart 7. (c) Camouflage is the ability of

are called ventricles and the animals to take the appearance
upper chambers are called of the environment for their
auricles. protection.
2. (c) Neuron is a part of central
8. (b) Franc is the currency of
nervous system.
Switzerland. Kroner, Dollar
3. (a) Lacrimal glands are paired,
and Ringgit are the currencies
almond-shaped glands in
of Norway, United States, and
our eyes which produce clear
Malaysia, respectively.
liquid called tear.
4. (c) Petunia is a flowering plant 9. (a) Lord Buddha, also known as
of South American origin. Gautam Buddha, was born
Yeast is a fungi. E. coli is in Lumbini, now in modern-
a bacterium and lichen is day Nepal, and raised in the
a combination of fungi and Shakya capital of Kapilvastu.
bacteria.
10. (d) The crimson red national
5. (d) Cactus is a plant which is
flag of Nepal is a simplified
adapted to grow in desert as
combination of two single
its leaves is suited to grow in
triangular tailed figures.
dry area.
6. (d) Bacteria and Fungi decompose 11. (d) Eratosthenes of Cyrene is
the dead organic matters and best known for being the
help in recycling them in the first person to calculate the
environment. circumference of the Earth.
EBD_7095
12. (c) Dynamo is a device which 18. (a) The idiom ‘give someone the
produces electricity by being cold shoulder’ means to ignore
rotated by the fall of water or someone.
by other source. 19. (a) The word “Ballmoon” is
13. (a) Johannes Gutenberg was obtained after combining ‘ball’
a German blacksmith, and ‘moon’. To get the word
goldsmith, printer, and ‘balloon’, letter ‘M’ should be
publisher who introduced removed.
printing press in 1439. 20. (a) The first Olympic games
14. (a) Plant matter breaks down into was held in 1896 in Athens,
soil after which decomposers Greece.
like bacteria and fungi break 21. (a) Sachin Tendulkar has scored
the dead plant matters. The over 10,000 runs in one-day
decomposed plant matters international cricket.
are then stored in the soil. 22. (a) After touching chicken, we
Finally, plant takes back the should wash our hands with
nutrients for use. hot, soapy water before
15. (b) Lichens are useful bio- touching anything.
indicators for air pollution, 23. (d) Next Cricket World Cup will
especially sulfur dioxide be held in 2019 in England
pollution, since they get their and Wales.
water and essential nutrients 24. (c) Chief Minister of Madhya
mainly from the atmosphere Pradesh, Shivraj Singh
rather than from the soil. Chouhan has recently bannrd
16. (d) Regular servicing of the car on polythene carry bags from
will prevent the emission of May 1, 2017 across the state
smoke causing air pollution. to conserve environment,
protect cows and promote
17. (d) CNG or compressed natural
cleanliness.
gas is actually the cleanest of
all fossil fuels. It is composed 25. (a)
Achal Kumar Jyoti has
mainly of methane, which succeeded Nasim Zaidi as the
Chief Election Commissioner
burns to produce carbon
of India.
dioxide and water vapor.
MOCK TEST 3
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 6. (*) 11. (b) 16. (b) 21. (b)

2. (c) 7. (d) 12. (a) 17. (a) 22. (c)
3. (c) 8. (a) 13. (c) 18. (a) 23. (a)
4. (d) 9. (a) 14. (c) 19. (b) 24. (a)
5. (d) 10. (d) 15. (d) 20. (b) 25. (b)
1. (d) Canines are sharp, pointed 11. (b) Alpha Centauri is the closest
teeth, which help tear food. star system to the Solar
2. (c) Blood oxygenation takes System and is 4.37 light-
place in the lungs, and the years away from the Sun.
liver helps in food digestion. 12. (a) Iron is a magnetic substance
3. (c) Egg is rich in protein and which is attracted by a
should be consumed regularly magnet.
to get enough protein. 13. (c) Use of fertilizers in fields
cause water pollution. Carbon
4. (d) Stapes is the smallest bone in
dioxide is a greenhouse gas
our body. It is located in the
which causes heating of the
inner year. Earth.
5. (d) Water, carbon dioxide, and 14. (c) Soil pollution causes lose in
light are required by plants soil fertility resulting into
to prepare food by the process barren land. Minamata is
of photosynthsis. caused due to pollution of
6. (*) Cockroach breathes through water with mercury. Lung
circular openings on their disease is caused due to air
skin called spiracles. pollution.
7. (d) Habitat is the natural habitat 15. (d) Both bio-fertilizer and crop
of animals where they interact rotation help in increasing
with other animals. soil fertility without causing
8. (a) Rhizomes are modified stems, environmental pollution.
whereas radish, carrot and 16. (b) We vote for somebody.
beetroot are examples of root 17. (a) Kalidas is also known as the
modification. ‘Shakespeare of India’.
9. (a) The people of Tibet are called 18. (a) Child actor Darsheel Safary
Tibetans. was in lead role in the film
10. (d) Whooper swan is the national ‘Taare Zamin Par’ directed by
bird of Finland. Amir Khan.
EBD_7095
19. (b) Amjad Ali Khan is a famous the other students in the class.
Indian Sarod Player. Chewing gum while telling a
20. (b) Football is the national game story is a bad manner.
of Italy. 23. (a) Jagdish Singh Khehar is the
21. (b) Stan Wawrinka is a Swiss current Chief Justice of India.
professional tennis player 24. (a) India’s first multi-sports
who was the 2014 Chennai museum has been opened in
Open champion. Kolkata.
22. (c) While telling story in the class, 25. (b) Sachin Tendulkar has been
a student should speak slowly chosen as the Women’s
and make an eye contact with Cricket World Cup 2017.
MOCK TEST 4
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 9. (c) 17. (b) 25. (d) 33. (a)

2. (c) 10. (c) 18. (a) 26. (a) 34. (c)
3. (b) 11. (c) 19. (a) 27. (a) 35. (a)
4. (d) 12. (c) 20. (b) 28. (b) 36. (b)
5. (d) 13. (d) 21. (a) 29. (a) 37. (d)
6. (b) 14. (c) 22. (a) 30. (b) 38. (a)
7. (b) 15. (c) 23. (b) 31. (c) 39. (a)
8. (b) 16. (d) 24. (b) 32. (b) 40. (c)
1. (d) Lungs are not used during retina. Aqueous humor is a
digestion. They are used transparent, watery fluid
for the exchange of gases in which fills both the front and
blood. the back chambers of the eye.
2. (c) Salad is a good source of fiber. 5. (d) Functions of roots are to
Meat is rich in fat and protein. absorb water from soil, absorb
3. (b) Urine formation takes place in nutrients from soil, and fix
Kidney. Harmful substances the plant to the soil.
from the body and excess 6. (b) Hibernation is a state of
water are removed in kidney inactivity in organisms
in the form of urine. that maintains its body at
4. (d) Vitreous body is the clear a metabolically favorable
gel that fills the space temperature.
between the lens and the 7. (b) Plants respire through
stomata. Lungs, gills, and 16. (d) The first metal detectors were
skin are the respiratory big, costly, and didn’t work
organs in humans, fish, and well, but were safe.
earthworms, respectively. 18. (a) ‘Abstain’ means restrain
8. (b) Leaf is modified into a oneself from doing or enjoying
structure that traps insects. something.
9. (c) Mohiniyattam is the classical 19. (a) The name of the spider was
dance form from Kerala. Charlotte.
10. (c) Ellora is one of the largest rock- 20. (b) Ramya Krishnan played the
cut monastery-temple caves role of “Rajamatha” (Queen
complexes in the world, and a Mother) Sivagami.
UNESCOWorld Heritage Site 21. (a) Kaasav is a 2016 Indian
in Maharashtra, India. Marathi-language film
11. (c) Sunita Williams remained in directed by filmmaker
space for 195 days during her Sumitra Bhave and Sunil
first space flight. Sukthankar.
12. (c) Archimedes, a Greek 22. (a) Vipin Sharma played the role
mathematician, physicist, of ‘Dungaram’.
engineer, inventor, and 23. (b) ‘Godan’ has been written by
astronomer, gave the laws of Munshi Premchand. His other
floating bodies for the first time. works include ‘Rangbhoomi’,
13. (d) Both Plastic toys and ‘Gaban’ and ‘Pratigya’.
credit card are non- 24. (b) Paul the Octopus was a
biodegradable because they common octopus which was
are made up of plastic, which purportedly used to predict
cannot be decomposed by the results of association
microorganisms. football matches in the 2010
14. (c) A wind turbine is a source World Cup.
of green energy because 25. (d) West Bengal won the 2017
wind energy does not cause Santosh Trophy of football by
pollution and are available in defeating Goa by 1-0 goals.
abundant amount. 26. (a) Ravi Shastri has been chosen
15. (c) The ingredients of the as the coach of the Indian
brownies were stirred first cricket team after the removal
and then were left for 15 of Anil Kumble.
minutes to get cooked. After 27. (a) Polo is a team sport played
the food was cooked, it was
on horseback. The objective
eaten by the boys.
EBD_7095
is to score goals against an carbon dioxide to carry out
opposing team. Players score photosynthesis.
by driving a small white 33. (a) Herbs are any seed-bearing
plastic or wooden ball into the plant which does not have a
opposing team’s goal. woody stem and dies down to
28. (b) The International Energy the ground after flowering.
Agency (IAE) is going 34. (c) A camel’s hump stores fat
to partner with India to which it uses it as nourishment
implement its Unnat Jyoti when food is scarce.
by Affordable LEDs for All 35. (a) Typhoid is caused by bacteria
(UJALA) initiative globally Salmonella typhi. Influenza,
for energy savings. Mycosis and Malaria are
29. (a) General Bipin Rawat is the caused by virus, fungi and
27th Chief of Army Staff of protozoa, respectively.
the Indian Army. He assumed 36. (b) Vitamin C is found in citrus
office on 31 December 2016 fruits like grapes, oranges
after retirement of General and lemon.
Dalbir Singh 37. (d) The best way to preserve food
30. (b) The Rashtriya Vayoshri is regular heating, cooling
Yojana (RVY), a scheme for and drying. These processes
providing physical aids and do not allow growth of
assisted-living devices for microorganisms which spoil
poor senior citizens, has our food.
been launched by the Union 38. (a) Bats produce sound to find
Government at district out the location of other
Nellore in Andhra Pradesh on organisms they feed on.
April 1, 2017. 39. (a) Pure petrol is separated from
31. (c) Our body contains several a mixture of impure crude oil
enzymes which help in by the process of fractional
the digestion of food. For distillation.
example, enzyme pepsin is 40. (c)
Carbon monoxide is a
used to digest proteins. poisonous gas which can
32. (b) Skin is an organ. Alcohol cause suffocation and even
death if trapped in a closed
consumption damages the
room. It can combine with the
liver. Humans cannot control
hemoglobin of our blood.
heart beat. Plants require
MOCK TEST 5
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 9. (a) 17. (c) 25. (d) 33. (a)

2. (a) 10. (c) 18. (a) 26. (d) 34. (c)
3. (d) 11. (c) 19. (b) 27. (a) 35. (d)
4. (d) 12. (c) 20. (c) 28. (b) 36. (c)
5. (b) 13. (c) 21. (b) 29. (a) 37. (a)
6. (a) 14. (a) 22. (a) 30. (c) 38. (a)
7. (a) 15. (c) 23. (d) 31. (a) 39. (d)
8. (c) 16. (a) 24. (d) 32. (c) 40. (b)
1. (a) Trachea is a tube-like 8. (c) Photosynthesis happens

structure in the respiratory only in plants because it has
system while helps in the green-colored pigment called
passage of air to and from the chlorophyll which is absent
lung. in animals. Chlorophyll
2. (a) Radish can be eaten as salad is required to carry out
after washing. photosynthesis.
3. (d) Appendix is a blind-ended 9. (a) Petals are colored part
tube connected to the cecum. of a flower which helps
4. (d) Alcohol consumption damages in attracting insects for
kidneys and causes disease pollination. Sepals are green-
called liver cirrhosis. colored parts below the petals.
5. (b) Adult human beings have 206 Stamens and pistils help in
bones in their body. reproduction.
6. (a) Melanin gives human skin, 10. (c) Monkeys are arboreal
hair, and eyes their color. animals because they spend
Dark-skinned people have the majority of their lives in
more melanin in their skin
trees. Aerial animals, such as
than light-skinned people
birds, can naturally fly in the
have.
air. Terrestrial animals such
7. (a) Yeasts are single-celled
as human beings live on land.
microorganisms classified
Aquatic animals, for example
as members of the fungus
fish, live in water.
kingdom.
EBD_7095
11. (c) Proteins are building blocks 20. (c) Hydrometer is used to
of the body. measure the relative density
12. (c) Bile is produced in the liver of liquids.
and helps in the digestion of 21. (b) Oxygen is required by all
fats. living beings for respiration.
13. (c) Hibernation is the condition It is produced by plants
in which animals remain during photosynthesis.
inactive in the winter 22. (a) Trees help in preventing
season to escape from cold soil erosion by binding the
environment. soils. Coal is not a renewable
14. (a) Arunachal Pradesh has resource because it gets lost
nearly 500 species of orchids. after being used and cannot
15. (c) Manohar Parrikar, be recycled in nature.
Sarbananda Sonowal, 23. (d) Terrace farming and planting
Naveen Patnaik and Pawn trees help in preventing soil
Kumar Chamling are the erosion. Grazing increases
chief ministers of Goa, soil erosion.
Assam, Odhisha, and Sikkim, 24. (d) Oil spill in the ocean, burning
respectively. fossil fuels, and throwing
16. (a) Indian Museum in Kolkata is trash on the ground, cause
the largest museum in India. environmental pollution.
17. (c) Cassini–Huygens is an 25. (d) Before the start of the match,
unmanned spacecraft sent to the referee told both the
the planet Saturn. Cassini is wrestler to shake hands.
the fourth space probe to visit During the match, both the
Saturn and the first to enter wrestlers tried hard to win
orbit. the match. At the end of the
18. (a) Kalpana Chawla was an match, the referee declared
astronaut from Karnal, the winner by raising his
Haryana, India, who died on hands.
February 1, 2003. 26. (d) The word ‘Sour’ rhymes with
19. (b) The speed of light is 299792458 ‘hour’.
meter per second. Light has 27. (a) Pill bug rolls up into a tight
the maximum speed than all little ball to protect itself from
other objects on the Earth. other living creatures.
28. (b) James Cameron directed 35. (d)
Cars make the street
the film ‘Titanic’ which was dangerous for kids. Obey all
released in the year 1997. traffic signals, and if you are
29. (a) Reema Lagoo was an Indian under age 10, ask an adult to
theatre and screen actress help you cross the street.
known for her work in Hindi 36. (c)
National Youth Day is
and Marathi cinema. celebrated in India on 12th
30. (c) Australian all-rounder James January each year to mark
Faulkner was declared ‘man the birthday of Swami
of the match’ in the Cricket Vivekananda.
World Cup 2015 played 37. (a) Prafulla Samantra, a social
between Australia and New justice movement leader,
Zealand. has won the Goldman
31. (a) India played its first test Environmental Prize.
match against England in 38. (a) A: The 105th edition of the
1932. England won by 158 Indian Science Congress
runs after scoring 259 and (ISC) will be held at the
275/8d in the two innings Osmania University (OU)
while India was bowled out in Hyderabad from January
for 189 and 187. 3-7, 2018. The theme of the
32. (c) Aerobic exercise requires conference will be ‘Science
pumping of oxygenated blood and Technology – Reaching
by the heart to deliver oxygen the Unreached’.
to working muscles. Blood 39. (d) Writer Mahabaleshwar Sail
pumping rate to and from the has been honoured with the
heart remain normal while 2017 Saraswati Samman for
talking. his novel ‘Hawthan’.
33. (a) Problem solving is a process 40. (b) India’s first sports literature
of finding solutions to difficult festival ‘SporTale’ was held
or complex issues. in Pune on February 2, 2017.
34. (c) Family should always make The 2-day event featured 38
plans to escape a fire before luminaries from the field of
there is a fire in our home. sports, media, cinema, books
and photography.
EBD_7095
44
LOGICAL REASONINGHints & Explanations
MOCK TEST-1
ANSWERS KEY
1. (c) 7. (c) 13. (a) 19. (c) 25. (a)
2. (c) 8. (c) 14. (c) 20. (d) 26. (a)
3. (a) 9. (c) 15. (d) 21. (a) 27. (a)
4. (b) 10. (a) 16. (b) 22. (c) 28. (c)
5. (d) 11. (c) 17. (d) 23. (b) 29. (c)
6. (a) 12. (a) 18. (c) 24. (b) 30. (d)
1. (c) Pattern followed

12. (a)
8 10 14 20 28 38
+2 +4 +6 +8 +10 . .
R S
2. (c) Word formed is POLICE i.e., 13. (a) New Positions if

arrangement of numbers Q
. . P
, then
should be 2, 5, 4, 1, 6, 3.
3. (a) B R A I N cannot be made from
..
R
.
S,Q
the given word.
P
4. (b) Colour of parrot is green and
green is called red. 14. (c) Final Position
5. (d) %3$#
Garima .
6. (a)
She will facing west.
7. (c)
15. (d)
8. (c)
Day Day
before Yesterday Today Tomorrow after
yesterday tomorrow
9. (c)
Friday Saturday Sunday Monday Tuesday
16. (b) Fourth Monday of January

20XX is 22nd. Hence, Rohan will
10. (a) celebrate his birthday on 23rd
Jan.
17. (d) In left pair, second figure is the
first element of first figure and
11. (c) becomes shaded.
18. (c) Figures in (a), (b) and (d) are 26. (a) All Pigeons are Birds. But,
divided in eight equal parts. Dogs are entirely different.
19. (c) Let the number be x.
Then, x + 13x = 112
14x = 112
x=8
27. (a)
20. (d) There are 8 rectangles and 9
circles in the picture.
21. (a) All Carrots are Vegetables. All
Vegetables are Foods.
28. (c) Option (c) is correct answer.
Food
Vegetables
Carrot
(22 - 25) : 29. (c)
Preeti Manu Kanika Zara Rahul Anu
22. (c) Anu is sitting right to the

Rahul.
23. (b) Kanika and Zara are sitting in 30. (d) 1 litre = 1000 ml
the middle in the row. 4 litre = 4 × 1000 = 4000 ml
24. (b) Kanika is sitting second to the and 250 + 250 = 500 ml
left of Rahul is correct
statement. Therefore, total volume of water in
six container
25. (a) Manu is sitting immediate left
of Kanika. = 4000 + 500 = 4500 ml
MOCK TEST-2
ANSWERS KEY
1. (c) 7. (c) 13. (a) 19. (b) 25. (b)
2. (a) 8. (a) 14. (a) 20. (d) 26. (c)
3. (d) 9. (b) 15. (d) 21. (c) 27. (a)
4. (a) 10. (b) 16. (b) 22. (c) 28. (a)
5. (a) 11. (b) 17. (c) 23. (c) 29. (d)
6. (a) 12. (a) 18. (c) 24. (b) 30. (c)
EBD_7095
16. (b) 2 Sunday of July 20XX is on
nd
1. (c) Given pattern is of type Q R
13th. Garima will celebrate her
Pattern followed, P = Q × R birthday on 14th July 20XX.
i.e., 123 × 7 = 861 ; 51 × 7 = 357; 17. (c) In first figure of left pair, inner
figure becomes the outer figure
51 × 9 = 459 ; 9 × 102 = 918 middle becomes inner, and
2. (a) Word formed is FRUIT i.e., outer becomes the middle
arrangement of numbers figure of second figure.
should be 4, 2, 5, 3, 1. 18. (c) Numbers in (a), (b) and (d) are
the multiples of 2 or even
3. (d) E in the word NOSE is not in numbers.
the given word. 19. (b)
4. (a)
5. (a) Fisherman is related to fish and 20. (d)
fish is called snake.
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (a) 22. (c) Truck and Ship are entirely
different. But some Goods are
carried by some Trucks and
9. (b) some Goods are carried by some
Mirror
Ships.
Truck
10. (b)
Goods
Ship
Mirror
23. (c)
11. (b)
24. (b) There are 7 triangles in the
figure.
12. (a)
(25 - 29) :
13. (a) Annie Annie
14. (a) Lovely Deepu Deepu Lovely
15. (d) If Second day is Friday, then After
next Friday will be after 7 days Interchange
from Friday. Esha Beenu Cheenu
Cheenu
2nd, 9th, 16th, 23th, 30th are dates Beenu Esha
on which Friday occurs. Initial Position
New Position
25. (b) Annie will be sitting to the left 29. (d) Annie is sitting to the right of
of Deepu. lovely.
26. (c) Esha will be sitting to the left

of Cheenu. 30. (c)
27. (a) Esha will be sitting to the

opposite to the Annie.
28. (a) Cheenu and Annie are the

neighbours of Lovely.
MOCK TEST-3
ANSWERS KEY
1. (b) 6. (a) 11. (b) 16. (a) 21. (a)
2. (a) 7. (b) 12. (a) 17. (d) 22. (d)
3. (a) 8. (c) 13. (a) 18. (c) 23. (d)
4. (d) 9. (a) 14. (b) 19. (c) 24. (a)
5. (d) 10. (d) 15. (b) 20. (d) 25. (d)
1. (b) 2 × 2 = 4, 4 × 2 = 8, 8 × 2 = 16, 7. (b)

16 × 2 = 32, 32 × 2 = 64, 64 × 2 8. (c)
= 128 9. (a)
2. (a) Word formed is S T A R, which
gives us light. M
3. (a) All the letters of the word 1 2
MASTER are in given word. + –
× ¸
or
3 4
L, I & S letters of the words in
options (b), (c) and (d) are not in N
the given word.
4. (d) Deer lives in forest and forest is
called building.
5. (d) 10. (d)
6. (a) New arrangement will be P Q Mirror
RSTUVW
EBD_7095
17. (d) Figures (a), (b) and (c) are
symmetrical along MN.
11. (b)
18. (c) Figure (i) and (iii) are formed by
only curved lines and fig (ii) and
fig (iv) are formed by only
12. (a) straight lines.
19. (c) There are 10 handshakes took
place.
13. (a)
.
Final
Position 20. (d) There are 4 horizontal lines in
the adjoining figure.
(21 -23) : The arrangement is as follows :
Priya. Rohit
Hockey
Ö
Volleyball Baseball Cricket
Ö Ö ×
Football
×
She will facing north. Kapil Ö Ö × Ö ×
Sagar Ö × Ö × Ö
14. (b) Gaurav × Ö Ö Ö Ö
Mohit × × Ö × Ö
21. (a) Kapil is good in Cricket,

Volleyball and Hockey.
Megha
22. (d) Gaurav is good in Football,
Library
Volleyball, Baseball and
Cricket.
3 23. (d) Rohit is good in Hockey,
4 Volleyball and Baseball.
Community centre
24. (a) Elephants and Wolves bear no
15. (b) Pencil : (P1, P2 ,P3) and relationship to each other. But,
Eraser : (E1, E2, E3) both of them are animals.
Possible combinations : (P1, E1), (P1, Wolves
Elephants
E2), (P1, E3), (P2, E1), (P2, E2), (P2, E3),
(P3, E1), (P3, E2), (P3, E3).
or
Animals
Three elements are in Pencil set and
three elements are in eraser set. 25. (d) Option (d) is correct answer.
16. (a) Previous Friday falls on 7 days
before 24th February, i.e., 17th
February.
MOCK TEST-4
ANSWERS KEY
1. (a) 6. (a) 11. (b) 16. (c) 21. (c)
2. (c) 7. (c) 12. (a) 17. (a) 22. (d)
3. (c) 8. (b) 13. (d) 18. (d) 23. (b)
4. (d) 9. (c) 14. (b) 19. (a) 24. (c)
5. (a) 10. (d) 15. (a) 20. (b) 25. (c)
1. (a) Number of Circles in Pattern 1 M
= 4, A C C A
Number of Circles in Pattern 2 = 7 10. (d) D F F D
N
Number of Circles in Pattern 3 = 10
Therefore, the pattern is +3
2. (c) Word formed is W A T E R 11. (b)
and is used for drinking.
3. (c) S and T letters of the words in
options (a), (b) and (d) are not 12. (a)
in the given word.
13. (d)
4. (d) has exactly four lines of
14. (b)
symmetry and means . 15. (a) Possible combinations :
3 × 4 = 12
5. (a) Prime factors of 45 are 3, 5 and
2 means 5. 16. (c)
6. (a) June 20XX

S M T W Th F S
7. (c)
1 2 3 4 5 6
8. (b) 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27
9. (c)
28 29 30
Mirror Latika will practice for 15 days.

EBD_7095
17. (a) Figure (iii) is the right rotated 21. (c)
part of figure (i). 22. (d) There are 20 squares in the
18. (d) Numbers in (a), (b) and (c) are figure.
all prime numbers. (23 - 24) : The arrangement of five
19. (a) Option (a) is correct answer. houses is as following:
D B A E C
20. (b) All sparrows are birds. But, mice 23. (b) A is in the middle of the row.
are entirely different. 24. (c) E sits immediate right of A.
Sparrows 25. (c) Option (c) is correct answer.
Mice
Birds
MOCK TEST-5
ANSWERS KEY
1. (b) 6. (a) 11. (b) 16. (c) 21. (c)
2. (d) 7. (b) 12. (a) 17. (a) 22. (c)
3. (b) 8. (a) 13. (d) 18. (b) 23. (a)
4. (b) 9. (c) 14. (a) 19. (a) 24. (b)
5. (a) 10. (a) 15. (d) 20. (d) 25. (d)
1. (b) Series followed : 5. (a) formed by squares and

1 23 1 23 1 23 1 23 means .
Doll 10
6. (a)
2. (d) Given Letters : C, E, O, Q 7. (b) New arrangement
3. (b) Possible words : URN, RUN
4. (b) In roman numerals, XII comes A 3 Q R 6 W X P T U I 4 E S 1 V Y Z
immediately after XI and XI
means XII.
8. (a) 19. (a) Bulbul has star printed T -
A 3 QR 1 WXPTUI 4 ES 6 VYZ shirt.
20. (d) There are 12 triangles in the
M figure.
9. (c) N
N 21. (c) Here, 1 hr = 60 mins
E S
E
So, 60 mins + 30 mins = 90 mins
W
W
N
Therefore, 90/9 = 10 mins

10. (a)
Hence, number of minutes she
took to solve one problem is 10.
11. (b)
12. (a)
13. (d)
14. (a) Priya remembers the dates are
19 and 20 but her father
remembers date is an odd
number i.e. 19th March. 23. (a) Some boys are students. Some
students are athletes. Some
15. (d) boys are athletes. So, the given
16. (c) items are partly related to each
other.
17. (a) Figure (iii) is the mirror image
of figure (i). Students
(18 - 19) :
Boys
T-s h irt Star Flo wer Flag Polka Dot
A v ika × × Ö × Athletes
Liya × Ö × ×
Bulb ul Ö × Ö ×
24. (b) 12 possible combinations can
Jan vi × × × Ö
be made.
18. (b) Avika has flag printed T - shirt. 25. (d) There are 16 sides.
EBD_7095
CYBER
MOCK TEST 1
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 7 (a) 13 (a) 19 (a) 25 (a)

2 (c) 8 (a) 14 (a) 20 (d) 26 (d)
3 (b) 9 (a) 15 (a) 21 (a)
4 (a) 10 (a) 16 (d) 22 (d)
5 (d) 11 (d) 17 (d) 23 (a)
6 (b) 12 (d) 18 (c) 24 (c)
1. (a) The Zip drive is a medium-to- 5. (d)

Abacus was the first
high-capacity (at the time of mechanical calculator. It is
its release) removable floppy used to perform automatically
disk storage system that was the basic operations of
arithmetic.
introduced by Iomega in late
1994. Originally, Zip disks 6. (b) Fifth Generation of computer
is still under development.
launched with capacities of
7. (a) Piece of hardware do EIDE
100 MB, but later versions
cables connect to hard disk.
increased this to first 250 MB
8. (a) Any device connected to a
and then 750 MB.
computer but not a part of it
2. (c) A barcode reader (or barcode is called peripheral hardware
scanner) is an electronic device.
device that can read and 9. (a) The full form of CMOS is
output printed barcodes to a Complementary metal–
computer. oxide–semiconductor.
4. (a) The processor speed tell you 10. (a) A set of instruction for your
how fast it can process data. computer is correct about the
And Ram determines how software program.
much instructions a computer 13. (a) While working with MS-Paint
can hold before going to the text tool is used to add name
processor. to your drawing.
14. (a) Skew can create an effect 21. (a) Local Area Network (LAN)
that can be used in making is computer network that
an illusion of 3D perspective. interconnects computers
16. (d) Internet can be used for within a limited area such
checking exam results, as a residence, school, and
chatting and e-mailing. laboratory.
18. (c) www.hotmail.com is 22. (d) In MS-Word 2010, red and
the
correct internet address. green color wavy line under
19. (a) ARPANET was the name of a word indicates a spelling or
the first network. grammar mistake.
20. (d) Easy sharing of internet 23. (a) Microsoft Word 2010 is a word
among connects computers, processing software type of
transfer of data from one application software.
computer to another and 25. (a) Windows is an operating
sharing printers and other system is correct about
devices among connected windows.
computers are correct about
the networking.
MOCK TEST 2
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 6 (b) 11 (d) 16 (a) 21 (a)

2 (c) 7 (a) 12 (b) 17 (d) 22 (c)
3 (a) 8 (a) 13 (a) 18 (c) 23 (c)
4 (a) 9 (a) 14 (c) 19 (a) 24 (c)
5 (b) 10 (b) 15 (d) 20 (c) 25 (b)
2. (c) A handheld scanner is any clock circuit and retain

scanner that is held in the configuration memory while
hand of the user during the system is turned off.
operation. This is offen called the CMOS
8. (a) Modern computer, Mother- battery or BIOS battary.
boards have a backup
battery to run the realtime
EBD_7095
Color 1, color 2 boxes are used to select your desired color from
1. Select the Foreground color, the color palette to the right.
click the Color 1 box, and 15. (d) Only option (d) because that
select your desired color from can be used to bring a zoomed
the color palette to the right. in or a zoomed out image to
2. Select the Background color, its original size.
click the Color 2 box, and
MOCK TEST 3
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 6. (b) 11. (d) 16. (d) 21. (c)

2. (a) 7. (d) 12. (d) 17. (a) 22. (a)
3. (d) 8. (a) 13. (d) 18. (c) 23. (a)
4. (a) 9. (b) 14. (b) 19. (b) 24. (b)
5. (d) 10. (c) 15. (d) 20. (a) 25. (d)
1. (b) If is a inverted mouse-like 21. (c) Operating systems control

input device, where you rall a the computer hardware
ball on the top of the device and act as an interface
to move the cursor on the with application programs.
screen. And Utility software helps
13. (d) STP (Shielded Twisted pair) to manage, maintain and
and UTP (Unshielded Twisted control computer resources.
Pair) are the type of twisted Examples of utility software’s
pair cable, which are mostly are antivirus software,
used in all types of network. backup software.
14. (b) NIC is the Network interface 22. (a) In computing, firmware is
card which is used to connect a computer program that is
the computer to the network. “embedded” in a hardware
18. (c) Option (c) tool is used device and is an essential
part of the hardware. It is
to select all portion of the sometimes called embedded
image rether then selcet the software. An example is a
perticuler part of the image. microcontroller.

28 Mock Test Series For Olympia - Disha Experts

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2. Mock Test 2 E-8-12

3. Mock Test 3 E-13-17

4. Mock Test 4 E-18-22

5. Mock Test 5 E-23-30

2. Mock Test 2 M-9-16

3. Mock Test 3 M-17-23

4. Mock Test 4 M-24-34

5. Mock Test 5 M-35-40

2. Mock Test 2 S-8-14

3. Mock Test 3 S-15-20

4. Mock Test 4 S-21-26

5. Mock Test 5 S-27-32

2. Mock Test 2 G-6-10

3. Mock Test 3 G-11-14

4. Mock Test 4 G-15-22

5. Mock Test 5 G-23-30

2. Mock Test 2 R-7-12

3. Mock Test 3 R-13-17

4. Mock Test 4 R-18-22

5. Mock Test 5 R-23-28

2. Mock Test 2 C-7-13

3. Mock Test 3 C-14-20

Hints and Explanations 1-54

1. Ram is going to the market. (d) Abstract noun

(a) Proper noun DIRECTION (Qs. 4): Tick the appro-

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9. Mr. Rochester wants to meet the (c) so (d) because

Space for Rough Work

15. Sheela ________ a white dog. 20. Blunt

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(a) Monkeys (b) Fish (a) Their (b) Hers

(a) Is (b) Are (a) Us (b) Her

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(c) Black (d) Beautifully (a) And (b) But

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9 & 10): Select the (c) So (d) Because

(a) Once (b) Man (c) So (d) Because

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(a) Owns (b) Will own 21. Expensive

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17 & 18): Select (c) Cheap (d) Steep

(c) The (d) Nothing (c) Tall (d) Long

18. Do you have ______ computer ? 24. What change in capitalization

Space for Rough Work

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(c) Shepperd (d) Sheepherd 25. Select the phrase/word to match

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Read the following paragraph (a) Hinduism

Space for Rough Work

29. When do western Christian 32. Whom do you praise?

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29 to 31): Complete DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32 to 39):

(c) concern (d) comfort Sometimes it is cold in Lilly’s new