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CHAPTER 13

Genetics

13–1. What percentage of newborns has a recognized 13–5. A 30-year-old G1 undergoes cell-free DNA screening
structural defect? at 12 weeks’ gestation, and the results indicate an
a. 1–2% increased risk of trisomy 18. She has an amniocentesis
at 16 weeks’ gestation which confirms the diagnosis.
b. 2–3%
At 32 years old, she conceives again. What is her risk
c. 3–4% of an autosomal trisomy in this pregnancy?
d. 4–5% a. 0.25%
b. 0.5%
13–2. A 40-year-old G2P1 presents at 36 weeks’ gestation
with decreased fetal movement. She is diagnosed with a c. 1.0%
stillbirth and undergoes induction. The stillborn infant d. 1.5%
is noted to have low-set ears, a high arched palate, and
an imperforate anus. What is the chance that the fetus 13–6. When major and minor sonographic markers are
has an underlying genetic abnormality? considered, what percentage of fetuses with the
a. 6–8% karyotype shown can be detected sonographically?
b. 10–12%
c. 13–15%
d. 18–20%

13–3. Which of the following abnormalities can be identified


by chromosomal microarray analysis but not standard
karyotype?
a. Microdeletions
b. Microduplications
c. Copy number variants
d. All of the above

13–4. In what phase of cell division are oocytes arrested


between birth and ovulation?
a. Prophase I Reproduced with permission from Cunningham FG, Leveno KJ, Bloom SL, et al (eds):
b. Anaphase I Genetic disorders. In William Obstetrics, 25th ed. New York, McGraw-Hill, 2018,
Figure 13-3. Photo contributor: Dr. Frederick Elder.
c. Metaphase I
d. Telophase I a. 40–50%
b. 50–60%
c. 60–70%
d. 70–80%
Genetics 89

13–7. You are seeing a 36-year-old G3P2 woman at 20 weeks’ 13–8. You are scanning a 34-year-old G2P1 woman at
gestation for an anatomy scan. She did not have 19 weeks’ gestation. You note the sonographic image
any genetic screening performed. You obtain the shown. What syndrome are you most suspicious for

CHAPTER 13
sonographic images, which are shown. Assuming based on the findings?
the associated autosomal trisomy is confirmed on
subsequent amniocentesis, which of the following
would be accurate regarding the diagnosis?

a. Patau syndrome
b. Edwards syndrome
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Angelman syndrome

13–9. A 38-year-old G1 is referred to you at 26 weeks’


gestation. She had a normal cell-free DNA test in
the first trimester. However, she was subsequently
discovered to have a fetus with multiple anomalies
including the defect shown in the sonographic image
as well as hypertelorism, syndactyly, a ventricular
septal defect, and a cleft lip and palate. Additionally,
the placenta is small and there is asymmetric growth
restriction. What is the most likely diagnosis based
on her history and sonographic findings?

Reproduced with permission from Cunningham FG, Leveno KJ, Bloom SL, et al (eds):
Genetic disorders. In William Obstetrics, 25th ed. New York, McGraw-Hill, 2018,
Figures 13-5A and 13-5B.

a. 90% of cases have a heart defect


b. It can result from a robertsonian translocation
c. Occurs in approximately 1 in 2,000 liveborn
neonates
d. None of the above

a. Trisomy 13
b. Monosomy X
c. Digynic triploidy
d. Diandric triploidy
90 The Fetal Patient

13–10. Of the pregnancies that yield a liveborn infant with 13–14. A couple with a history of two prior first-trimester
Turner syndrome, 25% have which of the following miscarriages presents to your office for evaluation.
karyotypes? You perform parental karyotypes as a part of their
a. 45,X workup and find that the man carries a robertsonian
SECTION 5

translocation. What is the couple’s risk of producing


b. 46,X,i(Xq)
an abnormal fetus related to the translocation?
b. 45,X/46,XX
a. 2%
c. 45,X/47,XXY
b. 5%
13–11. Which of the following DNA deletion sizes would c. 10%
be detectable by standard cytogenetic karyotyping? d. 15%
a. 1 million base pairs
13–15. You perform a chorionic villus sampling on a
b. 3 million base pairs
40-year-old G3P2 at 11 weeks’ gestation and the
c. 5 million base pairs karyotype results indicate the presence of trisomy
d. None of the above 16 mosaicism. How should you counsel the patient
with regard to these findings?
13–12. While performing an anatomical survey on a 24-year- a. No further workup is required.
old G2P1 in your office, you note the sonographic b. Testing for uniparental disomy should be
finding shown in the image. You also note unilateral considered.
renal agenesis, a likely cleft palate, and micrognathia.
You suspect the most common microdeletion
c. There is an increased risk for fetal growth restriction
and stillbirth.
syndrome based on these findings. Which of the
following is true regarding this syndrome? d. None of the above

13–16. Which of the following terms describes whether or


not a dominant gene is phenotypically expressed?
a. Expressivity
b. Codominance
c. Penetrance
d. Heterogeneity

13–17. A couple with five normal children give birth to


a sixth child who is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.
What is the chance that the phenotypically normal
children are cystic fibrosis carriers?
a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 2/3
a. Has prevalence of 1 in 10,000 to 1 in 14,000 d. 3/4
b. Is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion
13–18. You are caring for a pregnant patient with phenylketo-
c. Is often accompanied by structural neurologic
nuria. She has a 3-year-old boy who is a heterozygous
abnormalities
carrier, but suffers from seizures and is developmentally
d. None of the above delayed due to the patient’s noncompliance during
pregnancy. You counsel her that she should keep
13–13. What is the risk of a major structural or developmental her phenylalanine concentration below what level
abnormality for an individual with a balanced to prevent recurrent problems for this infant?
translocation? a. 4 mg/dL
a. 1% b. 6 mg/dL
b. 2% c. 8 mg/dL
c. 4% d. 10 mg/dL
d. 6%
Genetics 91

13–19. You are caring for a pregnant patient who is a carrier 13–25. Cytogenetic karyotype is performed on chromosomes
of hemophilia A. She gives birth to a male infant who arrested in what phase of replication?
is diagnosed with hemophilia. What are the chances a. Prophase

CHAPTER 13
that he would produce a future son with hemophilia? b. Anaphase
a. 0% c. Metaphase
b. 25% d. Telophase
c. 50%
d. 100% 13–26. You are performing an anatomy ultrasound on a
42-year-old G2P1 at 18 weeks’ gestation. You note
13–20. A patient presents to your office at 14 weeks’ gestation. several abnormalities on ultrasound including choroid
She reports a history of myoclonic epilepsy and plexus cysts, clenched hands with overlapping digits,
would like to know the chance that her future child and a ventricular septal defect. She elects for amnio-
would also be affected. How do you counsel her? centesis, which is sent for fluorescence in situ
a. Her future child has a 25% risk. hybridization testing. The result is pictured below.
What is the diagnosis?
b. Her future child has a 50% risk.
c. Her future child has a 100% risk. Interphase FISH
d. You are unable to estimate the risk.

13–21. Which of the following is true regarding the most


common inherited form of intellectual disability?
a. The incidence is 1 in 6000 in males
b. It is inherited in an X-linked fashion
c. It is caused by a CCG trinucleotide repeat
d. All of the above

13–22. Which of the following is true regarding uniparental


disomy? X Chromosome = Green
a. Trisomic rescue is the most common cause Y Chromosome = Red
b. It often does not have clinical consequences
18 Chromosome = Light blue
c. There is an increased risk of abnormality if
chromosomes 6, 7, 11, 14, or 15 are involved. Reproduced with permission from Cunningham FG, Leveno KJ, Bloom SL, et al (eds):
Genetic disorders. In William Obstetrics, 25th ed. New York, McGraw-Hill, 2018,
d. All of the above Figure 13-12. Photo contributor: Dr. Frederick Elder.

13–23. Which of the following defects or diseases is not a. Patau syndrome


caused by multifactorial inheritance?
b. Down syndrome
a. Cleft lip
c. Edwards syndrome
b. Diabetes
d. DiGeorge syndrome
c. Sickle-cell disease
d. Neural-tube defect 13–28.
¥ Which of the following cannot be detected using
chromosomal microarray analysis?
13–24. You are caring for a patient whose first daughter had a. Aneuploidy
a neural-tube defect. She tells you that during that
pregnancy, she did not realize she was pregnant until b. Microdeletions
approximately 18 weeks and was not taking any multi- c. Balanced translocations
or prenatal vitamins during that time. You advise her d. Unbalanced translocations
daily folic acid supplementation of 4 mg during her
next pregnancy will decrease her risk by how much?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 100%
92 The Fetal Patient

13–28. What percentage of chromosomal microarray samples 13–31. In general, what percentage of the total circulating
yield clinically relevant copy number variants in cell-free DNA in maternal plasma is placental in
the presence of fetal abnormalities and a normal origin?
karyotype? a. 5%
SECTION 5

a. 1–2% b. 10%
b. 3–4% c. 15%
c. 4–5% d. 20%
d. 6–7%
13–32. For which of the following conditions would fetal
13–29. Why is chromosomal microarray more likely than sex determination using cell-free DNA analysis
standard karyotyping to provide a genetic diagnosis potentially impact clinical care in utero?
in cases of stillbirth? a. Hemophilia A
a. The assay is more sensitive b. Sickle-cell disease
b. Dividing cells are not required c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c. Genetic abnormalities are more common in cases d. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
of stillbirth
d. None of the above

13–30. When might whole genome sequencing be considered


outside of a research context?
a. Cases of recurrent or lethal abnormalities
b. In the context of a normal karyotype analysis
c. In the context of a normal chromosomal
microarray
d. All of the above
Genetics 93

CHAPTER 13 ANSWER KEY

Question Letter Page

CHAPTER 13
number answer cited Header cited
13–1 b p. 253 Introduction
13–2 a p. 254 Chromosomal Abnormalities
13–3 d p. 254 Standard Nomenclature
13–4 a p. 255 Abnormalities of Chromosome Number
13–5 c p. 256 Abnormalities of Chromosome Number
13–6 b p. 256 Trisomy 21
13–7 a p. 257 Trisomy 18
13–8 a p. 258 Trisomy 13
13–9 c p. 259 Polyploidy
13–10 c p. 259 Sex Chromosome Abnormalities
13–11 d p. 260 Microdeletions and Microduplications
13–12 d p. 260 22q11.2 Microdeletion Syndrome
13–13 d p. 261 Reciprocal Translocations
13–14 a p. 262 Robertsonian Translocation
13–15 c p. 263 Confined Placental Mosaicism
13–16 c p. 265 Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
13–17 c p. 265 Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
13–18 b p. 266 Phenylketonuria
13–19 a p. 266 X-Linked and Y-Linked Inheritance
13–20 d p. 267 Mitochondrial Inheritance
13–21 b p. 267 Fragile X Syndrome
13–22 d p. 268 Uniparental Disomy
13–23 c p. 268 Multifactorial Inheritance
13–24 c p. 270 Neural-Tube Defects
13–25 c p. 270 Cytogenetic Analysis
13–26 c p. 270 Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization
13–27 d p. 271 Chromosomal Microarray
13–28 d p. 272 Chromosomal Microarray
13–29 b p. 272 Chromosomal Microarray
13–30 d p. 272 Whole genome sequencing
13–31 b p. 273 Cell-free DNA
13–32 d p. 274 Fetal Sex Determination

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