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PHYSICS
ICSE Paper 2010 Ph-1-13
ICSE Paper 2011 Ph-14-25
ICSE Paper 2012 Ph-26-36
ICSE Paper 2013 Ph-37-48
ICSE Paper 2014 Ph-47-58
ICSE Paper 2015 Ph-59-74
ICSE Paper 2016 Ph-75-87
ICSE Paper 2017 Ph-88-97
ICSE Paper 2018 Ph-98-108
ICSE Paper 2019 Ph-109-123
CHEMISTRY
ICSE Paper 2010 Ch-124-135
ICSE Paper 2011 Ch-136-147
ICSE Paper 2012 Ch-148-157
ICSE Paper 2013 Ch-158-167
ICSE Paper 2014 Ch-168-178
ICSE Paper 2015 Ch-179-190
ICSE Paper 2016 Ch-191-202
ICSE Paper 2017 Ch-203-211
ICSE Paper 2018 Ch-212-222
ICSE Paper 2019 Ch-223-233
BIOLOGY
ICSE Paper 2010 Bio-234-244
ICSE Paper 2011 Bio-245-254
ICSE Paper 2012 Bio-255-266
ICSE Paper 2013 Bio-267-278
ICSE Paper 2014 Bio-279-290
ICSE Paper 2015 Bio-291-302
ICSE Paper 2016 Bio-303-313
ICSE Paper 2017 Bio-314-326
ICSE Paper 2018 Bio-327-339
ICSE Paper 2019 Bio-340-354
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MATHEMATICS
ICSE Paper 2010 M-355-371
ICSE Paper 2011 M-372-385
ICSE Paper 2012 M-386-399
ICSE Paper 2013 M-400-411
ICSE Paper 2014 M-412-426
ICSE Paper 2015 M-427-445
ICSE Paper 2016 M-446-462
ICSE Paper 2017 M-463-482
ICSE Paper 2018 M-483-501
ICSE Paper 2019 M-502-521
HISTORY & CIVICS
ICSE Paper 2010 H&C-522-533
ICSE Paper 2011 H&C-534-544
ICSE Paper 2012 H&C-545-553
ICSE Paper 2013 H&C-554-561
ICSE Paper 2014 H&C-562-569
ICSE Paper 2015 H&C-570-581
ICSE Paper 2016 H&C-582-593
ICSE Paper 2017 H&C-594-602
ICSE Paper 2018 H&C-603-611
ICSE Paper 2019 H&C-612-620
GEOGRAPHY
ICSE Paper 2010 Geo-621-631
ICSE Paper 2011 Geo-632-640
ICSE Paper 2012 Geo-641-651
ICSE Paper 2013 Geo-652-661
ICSE Paper 2014 Geo-662-671
ICSE Paper 2015 Geo-672-685
ICSE Paper 2016 Geo-686-697
ICSE Paper 2017 Geo-698-707
ICSE Paper 2018 Geo-708-717
ICSE Paper 2019 Geo-718-730
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE-I
ICSE Paper 2019 Eng-I-731-739
ICSE Question Paper 2019
(Solution for previous year papers is not given due to introduction of new pattern of the paper)
ENGLISH LITERATURE-II
ICSE Paper 2019 Eng-II-740-751
ICSE Question Paper 2019
(Solution for previous year papers is not given due to introduction of new syllabus)
HINDI
ICSE Paper 2010 Hin-752-762
ICSE Paper 2011 Hin-763-770
ICSE Paper 2012 Hin-771-779
ICSE Paper 2013 Hin-780-790
ICSE Paper 2014 Hin-791-801
ICSE Paper 2015 Hin-802-809
ICSE Paper 2016 Hin-810-818
ICSE Paper 2017 Hin-819-838
ICSE Paper 2018 Hin-839-856
ICSE Paper 2019 Hin-857-876
COMMERCIAL STUDIES
ICSE Paper 2010 CS-877-884
ICSE Paper 2011 CS-885-895
ICSE Paper 2012 CS-896-911
ICSE Paper 2013 CS-912-920
ICSE Paper 2014 CS-921-931
ICSE Paper 2015 CS-932-939
ICSE Paper 2016 CS-940-946
ICSE Paper 2017 CS-947-962
ICSE Paper 2018 CS-963-973
ICSE Paper 2019 CS-974-985
COMMERCIALAPPLICATIONS
ICSE Paper 2010 CS-986-996
ICSE Paper 2011 CS-997-1004
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Ph- 1 2010
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Ph- 2 2010
1
(i) Approximate weight on the moon = × 360 = 60 N
6
(ii) The weight on the moon has been reduced because acceleration due to gravity on the
1
moon is th that on the surface of the earth. (_ W = mg), therefore the weight is reduced
6
1
to i.e., 60 N
6
(c) We know that W = FS cosq. clearly, work done by the force will be zero if.
(i) S = 0 i.e., no displacement takes place
(ii) If q = 90º, then cos 90º = 0, and W = 0 i.e., when the force acts perpendicular to the
direction of motion.
(d) When spring is compressed, there is a potential energy stored in it. When the trolley is
released the potential energy of spring is converted into kinetic energy of the trolley.
1 1
\ P.E. of the spring = mv2 = × 0.5 × 2 × 2 = 1J
2 2
(e) (i) Pitch (ii) Colour
Question 2.
(a) (i) Why is the mechanical advantage of a lever of the second order always greater than
one ?
(ii) Name the type of single pulley that has a mechanical advantage greater than one.
(2)
(b) (i) What is meant by refraction of light ?
(ii) What is the cause of refraction of light ?
(c) ‘The refractive index of diamond is 2.42;. What is meant by this statement ? (2)
(d) We can burn a piece of paper by focussing the sun rays by using a particular type of lens.
(i) Name the type of lens used for the above purpose.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to support your answer. (2)
(e) A ray of light enters a glass slab PQRS, as shown P Q
in the diagram. The critical angle of the glass is 42°
42º. Copy this diagram and complete the path of
the ray till it emerges from the glass slab.
Mark the angle in the diagram wherever necessary.
R
S
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Ph- 3 2010
Answer.
(a) (i) The mechanical advantage of second order levers is always more than 1 because the
effort arm is always longer than the load arm.
(ii) A single movable pulley.
(b) (i) Bending of light as it travels from one medium into another is called the refraction of
light.
(ii) The refraction of light takes place because the velocity of light in different media is
different.
(c) It means that the ratio of the velocity of light in vacuum to the velocity of light in diamond
is 2.42.
(d) (i) A convex lens is used to focus the sun rays on a piece of paper to burn it. A large
amount of heat gets concentrated at a point and is sufficient to burn the piece of
paper.
(ii) The necessary ray diagram is given below.
(e) The copied diagram alongwith the complete path of the ray is as shown below :
N
B
P Q
90° 42°r 42°
i
48° 48°
N’
48°
N
D C 42° N’ A
R
90°
S
Refracted ray
E
Emergent ray
The angle of incidence on PQ is 48º which is greater than the critical angle. Hence, total
internal reflection takes place at PQ. OT is the totally reflected ray. It is incident on PS at
42º and will be refracted along TS.
Question 3.
(a) State two differences between light waves and sound waves. (2)
(b) Two waves of the same pitch have their amplitudes in the ratio 2 : 3.
(i) What will be the ratio of their loudness ?
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Ph- 4 2010
(b) (i) Since loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude, therefore loundess will
be in ratio of (2) 2 : (3) 2 i.e., 4 : 9.
(ii) Since their pitch is the same, therefore their frequencies will be same i.e., their ratio
is 1 : 1.
(c) A.C. Generator D.C. Motor
1. It is a device which converts mechanical 1. It is a device which converts electrical
energy into electrical energy. energy into mechanical energy.
2. A.C. genera tor ma kes use of two 2. It makes use of two halves of slip ring
separate co-axial slip rings. i.e ., split ring which a cts a s a
3. It works on the principle of electro- commulator.
magnetic induction. 3. It works on the principle that when a
conductor carrying current is placed in
a magnetic field, it experiences a force.
(d) Clearly, the resistance of 2W, 3W and 5W are in series.
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Ph- 5 2010
1 1 1 2 1
= + = =
R¢ 10 10 10 5
\ R¢ = 5W
r4 r5 r6
2W 3W 5W
C F
D E
3W
r1 r2 r3
Q
A 2W B 10 W G 5W H
V2
(ii) The required relation is P = , where P is power, V the potential difference and R
R
is the resistance.
Question 4.
(a) A device is used to transform 12V a.c. to 200V a.c.
(i) What is the name of this device ?
(ii) Name the principle on which it works. (2)
(b) (i) Which material is the calorimeter commonly made of ?
(ii) Give one reason for using this material. (2)
(c) (i) Name a metal that is used as an electron emitter.
(ii) Give one reason for using this metal. (2)
(d) Complete the following nuclear changes :
(i) 24
11
Na ® ...Mg... + 0
-1 e
(ii) 238
92
U ® 234
90
Th + ..... + Energy.
gy. (2)
(e) (i) Which radiation produces maximum biological damage ?
(ii) What happens to the atomic number of an element when the radiation named by you
in part (i) above, are emitted ? (2)
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Ph- 6 2010
Answer.
(a) (i) Since the device is being used to step up 12 V a.c. to 200 V a.c., it is called a step up
transformer.
(ii) A transformer works on the principle of mutual induction.
(b) (i) The calorimeter is usually made of copper.
(ii) Copper is a good conductor of heat. It therefore, takes less time to acquire the same
temperature as that of the liquid in it.
(c) (i) Tungsten or thoriated tungsten.
(ii) High melting point and low work function.
(d) (i) The completed nuclear changes are as below (use the fact that total mass number
and charge numbers are always conserved in a nuclear change.
24
11
Na ® 24
12
Mg + 0
-1 e
(ii) 238
92
U ® 234
90
Th + 42 He + Energy.
gy. 42 He is called the a particle.
(e) (i) g rays.
(ii) There is no change in the atomic number as g rays are uncharged.
SECTION – II (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four Questions)
Question 5.
(a) (i) Define the term momentum.
(ii) How is force related to the momentum of a body ?
(iii) State the condition when the change in momentum of a body depends only on the
change in its velocity. (3)
–1
(b) A body of mass 50 kg has a momentum of 3000 kg m s . Calculate :
(i) the kinetic energy of the body.
(ii) the velocity of the body. (3)
(c) (i) Write a relation expressing the mechanical advantage of a lever.
(ii) Write an expression for the mechanical advantage of an inclined plane.
(iii) Give two reasons as to why the efficiency of a single movable pulley system is
always less than 100%. (4)
Answer.
(a) (i) Momentum of a body is defined as the quantity of motion contained in the body. It is
measured by the product of mass and velocity of the body.
ur
dP
(ii) Force is equal to the rate of change of momentum of the body i.e., F =
dt
(iii) The necessary condition is that mass of the body is constant and does not change
with velocity.
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Ph- 7 2010
p2 3000 ´ 3000
(b) (i) We know that K.E.K. = = = 90,000 J
2m 2 ´ 50
p 3000
(ii) Now, p = mv, v = = = 60 ms–1
m 50
effort arm
(c) (i) M.A. of a level = load arm
1
(ii) M.A. of an inclined plane = , where q is the angle of the inclined plane.
sin θ
(iii) The efficiency of a single movable pulley is less than 100% because—
1. Friction is always present. A part of the energy is always used up in overcoming
friction.
2. The pulley is not weightless.
Question 6.
(a) A stick partly immersed in water appears to be bent. Draw a ray diagram to show the
bending of the stick when placed in water and viewed obliquely from above. (3)
(b) A ray of monochromatic light is incident from air on a glass slab :
(i) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing the change in the path of the ray till it emerges
from the glass slab.
(ii) Name the two rays that are parallel to each other.
(iii) Mark the lateral displacement in your diagram. (3)
(c) An erect, magnified and virtual image is formed, when an object is placed between the
optical centre and principal focus of a lens.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics. (4)
Answer.
Eye
(a)
C
The stick appears to be bent upwards and seems to be shortened. This is due to refraction
of light.
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Ph- 8 2010
(b) Figure A
Normal
Incident
ray
i
B Air
D e
L
Em
er
N’ K
ge
M
nt
ra
y
(c) If virtual, erect and magnified image of an object placed between the optical centre and
principal focus of a lens is formed, then lens must be convex.
(i) Convex lens
(ii) The diagram is as shown below :
Question 7.
(a) Two parallel rays Red and Violet travelling through air, meet the air-glass boundary as
shown in the above figure :
red Violet
air
glass
(i) Will their paths inside the glass be parallel ? Give a reason for your answer.
(ii) Compare the speeds of the two rays inside the glass. (3)
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Ph- 9 2010
(b) (i) A man stands at a distance of 68 m from a cliff and fires a gun. After what time
interval will he hear the echo, if the speed of sound in air is 340 m s –1 .
(ii) If the man had been standing at a distance of 12 m from the cliff would he have hear
the clear echo ?
(c) (i) In what unit does the domestic electric meter measure the electrical energy consumed?
State the value of this unit in S.I. Unit.
(ii) Why should switches always be connected to the live wire ?
(iii) Give one precaution that should be taken while handling switches. (4)
Answer.
(a) The paths of two parallel red and violet colour rays travelling through air are as shown :
Violet
Red
i i
air
glass
r1 r2
Violet
Red
(i) Since the refractive index of glass for violet colour is more. It will bend more than
the red colour as shown :
The paths inside the glass will not be parallel.
(ii) Velocity of red colours will be more than that of the violet colour.
(b) (i) The time t after which an echo is heard is given by,
2d 2 ´ 68
t= = = 0.4s
v 340
(ii) Man can not heard a clear echo because if man had been standing at a distance 12 m
2d 2 ´ 12 24
then t = = = = 0.07 s
v 340 340
which is less than 0.1 s.
(c) (i) The domestic electric meter measure, the electric energy in kWh.
1 kWh = 3.6 × 10 6 J
(ii) The switch should always be connected to the live wire, so that current is cut off to
that appliance to which it is connected.
(iii) The switches should not be touched with wet hand otherwise we may receive a
shock.
Question 8.
(a) Calculate the quantity of heat that will be produced in a coil of resistance 75W if a current
of 2 A is passed through it for 2 minutes. (3)
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Ph- 10 2010
(b) (i) A substance has nearly zero resistance at a temperature of 1 K. What is such a
substance called ?
(ii) State any two factors which affect the resistance of a metallic wire. (3)
(c) Five resistors of different resistances are connected together as shown in the figure. A 12
V battery is connected to the arrangement. Calculate :
(i) the total resistance in the circuit.
(ii) the total current flowing in the circuit.
Answer.
(a) Here, R = 75W, i = 2A, t = 2 minutes = 2 × 60 = 120s
Now, Heat produced
H = i2 Rt
= 2 × 2 × 75 × 120J = 36000 J = 8571.4 calories.
(b) (i) Superconductor
(ii) The resistance of a metallic wire is affected by
1. Its area of cross-section.
2. Its temperature.
(c) To solve the above Question, we have to first find the total resistance of the circuit.
(i) Here we find that R1 and R2 are in parallel and their combined resistance R¢ is given
10 ´ 40
by R¢ = = 8W
10 + 40
Also, the resistances of 30W, 20W and 60W are in parallel and their combined resistance
1 1 1 1
R¢¢ is given by = + +
R ¢¢ 30 20 60
2 + 3+1 6
= =
60 60
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Ph- 11 2010
60
\ R¢¢ = = 10W
6
Now, R¢ and R¢¢ are in series and their combined resistance R is given by
R = R¢ + R¢¢ = 8W + 10W = 18W
\ Total resistance in the circuit = 18W
R1= 10 W
R2= 40 W
V 12V 2
(ii) Now, I = = = A = 0.67 A
R 18W 3
Question 9.
(a) (i) Define the term ‘specific latent heat of fusion’ of a substance.
(ii) Name the liquid which has the highest specific heat capacity.
(iii) Name two factors on which the heat absorbed or given out by a body depends. (3)
(b) (i) An equal quantity of heat is supplied to two substances A and B. The substance A
shows a greater rise in temperature. What can you say about the heat capacity of A as
compared to that of B ?
(ii) What energy change would you expect to take place in the molecules of a substance
when it undergoes—
1. a change in its temperature ?
2. a change in its state without any change in its temperature ? (3)
(c) 50 g of ice at 0ºC is added to 300g of a liquid at 30ºC. What will be the final temperature
of the mixture when all the ice has melted ? The specific heat capacity of the liquid as 2.65
J g–1 ºC–1 while that of water is 4.2 J g–1 ºC–1 . Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J
g–1 . (4)
Answer.
(a) (i) Specific latent heat of fusion : It is defined as the heat required to melt one kilogram
of a substance at its melting point without any change in temperature.
(ii) Water has the highest specific heat capacity.
(iii) The heat absorbed or given out by a substance depends upon (i) mass of the body,
(ii) rise or fall of temperature.
(b) (i) Heat absorbed by a substance is given by
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Ph- 12 2010
H = msq
H = Heat capacity × rise of temperature.
Since, H is same for both A and B, it is a clear that heat capacity is inversely proportional
to the rise of temperature.
Since, the rise of temperature A is more its heat capacity must be less.
\ Heat capacity of A is less than that of B.
1. The energy of the molecules of a body increases with the rise in temperature
and decreases with the fall of temperature.
2. Since, temperature remains constant there is no change in the kinetic energy of
the molecules. The energy given to substance to change the state of the substances
increases potential energy of the molecules.
(c) Here
Ice Liquid
Mass of ice = 50g Mass of the liquid = 300 g
Temperature of ice = 0ºC Temperature of the liquid = 30ºC
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg–1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Specific heat capacity of liquid = 2.65
Jg–1 ºC–1 Jg–1 ºC–1
Let q be the final temperature of the mixture.
Heat gained by 50g of ice at 0ºC during its change of state to water =mL = 50 × 336 =
16800 J
Heat gained by 50g of water when its temperature rises to qºC = 50 × 4.2 × q = 210q
Total heat gained = 16800 + 210qJ
Heat lost by the liquid = 300 × 2.65 × (30 – q)
= 300 × 2.65 × 30 – 300 × 2.65q = 23850 – 795q
Now, Heat gained = Heat lost
16800 + 210q = 23850 – 795q
or 1005q = 23850 – 16800 = 7050
7050
\ q= = 7ºC
1005
Question 10.
(a) (i) Name the radioactive radiations which have the least penetrating power.
(ii) Give one use of radioisotopes.
(iii) What is meant by background radiation ? (3)
(b) (i) A straight wire conductor passes vertically through a piece of cardboard sprinkled
with iron filings. Copy the diagram and show the setting of iron filings when a current
is passed through the wire in the upward direction and the cardboard is tapped gently.
Draw arrows to represent the direction of the magnetic field lines.
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Ph- 13 2010
(ii) Name the law which helped you to find the direction of the magnetic field lines. (3)
(c) (i) State two ways by which the magnetic field of a solenoid can be made stronger.
(ii) What material is used for making the armature of a electric bell ? Give a reason for
using this material. (4)
Answer.
(a) (i) a-rays have the least penetrating power.
(ii) Radioisotopes are used to study the function of fertilizer for different plants. They
have also been used for developing new species of a plant by causing genetic changes.
(iii) Background radiations are present at all places even in the absence of any radioactive
source. The radiations are present in the atmosphere even when there is no source
nearby. The source of background radiations are :
(a) cosmic radiation (b) rocks in the earth which contain traces of radioactive
substances (c) naturally occurring radioisotopes.
(b) (i) The direction of the magnetic lines of force will be anticlockwise. The iron filings
will align themselves in circular lines of force (By Right hand thumb rule.)
Magnetic field
lines
Current
(ii) Right hand thumb rule or Maxwell’s cork screw rule.
(c) (i) The magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid is given by B = moni
Clearly, the magnetic field can be increased by
1. Increasing the current.
2. Increasing the number of turns/length.
(ii) The armature of the electric bell is made of iron. This is because iron when magnetised
is quickly demagnetised when the circuit is broken. Steel armature might lock up the
circuit and the bell may not work.
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PHYSICS
Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets ( ).
SECTION – I (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this section)
Question 1.
(a) (i) Define one newton.
(ii) Write the relation between S.I. unit and C.G.S. unit of force. (2)
(b) Where does the position of centre of gravity lie for
(i) a circular lamina
(ii) a triangular lamina ? (2)
(c) A man can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N by using a lever handle of length 0.4
m. What should be the length of the handle if he is able to open it by applying a force of 60
N? (2)
(d) Name a machine which can be used to
(i) multiply force
(ii) change the direction of force applied. (2)
(e) The diagram below shows a lever in use.
Effort (E)
F A
B
Load (L)
50 N
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Ph- 15 2011
(ii) S.I. unit of force is newton (N) and C.G.S. unit is dyne.
1N = 10 5 dyne
(b) (i) Centre of lamina.
(ii) The point of intersection of medians.
(c) Let the second length of the handle be L.
150 × 0.4 = 60 × L
150 ´ 0.4
Þ L= =1m
60
\ Length of handle = 1 m
(d) (i) Single movable pulley. (ii) Single fixed pulley.
(e) (i) Class II lever.
BF FA + AB
(ii) M.A. = =
AF FA
40 + 60 100
= = = 2.5
40 40
Question 2.
(a) A ball of mass 200 g falls from a height of 5 m. What will be its kinetic energy when it just
reaches the ground ? (g = 9.8 m s–2 ) (2)
(b) In the diagram below, PQ is a ray of light incident on rectangular glass block.
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray of light through the glass block.
In your diagram, mark the angle of incidence by letter ‘i’ and the angle of emergence
by the letter ‘e’.
(ii) How are the angle ‘i’ and ‘e’ related to each other ?
(c) A ray of monochromatic light enters a liquid from air as shown in the diagram given
below.
(i) Copy the diagram and show in the diagram the path of the ray of light after it strikes
the mirror and re-enters the medium of air.
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Ph- 16 2011
(ii) Mark in your diagram the two angles on the surface of separation when the ray of
light moves out from the liquid to air. (2)
45° Air
30° Liquid
Plane miror
(d) (i) When does a ray of light falling on a lens pass through it undeviated ?
(ii) Which lens can produce a real and inverted image of an object ? (2)
(e) (i) How is the refractive index of a medium related to its real depth and apparent depth?
(ii) Which characteristic property of light is responsible for the blue colour of the sky ?
(2)
Answer :
(a) K.E. = P.E. = mgh
200
= × 9.8 × 5 = 9.8 Joule
1000
(b) (i) P
i Q
(ii) Ði = Ðe
(c) (i), (ii) 45° 45°
Air
30° Liquid
30°
Plane miror
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Ph- 17 2011
(d) (i) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of the lens passes through it undeviated.
(ii) Convex lens.
Real depth
(e) (i) Refractive index =
Apparent depth
(ii) Effects of scattering.
The blue or violet light due to its short wavelength is scattered more as compared to
red light of long wavelength.
Question 3.
(a) When acoustic resonance takes place, a loud sound is heard. Why does this happen ?
Explain. (2)
(b) (i) Three musical instruments give out notes at the frequencies listed below. Flute : 400
Hz; Guitar : 200 Hz; Trumpet : 500 Hz. Which one of these has the highest pitch ?
(ii) With which of the following frequencies does a tuning fork of 256 Hz resonate ? 288
Hz, 314 Hz, 333 Hz, 512 Hz. (2)
(c) Two bulbs are marked 100 W, 220 V and 60 W, 110 V. Calculate the ratio of their resistances.
(2)
(d) (i) What is the colour code for the insulation on the earth wire ?
(ii) Write an expression for calculating electrical power in terms of current and resistance.
(2)
(e) Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the following diagram : (2)
Answer :
(a) At acoustic resonance, the amplitude of the vibration of the body becomes very large.
Since loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude, therefore, we hear a loud
sound under this condition.
(b) (i) Trumpet : 500 Hz.
(ii) 512 Hz. Second resonance will take place.
V2
(c) We know that R =
P
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Ph- 18 2011
220 ´ 220
The resistance R1 of the first bulb, R1 = = 484W
100
R1 484
\ = × 6 = 2.4
R2 1210
(d) (i) Yellow (ii) P = I2 R
(e) R1 = 3 + 2 = 5W
R2 = 30W
R3 = 6 + 4 = 10W
1 1 1 1
\ = + +
R R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1
Þ = + +
R 5 30 10
1 6 +1+ 3
Þ =
R 30
1 10
Þ =
R 30
Þ R = 3W
Question 4.
(a) Differentiate between heat and temperature. (2)
(b) (i) Define Calorimetry.
(ii) What is meant by Energy degradation ? (2)
(c) 200 g of hot water at 80ºC is added to 300 g of cold water at 10ºC.
Calculate the final temperature of the mixture of water. Consider the heat taken by the
container to by negligible. [specific heat capacity of water is 4200 Jkg–1 ºC–1 ] (2)
(d) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with appropriate words :
(i) During the emission of a beta particle, the number remains the same.
(ii) The minimum amount of energy required to emit an electron from a metal surface is
called . (2)
(e) A mixture of radioactive substances gives off three types of radiations.
(i) Name the radiation which travels with the speed of light.
(ii) Name the radiation which has the highest ionizing power. (2)
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Ph- 19 2011
Answer :
(i) Heat is the energy of transit. (i) Tempera ture is the funda menta l
quantity which determines the
direction of flow of heat.
(ii) Its S.I. unit is Joule. (ii) Its S.I. unit is Kelvin.
(b) (i) A calorimetry is the phenomenon through which we measure the amount of heat
gained or lost by a body when it is mixed with other body.
(ii) It is the transformation of energy into some form in which it is less available for
doing work.
(c) Let the final temperature be TºC. By the principle of calorimetry, we know
Heat lost = Heat gained
200 300
× 4200 × (80 – T) = × 4200 × (T – 10)
1000 1000
2 (80 – T) = 3 (T – 10)
Þ 160 – 2T = 3T – 30
Þ 160 + 30 = 3T + 2T
Þ 5T = 190
190
\ T= = 38ºC
5
(d) (i) Mass number (ii) Work function
(e) (i) g-rays (ii) Alpha particle
Ph- 20 2011
K.E.
P.E. = mgh P.E. = mgh
K.E= 0 K.E = 0
Energy
P.E. C B
h h
A
Height above ground
K.E. = mgh
P.E. = 0
The variation of potential and kinetic energy is as shown. The total energy remains constant.
(c) (i)
9cm 50cm 70cm 94cm
100cm
F
W
(ii) According the principle of moments
W (70 – 50) = 0.05 (94 – 70)
W × 20 = 0.05 × 24
24
Weight of the metre scale = × 0.05 = 0.06 kg
20
Question 6.
(a) (i) State the laws of refraction of light.
(ii) Write a relation between the angle of incidence (i), angle of emergence (e), angle of
prism (A) and angle of deviation (d) for a ray of light passing through an equilateral
prism. (3)
(b) (i) Suggest one way, in each case, by which we can detect the presence of :
1. Infrared radiations. 2. Ultraviolet radiations.
(ii) Give one use of Infrared radiations. (3)
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Ph- 21 2011
(c) An object is placed in front of a lens between its optical centre and the focus and forms a
virtual, erect and diminished image.
(i) Name the lens which formed this image.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to shows the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics. (4)
Answer :
(a) (i) Laws of Refraction :
(a) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all
lie in the same plane.
(b) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction
is constant for the pair of given media.
(ii) i + e = A + d
(b) (i) It is the portion of spectrum :
(a) Just beyond the red end. A blackened thermometer shows a much larger rise of
temperature when placed in the infrared region.
(b) Just before the violet end. These are detected by the silver chloride solution
which turns violet and finally black in the ultraviolet light.
(ii) They are used in photography at night.
(c) (i) Concave lens
C
(ii)
A
A¢
B
O
F2 D D¢ F1
Question 7.
(a) (i) Name the type of waves which are used for sound ranging.
(ii) Why are these waves mentioned in (i) above, not audible to us ?
(iii) Give one use of sound ranging. (3)
(b) A man standing 25 m away from a wall produces a sound and receives the reflected
sound.
(i) Calculate the time after which he receives the reflected sound if the speed of sound
in air is 350 ms–1.
(ii) Will he man be able to hear a distinct echo ? Give a reason for your answer. (3)
(c) (i) Name two safety devices which are connected to the live wire of a household electrical
circuit.
(ii) Give one important function of each of these two devices. (4)
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Ph- 22 2011
Answer.
(a) (i) Ultrasonic waves.
(ii) Because their frequency lies beyond the limits of audibility (20 Hz – 20,000 Hz).
(iii) To locate the position of the object under water and to find the depth of sea.
2d 2 ´ 25
(b) (i) Time = = = 0.14 sec
v 350
(ii) Yes, because distance is more than 17 m and time period is 0.14 sec.
(c) (i) Connected devices are switches and fuses to live wire.
(ii) Fuse : It is a safety device which is used to limit current in an electric circuit.
Switch : Its main function is either to connect or to disconnect an electric appliance
in an electric circuit.
Question 8.
(a) (i) Draw a graph of Potential difference (V) versus Current (I) for an ohmic resistor.
(ii) How can you find the resistance of the resistor from this graph ?
(iii) What is a non-ohmic resistor ? (3)
(b) (i) An electric bulb is marked 100 W, 250 V. What information does this convey ?
(ii) How much current will the bulb draw if connected to a 250 V supply ? (3)
(c) Three resistors are connected to a 12 V battery as shown in the figure given below :
I (in amp.)
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Ph- 23 2011
(ii) The reciprocal of the I-V graph shown in the figure gives the resistance of the resistor.
(iii) Resistor which do not obey ohm’s law (i.e., V µ I) are called non-ohmic resistors.
(b) (i) P = 100 W
V = 250 V
It tells us that it will consume 100 watt at 250 V.
V2
(ii) R =
P
250 ´ 250
= = 625W
100
V
\ I=
R
250
= = 0.4 A
625
12 ´ 6
(c) (i) Resistance of 12W, 6W parallel combination = = 4W
18
The combined resistance of the circuit = 8 + 4 = 12W
12V
\ Current through 8W resistance = = 1A
12Ω
(ii) Potential difference across the 12W – 6W parallel combination is = 4 × 1 = 4V
1 ´ 12 12 2
(iii) Current through 6W resistor = = = A
6 + 12 18 3
Question 9.
(a) (i) Explain why the weather becomes very cold after a hail storm.
(ii) What happens to the heat supplied to a substance when the heat supplied causes no
change in the temperature of the substance ? (3)
(b) (i) When 1 g of ice at 0 ºC melts to form 1 g of water at 0 ºC then, is the latent heat
absorbed by the ice or given out by it ?
(ii) Give one example where high specific heat capacity of water is used as a heat reservoir.
(iii) Give one example where high specific heat capacity of water is used for cooling
purposes. (3)
(c) 250 g of water at 30ºC is present in a copper vessel of mass 50 g. Calculate the mass of
ice required to bring down the temperature of the vessel and its contents to 5ºC.
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 × 10 3 J kg–1
Specific heat capacity of copper vessel = 400 J kg–1 ºC–1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 ºC–1 (4)
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Ph- 24 2011
Answer :
(a) (i) As the ice starts melting after a hail storm, it absorbs latent heat of fusion from the
surrounding air. This leads to the cooling of atmosphere.
(ii) Heat supplied to a substance during its change of state is called latent heat. It is used
up in increasing the potential energy of the molecules of the substance and in doing
work against external pressure if there is an increase in volume. Hence there is no
change of temperature.
(b) (i) Water at 0ºC has more heat than ice at 0ºC. This is because each gram of ice absorbs
nearly 336 J of heat when it melts into water at 0ºC.
(ii) Hot water bottles are used for fomentation since water does not cool quickly.
(iii) It is used as coolant by flowing it in pipes around the heated part of machines.
(c) According to the principle of calorimetry we know,
Heat gained = Heat lost
m × 336 + m × 4.2 × 5 = 250 × 4.2 (30 – 5) + 50 × 0.4 (30 – 5)
Þ 336 m + 21 m = 250 × 105 + 50 × 10
Þ 357 m = 26250 + 500
26750
\ m= = 74.9 g
357
Question 10.
(a) (i) State two properties which a substance should possess when used as a thermionic
emitter.
(ii) When an alpha particle gains two electrons it becomes neutral and becomes an atom
of an element which is a rare gas. What is the name of this rare gas ? (3)
(b) (i) Define radioactivity.
(ii) What happens inside the nucleus that causes the emission of beta particle ?
(iii) Express the above change in the form of an equation. (3)
(c) (i) Name a device which is commonly used to convert an electrical signal into a visual
signal.
202
(ii) The nucleus 84 X
emits an alpha particle and forms the nucleus Y. Represent this
change in the form of an equation.
(iii) What changes will take place in the mass number and atomic number of nucleus Y if
it emits gamma radiations ? (4)
Answer.
(a) (i) (1) Low work function.
(2) High melting point.
(ii) Helium atom
(b) (i) Radioactivity is self spontaneous disintegration of a heavy nucleus in a, b, and g
radiation.
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Compressed spring
Answer.
(a) (i) The force with which a mass of 1 kg is attracted towards the centre of the earth, due
to the acceleration due to gravity is called 1 kgf.
(ii) 1 kgf = 1 kg × acceleration due to gravity
= 1 kg × 9.8 ms–2 = 9.8 N
(b) (i) The forces which do act on bodies without being physically touched are called the
non-contact forces.
(ii) The magnitude of non-contact forces acting between the two bodies is inversely
proportional to the square of distance between the mass centres of the two bodies.
Ph- 26 2012
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Ph- 27 2012
(c) Let ‘x’ be the distance of 40 kg boy from the middle of see-saw.
\ Moments due to 40 kg boy = Moments due to 30 kg boy
40 kg × x = 30 kg × 2 m
30 kg ´ 2 m
\ x= = 1.5 m
40 kg
(d) (i) The turning effect of a force about a fixed point or a fixed axis is called moment of
force.
(ii) Negative sign of the moment of force implies that turning tendency of the force is in
anticlockwise direction.
(e) (i) The compressed spring possesses potential energy.
(ii) The potential energy of the spring on releasing changes to kinetic energy. It is the
kinetic energy which makes the ball to fly away.
Question 2.
(a) (i) State the energy conversion taking place in a solar cell.
(ii) Give one disadvantage of using a solar cell. [2]
(b) A body of mass 0.2 kg falls from a height of 10 m to a height of 6 m above the ground.
Find the loss in potential energy taking place in the body. [g = 10 ms–2 ] [2]
(c) (i) Define the term refractive index of a medium in terms of velocity of light.
(ii) A ray of light moves from a rare medium to a dense medium as shown in the diagram
below. Write down the number of the ray which represents the partially reflected ray.
[2]
Ray 1
Ray 2
Rare medium
Dense medium
Ray 3
(d) You are provided with a printed piece of paper. Using this paper how will you differentiate
between a convex lens and a concave lens ? [2]
(e) A ray of light incident at an angle of incidence ‘i’ passes through an equilateral glass prism
such that the refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to its base and emerges from the
prism at an angle of emergence ‘e’.
(i) How is the angle of emergence ‘e’ related to the angle of incidence ‘i’ ?
(ii) What can you say about the value of the angle of deviation in such a situation ? [2]
Answer.
(a) (i) In a solar cell, the light energy directly changes to electric energy.
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Ph- 28 2012
(ii) Solar cell does not produce electric energy during night or in darkness.
(b) Loss in potential energy = mass × g × loss of height
= 0.2 kg × 10 ms–2 × 4 m = 8 J
(c) (i) Refractive index of a medium is the ratio of velocity of light in vacuum or air to the
velocity of light in a given medium.
(ii) Ray 2, represents partially reflected ray.
(d) Hold each of the lens 5 cm above the printed paper and look for the image. In case of
convex lens the print appears enlarged. However, in case of concave lens, the print appears
diminished.
(e) (i) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence.
(ii) The angle of deviation is minimum in this particular case.
Question 3.
(a) (i) What is meant by ‘Dispersion of light’ ?
(ii) In the atmosphere which colour of light gets scattered the least ? [2]
(b) Which characteristic of sound will change if there is a change in
(i) its amplitude (ii) its waveform. [2]
(c) (i) Name one factor which affects the frequency of sound emitted due to vibrations in
an air column.
(ii) Name the unit used for measuring the sound level. [2]
(d) An electrical appliance is rated at 1000 kVA, 220V. If the appliance is operated for 2 hours,
calculate the energy consumed by the appliance in :
(i) kWh (ii) joule
(e) Calculate the equivalent resistance between P and Q from the following diagram : [2]
Answer.
(a) (i) The phenomenon due to which white light splits into component colours on passing
through a prism is called dispersion of light.
(ii) Red colour scatters least in the atmosphere.
(b) (i) With the change in amplitude, the loudness of sound changes.
(ii) With the change in waveform the quality of sound changes.
(c) (i) The length of vibrating air column affects its frequency. More the length of vibrating
air column, lesser is its frequency.
(ii) Decibel (dB) is the unit used for measuring sound level.
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1 1 1 1+ 4 5 1
R p = 20 + 5 = 20 = 20 = 4 \ Rp = 4W
Ph- 30 2012
1 1
(ii) Here, mechanical advantage = Þ sin q =
sin θ Mechanical advantage
If a body rises 1 m vertically, when it moves along the inclined plane by 100 m.
Then sin q = 1/100. Higher the magnitude of the gradient, more difficult, more difficult
is the slop to climb and vice-versa. Thus keeping gradient as low as possible which
helps in using lesser effort for lift a load over inclined plane as compared to lifting the
load directly.
(c) (i) Force acting on body (F) = mg
400 N = m × 100 ms–2
\ Mass of body (m) = 400 N ¸ 10 ms–2 = 40 kg.
1
Kinetic energy of body (KE) = mv 2
2
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1
500 J = × 40 kg v 2
2
500 2 –2
v2 = ms
20
\ v= 25 = 5ms–1
(ii) 1. When the radius of driven wheel is less than the driving wheel.
2. When the radius of driven wheel is more than the driving wheel.
Question 6.
(a) (i) What is meant by the term ‘critical angle’ ?
(ii) How is it related to the refractive index of the medium ?
(iii) Does the depth of a tank of water appear to change or remain the same when viewed
normally from above ? [3]
(b) A ray of light PQ is incident normally on the hypotenuse of a right angled prism ABC as
shown in the diagram given alongside :
A P
B C
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray PQ till it emerges from the prism.
(ii) What is the value of the angle of deviation of the ray ?
(iii) Name an instrument where this action of the prism is used. [3]
(c) A converging lens is used to obtain an image of an object placed in front of it.
The inverted image is formed between F2 and 2F2 of the lens.
(i) Where is the object placed ?
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to illustrate the formation of the image obtained. [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) The angle of incidence in a denser medium for which angle of refraction in rarer
medium is 90º is called critical angle.
1
(ii) Refractive index (m) =
sin C
(iii) The depth of tank remains same when viewed normally from above.
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Ph- 32 2012
(b) (i) P
A
Q
U
45°
R 45°
T
45°45°
B
S C
(ii) The ray deviates through 180º.
(iii) Binoculars use this action of right angled prism.
(c) (i) The object is anywhere between 2F1 and infinity.
(ii)
A
B O F2 B1 2F
2F1 F1
A1
Converging lens
Question 7.
(a) (i) What is meant by Resonance ?
(ii) State two ways in which Resonance differs from Forced vibrations. [3]
(b) (i) A man standing between two cliffs produces a sound and hears two successive
echoes at intervals of 3 s and 4 s respectively. Calculate the distance between the two
cliffs. The speed of sound in the air is 330 ms –1 .
(ii) Why will an echo not be hears when the distance between the source of sound and
the reflecting surface is 10 m ? [3]
(c) The diagram alongside shows the displacement-time graph for a vibrating body.
Ph- 33 2012
Answer.
(a) (i) The phenomenon due to which the natural frequency of a given body corresponds to
the frequency of sound impressed on it, such that it rapidly starts vibrating is called
resonance.
(ii) 1. The resonance takes place only when the natural frequency of a given body is
equal to the frequency of sound impressed on it, whereas during forced vibration
a body is forced to vibrate with the frequency of sound impressed on it.
2. Loud sound is produced during resonance, but not in case of forced vibrations.
v´t 300 ms -1 ´ 7 s
(b) (i) Distance between two cliffs = = = 1155 m.
2 2
(ii) The persistence of sound on ear drum is 1/10 of a second. The echo can be heard if
the minimum distance of the source of sound from the vibrating body is 17 m. As the
distance is only 10 m, therefore, no echo is produced.
(c) (i) Transverse vibrations are produced which are gradually damped.
(ii) A stretched string of a guitar.
(iii) As the energy of wave is dissipated its amplitude decreases.
(iv) The body will stop vibrating.
Question 8.
(a) (i) A cell is sending current in an external circuit. How does the terminal voltage compare
with the e.m.f. of the cell ?
(ii) What is the purpose of using a fuse in an electrical circuit ?
(iii) What are the characteristic properties of fuse wire ? [3]
(b) (i) Write an expression for the electrical energy spent in the flow of current through an
electrical appliance in terms of I, R and t.
(ii) At what voltage is the alternating current supplied to our houses ?
(iii) How should the electric lamps in a building be connected ? [3]
(c) Three resistors are connected to a 6 V battery as shown in the figure given alongside :
Calculate :
(i) the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
(ii) total current in the circuit.
(iii) potential difference across the 7.2 W resistor.
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Ph- 34 2012
Answer.
(a) (i) Terminal voltage is slightly less than the e.m.f. of the cell.
(ii) The fuse wire melts and stops the flow of electric current in a given circuit, in case
the circuit is overloaded or short circuited.
(iii) 1. Fuse wire should have low melting point around 200ºC.
2. Fuse wire should have high electrical resistance.
(b) (i) Electrical energy (E) = I2 .R.t.
(ii) Alternating current is supplied at 220V for domestic consumption.
(iii) All lamps should be connected in parallel.
(c) (i) Resistance of 8W and 12W resistors in parallel.
1 1 1 3+ 2 5
R p = 8 + 12 = 24 = 24
24
\ Rp = = 4.8W
5
Equivalent resistance of circuit = Rp + 7.2W = 4.8W + 7.2W = 12W
V 6V
(ii) Current in circuit I = = = 0.5 A.
R 12W
(iii) Potential difference across 7.2W resistor
V = I.R = 0.5 A × 7.2W = 3.60V
Question 9.
(a) (i) Write an expression for the heat energy liberated by a hot body.
(ii) Some heat is provided to a body to raise its temperature by 25ºC.
What will be the corresponding rise in temperature of the body as shown on the
kelvin scale ?
(iii) What happens to the average kinetic energy of the molecules as ice melts at 0ºC ?
[3]
(b) A piece of ice at 0ºC is heated at a constant rate and its temperature recorded at regular
intervals till steam is formed at 100ºC. Draw a temperature – time graph to represent the
change in phase. Label the different parts of your graph. [3]
(c) 40 g of ice at 0ºC is used to bring down the temperature of a certain mass of water at 60ºC
to 10ºC. Find the mass of water used.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 ºC–1 ]
[Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 × 103 J kg–1 ] [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) Heat liberated by a body = mass × sp. heat capacity × fall in temperature
= m × C × qfall
(ii) The rise in temperature on kelvin scale will be 25 K.
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D E
100
Temp (ºC)
B C
0°C
A
Time (s)
(c) Heat absorbed by ice to form water at 0ºC = 40 g × 336 Jg–1 = 13440 J.
Heat absorbed by water at 0º to attain temperature of 10ºC = mCqR
= 40 g × 4.2 Jg–1 ºC–1 × 10ºC = 1680 J.
\ Total heat absorbed = (13440 + 1680) J = 15120 J
Heat given out by water at 60ºC = mCqF
= m × 4.2 Jg–1 ºC–1 × 50ºC = 210 m J g–1
Now, Heat given out = Heat absorbed
\ 210 m Jg–1 = 15120 J
15120
\ m= g = 72 g.
210
Question 10.
(a) The diagram alongside shows a current carrying loop or a circular coil passing through a
sheet of cardboard at the points M and N. The sheet of cardboard is sprinkled uniformly
with iron filings.
(i) Copy the diagram and draw an arrow on the circular coil to show the direction of
current flowing through it.
(ii) Draw the pattern of arrangement of the iron filings when current is passed through
the loop. [3]
(b) (i) Draw a simplified labelled diagram of a hot cathode ray tube.
(ii) Name a common device where a hot cathode ray tube is used. [3]
(c) A certain nucleus X has a mass number 14 and atomic number 6. The nucleus X changes
to 7 Y14 after the loss of a particle.
(i) Name the particle emitted.
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Ph- 36 2012
(b) (i)
(iii) No change will take place in its rate of activity. It is because oxidation is a chemical
change which takes at electron level. It has nothing to do with nucleus of the atom.
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(c) (i) The centre of gravity of a uniform ring is its centre. (ii) False
n - u (50 - 40) ms -1
(d) Acceleration of body (a) = = = 5 ms–2
t 2s
Distance covered by body while accelerating,
1 1
S = ut + at2 = 40 × 2 + × 5 × 2 × 2 = 80 + 10 = 90 m
2 2
Force possessed by body, F = m.a = 20 (kg) × 5 ms–2 = 100 N
Ph- 37 2013
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Ph- 38 2013
(i) Copy the diagram and mark arrows to show the path of the ray of light after it is reflected
from the mirror.
(ii) Name the principle you have used to mark the arrows to show the direction of the ray.(2)
(e) (i) The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5. What is the value of the
refractive index of air with respect to glass ?
(ii) A ray of light is incident as a normal ray on the surface of separation of two different
mediums. What is the value of the angle of incidence in this case ? (2)
Answer
(a) (i) An ideal machine is the one whose parts are frictionless as well as weightless, such
that its mechanical advantage is equal to its velocity ratio.
A practical machine is the one whose parts are neither frictionless nor weightless. Furthermore,
its mechanical advantage is always less than its velocity ratio.
(ii) No, it can be either speed multiplier or force multiplier.
(b) Mass of girl (m) = 35 kg
Height gained by girl (h) = (12 – 4) = 8 m
\ Increase in gravitational potential
energy = mgh = 35 (kg) × 10 ms–2 × 8 m Rarer medium
= 2800 J
Denser medium
(c) (i) Lever of third order.
(ii) Lever of second order
90°
(d) (i)
(ii) The principle is the law of reversibility of light Mirror
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Ph- 39 2013
1 1 2
(e) (i)
g
ma = = = = 0.67 (Appox.)
a
m g 1 .5 3
(ii) Angle of incidence is zero.
Question 3
(a) A bucket kept under a running tap is getting filled with water. A person sitting at a distance
is able to get an idea when the bucket is about to be filled.
(i) What change takes place in the sound to give this idea ?
(ii) What causes the change in the sound ? (2)
(b) A sound made on the surface of a lake takes 3 s to reach a boatman.
How much time will it take to reach a diver inside the water at the same depth ?
[Velocity of sound in air = 330 ms–1 ; Velocity of sound in water = 1450 ms–1] (2)
(c) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points A and B for the following combination
of resistors : (2)
A B
Ph- 40 2013
990 m 990
\ Time taken by the sound to reach diver = 1450 ms –1 = 145 s = 0.68 s (Appox.).
Ph- 41 2013
Ph- 42 2013
Question 6
(a) Name the radiations :
(i) that are used for photography at night. (ii) used for detection of fracture in bones.
o o
(ii) whose wavelength range is from 100 A to 4000 A (or 10 nm to 400 nm). (3)
(b) (i) Can the absolute refractive index of a medium be less than one ?
(ii) A coin placed at the bottom of a beaker appears to be raised by 4.0 cm.
If the refractive index of water is 4/3, find the depth of the water in the beaker. (3)
(c) An object AB is placed between 2F1 and F1 on the principal axis of a convex lens as
shown in the diagram.
Copy the diagram and using three rays starting from point A, obtain the image of the
object formed by the lens. (4)
Answer
(a) (i) infrared radiation. (ii) X-rays. (iii) Ultraviolet radiation.
(b) (i) No, absolute refractive index of a medium is always greater than 1, as speed of light
in any medium is always less than that in vacuum.
(ii) Let the real depth of water = x
Apparent depth of water = (x – 4) cm.
Real depth 4 x
Now, refractive index of water = Apparent depth Þ 3 = x - 4 or (4x – 16) = 3x
\ Real depth = x = 16 cm
(c)
Question 7.
(a) (i) What is the principle on which SONAR is based.
(ii) An observer stands at a certain distance away from a cliff and produces a loud sound.
He hears the echo of the sound after 1.8 s. Calculate the distance between the cliff and
the observer if the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms–1.
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Ph- 43 2013
(b) A vibrating tuning fork is placed over the mouth of a burette filled with water. The tap
of the burette is opened and the water level gradually starts falling. It is found that the
sound from the tuning fork becomes very loud for a particular length of the water column.
(i) Name the phenomenon taking place when this happens.
(ii) Why does the sound become very loud for this length of the water column ? (3)
(c) (i) What is meant by the terms (1) amplitude (2) frequency of a wave ?
(ii) Explain why stringed musical instruments, like the guitar, are provided with a hollow box.
(4)
Answer
(a) (i) Echo depth sounding
Ultrasonic waves have the same speed as of audible sound but are not absorbed in the
medium. So transmitter sends these waves receiver receives the waves back after striking
vt
the rigid obstacle so time taken is recorded. And we can calculate distance d = .
2
Velocity of sound ´ time 340ms –1 ´ 1.8s
(ii) Distance between cliff and source of sound = =
2 2
= 306 m
(b) (i) The phenomenon is called ‘resonance of sound’.
(ii) A some particular length of air column the natural frequency of air column corresponds
the frequency of tuning fork. At this moment the sound waves reinforce to produce loud
sound.
(c) (i) The maximum displacement of vibrating particle about its mean position is called its
amplitude.The number of waves which pass through a point in a medium in one second
is called frequency.
(ii) The air trapped in the hollow box starts vibrating with forced vibrations, thereby producing
lounder sound.
Question 8.
(a) (i) It is observed that the temperature of the surrounding starts falling when the ice in a
frozen lake starts melting. Give a reason for the observation.
(ii) How is the heat capacity of the body related to its specific heat capacity ? (3)
(b) (i) Why does a bottle of soft drink cool faster when surrounded by ice cubes than by ice
cold water, both at 0o C ?
(ii) A certain amount of heat Q will warm 1 g of material X by 3oC and 1 g of material Y
by 4oC. Which material has a higher specific heat capacity.
(c) A calorimeter of mass 50 g and specific heat capacity 0.42 J g–1 oC–1 contains some mass
of water at 20oC. A metal piece of mass 20 g at 100 oC is dropped into the calorimeter.
After stirring, the final temperature of the mixture is found to be 22oC. Find the mass of
water used in the calorimeter.
[specific heat capacity of the metal piece = 0.3 Jg–1 oC–1 ; specific heat capacity of water
= 4.2 Jg–1 oC–1] (4)
Answer
(a) (i) Every kilogram of ice at 0oC on melting to form water at 0oC needs 336 × 103 J of
heat energy as its specific latent heat is 336 × 103J. This heat energy is supplied by the
surrounding of the lake, which in turn results in the fall in temperature.
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Ph- 45 2013
Ph- 46 2013
harmful radiations, such as a alpha particles, beta particles and gamma radiations is called
radioactivity.
(ii) The residual material left in the nuclear reactors after generating heat energy is called
nuclear waste. The nuclear waste is radioactive and very harmful to the environment.
(iii) The nuclear waste should be stored in stainless steel containers, lined from within with
thick sheets of lead, so that no radioactive rays come out of it. The containers should be
stored in safe and well guarded place, so that they do not fall in the hands of criminal
elements.
(c) (i)
(ii) The split rings alter the direction of current in the coil after every half rotation. This in
turn helps the coil to move in the same direction, i.e., clockwise or anticlockwise direction.
(iii) The alternating current can be easily stepped up or down and can be transmitted over long
distance cable wires. This is not possible in case of direct current.
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T
T ® Tension in the string
mg ® Weight of the ball
mg
(c) (i) The weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth is zero because value of g = 0
at the center of the earth.
(ii) An ideal machine is that in which there is no dissipation of energy in any manner.
\ Principle of an ideal machine = work done by a machine = work done on the machine /
work output = work input
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Ph- 48 2014
(d) Yes. The velocity of particle in circular motion is variable or the circular motion is accelerated
even though the speed of particle is uniform.
(e) (i) Work is said to be done only when the force applied on a body makes the body moves
i.e., there is displacement of the body.
(ii) The work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth is zero.
Question 2.
(a) Calculate the change in the Kinetic energy of a moving body if its velocity is reduced to
1/3rd of the initial velocity. [2]
(b) State the energy changes in the following devices while in use :
(i) A loud speaker.
(ii) A glowing electric bulb. [2]
(c) (i) What is nuclear energy?
(ii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy. [2]
(d) State one important advantage and disadvantage each of using nuclear energy for producing
electricity. [2]
(e) (i) The conversion of part of the energy into an undesirable form is called ............. .
(ii) For a given height h, ............. the length 1 of the inclined plane, lesser will be the
effort required. [2]
Answer.
1
(a) Initial K.E = mv2
2 1 1
1
Change in velocity = of initial velocity
3
2
1 1 ævö
\ Final K.E. = K.E2 = mv2 = × m ç ÷
2 2 è3ø
1 æ v2 ö
= m çç 9 ÷÷
2 è ø
1 æ1 2ö
= ç 2 mv ÷
9 è ø
1
= th of initial K.E.
9
(b) (i) Electrical energy converted to sound energy.
(ii) Electrical energy converted to heat energy and to light energy.
(c) (i) In nuclear fission and fusion there is a loss in mass due to loss in mass energy
released. The energy so released is called the nuclear energy.
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Ph- 49 2014
45°
(b) (i) What is consumed using different electrical appliances, for which electricity bills are
paid?
(ii) Name a common device that uses electromagnets. [2]
(c) (i) A ray of light passes from water to air. How does the speed of light change?
(ii) Which colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air? [2]
(d) Name the factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media. [2]
(e) (i) Name a prism required for obtaining a spectrum of Ultraviolet light.
(ii) Name the radiations which can be detected by a thermopile. [2]
Answer.
(a)
45° Q
45°
Ph- 50 2014
(d) Factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media are :
(i) Wavelength of light
(ii) Effect of temperature of the medium
(iii) Refractive index of the pair of media.
(e) (i) Quartz prism.
(ii) Infrared radiations can be detected by thermopile.
Question 4.
(a) Why is the colour red used as a sign of danger? [2]
(b) (i) What are mechanical waves?
(ii) Name one property of waves that do no change when the wave passes from one
medium to another. [2]
(c) Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. [2]
3W 4W
3W 5W
A B
6W
3W
1 1 1 1 3
(c) = + + = =1
R1 3 3 3 3
R1 = 1W
R2 = 5W
1 1 1 3+ 2 5
= + = =
R3 4 6 12 12
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Ph- 51 2014
12
R3 = = 2.4W
5
5N–
50 cm
5N
(b) (i) A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity keeps on decreasing. What happens
to its kinetic energy as its velocity becomes zero?
(ii) Draw a diagram to show how a single pulley can be used so as to have its ideal M.A.
= 2. [3]
(c) Derive a relationship between mechanical advantages, velocity ratio and efficiency of a
machine. [3]
Answer.
(a) (i) Man climbs up a slope does more work against the force of graving whereas the
work done by the man walking on a levelled road is zero because displacement is
normal to the force of gravity.
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T E
T=E
Axle
Frame
Single movable Pulley
L
(c) Let a machine overcome a load L by the application of an effort E. In time t, let the displacement
of effort be dE and the displacement of load be dL.
Work input = Effort × displacement of effort
= E × dE
Work output = Load × displacement of load
= L × dL
Work output
Efficiency =
Work input
L ´ dL L dL
= = ×
E ´ dE E dE
L 1
= ×
E dE / dL
L
But = M.A.
E
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Ph- 53 2014
dE
and = V.R.
dL
M.A.
\ Efficiency h = or M.A. = V.R. × h
V.R.
Thus, the mechanical advantage of a machine is equal to the product of its efficiency and
velocity ratio.
Question 6.
(a) (i) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. In
what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differ and why?
(ii) Ranbir claims to have obtained an image twice the size of the object with a concave
lens. Is he correct? Give a reason for your answer. [4]
(b) A lens forms an erect, magnified and virtual image of an object.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation. [3]
(c) (i) Define the power of a lens.
(ii) The lens mentioned in 6(b) above is of focal length 25 cm. Calculate the power of the
lens. [3]
Answer.
(a) (i) In a rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but they are
not along the same line whereas in a prism the emergent ray is not parallel to incident
ray. Because in a glass block the two surfaces at which refraction occurs is parallel
to each other.
(ii) No. By the concave lens only diminished images are obtained.
(b) (i) Convex lens.
(ii) Object drawn b/w the optical center and the principle focus.
B’
B
2F2
2F1 A’ F1 A O F2
Convex lens
(c) (i) The power of a lens is a measure of deviation produced by it in the path of rays
refracted through it.
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1
(ii) Power of lens (in D) =
Focal length (in metre)
100
=
Focal length (in centimetre)
100
= = 4D.
25
Question 7.
(a) The adjacent diagram shows three different modes of vibrations P, Q and R of the same
string.
(i) Which vibrations will produce a louder sound and why?
(ii) The sound of which string will have maximum shrillness?
(iii) State the ratio of wavelengths of P and R. [4]
Ph- 55 2014
(c) (i) The ultrasonic waves travel undeviated through long distances and they can be confined
to a narrow beam.
(ii) Distance of aircraft = 30 km = 30 × 1000 m = 30,000 m
Total distance = 2 × 30,000 = 60,000 m
Time taken = 2 × 10–4 second
distance travelled (2d )
Hence, Speed of sound V =
time taken (t )
60,000
= = 30,000 × 104 m/s
2 ´ 10 - 4
= 3 × 108 m/s.
Question 8.
(a) Two resistors of 4W and 6W are connected in parallel to a cell to draw 0.5 A current from
the cell.
(i) Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above arrangement.
(ii) Calculate the current in each resistor. [3]
(b) (i) What is an Ohmic resistor?
(ii) Two copper wires are of the same length, but one is thicker than the other.
(1) Which wire will have more resistance?
(2) Which wire will have more specific resistance? [3]
(c) (i) Two sets A and B, of the three bulbs each, are glowing in two separate rooms. When
one of the bulbs in set A is fused, the other two bulbs, alos cease to glow. But in set
B, when one bulb fuses, the other two bulbs continue to glow. Explain why this
phenomenon occurs.
(ii) Why do we prefer arrangement of Set B for house circuiting? [3]
Answer.
(a) (i)
4W
6W
0.5A
r = 0.6 W
1.5 V
(ii) Let current through 4W resistance is i then current through 6W resistance is (0.5 – i)
\ i × 4 = (0.5 – i) × 6
4i = 3 – 6i
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4i + 6i = 3
10i = 3
i = 0.3 A
\ Current through 4W resistance = 0.3 A
and current through 6W resistance = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2 A
(b) (i) Ohmic Resistors : The conductors which obey Ohm’s law are called the Ohmic resistors
or linear resistances. For such resistors, a graph plotted for the potential difference V
against current I is a straight line.
(ii) (1) Thin wire will have more resistance because the resistance is inversely proportional
to area of cross-section.
(2) Specific resistance of both wire is same because specific resistance depends upon
the nature of the medium which is the same (copper) in both cases.
(c) (i) The bulbs of set A are connected in series. Therefore when one bulb fuse the current stop
flowing. Whereas the bulbs of set B are connected in parallel. When one bulb fuse then the
current flows through the other bulb.
(ii) Set B prefer parallel combination because in it potential difference remains same.
Question 9.
(a) Heat energy is supplied at a constant rate to 100g of ice at 0 ºC. The ice is converted into
water at 0 ºC in 2 minutes. How much time will be required to raise the temperature of
water from 0 ºC to 20 ºC? [Given : sp. heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g–1 ºC–1 , sp. latent
heat of ice = 336 J g–1 ]. [4]
–1 –1
(b) Specific heat capacity of substance A is 3.8 J g K whereas the Specific heat capacity
of substance B is 0.4 J g–1 K–1 .
(i) Which of the two is a good conductor of heat?
(ii) How is one led to the above conclusion?
(iii) If substances A and B are liquids then which one would be more useful in car radiators?
[3]
(c) (i) State any two measures to minimize the impact of global warming.
(ii) What is the Greenhouse effect? [3]
Answer.
(a) m = 100g, t = 2 minutes = 2 × 60 sec.
Heat energy taken by ice at 0ºC to convert to water at 0ºC.
Q = mL = 100 × 336 = 33600 J
Q 33600
\ P= = = 280 J/S
t 2 ´ 60
The heat energy required to convert water at 0ºC to 20ºC.
Q = mC Dt
= 100 × 4.2 × 20 = 8400 J
Q=P×t
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8400 = 280 × t
8400
t=
280
t = 30 sec. = 0.5 min.
(b) (i) Substance B is a good conductor of heat.
(ii) Because specific capacity of B is less then that of A. [lower the specific heat capacity,
better the conducting power]
(iii) Substance A is more useful in car radiator.
(c) (i) Two measures to minimize the impact of global warming are :
(1) Technological measures
(2) Economic measures
(ii) The green house effect is the phenomenon in which infrared radiations of long wavelength
given out from the surface of the earth are absorbed by its atmospheric gases to keep the
environment warm at the earth’s surface and the lower atmosphere.
Question 10.
(a) (i) Name two factors on which the magnitude of an induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil
depends.
(ii) In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar
magnet.
(1) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?
(2) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.
Magnet
S N
A B
Ph- 58 2014
(ii) The number 24 is atomic mass number (number of protons and neutrons) and 11 is
atomic number.
(iii) They are isobars.
(c) (i) The purpose of covering cathode by thorium and carbon is to decrease the work
function or to emit electrons at lower temperature.
(ii) To convert electrical signal into a visual signal.
(iii) By increasing the temperature of cathode or By increasing the filament current, the
rate of emission of electrons from the cathode will increase.
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Ans.
(i) The emission of electrons from a metal surface when heat energy is imparted to it is called
thermionic emission.
(ii) Work function of a metal is expressed in terms of electron volt (eV) where 1eV = 1.6 × 10 –19J.
(b) [5]
(i) Complete the diagram as given below by drawing the deflection of radioactive radiations
in an electric filed.
(ii) State any two precautions to be taken while handling radioactive substances.
Ans.
(i) Deflection of radioactive radiations a, b and g in an electric field is as shown below:
Lead box
Radioactive substance
(ii) The two safety precautions to be taken while handling radioactive substances are (any two):
i. Radioactive substances should be kept in thick lead containers with a very narrow opening so as
to restrict the radiations coming out from other directions.
ii. Radioactive materials should be handled with long lead tongs.
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Ph- 76 2016
Wg = 18000 J
Wb 24000J
® =
Wg 18000J
Wb 4
\ =
Wg 3
Work done
(ii) Power developed =
Time taken
For the boy :
24000 J
Power Developed = = 100W
240 s
For the girl :
18000 J
Power Developed = = 100W
180 s
Thus, power developed by them is 1 : 1
Or
(i) Work done by the boy = 40 × 10 × 6 = 2400 J
Work done by the girl = 30 × 10 × 6 = 9800 J
\ Ratio = 2400 : 1800 = 4 : 3
2400
(ii) Power of boy = = 10 watt
4 ´ 60
2400
Power of girl = = 10 watt
3 ´ 60
\ Ratio = 1 : 1
(c) Velocity ratio.
It is the ratio of the velocity of effort to the velocity of load.
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VE
V.R. = V .
L
Velocity ratio does not change.
(d) Let m be the mass of the ice to be added.
Heat energy required to melt to lower the temperature is = mL = m × 336
Heat energy imparted by the water in fall of its temperature from 40°C to 0°C = mass of the water
× specific heat capacity × fall in temperature.
= 300 × 4.2 × 40°C
If there is no loss of heat,
m × 336 J/g = 300 g × 4.2 J/g°C × 40°C
300 × 4.2 × 40
∴ m= 336
∴ m = 150g
(e)
(i) Heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1°C or 1 K.
Thus, 60 JK–1 of energy is required to raise the temperature of the given body by 1 K.
(ii) Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of a substance through 1°C or 1K. Thus, 130 JKg–1 K–1 of heat energy required to raise the
temperature of unit mass of lead through 1 K.
Question 2
(a) State two factors upon which the heat absorbed by a body depends. [2]
(b) A boy uses blue colour of light to find the refractive index of glass. He then repeats the experiment
using red colour of light. Will the refractive index be the same or different in the two cases? Give
a reason to support your answer. [2]
A
(c) Copy the diagram given below and complete the path of the light ray
till it emerges out of the prism. The critical angle of glass is 42°. In 60°
your diagram mark the angles wherever necessary. [2]
P
(d) State the dependence of angle of deviation:
Q
(i) On the refractive index of the material of the prism. 60° 60°
(ii) On the wavelength of light [2] B C
(e) The ratio of amplitude of two waves is 3:4. What is the ratio of their:
(i) loudness?
(ii) Frequencies? [2]
Answer :
(a) Heat absorbed by a body depends on the mass of the body, change in temperature of the body and
the specific heat capacity of the body.
(b) The refractive index will be different in both cases.
Refractive index of glass is different for different colours. The speed of blue light is less than the
speed of red light. So, the wavelength of blue light is less than that of red light. Thus, red light
would deviate less than blue light because of difference in wavelength.
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Ph- 78 2016
(c) The diagram is as shown :
(d)
(i) Angle of deviation is directly proportional to the refractive index of the material of prism. For a
given angle of incidence, the prism with higher refractive index produces a greater deviation than
the prism which has a lower refractive index. Thus, the angle of deviation increases with an
increase in the refractive index of the medium.
(ii) Angle of deviation is inversely propotional to the wavelength of the light used. The angle of
deviation decreases with an increase in the wavelength of light. Thus, a prism deviates violet light
the most and red light the least.
(e)
(i) Let a1 and a2 be the amplitudes and I1 and I2 be the intensities of the two waves.
I1 a12 32
∴ I = 2 = 2
2 a2 4
I1 9
∴ I = 16 Þ I1 : I1 = 9 : 16
2
(ii) Frequency is the number of waves formed per second. It only depends on time period. Thus, the
ratio of their frequencies is 1:1.
Question 3
(a) State two ways by which the frequency of transverse vibrations of a stretch string can be increased.
[2]
(b) What is meant by noise pollution? Name one source of sound causing noise pollution. [2]
(c) The V-I graph for a series combination and for a parallel combination of two resistors is shown in
the figure below. Which of the two A or B. represents the parallel combination? Give reasons for
your answer. [2]
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(d) A music system draws a current of 400 mA when connected to a 12 V battery. [2]
(i) What is the resistance of the music system?
(ii) The music system if left playing for several hours and finally the battery voltage drops to 320 mA
and the music system stops playing when the current.
(e) Calculate the quantity of heat produced in a 20 W resistor carrying 2.5 A current in 5 minutes.
[2]
Answer :
(a) The frequency of transverse vibration is given by
1 T
f=
2l πr 2d
1 T
or f =
2l m
where l = length of the vibrating string
T = tension in the string
m = mass per unit length of the string
Therefore, the frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string can be increased by
(i) decreasing the length of the string
(ii) decreasing the mass per unit length of the string
(iii) increasing the tension T in the string
(b) The disturbance produced in the environment because of undesirable loud and harsh sound of
level more than 120 dB from the various sources such as a loudspeaker and moving vehicles is
called noise pollution.
Ex : Honking of vehicles in traffic jams.
(c) For the same change in I, change in V is less for the straight line A than for the straight line B (i.e.
the straight line A is less steep than B). The straight line A represents small resistance, while the
straight line B represents more resistance. The equivalent resistance is less in a parallel combination
than in a series combination. So, line A represents a parallel combination.
(d)
(i) Given : I = 400 mA = 400 × 10–3 A
V = 12 V
V = IR
V 12V
∴ R= I =
400×10-3A
∴ R = 30 Ω
(ii) Current drops to I = 320 mA = 320 × 10–3 A
The music stops playing at
V = IR
= 320 × 10–3 × 30
∴ V = 9.6 V
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(e) Given : R = 20 Ω , I = 2.5 A
t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 = 300 s
Quantity of heat produced is given as
H = I2Rt
= (2.5)2 × 20 × 300
∴ H = 37500 J
Question 4
(a) State the characteristics required of a good thermion emitter. [2]
(b) An element ZS decays to 85R after emitting 2 a particles and 1 b particle. Find the atomic
A 222
Ph- 81 2016
T B
T T
A C
Ph- 82 2016
L 120
M.A. = = = 2.4
E 50
The efficiency of the system is
M.A 2.4 2.4
η = = = =0.8=80%
V.A n 3
Question 6.
(a)
(i) What is the principle of method of mixtures ? (3)
(ii) What is the other name given to it ?
(iii) Name the law on which the principle is based
(b) Some ice is heated at a constant rate, and its temperature is recorded after every few seconds, till
steam is formed at 100°C. Draw a temperature time graph to represent the change. Label the two
phase changes in your graph. (3)
(c) A copper vessel of mass 100 g contains 150 g of water at 50°C. How much ice is needed to cool
it to 5°C ? (4)
Given : Specific heat capacity of copper = 0.4 Jg–1 °C–1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg–1 °C–1
Specific latent heat of fusion ice = 336 Jg–1
Answer :
(a)
(i) The principle of method of mixture says that the heat lost by a hot body is equal to the heat gained
by a cold body provided no heat is last to the surroundings.
(ii) The other name given to the principle of mixture is the principle of calorimetry.
(iii) The principle of mixture is based on the law of conservation of energy.
(b) The figure for phase change is shown below :
Vaporization
100°C
temp
Ph- 83 2016
QC = mCCC ∆ t = 100 × 0.4 × (50 – 5) = 100 × 0.4 × 45
QC = 1800 J
Similarly, heat energy lost by water is = 150 × 4.2 × 45
QW = mWCW ∆ t = 150 × 4.2 × (50 – 5)
QW = 28350 J
Hence, the total heat energy lost is
QL = 1800 + 28350 = 30150 J
Let m g of ice be used to cool water. So, heat gained by ice is
QI = mLice + mcW ∆ t
QI = 336 m + m × 4.2 × 5 = 336m + 21m = 357 J
Therefore, from the principle of calorimetry, the mass of ice is
QL = Q I
∴ 357m = 30150
30150
∴ m= 357
= 84.45 g
Question 7.
(a) (3)
(i) Write a relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refractions for a given pair of media.
(ii) When a ray of light enters from one medium to another having different optical densities it bends.
Why does this pehnomenon occur ?
(iii) Write one conditions where it does not bend when entering a medium of different optical density.
(b) A lens produces a virtual image between the object and the lens. (3)
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of this image.
(c) What do you understand by the term ‘Scattering of light’ ? Which colour of white light is scattered
the least and why ? (4)
Answer : (a)
(i) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant for
sini
a given pair of media called the refractive index = =μ
sin r
(ii) When a ray of light enters from one medium to another with different optical densities, it bends
because there is a change in the speed of light in the two medium.
(iii) A ray of light passing from one medium to another does not bend when incident normally at the
surface of the second medium.
(b)
(i) The image formed by the lens is virtual and between the object and the lens. Hence, the lens used
is a concave lens.
(ii) The following image is of formation of the above image :
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B
B1
2F2 A F2 A1 O
(c) Scattering is the process of absorption and then re-emission of light energy without the change in
the wavelength.
The red colour of the white light is scattered the least because scattering of light depends inversely
upon the four power of wavelength. As red colour has the maximum wavelength in the visible
region, therefore, it scattered the least.
Question 8.
(a) (3)
(i) Name the waves used for echo depth sounding.
(ii) Give one reason for their use for the above purpose.
(iii) Why are the waves mentioned by you not audible to us ?
(b) (3)
(i) What is an echo
(ii) State two conditions for an echo to take place.
(c)
(i) Name the phenomenon involved in tuning a radio set to a particular station.
(ii) Define the phenomenon named by you in part (i) above.
(iii) What do you understand by loudness of sound ?
(iv) In which units is the loudness of sound measured ?
Answer :
(a)
(i) The waves used for echo depth sounding are ultrasonic waves.
(ii) Ultrasonic waves are used for echo depth ranging because they can travel undeviated through a
long distance.
(iii) Ultrasonic waves have frequency larger than 20000 Hz. Hence, these waves are not audible to us
as the audible range for the human ear is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
(b)
(i) The sound heard after reflection from a distant obstacle after the original sound has ceased is
called an echo.
(ii) The conditions for an echo to take place are
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Ph- 85 2016
a. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the reflector in air must be at least
present 16 to 18 m.
b. The size of the reflector must be large enough as compared to the wavelength of sound wave.
(c)
(i) The phenomenon involved in tuning a radio set to a particular station is called resonance.
(ii) Resonance : When the frequency of an externally applied periodic force on a body is equal to its
natural frequency, the body readily begins to vibrate with an increased amplitude. This phenomenon
is known as resonance.
(iii) Loudness is the property by virtue of which a loud sound can be distinguished from a faint one,
both having the same pitch and quality.
(iv) The loudness of sound is measured in phon / db / bel.
Question 9.
(a) (3)
(i) Which particles are responsible for current in conductors ?
(ii) To which wire of a cable in a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be connected ?
(b) (3)
(i) Name the transformer used in the power transmitting station of a power plant.
(ii) What type of current is transmitted from the power station ? 12 V
(iii) At what voltage is this current available to our household ?
2W
(c) A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 W is
connected with two resistors A and B of resistance 4 W and
6 W respectively joined in series. (4)
Find : A B
(i) Current in the circuit
4W 6W
(ii) The terminal voltage of the cell.
(iii) The potential difference across 6 W Resistor.
(iv) Electrical energy spent per minute in 4 W resistor.
Answer :
(a)
(i) Electrons are responsible for current in conductors.
(ii) The metal case of a geyser should be connected to the Earth wire.
(iii) The fuse should always be connected to the live wire.
(b)
(i) A step-up transformer is used in the power transmitting station of a power plant.
(ii) An alternating current is transmitted from the power station.
(iii) The current is available to our household at a voltage of 220 V.
(c) E = 12 V ; r1 = 2 W; RA = 4 W; RB = 6 W
(i) The current in the circuit is
E E
I= R =
total R1 + R A + R B
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12
∴ I = 2 + 4 + 6 = 1A
Ph- 87 2016
(c)
(i) In an unstable nucleus, the neutron is changed into a proton by emitting a beta particle. This is
represented as
0
0 n → 1p +
1 1
–1 e
(neutron) (proton) (β -particle)
(ii) Elements with the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
(iii) The nucleus of an atom tends to be radioactive when
— nucleus has more mass
— nucleus has excess energy
— neutrons proton ratio becomes more than 1.3 to 1.5.
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Weight, (W)
(b) The magnitude of gravitational force between two bodies is inversely proportional to the square
of the distance between them.
1
G.F. µ
r2
\ As the distance is doubled, the force will become one fourth of the initial force.
(c) Increase in torque arm, increases the moment of force, so lesser effort is required for turming
(d) P = 100kW
\ P = 100 × 1000W, F = 50000N
\ Power = Force × Velocity
Ph- 88 2017
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Ph- 89 2017
\ 100000 = 50000 × V
\ V = 2 ms–1
(e) Class II lever.
Effort arm
Mechanical advantage =
Load arm
In a class II lever, the effort arm is always longer than the load arm, hence its MA > 1.
Question 2.
(a) Define heat capacity and state its SI unit. (2)
(b) Why is the base of a cooking pan generally made thick? (2)
(c) A solid of mass 50 g at 150°C is placed in 100 g of water at 11°C, when the final temperature
recorded is 20°C. Find the specific heat capacity of the solid.
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)
(d) How is the refractive index of a material related to :
(i) real and apparent depth?
(ii) velocity of light in vacuum or air and the velocity of light in a given medium? (2)
(e) State the conditions required for total internal reflection of light to take place. (2)
Answer 2.
(a) Heat capacity of a body is the heat energy required to raise the temperature of the body by 1°C.
Its S.I. unit is Jk–1.
(b) The base is thick hence the mass of the base is more.
This increases the heat capacity which enables the pan to hold a large amount of heat energy at a
low temperature. The food is cooked properly and remains warm for a long time.
(c) Heat lost by solid = Heat gained by water
(MCDt)Solid = (MCDt)Water
\ 50 × C × (150 – 20) = 100 × 4.2 × (20 – 11)
100 ´ 4.2 ´ 9
C=
50 ´ 130
\ C = 0.582 Jg–1°C–1
Real depth
(d) (i) Refractive Index =
Apparent depth
Ph- 90 2017
Question 3.
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of a monochromatic ray through a prism when it
suffers minimum deviation. (2)
(b) The human ear can detect continuous sounds in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Assuming that the speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1 for all frequencies, calculate the wavelengths
corresponding to the given extreme frequencies of the audible range. (2)
(c) An enemy plane is at a distance of 300 km from a radar. In how much time will the radar be able
to detect the plane? Take velocity of radiowaves as 3 × 108 ms–1. (2)
(d) How is the frequency of a stretched string related to :
(i) its length?
(ii) its tension? (2)
(e) Define specific resistance and state its SI unit. (2)
Answer 3.
(a) A
A
D
i e
B C
Ði = Ðe
(b) V = 330 ms–1, f = 20 Hz
\ V=fl
\ 330 = 20 × l
330
l=
20
lhighest = 16.5 m
V = 330 Hz, f = 20,000 Hz
\ V=fl
330
\ =l
20000
\ llowest = 0.0165 m = 1.65 × 10–2 m
\ Range of wavelength from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz is 16.5 m to 1.65 × 10–2 m.
(c) D = 300 km = 300000 m
V = 3 × 108 ms–1
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Ph- 91 2017
2D
\ S=
T
2 ´ 300000
\ 3 × 108 =
T
2 ´ 300000
\ T= = 2 × 10–3 s
3 ´108
1
(d) (i) Frequency of a stretched string is inversely proportional to its length. Þ f µ
l
80
\ V=
0.4
V = 200 V
(b) (i) Formation of Eddy currents—the changing magnetic field induces current in the soft-iron
core.
(ii) Resistance of primary or secondary coil.
(iii) Hysteresis—magnetisation of the core is reversed.
(c) (i) Low work function.
(ii) High melting point.
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Ph- 93 2017
50
\ =2
Effort
\ Effort = 25 kgf
Effort applied using a single fixed pulley 50
\ = =2:1
Effort applied using a single movable pulley 25
Effort applied by the boy using a single fixed pulley is twice the effort used by the boy using
a single movable pulley.
(ii) Uniform circular motion has variable velocity and hence variable acceleration. Uniform linear
motion has constant velocity and no acceleration and \ is un accelerated motion.
(iii) Nuclear fission.
dE
(c) (i) Velocity ratio = VR =
dL
dE
\ 4=
15
\ dE = 60 m
(ii) Work done by effort = Effort E × Distance dE
E = 50 kgf = 50 × 10 = 500 N
\ Work done by effort = 500 N × 60 m = 30000 J
L 175
(iii) MA = = = 3.5
E 50
MA 3.5
(iv) Efficiency = × 100% = × 100% = 87.5%
VR 4
Question 6.
(a) (i) How is the transference of heat energy by radiation prevented in a calorimeter?
(ii) You have a choice of three metals, A, B and C, of specific heat capacities 900 Jkg–1°C–1,
380 Jkg–1°C–1 and 460 Jkg–1°C–1 respectively, to make a calorimeter. Which material will
you select? Justify your answer? (3)
(b) Calculate the mass of ice needed to cool 150 g of water contained in a calorimeter of mass 50 g
at 30°C such that the final temperature is 5°C. (3)
Specific heat capacity of calorimeter 0.4 J/g°C
Specific heat capacity of water 4.2 J/g°C
Latent heat capacity of ice 330 J/g
(c) (i) Name the radiations which are absorbed by greenhouse gases in the earth's atmosphere.
(ii) A radiation X is focused by a particular device on the bulb of a thermometer and mercury in
the thermometer shows a rapid increase. Name the radiation X.
(iii) Name two factors on which the heat energy liberated by a body depends. (4)
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Answer 6.
(a) (i) The outer and inner surfaces of the calorimeter are polished to reduce loss of heat due to
radiation.
(ii) Metal B, since metal B has lowest specific heat capacity among the three. So the amount of
heat energy taken by the calorimeter from its contents to acquire the temperature of its
contents is negligible.
(b) Heat gained by ice = mL + mc DT
= m(330 + 4.2 × 5) = 351 mJ
Heat given out by water and calorimeter = (150 × 4.2 + 50 × .4) × (32 – 5) = 17550 J
17550
Mass of ice = = 50 g
351
(c) (i) Infrared radiations of loy wavelength.
(ii) Infrared radiations.
(iii) Mass, specific heat capacity.
Question 7.
(a) A lens forms an upright and diminished image of an object when the object is placed at the focal
point of the given lens.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation. (3)
(b) A ray of light travels from water to air as shown in the diagram given below :
Air
Water
°
48
1=
Ð
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray. Given that the critical angle for water is
48°.
(ii) State the condition so that total internal reflection occurs in the above diagram. (3)
(c) The diagram below shows a point source P inside a water container. Four rays A, B, C, D starting
from the source P are shown up to the water surface.
Air
C 48°
B D
A Water
P
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Ph- 95 2017
(i) Show in the diagram the path of these rays after striking the water surface. The critical angle
for water-air surface is 48°.
(ii) Name the phenomenon which the rays B and D exhibit. (4)
Answer 7.
(a) (i) Concave lens.
(ii)
B
B¢
O
A F1 A¢ F2
(b) (i)
Air
Water
48°
(ii) (1) The ray of light must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
(2) The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle.
(c) (i)
Air
B C 48° i r
A D
Water
Ph- 96 2017
(c) (i) A wire of length 80 cm has a frequency of 256 Hz. Calculate that length of a similar wire
under similar tension, which will have a frequency of 1024 Hz. (4)
(ii) A certain sound has a frequency of 256 hertz and a wavelength of 1.3 m.
(1) Calculate the speed with which this sound travels.
(2) What difference would be felt by a listener between the above sound and another sound
travelling at the same speed, but of wavelength 2.6 m?
Answer 8.
(a) (i) Amplitude
(ii) Waveform
(iii) Frequency
(b) (i) The periodic vibrations of a body of decreasing amplitude in presence of a resistive force are
called damped vibrations.
(ii) Oscillations of a simple pendulum in air. A tuning fork when struck on a rubber pad.
(iii) Resonance
1
(c) (i) Length of wire µ
Frequency
f1 l2
=
f 2 l1
\ L1 f1 = L2 f2
\ 80 cm × 256 Hz = L2 × 1024 Hz \ L2 = 20 cm
\ Length of the wire = 20 cm.
(ii) (1) V = f l = 256 × 1.3 = 332.8 ms–1
(2) As V = f l \ 332.8 = f × 2.6
\ f = 128 Hz.
Since the frequency of this sound is half of the first one the listener would feel the sound to
be less shrill or flat.
Question 9.
(a) (i) Name the colour code of the wire which has connected to the metallic body of an appliance.
(ii) Draw the diagram of a dual control switch when the appliance is switched 'ON'. (3)
(b) (i) Which particles are responsible for current in conductors?
(ii) To which wire of a cable in a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be connected?
(iii) To which wire should the fuse be connected? (3)
(c) (i) Explain the meaning of the statement 'current rating of a fuse is 5A'.
(ii) In the transmission of power the voltage of power generated at the generating stations is
stepped up from 11 kV to 132 kV before it is transmitted. Why? (4)
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Ph- 97 2017
Answer 9.
(a) (i) Green or yellow.
(ii) Load
N
a a Supply
S1 S2 b L
b
c c
F
L
(d) (i) Why is the ratio of the velocities of light of wavelengths 4000 A and 8000 A in vacuum 1 : 1?
(ii) Which of the above wavelengths has a higher frequency? (2)
(e) (i) Why is the motion of a body moving with a constant speed around a circular path said to be
accelerated?
(ii) Name the unit of physical quantity obtained by the formula 2K/V2 where K: kinetic energy, V:
Linear velocity. (2)
Answer 1.
(a) (i) The SI unit of power is watt (W). The power of an agent is said to be one watt if it does one
joule of work in one second.
(ii) 1 hp = 746 W
Ph- 98 2018
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Ph- 99 2018
(b) (i) Electrical into heat energy
(ii) Electrical into mechanical energy.
(c) (i) Second class lever.
(ii) It increases.
(d) (i) Because all wavelengths of light travel with the same velocity in vacuum.
(ii) 4000 A higher frequency..
(e) (i) Because at every point of motion the direction of speed changes i.e., the body possesses
velocity which changes with time.
(ii) Kilogram (kg).
Question 2.
(a) The power of a lens is -5D. (2)
(i) Find its focal length.
(ii) Name the type of lens.
(b) State the position of the object in front of a converging lens if : (2)
(i) It produces a real and same size image of the object.
(ii) It is used as a magnifying lens.
(c) (i) State the relation between the critical angle and the absolute refractive index of a medium.
(ii) Which colour of light has a higher critical angle? Red light or Green light. (2)
(d) (i) Define scattering. (2)
(ii) The smoke from a fire looks white. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Molecules of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of light.
(2) Molecules of the smoke are smaller than the wavelength of light.
(e) The following diagram shows a 60°, 30°, 90° glass prism of critical angle 42°. Copy the diagram
and complete the path of incident ray AB emerging out of the prism marking the angle of
incidence on each surface. (2)
X
60°
B 30°
Y Z
A
Answer 2.
1 1
(a) (i) f = = = –0.2 m = 20 cm
P -5
(ii) Concave
(b) (i) At 2F
(ii) Between the optical center and principle focus.
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1
(c) (i) m = sin C
(ii) Red
(d) (i) Scattering is a general physical process where light is forced to deviate from a straight
trajectory by one or more paths due to localized non-uniformities in the medium through
which it passes.
(ii) Molecules of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of light.
(e) The diagram is as shown
60°
45°
45°
B 30°
Y Z
Question 3.
(a) Displacement distance graph of two sound waves A and B, travelling in a medium, are as shown
in the diagram below. (2)
20 A
10 B
(0, 0) Distance (cm)
-10
-20
(ii) R = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 W
(c) (i) It is a process in which two or more smaller nuclei combine to form a bigger nucleus.
(ii) The product formed is not radioactive hence less harmful to humans / energy produced per
nucleon is more them fission.
(d) (i) If a body vibrates with its own frequency it is called a free vibration.
(ii) Energy is used up in overcoming friction.
VP NP
(e) (i) e.m.f. and the number of turns of the coil are directly proportional = =
VS NS
(ii) Alternating current. (A.C.)
Question 4.
(a) (i) How can a temperature in degree Celsius be converted into SI unit of temperature? (2)
(ii) A liquid X has the maximum specific heat capacity and is used as a coolant in Car radiators.
Name the liquid X.
(b) A solid metal weighing 150 g melts at its melting point of 800°C by providing heat at the rate of
100 W. The time taken for it to completely melt at the same temperature is 4 mm. What is the
specific latent heat of fusion of the metal? (2)
(c) Identify the following wires used in a household circuit : (2)
(i) The wire is also called as the phase wire.
(ii) The wire is connected to the top terminal of a three-pin socket.
(d) (i) What are isobars?
(ii) Give one example of isobars.
(e) State any two advantages of electromagnets over permanent magnets. (2)
Answer 4.
(a) (i) 1°C = 273 K
(ii) Water
100 ´ 4 ´ 60
(b) Using Q = mL, 100 × 4 × 60 = 150 × 10–3 × L or L = = L = 1.6 × 105 J kg–1
150 ´ 10 -3
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50 cm
20 gf 12 gf
6 cm 10 cm
(i) Which of the two forces acting on the rigid rod causes clockwise moment?
(ii) Is the rod in equilibrium?
(iii) The direction of 20 kgf force is reversed. What is the magnitude of the resultant moment of
the forces on the rod?
(c) (i) Draw a diagram to show a block and tackle pulley system having a velocity ratio of 3
marking the direction of load (L), effort (E) and tension (T).
(ii) The pulley system drawn lifts a load of 150 N when an effort of 60 N is applied. Find its
mechanical advantage.
(iii) Is the above pulley system an ideal machine or not? (4)
Answer 5.
(a) (i) 1 J = 1 kg × 1 m2 × 1 s–2 = 103 g × 104 cm2 × 1 s–2 g cm2 s–2 = 107 erg
(ii) W = FS cos q = FS (maximum) if cos q = 1 or q = 0°
(b) (i) 12 kgf
(ii) Yes
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T
E
T T
T
load 150
(ii) Actual MA number of pulleys in the system = 3. Observed MA = = = 2.5
effort 60
(iii) Since, observed MA is lesser than the theoretical MA therefore, the machine is not an ideal
machine.
Question 6.
(a) A ray of light XY passes through a right angled isosceles prism as shown below. (3)
45°
Y
X
45°
C B
(i) What is the angle through which the incident ray deviates and emerges out of the prism?
(ii) Name the instrument where this action of prism is put into use.
(iii) Which prism surface will behave as a mirror?
(b) An object AB is placed between O and F1 on the principal axis of converging lens as shown in the
diagram. (3)
1F1 F1 B O F2 2F2
LENS
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1 1 1 1 1 3- 2 1
= f + = + = =
v u 8 - 12 24 24
Or v = 24 cm,
(ii) Image will be real or inverted.
Question 7.
(a) Draw the diagram of a right angled isosceles prism which is used to make an inverted image
erect. (3)
(b) (3)
Wooden
Sonometer
Box
Paper
rider Tuning Tuning
10 kg
Fork A Fork B
The diagram above shows a wire stretched over a sonometer. Stems of two vibrating tuning
forks A and B are touched to the wooden box of the sonometer. It is observed that the paper rider
(a small piece of paper folded at the centre) present on the wire flies off when the stem of
vibrating tuning fork B is touched to the wooden box but the paper just vibrates when the stem of
vibrating tuning fork A is touched to the wooden box.
(i) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider just vibrates.
(ii) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider flies off.
(iii) Why does the paper rider fly off when the stem of tuning fork B is touched to the box?
(c) A person is standing at the sea shore. An observer on the ship, which is anchored in between a
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P
45°
Object
45°
Q
90°
C
Q¢
45°
Image 45°
P¢
A B
3W 12 W
(ii) State whether the resistivity of a wire changes with the change in the thickness of the wire.
(c) An electric iron is rated 220 V, 2 kW. (4)
(i) If the iron is used for 2 h daily find the cost of running it for one week if it costs ` 4.25 per
kWh.
(ii) Why is the fuse absolutely necessary in a power circuit?
Answer 8.
P 5000
(a) (i) The current which will pass through the electrical device will be I = = = 25 A.
V 200
The fuse cannot be used as it will blow off when the current exceeds 8 A.
(ii) MCB Fuse, switch, ELCB.
(b) (i) 6 W and 3 W are in parallel therefore,
6´3 18
= =2W
6+3 9
4 W and 12 W are in parallel therefore,
4 ´ 12 48
= =3W
4 + 12 16
The above two are now in series therefore, R = 2 + 3 = 5W
(ii) Resistivity is independent of the dimensions of the wire. Therefore, no change.
(c) (i) V = 220 V, P = 2 kW = 2000 W
P (in watt) ´ t (in hour) 2000 ´ 2 ´ 7
Energy consumed E = = = 28 kW h
1000 1000
Hence cost = 28 × 4.25 = ` 119
(ii) Power circuits draw large amount of current, Electric shock in this circuit is very fatal
hence to avoid it fuse is necessary in the power circuit.
Question 9.
(a) (i) Heat supplied to a solid change it into liquid. What is this change in phase called? (3)
(ii) During the phase change does the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the substance
increase?
(iii) What is the energy absorbed during the phase change called?
(b) (i) State two differences between "Heat Capacity" and "Specific Heat Capacity". (3)
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A B
+ -
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(i) What is the polarity induced at the ends A and B when the switch is pressed?
(ii) Suggest one way to strengthen the magnetic field in the electromagnet.
(iii) What will be the polarities at A & B if the direction of current is reversed in the circuit? (3)
(b) The ore of Uranium found in nature contains 92U238 and 92U235. Although both the isotopes are
fissionable, it is found out experimentally that one of the two isotopes is more easily fissionable.
(i) Name the isotope of Uranium which is easily fissionable.
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.
(iii) Write a nuclear reaction when Uranium 238 emits an alpha particle to form a Thorium (Th)
nucleus. (3)
(c) Radiations given out from a source when subjected to an electric field in a direction perpendicular
to their path are shown below in the diagram. The arrows show the path of the radiation A, B and
C. Answer the following questions in terms of A, B and C. (4)
(i) Name the radiation B which is unaffected by the electrostatic field.
(ii) Why does the radiation C deflect more than A?
B
A C
Radioactive
Substance Lead Box
(iii) Which among the three causes the least biological damage externally?
(iv) Name the radiation which is used in carbon dating.
Answer 10.
(a) (i) A South and B South.
(ii) Increasing the strength of current through the coil.
(iii) The Polarities of the two ends become north.
(b) (i) 92U235
(ii) It readily absorbs thermal neutrons and becomes unstable.
(iii) The reaction is
92U
238
® 90Th234 + 2He4
(c) (i) Gamma radiation (ii) Because C is lighter than A.
(iii) Alpha (A) (iv) Carbon-14
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Claw hammer
Nail
K.E 1 1 1 m (v )2
= m1 (v1 ) 2 ¸ m2 (v2 )2 = 1 1 2
K.E 2 2 2 m2 (v2 )
125 y (v1 ) 2 . m1
=
9y (v2 ) 2 . m2
(v1 )2 125 ´ m2
=
(v2 )2 9 ´ m1
(v1 ) 2 125 ´ 1x
=
(v2 )2 9 ´ 5x
v1 25
=
v2 9
v1 5
=
v2 3
(c) (i) Heat energy is measured in calories
(ii) SI unit is Joule.
1 calorie = 4.18 J
(d) (i) Couple Þ Two equal and opposite parallel forces, not acting along the same line, form
a couple.
(ii) Couple
d F
O
F
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5
(ii) If the refractive index of water with respect to air (amw) is .
3
Calculate the refractive index of air with respect to water (wma).
(c) The specific heat capacity of a substance A is 3,800 Jkg–1K–1 and that of a substance B is
400 Jkg–1K–1. Which of the two substances is a good conductor of heat? Give a reason for
your answer. [2]
(d) A man playing a flute is able to produce notes of different frequencies. If he closes the
holders near his mouth, will the pitch of the note produced, increase or decrease? Given a
reason. [2]
(e) The diagram below shows a light source P embedded in a rectangular glass block ABCD of
critical angle 42°. Complete the path of the ray PQ till it emerges out of the block. [Write
necessary angles.] [2]
B Q C
42°
A D
Answer 2.
(a) (i) Infrared radiations.
(ii) Infrared radiations are used for this purpose or they are not scattered much and can
penetrate appreciably through it.
(b) (i) w ma ´ a mw = 1
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5
(ii) a m w =
3
w ma =?
According to principle of reversibility
1
a mw =
w ma
1 1 3
w ma = = =
m
a w 5 / 3 5
(c) A B
–1
Specific heat Capacity = 3,800 Jkg K –1 C = 400 JKg–1
Substance B is good conductor of heat.
Reason Þ B has high conductivity because it has low specific heat capacity..
Low specific heat capacity = good conductor of heat.
(d) Pitch decreases as length of air column increases in flute.
Q
(e)
42° 42°
90°
48° 48°
48°
42°
P
90°
Question 3.
(a) (i) If the lens is placed in water instead of air, how does its focal length change?
(ii) Which lens, thick or thin has greater focal length? [2]
(b) Two waves of the same pitch have amplitudes in the ratio 1: 3. [2]
What will be the ratio of their:
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5W 4W
8W
A B
3W
(b) (i) State whether the specific heat capacity of a substance remains the same when its state
changes from solid to liquid.
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Soft Soft
iron N S iron
X Y
Cell A Cell B
(d) State with a reason whether:
x > y or x < y [x and y are magnitudes of deflection.] [2]
(i) Why a nuclear fusion reaction is called a thermos nuclear reaction?
(ii) Complete the reaction:
3He
2 + 2H1 ® 4He2 +................+ Energy
(e) State two ways to increase the speed of rotation of a D.C. motor. [2]
Answer 4.
(a) R 1 = 9W
R 2 = 3W
R 3 = 8W 5W 4W
1
=
1
+
1 8W 3W
R p R1 R 2 A B
1 1 1
= +
Rp 9 3
1 1+ 3 4 9W
= =
Rp 9 9
8W 3W
9 A B
Rp =
4
RS = R3 + Rp
9 9 + 32 41
RS = +8 Þ RS = = = 10 × 2W
4 4 4
(b) (i) No, specific heat capacity changes from solid to liquid.
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5 cm 30 cm
F
0 cm 100 cm
40 gf
40 ´ 25
= W2
20
W2 = 50 g
(ii) J is shifted towards 0 cm.
(c) (i)
B
T T
T E
Load
dl
(ii) Velocity ratio = 2 Þ V.R. = d
Î
(iii) T = E dl = 2 x
(iv) dÎ = x dÎ = x
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2x
dL = ? \ V.R. = =2
x
V.R. = 2
dÎ
V.R. = d
L
x x
2= Þ dL =
dL 2
Question 6.
(a) How does the angle of deviation formed by a prism change with the increase in the angle of
incidence? [3]
Draw a graph showing the variation in the angle of deviation with the angle of incidence at
a prism surface.
(b) A virtual, diminished image is formed when an object is placed between the optical centre
and the principal focus of a lens. [3]
(i) Name the type of lens which forms the above image,
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics.
(c) An object is placed at a distance of 24 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. [4]
(i) What is the nature of the image so formed?
(ii) Calculate the distance of the image from the lens,
(iii) Calculate the magnification of the image.
Answer 6.
(a) First with increase in angle of
incidence angle deviation first
decrease to deviation minimum and
then it increase.
devation
8 min
incidence
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A1
2F1 F1 F2 2F2
1 1 1 1 1 1
= - = +
f v m v f m
1 1 1
= -
v 8 24
1 3 -1 2
= = = 12cm \ V = 12 cm
v 24 24
v 12 -1
(iii) m = = =
m -24 2
Question 7.
(a) It is observed that during march-past we hear a base drum distinctly from a distance
compared to the side drums. [3]
(i) Name the characteristic of sound associated with the above observation,
(ii) Given a reason for the above observation.
(b) A pendulum has a frequency of 4 vibrations per second. An observer starts the pendulum
and fires a gun simultaneously. He hears the echo from the cliff after 6 vibrations of the
pendulum. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, find the distance between the cliff and
observer. [3]
(c) Two pendulums C and D are suspended from a wire as shown in the figure given below.
Pendulum C is made to oscillate by displacing it from its mean position. It is seen that D also
starts oscillating. [4]
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wire
D
C
1
1 vibration = second
4
1
6 vibration = ´ 6 second
4
6
t= second
4
Speed = 340 m/s = V
Vt 340 ´ 6
For echo, d = = = 255 m
2 4´2
(c) (i) Forced oscillation as Pendulum C is made to oscillate by displacing it from mean
position and it is not in vaccum.
(ii) Resonant oscillation.
(iii) If length of D is made equal to C then vibration of both will be same.
(iv) Resonance.
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Bulb B
A
(i) Copy the diagram and complete it so that bulb is switch ON.
(ii) Out of A & B which one is the live wire and which one is the neutral wire?
(c) The diagram below shows a circuit with the key k open. Calculate :
2W K 3W
5W
3.3V, 0,5W
(i) the resistance of the circuit when the key k is open.
(ii) the current drawn from the cell when the key k is open.
(iii) the resistance of the circuit when the key k is closed.
(iv) the current drawn from the cell when the key k is closed.
Answer 8.
(a) (i) If both are in parallel combination then if one is damaged then other will not be
damaged or effected.
(ii) A fuse wire should have high resistivity and low melting point.
(iii) Earth wire.
Bulb B
(b)
A
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Bulb B
(i)
A
5
Rp = = 2 ×5W
2
R = (Rp + r) = (2.5 + 0.5) = 3 W
V 3.3
(iv) I = = = 1.1A
R 3
Question 9.
(a) (i) Define Calorimetry. [3]
(ii) Name the material used for making a Calorimeter.
(iii) Why is a Calorimeter made up of thin sheets of the above material answered in (ii)?
(b) The melting point of naphthalene is 80°C and the room temperature is 30°C. A sample of
liquid naphthalene at 100°C is cooled down to the room temperature.
Draw a temperature time graph to represent this cooling. In the graph, mark the region
which corresponds to the freezing process. [3]
(c) 104 g of water at 30°C is taken in a calorimeter made of copper of mass 42g. When a
certain mass of ice at 0°C is added to it, the final temperature of the mixture after the ice
has melted, was found to be 10° C. Find the mass of ice added.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg–1°C–1; Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336
Jg–1; Specific heat capacity of copper = 0.4 Jg–1°C1] [4]
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150
140
130
120
Temperature
110
100
90 Freezing
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
Time (S)
(c) Hot bodies Cold body
H2O ® 104 gm at 30°C Ice ® x gm at 0°C
Calorimeter = 42 gm at 30°C
(Copper)
According to principle of calorimetery
Heat lost = Heat gained
Final temperature = 10°C
Q = mcDt
Þ (104 ´ (30 - 10) ´ 4.2) + (42 ´ (30 - 10) ´ 0.4) = ( x ´ 336) + ( x + 4.2 ´ 10 - 0)
Þ 8736 + 336 = 378x
9072
9072 = 378x Þ x= = 24gm
378
Question 10.
(a) Draw a neat labeled diagram of an A.C. generator. [3]
(b) (i) Define nuclear fission. [3]
(ii) Rewrite and complete the following nuclear reaction by filling in the atomic number of
Ba and mass number of Kr :
235 1
92 U + 0 n ® 144
..... Ba + ....
36 Kr + 3 01n + Energy
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S N
– + K
(i) In which direction will the needle deflect when the key is closed?
(ii) Why is the deflection produced?
(iii) What will be the change in the deflection if the magnetic needle is taken just above the
conductor AB?
(iv) Name one device which work on this principle.
Answer 10.
(a) Axle
B C Armature core
A D
Brush B S
1 1
Slip rings
S2 B
2
Slipring Brush
Load
(b) (i) Nuclear fission is process in which heavy nucleas is splitted into two or more light nuclei
by bombarding in slow neutrons. It produces very much energy.
92 u + 0 n ® 56 Ba + 36 Kr + 3n0 + Energy
(ii) 235 1 144 89 1
PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(One hour and a half)
Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
C3 H8(g) + 502(g) ¾
¾® 3CO2(g) + 4H2 O(g)
60
_ Propane = × 10 = 6 litres
100
40
_ Butane = × 10 = 4 litres
100
(i) Combustion of propane :
C3 H8(g) + 5O2(g) ¾
¾® 3CO 2(g) + 4H2 O(g)
1 vol 3 vol
6 litres ?
3
6 litres of propane releases × 6 litres
1
(ii) Combustion of butane :
8
4 litres of butane releases × 4 = 16 l
2
Total CO2 released O 2 = 18 l + 16 l
= 34 litres of CO2 gas is added to atmosphere
(iii) NH4 NO3
[14 + (4 × 1) + 14 + (16 × 3)]
[14 + 4 + 14 + 48] = 80
28
% of nitrogen = × 100 = 35%
80
48
% of oxygen = × 100 = 60%
80
4
% of hydrogen = × 100 = 5%
80
35% of nitrogen, 60% of oxygen and 5% of hydrogen
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A B
ZnSO4 ZnCO3 Zn(NO3)2
E C
D (5)
ZnO Zn(OH)2
D
D : Zn(OH)2 ¾¾® ZnO + H 2 O
zinc zinc water
hydroxide oxide
H O
Ans. (i) H C C OH (Ethanoic acid)
H H
(ii) H C C C C H (But-2-yne)
H H
(b) Mr. Ramu wants to electroplate his key chain with nickel to prevent rusting. For
this electroplating :
(i) Name the electrolyte (ii) Name the cathode
(iii) Name the anode (iv) Give the reaction at the cathode
(v) Give the reaction at the anode. (5)
Ans. (i) Nickel sulphate (ii) Key chain
(iii) Nickel electrode (iv) At Cathode : Ni2+ + 2e– Ni(s)
(v) At Anode : Ni (s) – 2e– Ni2+
(c) Three different electrolytic cells A, B and C are connected in separate circuits.
Electrolytic cell A contains sodium chloride solution. When the circuit is completed
a bulb in the circuit glows brightly. Electrolytic cell B contains acetic acid solution
and in this case the bulb in the circuit glows dimly. The electrolytic cell C contains
sugar solution and the bulb does not glow. Give a reason for each of these
observation. (3)
Ans. Cell A : Strong electrolyte (NaCl) Bulb glows brightly..
Cell B : Weak electrolyte (Acetic acid) Bulb glows dimly..
Cell C : Non electrolyte (Sugar solution) Bulb doesn’t glow..
Question 4.
(a) 4.5 moles of calcium carbonate are reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid.
(i) Write the equation for the reaction.
(ii) What is the mass of 4.5 moles of calcium carbonate ? (Relative molecular
mass of calcium carbonate is 100).
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111
From 450g of CaCO 3 ; CaCl2 formed is × 450 = 499.5g of CaCl2
100
(v) 2 moles of HCl are used in this reaction.
(b) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride.
(i) Identify A and B
(ii) Write the equation for the reaction.
(iii) How would you check whether or not the gas jar is filled with hydrogen chloride?
(iv) What does the method of collection tell you about the density of hydrogen
chloride ? (5)
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(iii) In order to know that the jar is filled with the gas, bring a glass rod dipped in ammonium
hydroxide solution near its mouth. If dense white fumes of ammonium chloride are
produced, it indicates that the gas jar is full of HCl gas.
HCl + NH 3 ® NH4 Cl(s)
(iv) The method used to collect HCl is “Upward displacement of air”. This clearly indicates
that HCl gas is heavier than air.
Question 5.
(a) Name the main constituent metal in the following alloys :
(i) Duralumin (ii) Brass
(iii) Stainless steel (3)
Ans. (i) Aluminium (ii) Zinc
(iii) Iron
(b) An element has an atomic number 16. State
(i) the period to which it belongs.
(ii) the number of valence electrons.
(iii) whether it is a metal or non-metal (3)
Ans. Atomic no. (16) ® 2 , 8 , 6
K L M
(i) 3 period (Because it has three shells)
(ii) 6 valence electrons (Valence electrons are present in outermost orbit)
(iii) Non metal (elements having 5, 6, or 7 valence electrons are non metals)
(c) Solution A is a sodium hydroxide solution. Solution B is a weak acid. Solution C is
dilute sulphuric acid. Which solution will
(i) liberate sulphur dioxide from sodium sulphite.
(ii) give a white precipitate with zinc sulphate solution.
(iii) contain solute molecules and ions ? (3)
Ans. (i) Solution C (ii) Solution A
(iii) Solution B
(d) By the addition of only one solution how would you distinguish between dilute
hydrochloric acid and dilute nitric acid ? (1)
Ans. HCl (dilute)
HNO3 (dilute) [To differentiate between HCl and HNO3 we can use AgNO 3 solution]
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(b) Compound A is bubbled through bromine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride and the
product is CH2 Br – CH2 Br.
B r2/CCl4
A CH2 Br – CH2 Br
(i) Draw the structural formula of A.
(ii) What type of reaction has A undergone ?
(iii) What is your observation ?
(iv) Name (not formula) the compound formed when steam reacts with A in the
presence of phosphoric acid.
(v) What is the procedure for converting the product of (b) (iv) back to A ? (5)
B r2/CCl4
Ans. A CH2 Br – CH2 Br
H H
(i) H C C H (Ethene)
(ii) Addition reaction
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(ii) Electron affinity : It is the amount of energy released when an isolated neutral
gaseous atom of an element takes up an extra electron to form uninegative gaseous
ions.
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L M
N = Rotten egg smell ® H2S
Cu(NO3 ) 2 + H 2 S ® CuS ¯ + 2HNO 3
Black Precipitate
PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(One hour and a half)
Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
×× d-
d+ ×
H × Cl
××
×
Pure covalent bond exists between two elements which have similar electronegativities.
In hydrogen chloride, chlorine being more electronegative attracts the shared pair of
electrons towards itself as a result hydrogen acquires partial positive charge and chlorine
gets partial negative charge. Thus, hydrogen chloride can be termed as a polar covalent
compound.
(v) Oxidising power means to accept electrons.
As we move from left to right along a periodic table, the size of element decrease, hold of
nucleus increases, incoming electron is accepted easily thus oxidising power of element
increases.
(d) (i) sharing (ii) high
(iii) nitrogen (iv) increases
(v) decreases
(e) (i) SO2
M.W. = 32 + 16 × 2 = 64
64 g of SO2 occupy 22.4 litres
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22.4
1 g of SO2 will occupy litres
64
22.4
320 g of SO2 will occupy × 320 = 5. 6 × 20 = 112 litres
64
(ii) It states that “Whenever gases react they do so in volumes which bear a simple whole
number ratio to one another and to the volumes of gaseous products, all volumes being measured
under similar conditions of temperature and pressure.”
(iii) C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4 H2O
M.W. of C3 H8 = 12 × 3 + 8 = 44
Volume of 5O2 = 5 × 22.4 = 112 litres
44 g of propane requires = 112 litres of oxygen
112
1 g of propane requires = litres
44
112
8.8 g of propane requires = × 8.8 =112 ×.2 = 22.4 litres
44
(f) (i) D (ii) B (iii) A
(iv) D (v) B (vi) A
(vii) D (viii) C (ix) B
(x) C
(g) (i) Na2 S2O3 + 2HCl ® 2NaCl + SO2 + S ¯ + H2O
(ii) Ca (HCO3)2 + 2HCl ® CaCl2 + 2 H2O + 2 CO2
(iii) Na2SO3 + H2SO4 (dilute) ® Na2SO4 + H2O + SO2
(iv) Pb (NO3)2 + 2NaCl ® PbCl2 + 2NaNO3
(v) Zn + 2NaOH ® Na2 ZnO2 + H2
SECTION - II (40 Marks)
(Attempt any Four Question )
Question 2.
(a) Differentiate between electrical conductivity of copper sulphate solution and copper
metal. [3]
(b) Sodium hydroxide solution is added to the solutions containing the ions mentioned in
List X. List Y gives the details of the precipitate. Match the ions with their coloured
precipitates. [3]
List X List Y
i. Pb2+ A. Reddish brown
ii. Fe 2+ B. White insoluble in excess
2+
iii. Zn C. Dirty green
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2.13 2.13
Hydrogen H 1 2.13 = 2.13 =2
1 1.055
85.11 1.0638
Bromine Br 80 85.11 = 1.0638 =1
80 1.055
E. F. = CH2 Br
Given V.D. + = 94
Molecular mass = 2 × V.D. = 2 × 94 = 188
M.F.M = (E.F.M)n
188 = (94)n
188
n= =2
94
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32
1022 atoms of sulphur weigh = × 1022 = 0.531 g
6.022 ´ 10 23
(iii) 1 mole of CO2 weigh = 44 g
0.1 mole of CO2 weigh = 44 × 0.1 = 4.4 g
(c) (i)
HCl gas
Funnel
arrangement
H2 O
Question 5.
(a) Choose the correct word/phrase from within the brackets to complete the following
sentences :
(i) The catalyst used for conversion of ethene to ethane is commonly......... . (nickel/
iron/cobalt)
(ii) When acetaldehyde is oxidized with acidified potassium dichromate, it forms .......
(ester/ethanol/acetic acid)
(iii) Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in presence of concentracted H 2 SO4, so as to
form a compound and water. The chemical reaction which takes place is called.... .
(dehydration/hydrogenation/esterification)
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+
H
H × N ×H + H+ H× N ×H
× ×
H H
H +
H—N—H
Ammonia has one lone pair of electrons which is
H donated to hydrogen atom forming a co-ordinate
bond. The arrow represents a co-ordinate bond. The
arrow points from the donor to the receptor atom.
(iii) It loses its water of crystallisation and becomes amorphous. This phenomenon is known
as efflorescence.
D
Na2CO3.10H2O ¾¾® Na2CO3 + 10H2O
Washing soda Sodium
carbonate
(b) (i) B (ii) E
(iii) D (iv) A
(v) C
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PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(One hour and A half)
Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
CH3
(g) Given, P + 5HNO3 (conc.) H3PO4 + H2O + 5NO2
9.3
(i) Number of moles of phosphorous taken = = 0.3 mole
31
(ii) 1 mole of phosphorous gives = 98gm of phosphoric acid
So, 0.3 mole of phosphorous gives = (0.3 × 98gm) of phosphoric acid
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Pt 5 Pt
(iii) 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O 2NH3 + O 2NO + 3H2O + D
800ºC 2 2 800ºC
D
MnO2 + 4HCl ¾¾ ® MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(conc.)
(Greenish yellow gas is liberated)
D
CuO + HCl ¾¾ ® CuCl2 + H2O
(conc.) (Greenish blue solution)
(No gas is liberated but the solution turns bluish)
H
(c) H O+
H
It has coordinate (dative covalent) bonding
Question 5.
(a) (i) 67.2 litres of hydrogen combines with 44.8 litres of nitrogen to form ammonia
under specific conditions as :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Calculate the volume of ammonia produced. What is the other substance, if any,
that remains in the resultant mixture ? [2]
3
(ii) The mass of 5.6 dm of a certain gas at STP is 12.0 g. Calculate the relative molecular
mass of the gas. [2]
(iii) Find the total percentage of Magnesium in magnesium nitrate crystals,
Mg(NO3)2.6H2O.
[Mg = 24; N = 14; O = 16 and H = 1] [2]
(b) Refer to the flow chart diagram below and give balanced equations with conditions, if
any, for the following conversions A to D.
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B Iron(II) chloride
[4]
Answer.
(a) Acc. to the equation
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(i) One mole of nitrogen combine with 3 moles of hydrogen to give 2 moles of ammonia.
Therefore, 3 × 22.4 litre of hydrogen require = 22.4 L of Nitrogen
Since, Nitrogen is present in excess amount so it remains in the resultant
Mixture and volume of ammonia produced = 2 × 22.4 L = 44.8 L
(ii) 5.6 dm3 of gas weighs = 12.0 g
æ 12.0 ö
1 dm3 of gas weighs = ç ÷ gm
è 5 .6 ø
æ 12.0 ö
22.4 dm3 of gas weighs = ç ´ 22.4 ÷ gm = 48 gm
è 5 .6 ø
Therefore, relative molecular mass of gas = 48 gm
(iii) Molar mass of Mg(NO3)2×6H2O
= 24 + (14 × 2) + (16 × 6) + (1 × 12) + 6 × 16 = 256 g
24
Mass percent of Magnesium = × 100 = 9.37%
256
below 200°C
(b) [A] NaCl + H2SO4 (conc.) ¾¾¾¾¾® NaHSO4 + HCl
Sodium chloride Hydrogen chloride
PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(One hour and A half)
Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Question 2
(a)
Group IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA 0
number 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
2nd period Li D O J Ne
A Mg E Si H M
R T I Q U Y
* In this table H does not represent hydrogen.
* Some elements are given in their own symbol and position in the periodic table.
* While others are shown with a letter.
With reference to the table answer the following questions.
(i) Identify the most electronegative element. (1)
(ii) Identify the most reactive element of group 1. (1)
(iii) Identify the element from period 3 with least atomic size. (1)
(iv) How many valence electrons are present in Q ? (1)
(v) Which element from group 2 would have the least ionization energy ? (1)
(vi) Identify the noble gas of the fourth period. (1)
(vii) In the compound between A and H what type of bond would be formed and give
the molecular formula for the same. (2)
Ans. (i) J (ii) R (iii) M (iv) 5 (v) T (vi) Y
(vii) A and H form an electrovalent compound and its formula is A2H.
(b) Compare the compounds carbon tetrachloride and sodium chloride with regard to
solubility in water and electrical conductivity. (2)
Ans. Carbon tetrachloride is insoluble in water and is not conducting in nature.
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(i) Which electrode to your left or right is known as the oxidising electrode and
why? (2)
Ans. Left (anode ; + ve terminal of the battery). It is called the
oxidising electrode as anions give their electrons to anode,
and thus undergo oxidation.
(ii) Write the equation representing the reaction that occurs. (1)
–
Ans. At cathode (–ve terminal of battery ; rich in e )
Cu2+ + 2e– ® Cu
At anode (+ ve terminal of battery ; deficient in e–)
Cu – 2e– ® Cu2+
(iii) State two appropriate observations for the above electrolysis reaction. (2)
Ans. The size of anode gradually decreases and that of cathode gradually increases. However,
there is no change in the colour of copper sulphate solution.
(b)
X Y
Normal Electronic Configuration 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 2
Nature of oxide Dissolves in water and Very low solubility in water.
turns blue litmus red Dissolves in hydrochloric acid
Tendency for oxidising Tends to oxidise elements Tends to act as a reducing
and reducing reactions and compounds agent
Electrical and Thermal Very poor electrical Good Electrical conductor
conductivity conductor; Poor thermal Good Thermal conductor
conductivity
Tendency to form alloys and No tendency to form Forms alloys
amalgums alloys
Using the information above, complete the following :
(i) ............. is the metallic element.
(ii) Metal atoms tend to have a maximum of ............. electrons in the outermost
energy level.
(iii) Non-metallic elements tend to form ............. oxides while metals tend to form
............. oxides.
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H H H H OH H
| | | |3 2| 1|
Ans. H — C — C — C — H [Iso-butane] H — C — C — C — H [2-propanol]
| | | | | |
HH—C —H H H H — H
|
H
(iii) Diethyl ether.
Ans.
H H O H H
| | || | |
H—C — C — C — C —C—H [Di-ethyl ether]
| | | |
H H H H
6 ´ 10 23 ´ 0.3
\ 0.3 mole of oxygen contain number of molecules = = 1.8 × 1023 molecules
1
(iii) Calculate the volume occupied by 0.01 mole of CO2 at STP. (1)
Ans. 1 mole of carbon dioxide gas at STP occupies = 22.4 lt
22.4 ´ 0.01
\ 0.01 mole of carbon dioxide gas at STP occupies = = 0.224 lt = 224 cm3
1
(b) Identify the following substances which are underlined :
(i) An alkaline gas which produces dense white fumes when reacted with hydrogen
chloride gas. Ans. Ammonia gas.
(ii) An acid which is present in vinegar. Ans. Acetic acid or ethanoic acid.
(iii) A gas which does not conduct electricity in the liquid state but conducts electricity
when dissolved in water. Ans. Hydrogen chloride gas.
(iv) A dilute mineral acid which forms a white precipitate when treated with barium
chloride solution. Ans. Dilute sulphuric acid.
(v) The element which has the highest ionization potential.
Ans. Fluorine.
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PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(Two hours)
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25 Molecules Mass 50
n= =1 = =2
25 Emperical Mass 25
Molecular formula = n × Empirical formula
2 × X2Y = X4Y2
Spray
Gay Y
Water
Dropper
Water +
Blue Litmus
Ethyne convert into ethene and then to ethane and nickel act as catalyst.
(ii) Preparation of ethyne from ethylene dibromide.
KOH
CH2 – CH2 ¾¾¾ ® CH º CH + 2KBr + 2H2O
(alc.)
Br Br
(iii) Catalytic oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide.
(ii) Preparation of ethanol from monochloro ethane and aq. sodium hydroxide.
CH3CH2Cl + NaOH CH3CH2OH + NaCl
Question 4.
(a) Give the structural formula of the following:
(i) ethanol. (ii) 1-propanal.
(iii) ethanoic acid. (iv) 1, 2, dichloroethane. [4]
(b) Draw the structure of the stable positive ion formed when an acid dissolves in water. [2]
(c) State the inference drawn from the following observations:
(i) On carrying out the flame test with a salt P a brick red flame was obtained. What
is the cation in P?
(ii) A gas Q turns moist lead acetate paper silvery black. Identify the gas Q.
(iii) pH of liquid R is 10. What kind of substance is R?
(iv) Salt S is prepared by reacting dilute sulphuric acid with copper oxide. Identify S.
[4]
Answer.
(a) Give the structural formula:
H H
(i) Ethanol H C C OH
H H
H H O
(ii) 1-propanal H C C C H
H H
H O
H H
(iv) 1, 2, dichloroethane H C C H
Cl Cl
+ –
(b) HCl + H2O H3O + Cl
H O H
H
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68
2. No. of moles in 68 gm of NH3 = = 4 moles.
17
3. No. of molecules of ammonia = 4 × 6.023 × 1023 = 24.092 × 1023
(b) (i) The molecules are held together with weak vander wall’s forces. As these forces are
weak, so they are gases, liquids or soft solids.
(ii) Anode - It takes up the electrons from the anions.
(c) (i) Sodium hydroxide sol. ® only ions (ii) Carbonic acid ® ions and molecules
(iii) Sugar solution ® only molecules
Question 7.
(a) An element Z has atomic number 16. Answer the following questions on Z:
(i) State the period and group to which Z belongs.
(ii) Is Z a metal or a non-metal?
(iii) State the formula between Z and Hydrogen.
(iv) What kind of a compound is this? [4]
(b) M is a metal above hydrogen in the activity series and its oxide has the formula M2O.
This oxide when dissolved in water forms the corresponding hydroxide which is a good
conductor of electricity. In the above context answer the following:
(i) What kind of combination exists between M and O?
(ii) How many electrons are there in the outermost shell of M?
(iii) Name the group of which M belongs.
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PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(Two hours)
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The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
40 ´ 6.02 ´ 10 23
Mass of Ca = = 4g
6.02 ´ 10 22
Mass of calcium = 4 g
(ii) 6 litres of hydrogen and 4 litres of chlorine are mixed which results in the formation of 8 litres
of HCl gas. When water is added, it results in the formation of hydrochloric acid. So, the
amount of gas left is only 2 litres of hydrogen as chlorine acts as a limiting reagent.
Therefore, the volume of the residual gas will be 2 litres.
(iii) Given:
Empirical formula = CH
Vapour density = 13
Molecular weight = 2 × Vapour density
= 2 × 13 = 26
Lead (II) ions (Pb2+) are attracted to the negative electrode, and the Pb2+ ions are forced to
accept two electrons. Pb2+ ions are reduced. Bromide ions (Br -) are attracted to the positive
electrode and the bromide ions are forced to give away their extra electron to form bromine
atoms. Thus, bromide ions are oxidised. So, electrolysis of molten lead bromide is a redox
reaction.
(g)
(i) Give balanced chemical equations for the following conversions A, B and C:
C
Fe ¾¾®
A
FeCl3 ¾¾®
B
FeCO3 ¾¾ ® Fe(NO3)2 [3]
(ii) Differentiate between the terms strong electrolyte and weak electrolyte. [2]
(stating any two differences)
Ans.
(i) A: 2Fe + 3Cl2 ¾Heat
¾¾® 2FeCl3
2FeCl3 + 3Na2CO3 ¾
¾® Fe2 (CO3) + 6NaCl
C: FeCO3 + 2HNO3 ¾
¾® Fe (NO3)2 + H2O + CO2
(ii)
Strong Electrolytes Weak Electrolytes
Electrolytes which allow a large Electrolytes which allow a small
amount of current to flow through amount of current to flow through
them. them.
The solution of a strong electrolyte The solution of a weak electrolyte
contains only free mobile ions. contains ions and molecules.
(h) Answer the following questions:
(i) Explain the bonding in methane molecule using electron dot structure. [2]
(ii) The metal of Group 2 from top to bottom are Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, and Ba.
(1) Which one of these elements will form ions most readily and why?
(2) State the common feature in the electronic configuration of all these elements. [3]
Ans. (i) Formation of methane molecule – Non-polar covalent compound:
Atom Electronic Nearest To attain stable electronic
configuration noble gas configuration of nearest noble
gas
12
Carbon 6
C [2,4] Neon [2,8] Carbon needs four electrons to
complete the octet
1
Hydrogen H [1]
1
Helium [2] Hydrogen needs one electron to
complete the duplet
One atom of carbon shares four electron pairs, one with each of the four atoms of hydrogen.
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(ii) The equation for the direct combination of X and Y to form a compound is
3X + Y2 ¾ ¾® X3Y2
Question 3
(a) Give balanced chemical equations for the following conversions:
(i) Ethanoic acid to ethyl ethanoate.
(ii) Calcium carbide to ethyne.
(iii) Sodium ethanoate to methane. [3]
Ans.
(i) Ethanoic acid to ethyl ethanoate
Conc. H2SO 4
CH3COOH + C2H5OH CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Warm
Ethyl ethanoate
(b) Using their structural formulae identify the functional group by circling them:
(i) Dimethyl ether. (ii) Propanone.
(ii) Propanone
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(ii) The drying agent used in the laboratory preparation of hydrochloric acid is conc.sulphuric acid.
Or H2SO4
(iii) Funnel arrangement are to be done as HCl is highly soluble in water and to avoid back suction.
Always wear chemical splash goggles, Chemical Resistant Gloves and Chemical Resistant apron
in the laboratory during the preperation of Hydrochloric acid.
(b) An element L consists of molecules.
(i) What type of bonding is present in the particles that make up L?
(ii) When L is heated with iron metal, it forms a compound FeL. What chemical term would
you use to describe the change undergone by L? [2]
Ans. (i) Covalent bonding is observed in atoms which are similar. Hence, covalent bonding is present
in the particles which make up element L.
(ii) When L is heated with iron metal, it forms a compound FeL.
Here, oxidation of Fe and reduction of L occur as follows:
Fe ¾
¾® Fe2+ + 2e¯
(c) From the list of the following salts choose the salt that most appropriately fits the
description given in the following:
[AgCl, MgCl2, NaHSO4, PbCO3, ZnCO3, KNO3, Ca(NO3)2]
(i) A deliquescent salt.
(ii) An insoluble chloride.
(iii) On heating, this salt gives a yellow residue when hot and white when cold.
(iv) On heating this salt, a brown coloured gas is evolved. [4]
Ans.
(i) A deliquescent salt = MgCl2
(ii) An insoluble chloride = AgCl
(iii) On heating, this salt gives a yellow residue when hot and a white residue when cold = ZnCO 3
(iv) On heating this salt, a brown-coloured gas is evolved = Ca(NO 3)2
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PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(Two hours)
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(sugar charcoal
Black spongy mass)
When conc. sulphuric acid is added to sugar crystals black spongy mass (sugar
charcoal) is formed.
(iv) CuCO3 + 2HCl ® CuCl2 + H2O + CO2
Brisk effervescence
When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to copper carbonate brisk effervescence due to
the liberation of carbon dioxide is observed.
(v) Na2S2O3 + 2HCl ® 2NaCl + H2O + SO2 + S ¯
(yellow residue)
When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium thiosulphate yellow residue (due to
formation of sulphur) is formed and a gas with choking odour is formed.
(e) Identify the term/substance in each of the following : [5]
(i) The tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself when combined in a
compound.
(ii) The method used to separate ore from gangue by preferential wetting.
(iii) The catalyst used in the conversion of ethyne to ethane.
(iv) The type of reactions alkenes undergo.
(v) The electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom.
Ans. (i) Electronegativity (ii) Froth flotation process
(iii) Nickel or platinum or palladium (iv) Addition reactions
(v) Valence electrons
(f) (i) A gas of mass 32 gms has a volume of 20 litres at S.T.P. Calculate the gram
molecular weight of the gas. [5]
(ii) How much Calcium oxide is formed when 82 g of calcium nitrate is heated ? Also
find the volume of nitrogendioxide evolved :
2Ca(NO3)2 ¾ ¾® 2CaO + 4NO2 + O2
(Ca = 40, N = 14, O = 16)
Ans. (i) 20 litres at S.T.P. weighs equal to 32 g
32
1 litre at S.T.P. weighs equal to g
20
22.4 litres at S.T.P.
32
Weighs equal to × 22.4 = 35.84 g
20
E G J ZM
3 R
4 T
5
Z X W X
Question 3.
(a) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following : [3]
(i) Burning of ethane in plentiful supply of air.
(ii) Action of water on Calcium carbide.
(iii) Heating of Ethanol at 170°C in the presence of conc. Sulphuric acid.
7
Ans. (i) C2H6 + O ¾
¾® 2CO2 + 3H2O
2 2
2C2H6 + 7O2 ¾
¾® 4CO2 + 6H2O
ethanol ethylene
(b) Give the structural formulae of each of the following : [3]
(i) 2-methyl propane (ii) Ethanoic acid
(iii) Butan – 2 – ol
Ans. (i) H H H
H C C C H
H H
H C H [2-Methyl propane]
H
(ii) H O
H C C O H
H [ethanoic acid]
(iii) H H OH H
H C C C C H
H H H H [butan - 2 - ol]
(c) Equation for the reaction when compound A is bubbled through bromine dissolved in
carbon tetrachloride is as follows : [2]
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Br2/CCl4
CH2Br
A
CH2Br
(i) Draw the structure of A.
(ii) State your observationduring this reaction.
H C C H
Ans. (i)
H H
CH2 == CH2 + Br2 ¾CCl
¾¾4 ® CH2 – CH2
(Orangish Br Br
red) 1, 2 dibromo ethane (colourless)
(ii) Bromine water turns colourless.
(d) Fill in the blanks using the appropriate words given below : [2]
(Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Nitric oxide, Sulphuric acid)
(i) Cold, dilute, nitric acid reacts with copper to given ............ .
(ii) Hot, concentrated nitric acid reacts with sulphur to form ............ .
Ans. (i) Cold, dilute, nitric acid reacts with copper to given nitric oxide.
(ii) Hot, concentrated nitric acid reacts with sulphur to form sulphuric acid.
Question 4.
(a) Identify the gas evolved and give the chemical test in each of the following cases :
[2]
(i) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium sulphuric.
(ii) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron (II) sulphide.
Ans. (i) Na2SO3 + 2HCl ® 2NaCl + H2O + SO2
Sulphur
dioxide
Chemical test : Sulphur dioxide decolorises potassium permanganate solution.
(ii) FeS + 2HCl ® FeCl2 + H2S
Hydrogen sulphide
Chemical test : Hydrogen sulphide turns lead acetate paper black.
(b) State your observations when ammonium hydroxide solution is added drop by drop
and then in excess to each of the following solutions : [2]
(i) copper sulphate solution (ii) zinc sulphate solution
Ans. (i) CuSO4 + 2NH4OH ® Cu(OH)2 + (NH4)2 SO4
Pale Blue Precipitates
Cu(OH)2 + 2(NH4)2SO4 + 2NH4OH ® [Cu(NH3)4] SO4 + 4H2O
Deep blue solution
Pale blue precipitates are formed and then these precipitates dissolve in excess of
ammonium hydroxide to form deep blue solution.
(ii) ZnSO4 + NH4OH ® Zn(OH)2 ¯ + (NH4)2SO4
White gelatinous
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H × ××
N × H
×
H + H +
×× ××
H × N × H + H+ H×N×H H N H
× ×
H H
Question 6.
(a) Name the gas evolved when the following mixtures are heated : [2]
(i) Calcium hydroxide and Ammonium Chloride.
(ii) Sodium Nitrite and Ammonium Chloride.
Ans. (i) Ammonia (ii) Nitrogen
(b) Write balanced chemical equations for each of the following : [2]
(i) When excess of ammonia is treated with chlorine.
(ii) An equation to illustrate the reducing nature of ammonia.
Ans. (i) 8NH3 + 3Cl2 ¾
¾® 6NH4Cl + N2
(ii) 3CuO + 2NH3 ¾ ¾® 3Cu + N2 + 3H2O
(c) A, B, C and D summarize the properties of sulphuric acid depending on whether it is
dilute or concentrated. [3]
A = Typical acid property
B = Non-volatile acid
C = Oxidizing agent
D = Dehydrating agent
Choose the property (A, B, C or D) depending on which is relevant to each of the
following :
(i) Preparation of Hydrogen chloride gas.
(ii) Preparation of Copper sulphate from copper oxide.
(iii) Action of conc. Sulphuric acid on Sulphur.
Ans. (i) Preparation of Hydrogen chloride gas. B = Non-volatile acid
(ii) Preparation of Copper sulphate from copper oxide. A = Typical acid property
(iii) Action of conc. Sulphuric acid on Sulphur. C = Oxidizing agent
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PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)
(Two hours)
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2x
= ×2
x
\ Molecular formula of the compound = 2(XY2) = X2Y4
(h) Match the atomic number 2, 4, 8, 15, and 19 with each of the following: [5]
(i) A solid non-metal belonging to the third period.
(ii) A metal of valency 1.
(iii) A gaseous element with valency 2.
(iv) An element belonging to Group 2.
(v) A rare gas.
Ans. (i) 15 (ii) 19
(iii) 8 (iv) 4
(v) 2
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(b) State the observations at the anode and at the cathode during the electrolysis of:
[4]
(i) fused bromide using graphite electrodes.
(ii) copper sulphate solution using copper electrodes.
Ans. (i) At cathode, Pb2+ migrate to form silvery grey metallic lead.
At anode, Br– migrate forming bromide atom and then bromine molecule, ultimately
forming bromine vapours. These are Reddish Brown Fumes.
(ii) At cathode, Cu2+ ions accept electrons and form neutral copper atom deposition here
size of Anode gets decreases.
At anode, neither SO42– nor OH–, are discharged and copper atoms of the anode lose
electrons and enter the solution as copper ions.
(c) Select the ion in each case, that would get selectively discharged from the
aqueous mixture of the ions listed below: [2]
2– – –
(i) SO4 , NO3 , and OH
(ii) Pb2+, Ag+ and Cu2+
Ans. (i) OH – (ii) Ag+
Question 4.
(a) Certain blank spaces are left in the following table and these are labelled as A, B,
C, D and E. Identify each of them. [5]
Lab Reactants Products Drying agent Method of
preparation of used formed collection
(i) HCl gas NaCl + H2SO4 ___A___ conc. H2SO4 ___B___
(ii) NH3 gas ___C___ Mg(OH)2 ___D___ ___E___
NH3
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