ne | Stata Code Year District Code Centre Code Roll No. STATE LEVEL NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2020 SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST For Class X Timo : Scholastic Aptitude Test (Other Subjects) : For General - 120 Minutes, For Disabled (Only Blind) - 120 Minutes Full Marks : 100 Instructions to Candidates Read the following instructions carefully before you Answer the Questions. Answers are to be given on a seperate OMR Answer-Sheet. 1. Please write your Stale Code, Year, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. very clearly (only one di Block) as given on your Admission Card, Please see that no Block is left unfilled and even zeros appeat State Code, Year, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate Block on the booklet and on the Answer-Sheet, For example, a student of Class X appearing from *P' Centre, State Code '20", Year '20", District Code '99", Centre Code "99' with Roll No. 1999", will ake entries in the Block as well as darken the related circle by a Blue or Black Point Pen as under :- Sede |_ voor | Peat | Genre | rowno. 2210) | 216) | 19) | SO) |S 99 |O0/00/00/000 @2 | @2/00/ 00/000 8 |60|00/100|a00 ®@®@ | @@| O0@| G0 /a00 ©@|60| 00/00/9000 ©® | © | ©O| O@ | G00 @O9/OO!}00/00/000 ©® |1@0|00!/e@|0d00 ©0/00|ee/ee|ee6 ©@ | 0@|00|00/000 For all subsequent purposes your State Code, Year, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card. 2. This Question Paper consists of 100 Questions. All questions carry 1 mark each, 4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not ty fo read through the whole Question paper before beginning to answer 5. Blank space has been provided for raugh-work atthe end of each subject 6, Remember you have to darken the circle of Answer-Sheet by a Blue or Black Ball Point Pen only; do not use a pencil, 7. Answer to each Question is to be indicated by darkening the circle by Blue or Black Ball Point Pen, the correct alternative in the Answer-Sheet from amongst the ones given for the corresponding Question in the question. booktet 8. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions. 9% English version of the question paper will be considered as final in case of any dispute arising out ofthe variation in translation. N.B.: Do no write on Question-Booktet anything except the State Code, Year, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. However, Rough Work can be done anywhere only in the space provided for it in the Booklet.Qe ara oer omy fase wary: WAT & Fae - 120 Pree, Prem (Gee Aaa) & fe - 150 Pre gas + 100 4. After aoa ater & fer Retery av age wae F moto] aye ara ae & oreia waa er | gots mae 55 Oe TA (=) | Rar fre ae safer, cara et offer 40 40 1 (ee) 3 (a) | ar Pr 20 20 1 (qe) ot (n) all ae ‘ris, API 40 40 1 (ee) ofa BNA THT Gee ote aie Bef TMT BE SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST OTHER SUBJECTS Time : For General - 120 Minutes, For Disabled (Only Blind) - 150 Minutes INSTRUCTIONS 4. The subjects of Scholastic Aptitude Test are divided into three groups, as given below : Full Marks : 100. ‘Subjects covered under the Marke allotted to each SLNo. |] Title ofthe group ous FullMarks | acuons eee Seience Physics, Chemistry “ wet 1 (one) Discipline and Biology © 2 ®) | Mathematics Mathematics 20 20 1 (one) (cy | Social Studies History, Geography, rn Ps ‘'Gons} and Humanities Civies and Economies Please Turn Over the Page and Start Your Work. @)( @) feat fr aS (A) SCIENCE DISCIPLINEPhysics ( *itfeait ) The circuit shown has 5 resistors of equal 1, resistance R. Calculate equivalent resistance across points A and B. AY a" BE se Cama] ead | B a) UR (2) 43R 2B 12 R ISR. Gyo 4) ASR 5 6 For an object thrown at 45° to 2. horizontal, the maximum height (H) and horizontal range (R) are related as (1) R=16H (2) R=8H (3) R=4H (4) R=2H For a cell, a graph is plotted between the potential difference V across the terminals of the cell and current / drawn from the cell (see fig.) The emf and internal resistance of the cell are E and r respectively, then 20 ts Zos oT? 3 45 T camp) —> (l) E=2V,r=0.59 @) B=2V, 1 = 0.40 (3) E> 2V, 0.59 (4) E>2V 049 A simple pendulum has a time period T, 4. when on the earth's surface and T, when taken to a height R above earth's surface, where R is the radius of the earth The value of ratio a will be [PHY-1] Feara 7 oft 4 aA siete RS 5 afeas FS aE eg A BS da ge airte free A Bi UR 13R 1 Q) = OD 2 R ISR 3) 4) == (3) 3 Os fier fer & 45° & ar oe vata aq at ey Garg (H) ed Afar vee (R)S ae Aaa er () R=16H @) R=8H @) R=4H @) R=2H we am 3 ft 3 ae rae VG eee vata a 1% aa am de woe Ra faa) 1 ofe Ger ar fag area ae Led ices afeere r @, at | te 23 4 5 1 Kamp) —> (a) E 0.52 QE 042 Q) E>2V,r=052 (4) E>2V,r=049 yet a ace 1 ww ae aes Boat 7,8 vat a ome & Rae oe ard aT, & (R=geh at Bem) 1 ()Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed y, The time period of the motion : (1) Depends on both & and v is independent of both R and v (3) Depends on & but not on v (4) Depends on v but not on R Two wires A and B have lengths 40 cm and 30 cm respectively. A is bent as a circle of radius r and B into an are of radius r. A current J, is passed through A and /, through B. To have same magnetic field at the centre, the ratio of J, : I, is (1) 3:4 Gp S35 (3) 2:3 (4) 4:3 A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 gram at a speed of 1200 ms!. The man holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most ? 1) One (2) Four 3) Two (4) Three A concave lens of focal length 30 cm placed in contact with a plane mirror acts asa: (1) Convex mirror of focal length 60 cm (2) Convave mirror of focal length 15cm (3) Convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. ) Convave mirror of focal length 60 cm [PHY-2] amey gata aa Foe sna ar R BT Bova fer ary & afer Bw a area () Ratt y Ao Brit B (2) RAR v Peat Te Pe ae B G3) RW frit 8 eg vow ag (4) vie Pritt gog Ro ae a on A wd Bat dard ama: 40 Sth. oe 30 Aa Bae A a r Bor & gare onpit F Hist oar @ 7B ay + Bo & ate og HF ate oar @ ae AR 1,7 ae BH 1, ore waiea Bom tak Sx a qete-ds a a wan tat 1, : Jaga eer () 324 Q) 3:5 @) 2:3 4) 4:3 Ge aaiar 8 40 om at Rf 1200 ms! & 8 ant on wat @ 1 aio at at waft 144.N at cifras aa arate ae ea 2 aia cies Rat feed af as scr wat & ? () (2) ae 3) a 4) i 30 8a. ee gi 3 a aa a we ae ao & ine A cee oe atte ard at: (2) ORM. Gee ea ar saa at Q) 1S aah. dee zi a sar atop G3) 15 Sf. dee gi ar sae aT 15 83h. Gee ef ar raat efor9. A comet orbits the sun in an elliptical 9. orbit. Which of the following is constant throughout its orbit? (1) Linear speed \ngular momentum (3) Angular speed (4) Potential energy 10. Rainbow is formed due to a combination 10, of: (1) Dispersion and total. internal reflection (2) Refraction and absorption (3) Dispersion and interference (4) Scattering and dispersion 11. A person has D cm wide face and histwo HL, eyes are separated by d cm. The minimum width (in cm) of a mirror required for the person to view his complete face is : ay Pra 7 3) Dtd 12, The horizontal range of a projectile is 12. added maximum for a given velocity of projection when the angie of projection is : (1) 30° (2) 60° G3) 45 (4) 90° 13. Parsec is the unit of : B. (1) distance (2) time (3) velocity (4) angle (PHY-3] Wh erg We arena va A ae at after a wer 8 1 Preafefer 9 ge oe oe ar ota wm? (1) fee af (2) spits Be 3) aria af (4) Reafest eat aorgy Ber vent @ wa a ar? (1) at Rarer et vt atta oe (2) sient ea saat 3) ah fearon wd afer (4) Farrer we ant faster ce aft a1 ter D aah. dit Bod gaat aid @ ef a a4. 81 oe afr aa oe we det at tar tg ain at ae dee (aa) at (ay ae 2) ae @) 2rd (4) Dod 4 2 Fao] ay 8 mata fees a aie oe crfermam ar & ore seer Tr ater eat B (1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 90° eh Fa B a) xa (2) a G3) a am (4) ara14, Assertion : During digestion with concentrated H,SQ,, nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into (NH,),SO,. Reason : (NH,),SO, on heating with alkali liberates NH gas Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) Assertion is false but the reason is true 15. The following is the correct decreasing order of the ionic radii - (l) K* > Ca¥ > S* > Cr 2) K+ > Catt > cr > s* 3) Ca+ > K+ > Cr > $? (4) S* > Cl > Kt > Catt 16. The high density of water compared to ice is due to - (1) Hydrogen bond interaction Dipole - dipole interaction (3) Dipole - induced dipole interaction (4) Induced dipole - induced dipole interaction Chemistry ( tart ) [CHE-1] 14, Set: Giz WSO, & oe & am FR ors 1s. aifs a age (NH,),S0, # ofan & art & 1 sre : (NH,)SO, 4 ae % aa wh ea NH, 4a Prewen 8 1 wee wd Se a Tae ie ea ae fred Bt FA - (12) Ft oer eet wer 2 ae are ert a wel Bae & Q) wer wa are et wat a arer wer a ad aren aE 3) war we & afer ser aa Bs 4) war mer & od Bred we B oni Pen % sed a 4 Prifea a a ae a? () Kt > Cat > Ss? > cr (2) K* > Ca?* > Cr > Ss? @) Ca+ > K* > cr > (4) S* > CY > Kt > Ca?* ab St gat A ont a var ore dar 2 Brat are & - (1) Beg aa area sPaaT 2) Reggie - Reps orcas ae G) Regia - Re faepta ores afte (4) Ofer feegia - AR fee oreaRa arr17. 18. 19. 20. 21. Equal volume of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralized by dilute NaOH solution and x Keal and y Keal of heat are liberated. Which of the following is true ? a) x x= (3) x=2y Propyne and propane can be distinguished by - (1) Cone, H,S04 (2) Br in CCl, (3) dil KMnO, (4) AgNO, in ammonia whe (4) None of these Identify the correct order of boiling points of the following compounds - (A) CH,CH,CH,CH,OH (B) CH,CH,CH,CHO (C) CH,CH,CH,COOH (1) (A)>(B)>(C) (2) (C)>(A)>(B) (3) (A)>(C)>B) (4) (C)>B)>(A) Excess of KI reacts with CuSO, solution and then Na,S,O, solution is added to it Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (1) Cust, is formed (2) Cul, is formed (3) Nag530; is oxidised (4) Evolved I, is reduced Which of the following contains maximum number of atoms - (1) 6.023 x 10#! molecules of CO, 2 4 L of CO, at STP @ (3) 0.44 gm of CO, (4) None of these 17. 18. 20. 21. [CHE-2] Ter caghatite ora wer star aegis set % war amt A ay NaOH fre 4 ae after ax carfin Pear war 1 eat amar: x featdch ci oy Pedder a fact 1 Frit 4 ar fear aa & ? () x=y @ x=t @) x=2y (4) A a OE EE frmifea Prat are Sto wa sits A fade far oT wae? (1) Wi H)SO, 2) Br FCC, (3) 7qKMn0, (4) atifer 3 AgNO, Posie aire & aeons ar et at ara - (A) CH,CH,CH,CH,OH (B) CH,CH,CH,CHO (C) CH,CH,CH,COOH CD) (A)>(B)>(C) 2) (C)>(A)>(B) 8) (A)>(O)>B) 4) (C)>By>A) CuSO, fer a KI fear & afte ae & arr afaiear Beer war aa oy fart Na,S,O, a fataq a fear wat 1 afaear, sera Pret seri at ara & 7 (1) Cugh, aa B 1 (2) Cul, Fae 1 (3) Na.$,0, atediea eat & 1 (4) Prt gel, wage trate 1 wai & at corgi a der ote & ? (1) 6.023 x 102! ay CO, (2) STP 9X 22.4 et CO, (3) 0.4491 CO; (4) aa aE eh (9)22. 23, 24, 26. Elimination of hydrogenbromide from 2-bromobutane results in the formation of - predominantly 1-butene (2) predominantly 2-butyne (3) equimolar mixture of 1-butene and 2-butene (4) predominantly 2-butene Of the isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can give two monochlorinated compounds is - (1) 2, 2- dimethyl butane (2) 2- methyl pentane (3) n-haxane (4) 2, 3 dimethyl butane Which of the following pair of compounds cannot exist together in a solution ? (1) NaCO, and NaHCO, (2) Na,CO, and NaOH (3) NaHCO, and NaOH (4) NaHCO, and NaCl If.0.50 moles of BaCl, is mixed with 0.20 moles of Na;PO,, the maximum number of moles of Bas(PO,), formed will be - (1) 0.70 (2) 0.50 @G) 0.20 (4) 0.10 During electrolytic production of aluminium, the carbon anodes are replaced from time to time because - (1) the carbon anodes get decayed (2) the carbon prevents atmospheric oxygen from coming in contact with aluminium (3) Oxygen liberated at the carbon anode reacts with anode to form co, (4) Carbon converts Al,0; to Al 22. 26. [CHE-3] 2- amg 2 HBr} Pree mH ae sera a @ aa - () 1-38 QQ) 2-3RIT (3) 1- 3am wd 2 - aes a a Har fram (4) 2-3 . tt wer 8 ae wet 4 abtectitits dfs sar waar & 7 (1) 2, 2- saa ager (2) 2- Biter Fea G3) n- tar 4) 2,3- stabi ayaa . Pritt 2 fee dite at ster Rae @ We-Orr TE Te AaB? (1) NayCO, #1 NaHCO, (2) Na,CO, wet NaOH (3) NaHCO, wat NaOH (4) NaHCO, aa NaCl 0.50 Att BaCl, 4 afHRAT 0.20 Fe Na;PO, % aa Pe 7a 1 Ba,(PO,), a Per aa arr ? (1) 0.70 (2) 0.50 wr We ad tis at aca fear orn 8, ais () ae Gis te a ore Q) agrsta ear & art igh S wet font 8 tea B | 3) ae Gis oe SFT stein tle & ae afer CO, ae fa arm 2 1 (4) at ALO, 4 Al oftafts aca 2 1 (10)Biology ( ata-frart ) 27. A plant cell, an animal cell and bacterial cell share the following structure features - (1) Cell membrane, Endoplasmic reticulum and Vacuole (2) Cell wall, Mitochondria Plasma membrane, (3) Cell wall, Nucleus and Cytoplasm (4) Plasma membrane, Ribosome Cytoplasm, 28. The average temperature of earth is fairly stable as compared to the moon. This is because of - (1) Biosphere (2) Lithosphere (3) Atmosphere (4) None of the above 29. Which of the following statement is true about the "Law of Segregation" (1) Law of Segregation is the law of purity of genes (2) Alleles separates from each other during gametes to genesis (3) Segregation of factors segregation during Meiosis due to of chromosomes (4) All of the above 30. Most fishes do not sink in water due to the presence of (1) Swim bladder (I) Air bladder (IID) Air sacs (IV) Air in spongy bones 1 & IL are correct (2) 11 & Mare correct (3) Ill & 1V are correct (4) 1.1L & Ware correct 27. 29. 30. [BIO-1] cree fren, ory Sra sar tery Aer A we eT wr oy A wh ant 1 a () ater feet, cierto one var eaart Q) are fafa, ae fae cat TICE | (3) afer fait, Seem cer arr | (4) Sm Reet, atferamer oer west an 8 gee 4 ge a ote ava coer fer dar & 1 gud fae sara: (2) Ste Fear Q) Wa Hea (3) ay Heat (4) ae at te Se 8 am wT are “qaRiect Reid” & det Fam 2? () verte a frais a ot a gear ar feat 1 2) grrr oem F freed gas aa By 3) arta fame & yep prt 3 rer 3 area ares or st yee eT el 4) Sater at ar sitesi wofeat ori 3 wet gach B 1 ewer er rer & ap faire deers a cuftae - (Tee (ID) asm (UL) agate AV) eh sett seh arg (1) Learn a Q) Weer Mae 21 (3) Wvaiv wi € 1 (4) 1, Maar a8 1 (uy Po31. In most mammals testis are situated outside of the abdominal cavity, because- (1) More number of sperms are produced in scrotal sac. (2) Longivity of sperm is enhanced. (3) Sperm in scrotal sac requires lesser temperature for efficient fertilization. (4) Sperm in scrotal sac and bigger, 32. The gene for the genetic disease "Haemophilia" is present on the 'X' chromosome. If a haemophilic male marries a normal female, what would be the probability of their son being haemophilic, (1) 50% Q) 100% G) Nil (4) 3:1 33. Populations are said to be sympatric when - (1) Two populations are physically isolated by a natural barrier, Q) They live together and freely interbreed to produce offsprings sterile (3) Two populations share the same area/environment but do not interbreed. (4) Two populations are isolated, but occasionally come together to interbreed, 34. Pollen grain of a plant (2n=28) are cultured to produce callus tissues by tissue culture methods. What would be the chroshosome number in the cells of callus. (1) 28 G3) 14 Q) 21 (4) 56 32. 33. 34, [BIO-2] + ato era F gon setae Saez feo ae 8, ait () serrate F gary afte der # Peer Bae 2) geri § garpsit a ong ae ot By 3) grein § geri a aay Rte & fee tae aa ae A arava ae & 1 4) Berra F eporeysit ar onae asr Bhar 8 ‘fe DET we Rem Ber Bo ome we Sriteiten met ger cH AMT afer @ Rene en & tt oe 8 eer ae A dere aa ert 1 (1) 50 sferar (2) 100 afer (3) qa afr = (4) 3:1 wafteat at ameatre’ st om & anh 8, aa: (1) & wate Reet opis oer S aren oe gat & oa eh BA Q) & wie ce aa wa f, oi: oor ae Baer aie Fay SAT ara E G) & wafteal we a ome seater 7 Ree ad 8 aR ow ie: sory ah ae ti (4) a wate oem-ae eh 8, a ort Sit: Toy A wey aE | wm a Qn=28) 3 qa a oaEader35. 36. 37. 38. Cells vary in their size. Arrange, the following cells in an ascending order of their size and select the correct option among the following. () Mycoplasma (11) Ostrich egg (II)Human RBC (1V)Bacteria CQ) LAV, MH Q) 1M, 1, 1V (3) TT M Iv 4) 11 1Vv Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds, One of the following is not found in living organism. (1) Magnesium (2) Iron (3) Sodium (4) Silicon During Photosynthesis one Co, molecule is fixed through Calvin process requires - cle. This (1) One ATP and Two NADPH, (2) Two ATP and Two NADPH, (3) Three ATP and Two NADPH, (4) Two ADP and One NADPH, A piece of DNA contains a total of 1200 nucleotides out of which 200 are adenine bases. How many cytosine bases are present in this segment of DNA (1) 200 (2) 400 (3) 600 (4) 100 35, 36. 37. 38. [BIO-3] Raha afer 3 snare F sie aot eT araat a ae @ a8 one 4 a A al Freed ar war aT 1 APTA (UD otfiga a sist CHD are eet tH PET (IV) sary fray a Q) LIV, 0) 1,1, mtv (3) H, 1, M1, IV Her Pt A ore cer at a erin oo oer aa 3 or A ae ate) RT oe a 8 cm ser sna Fat oar rat & (4) TH, 1, Iv. () Safar (2) eer (3) aaa (4) Raferait cert aero A fear A owe ory ada se SPAS (Cop) a Seat aa F fertext aa Bi ead faq ora ah 8: (2) & ATP cat a NADPH, (2) 4 ATP va a NADPH, (3) dt ATP war NADPH, (4) @ ADP wa w& NADPH; we dae 2 eee 4 1200 aReoters fre 200 cera amr are bi dh ga dure Hares ae are at deat er eet? (i) 200 (2) 400 (3) 600 (4) 10039. Figure below reflects the blood circulation system in the human body. RIGHT -——____ ep HUMAN BODY] Which of the path contains oxygenated blood (1) 1& only (2) 1& Mtonly (3) 1& Monty (4) 1.1 & all 40. The following diagram shows a simple version of energy flow through food web. “nin Pi lants. sina Decomposets What happens to energy having the decomposers ? (1) Itis used by the decomposers itself. (2) It is reflected from the surface of earth (3) Itis lost as heat (4) Tris used in natural Biocomposting. [BIO-4] 39. Fret Rar ama aie & oe ofaet ag at water ma 8 1 2 aa Sfeaes tit & Pea aT C1, M1, ID) arer etter So YS Th a oer eh (Q) las arr (2) Waar m1 art (3) Lar arr @) 1 Waar eh & arr 40. fet Ror i mete ster om # oat & ae A calar rar 8 | ei yer So ry Ciiets U, fares & faye sat fea ar % onc By (1) mers ger eet rat ax 8B Q) yet at ame & ae qualia a ont By @) Fe SATS BT Aga A oh E | G) Seams & Prater gee a oh B a4)(a) ait (B) MATHEMATICS‘The unit digit in the expression 735810 4. 99853 ig (i) 0 (2) 4 @B) 5 7 yin The value of 31g * 10 is C) 0.95 (2) 0.98 (3) 0.99 (4) 1 For real y, the number of solutions of the equation ¥¥3 + fy = Lis (oo 21 (3) 2 (4) 4 The polynomial, (4-2)? (x-3)? + (x-4)? value, when F(x) =(x-1)? + has minimum () 40 (2) 20 10 . If the roots of the equation x? +2px +q=0 and x°+2qx+p=o differ by a constant and pq, then the value of p+q is (1) +1 Q 1 2 (4) None of these If Sind + Sin’@=1, then Cos!0+ 3Cos!"+3C0s%0+Cos*9= (1) Sine (2) Coso G3) 0 (4) 4 Mathematics ( 1 fra) [MTH-1] 41. alary 557 + 73°89 + 29° 9 doe ere aT SF. (@) 0 Q4 42, & (1) 0.95 (3) 0.99 41 43. y % ores art fee meer yas + Jy = 13 eat dem....at Mo Q1 (3) 2 ) 4 44. ABA f(x) =(6-1)? +0-2)°+(x-3)? + (x4)? aT A TT eT oq x=... (ly 40 (2) 20 @) 10 @) 25 45. af wfieet x7 +2px+q=0 X?+2qx+ P=0F Rt oe we oe a ed pug ad & p+q i AM.......201 - q+ Qi @) 2 4) 3 a ag aa 46. 37 Sind + Sin?o=1 at Cos'2o+ 3Cos'°6+3Cos*0+- Cos": (1) Sino 2) Cos @) 0 @. (16)47. 48. 49. 50. 51. From a bag containing 100 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, , 100 one ticket is drawn. If the number on this ticket is x, then the probability that x-+ t>2 is,, qo (2) 0.99 (3) 1 (4) None of these For which value of K the of equations 3x+y=1 and (2k-1)x+ (k-1)y =(2k +1) has no solution system ql) -2 2) +2 (3) -3 (4) +3 If the vertices of a triangle are (1.2), (4,-6) and (3,5) then (1) triangle is right angled (2) the area of triangle is 12.5 sg.uniis (3) the points do not from a triangle (4) none of these Ina AABC, D is the mid-point of BC and E is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from A on BC. If ED=x, AD=p, AE=h 4) None of these Two circles of radii r, cm. and r, em (r,>r,) touches each other internal: ‘The sum of their areas is TA? cm? and the distance between their centres is d em., then Q) A 2d 47. 49. 51. [MTH-2] a Fe F 100 Reve & fare sir fear war 2 oat 1, 2, 3, , 100 at) et a we feee Fro va, Pra ar sig x 8, at xt h2 a a oeer....a a) 0 2) 0.99 Qt (4) wa 8 ad ae K& Pea at & fare weet ot 3xty=1 Ate 2k-1)x+(k-Dy=(k-+ 1) a AE AH Ba a a) 2 2) +2 (3) 3 (4) 43 om Prep AF (1,2), 4-6) GF G,5) Et (1) Pays arte Bape & (2) Bega an dame 12.5 af gare & 3) fig frya adi aad & (4) eH a ate ae AABC 4, D wea-fig &, GT BC a GAA BC ® da mw da a oe Agee 1 ae ED=x, AD=p, AE=h @ BC=a, @ 2b?+20?-a” @ Pp (3) 4p? (2) 2p° 4) wa aE ae @ ge farreh Pet amat 1, A. er Aa. (,>1) % & Wt 4 ae at aa 31 ab Gait ar aA? 3.478 ct ord Het 3am A gt dat, ar- () A>a Q) Ad (4) A>J2d ay32. 54. 55. ABCDis arectangle such thatAC +AB=5AD and AC-AD=8, then the area of rectangle ABCDis (1) 36sq. units (2) 50 sq. units 3) 60 sq. units (4) cannot be found A triangular field, having grass, has sides 20m, 34m and 42m respectively Three horses ate tied to each of the vertices with a rope of length 7 m. each. The horses start grazing the field. The area of the portion of the field that is ungrazed by the horses is.......m? (1) 250 (2) 235 (3) 258 (4) 250 A cube of side 12 em. is painted blue on all the faces and then cut into smaller cubes each of side 3 cm, The total number of smaller cubes having none of their faces painted blue will be a8 Q) 12 (3) 16 4) 24 The ratio of the roots of the equation ax? +bx+e=0 is same as the ratio of the Toots of the equation px?+qx+r=0. If D, and D, are the discriminates of ax?+bx+e=0 and px?+qx+r=0 respectively then D,:D, = 2 @B) (4) None of these r 52, [MTH-3] W arg ABCD # AC+AB=5AD AC-AD=8 @ arm ABCD #7 ama &... (1) 36% ge Q) 50 at rat G3) oom get 4) Fé Rare aaa te Pe ant} fer a yy wAA: 20 H, 349 GE 42h. 81 a aaeat at sit oc 7a, ah Teh @ ser ore 8 | ae Te aT aR aed % on ot ant a at ay aa ay Sarre Om... a? (1) 250 (2) 255 (3) 258 (4) 259 Laat. gre ow ard ah gs a a Ta CH Te | ea ga GE va F ay ag, Ray ser Hi or 3A. B | oT a wT a aa de, Boren ag of ges ste al arte at ae... a) 8 (2) 12 @) 16 (4) 24 + Rene alee ax? +bx+0=0 & aGt & aga she fear arian pCi getr=0 & aS agen Hee F | af D, ake D, wee ax’ +bx+0=0 ait pxtqx+r=0 & fata 4) wa a aad ah (18)56. A conical shaped container, whose radius of ST. 58. 0. base is r cm. and height is h cm., is full of water. A sphere of radius R is completely immersed in the container in such a way that the surface of sphere touches the base of the cone and its surfaces. The portion of water which comes out of the cone is... ay 8 rh The arithmetic mean of 10 observations is 12.45. If each reading is increased by $ then the resulting mean is increased by (5 (2) 29 3) 0.5 (4) 50 20 women can do a job in 20 days. After each day one woman is replaced by a man or a boy alternatively, starting with a man. A man is twice efficient and a boy is half efficient as a woman. The job gets completed on... day (1) 16th isch 3) 20th (4) 24th In AABC, 2B=90" and points D and E divide BC into three equal parts. If 3AC?45AB’=p AE? then p=... (2 (4 (3) 6 (4) 8 The mode of observations 7, 12, 8, 5, 6, 4.9.10, 8,9, 7,9, 6,5, 9 is (2) 8 (4) 12 a7 9 a ee 56. 60. IMTH-4] oF 9 ig 4 omer at 8, feb oma at Pear aa. ott Gag haa. @ 1) ae oe ort a pien wo got 2) ce te ee oT 3 WaT Sar war PS ae ot A ge ont et eae wae iG 3 one wd wad aH eet at) ort ar art sit ater Fae ae... eT a) 4R? ®) oh 10 eremrait Her 12.45 8 1 ale weds dem 5 tafe oe a ome at are ae ABT... eT as (2) 29 (3) 0.5 (4) 50 20 sfc we rf BY 20 Peat A area B 1 aw PR cm after a art-ari @ owe yes oT we ast a ee Fear GT 8, aware ey a ah Ba we ger a arena Oe aiden a gph 8 oat cH ass a oman ar ga a... Fa (1) 16% (2) 18% (3) 208 (4) 244 AABC ¥ 2B=90° wi fig D att warner wet & 1 aft 3AC74 SAB! ap= a 2 BC at 2) 4 @) 6 (4) 8 ‘wiPS 7, 12, 8, 5, 6.4, 9, 10, 8,9, 7, 9,6, 5, 9 a age E qd) 7 3) 9 (2) 8 (4) 12 a9For Rough Work Only (ret opt art & faz)(3) TTR et Ot attra at TE (C) SOCIAL STUDIES AND HUMANITIES QbHistory ( gfere ) young Italy, 61. Mazzini, the founder of conducted the slogan () God (II) The Revolutionaries (1)People AV )ltaly () 1, Mand Mt (2) 1, Mandy i. [and IV (4) 1, Wand IV 62. The credit for Unification of Italy goes to - () Cavour (1D) Mazzini (IID) Markham (IV) Garibaldi (1) 1 Mand V2) 1, and ar (3) I, Mand IV. (4) 1,1 and iv 63. Which of the following statements relating to Russian Revolution are correct ® (D) The rule of Czar Nicholas IT was oppressive (I) Czar was under the influence of his minister Plehve (ID) The minorities sided with the Czar (V)Russian Revolution occurred only in March 1917 () Land mir (2) Landy Fand I (4) Iand I il [HIS-1 Ol. A geet & teres Apr Far fear - O fear () Fifer (UI) aa (IV) gett () Lam Q) 1, Wet G) LMnseIv 4) Tmt 62. Seah a we a By oa E - () tar CD. rt (ID rere (Iv) Ramet @ Lisitiv 2 Luan G) Lulsieiv 4) 1 mstriv 63. oat it a cate att ae we 7 (Dare Pre U1 ar sre aetiss at (I) ore arr a ea S oer A or CI) serie ore & are (IV) et ee 1917 a Be () Tete Q) Lait iv Q) Leiter @) Ween (22)64. Lenin finally stressed upon - (1) Nationalisation of industries (IL) Collective farms (1U)Controtled Capitalism (IV) War Communism () 1, Wand Iv @) WandIV (4) Hand I 65. Which one of these constitutes Indo China ? (Vietnam (ID) Philippines (1) Laos (V)Kambodia Q) 1, Wand HT @) M1, Wand IV (4) [and IV (2) L, Mand IV 66. Triple Entente, 1907 comprised of - () Britain (11) Russia (UIT)Italy (IV) France () L Mand 1V (2) 1 tl and ty 3) 1, Wand I 67. Triple Alliance, 1882 comprised of - (1) Germany (UDltaly (1) 1, Wand I (U1) Austria (IV) Turkey (2) 1, Wand IV (3) 1, Wand IV (4) 1, I and IV 68. Hind Swaraj was written by which writer ? (1) Vallabh Bhai Patel (2) M. K. Gandhi (3) Raja Gopalachari (4) Tej Bahadur Sapru (2) HI, Mand tv (4) U, land 1v 64, 65. 2 & 67. 68. [HIS-2] ‘arr A stam: ae fear () Sart a asta I) aries arf (UD Frat setere dV) aR grrr () Litsieiv 2) I, Msiriv Q) IariIv (4) Udi ort fare gtaret sat 8? (Peer (i) Prt (IL anata (Vv) aratizer @ Lisitm 2) 1 Usiriv Q) I, Wsieiv (4) msitiv . FTE, 1907 & - Q) fret (i) 3 UU) geet (vy () L.Weteiv @) Lteieiv G) I Mstei (4) 0, Ml eteiv Bye, 18827 & - () wT (ID aafégar 0) seth (vyeat G) Lisi Q) Litsiciv @) IL Msitrv @) 1 Weittiv Pret chee 7 fee erat frre ? () aera we vee Q) oF. &. ai69. Mahatma Gandhi determined which movement after chauri incident ? to stop chaura (1) Champaran Satyagrah (2) Khilafat Movement (3) Non Co-operation Movement (4) Civil Disobedience Movement 70. Lahore Conference of Indian National Congress in 1929 declared independence under the Presidentship of which Leader (1) Moti Lal Nehru (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru (3) Subhash Chandra Bose (4) Lata Lajpat Rai 71. Henry Patulo, an officer of East India Company was of the view - (1) Indians do not prepare cloth () Indians should be banned to Prepare cloth @) Indian cloth is the best im the world (4) Indian cloth is not better than that of England 72. Printing Press was introduced to India for the first time in the 16th Century by Which missionary - (1) French (2) Dutch (3) British (4) Portuguese [HIS-: 69. ehh ser & az da 8 aidar at ae < 38 er Picts fear 7 () Se weanre (2) Peart sider (3) sraeaer arate (4) Bier ora arate 70. Fea a oer 9 ote aete aie & rere sere A eectaer arses ef 2 (12) Ait oer Aes 2) Fret cer Fee G) gay az ae @) are aT Ta Th. Or cat hse ea geet at oar ay Sr rere ay - (Dare argr fre aren ag aa | @) area arg fea # ape Fy (4) Ste 8 orca a dear aE | 72. fea Rent & arr gen ar 6s aa # SEPT ae AF say 7 (1) ste Q) 7 (3) fafear 4) aT (24)Geography (+t ) 73. Identify the crop which is cultivated in the al highlands of India and grows well larly on the laterite soils of Karnataka and Tamilnadu. (1) Groundnut — (2) Cotton (3) Coffee (4) None of these 74. Agricultural forestry is mainly practised in which state of India? (1) Jharkhand (2) Haryana @) asthan (4) Uttrakhand 75. Which of the following is the most recent mountain ranges ? (1) Eastern Ghat (2) Western Ghat (3) Saipura Series (4) Shillong Series 76. Shimoga mines is famous for (CD. Iron ore (2) Gold (3) Manganese (4) Petroleum 17. The headquarter of newly formed Southern Coastal Railway Zone of India is located at : (1) Vishakhapatnam (2) Kakinada (3) Hyderabad (4) Masulipatanam ‘8. Arrange the given mountain ranges from North to South in direction 1. Karakoram I. Ladakh MI. Zaskar IV. Pir Pinjal () LM MIV @Q) 11.1, (3) UME, TW (4) 1V, TIL, 1,1 [GEO-1] 73. ara soafeada ser of oe ad A ot ant waa at artes od ofteng & Bugz ger 9 fade er 8 cont 8, a gears ac (1) ret G3) Fear (2) Te ) wR a ad ae 74. ft aft ga er a ara & fea we F art art & 2 () ares # (2) efearn 3) WwreMr F (4) Saree F 75. fre fea ma ode dear A at wad war B 2 (i) gat are (2) afeerht ae (3) wager at (4) Parait Sot 76. Parte a art afte & () ate-serer S fare (2) Garg fare 3) frit & fq (4) Satie & fae TI. wea 4 sa-faftlr cfet ade te I a yeaa fear & = Q) Paver # G) teva F (2) aritagt ¥ (4) aeefinge 78. Raa ada AP a ax & aftr st een aaftea tific 1 Lara 0. IV. or core ara Tl. Rat () LOW IV Q) Ww (3) H,M,1,1V IV, M1, UT 25)79 Which of the following Pairs is nor Correctly matched ? 1. Himalaya Mountain - Tertiary Fold Mountain HM. Deccan Trap - Volcanic Eruption MI. Western Ghats - Paleozoic Fold Mountain IV. Aravali Mountain - Pre-Cambrian Relict Mountain ) Only (2) 1&1 (3) Only in ny TV, located in difterem states of India. In Which of the following states he is not Fequited to move in this connection, (1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uurakhand (3) Assam (4) Uttar Pradesh 81. Which of the following is the correct descending order of soils of India according to their coverage area > (1) Alluvial, Red, Laterite, Black (2) Black, Attuyis > Red, Laterite () Alluvial, Black, Red, Laterite (4) Alluvial, Laterive, Black, Red aul IGEO 79. Freer at 3 Rese Paar wit aa & 1 Reena ot ~ afta after oa 0. 7 Fa - oar sem i Re ae - Bete afer ey IV. a ee () fae Q lain G) fee in @) Riv 80, So TTF RPT UH a sefier are, SFT asia sent Beit ear mrt #1 8 tin #38 Fri # & pe aT ort a snare ae & 7 C1) Hey gee 2) arrag GB) sam 4) oat me 81, rer 3 aa Rare # organ gut & aa BAR Hor or organ wit B 7 () ee, are, aaa, ort 2) art, og, are, age G) sts, art, ore, a2age ) oie, deme, arf, ae (26)82. 83. 84. Match List-I (Tribes) with List-II (States) 82. and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I (Tribes) List-II (State) A. Bodo I. Nagaland B. Naga IL, Andaman Islands C. Jarawa IIL. Assam D. Mina TV. Rajasthan (1) A-IV, B-II, C-IH, D-l (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-HL, B-L, C-H, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV Which of the following rivers meet 83. Ganga from South direction in Bihar ? A. Kosi B. Son C. Gandak D. Ghaghra (i) AandB (2) Band C (3) Only D (4) Only B Match List-I (Hydroelectric Plant) with 84, List-II (River) and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List (Hydroelectric Plant) List-II (River) A. Bhakhra 1. Beas B. Pong IL, Periyar CC, Salal TIT. Sathuj D. Idukki IV. Chenab (1) A-I, B-II, C-IIL, D-IV Q) A-IV, BAI, C-I, DT 3) A-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IIL, Bel, C-IV, D-I [GEO-3] anfeas-1 (arenfa) a afer (ea) & freee ver fa ats ar ae at ae oe a aT aaa aries (=f) eniere-I1 (a4) Aa 1. ames B. ArT Tl. oreas ay aye C. ara 11. ore D.oT IV. wart () ACV, BAI, C-I, D-I Q) AAL, B-lIl, CIV, D4 (3) A-IH, B-l, C-II, D-IV (4) AIL, BAIL, C1, D-IV freaterent # @ ar et mer feere Hoefer fear & soy & Pret & 7 A. att B. at C. Ee D. aT Q) AGB Q) BRC @) Fad (4) 3aB anfearl (safer aie) at aftr et & Praga car Ra 7a se ar eit ae wel cae a aa ah aferar-l (arafaet sate) cafeer-IL (=a) A. SRT 1 ae B. dt I. tare C. eRe IL. Bart D. sgt IV. 3414 (1) Al, B-ll, C-Ill, D-IV Q) AAV, BAM, C-ll, DI (3) Ad, Bl, C-IV, D-IL (4) AAI, Bll, C-IV, DI en85. Which one of the Civies ( are ) following ig correct regarding power-sharing ? (1) Ttleads to conflict among different Social groups. (2) 1 ensures country, (3) It undermines the nation. (4) It making proce: 86. Which one of the f example of coming to ay A The (3) Spain 87. Which of the () Spain @) Belgium 88. Which 89 The administrative Corporation is callea (1) Mayor (4) Sarpaneh he stability of the unity of the Creates hurdle in decision Ss. following is the best ogether federation 2 (2) India (4) Belgium following countries has Community government ? (2) Sri Lanka (4) France among the following is not the basis of social divisions in tndig » () Language (2) Health (3) Region (4) Caste head of Municipal (2) Deputy-Mayor (3) Municipal Commissioner 85. 87, 88. [clv Pe Sn mad & ae ? (D3 falter arta oF ear By Q 72a F wats ges ec F | 3) UE F coer at oie a bY Fa She ay: (a) SF Pe Pes ser soar re ape a + Psrfaer a ae oR eae ay ay weit czrem 8? ( AER WT aR (2) mg G) a (4) Afra Poi 8 a ee 29 aye aa Q) ay (2) star G) Ay aig y Erste 3 & ore & eras fer ap Sa eB? () ae 2) req (3) a 4) ome 7 PTH oy ees oro aera & () Fert Q) 3 rere GB) ar srgee (4) Fee (28)concentrated in the hands of - (1) Bureaucrats (4) Council of Ministers . Which of the following is considered life- line of democracy ? (1) Government In which country came into existence first ? the political parties [CIV-2] Staal sift oa 8 eet Bre era A ashe weal & ae - (Q) sparen Q) aa G) Ace (4) RT afta . Praieferr 4 8 fea stad a oter-tar aT ora & ? (1) Fa 2) afer at 3) writes ait a (4) Sareraeat at a ar? Q) fer 2) aaa 3) way (4) aaa we aR A For Rough Work Only (@aer argh are & fer) (29)Economies ( srfyrrex ) [ECO-1] 93. Which of the following statements are not 93. Peter a a ar war oraa B? true? 1. Employment in the service sector 1 gar $ agua § Gar aa} oq has not increased to the same me tore F af ae ath F extent as production, M. Workers in the tertiary sector He gis Qa acer ahr ast a produce goods, SOIT ae ML The activities in Primary I, ores, efits: she gees aa qeere Secondary and Tertiary sectors are Pre af a8 Fy Not interdependent IV, Most of the workers in the IV. orinet 8 3 om a aa afta unorganised sector enjoy job ‘ore yen Be aT aa EY security. af ve Fait ‘ Ma lage proportion of tabeurers in Fe et Se or India are working in unorganised om ee sector | QQ) Lim 2) TIL, IV oie v (1) Land HT (2) I, TV and V (3) I. Mand Va) 1, tana rv @ WMsey 4) Oh I atery 94. Which of the following is not a function 94, Red oiorrear feat 18 a at ad Of the central bank in an economy ? ‘aria Ses a TR? (1) Dealing with foreign exchange (2). Re BTS are aay (2) Controlling monetary policy 2) He AR a frifea eer (3) Controlling government spending 3) Arar ed oe Prager (4) Acting as a banker's bank (4) Fat Sam 3 oy F apt 95. If saving exceed investment then « 98. ft aan, faa & ses a om a - (1) National income rises () Ta ora afe err (2) National income falls Q) 0S or ¥ Prac ert (3) National income is not affected (3) aga ore oe a are et nea (4) None of the above 4) order a @ ae aa 30)96. Which indicators are used in the Human Development Index (HDI)? L I UL Iv a) Qy @) 4) Standard of living Education Life expectancy rate Condition of environment Only I, Hand IV Only 1, Hand TL Only I and I All of the above 97, Which of the following statements are not true ? 1 I m. IV. Vv. Vi rc) COPRA applies only to goods. India is one of the many countries in the world which has exclusive courts for consumer redressal When a consumer feels that he has been exploited, he must file a case in the District Consumer Court It is worthwhile to move to consumer courts only if the damages incurred are of high value. Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation of jewellery The consumer redressal process very simple and quick A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of the damage. Only 11, IL, LV, V and VIL Only Land VI Only I, I, V and VIL All of the above [ECO-2] 96, feafatea 4 x ama fone qaais 4 dees 97. % oF ser ar B? 1 shat ae 1. fara ML, Sherr wena ee IV. vata at eat (1) Sa, Ist 1Vv Q) aaa, Wee G3) aaa (4) sree at Frefafert #8 aa ar er at aie? 1 aya deer afar, (COPRA) fat agai & fr aye afar 3 1 Set Howe E oer IL. ait feet outta at arr 2 Pe sear ger gar & th sa fren oie eR 9 oa I St STAT aafee 1 NV. PAA we ye ate a oH Settee area Tarr are te F V. ee omen & oardieet at ghar we ar srr & 1 Vi. cadet Frarer ofa aga ara sire vata 2 1 VIL opie a SA et Gear } ayaa F yaraer Ot ar siftrare & 1 () Sa, MM, IV, V are VI Q) taal aie VI G3) fa LW, Vs VIL (4) sataa wht98. Which of the following statements are true about globalisation ? I. Developed countries have always been more benefited from globalisation I. Globalisation has led to improvement in living condition of workers in the developing countries. nie Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or ‘between countries interconnection IV. Indian cement industries been hit hard by globalisation. have V. To achieve the goal of fair globalisation, major roles can be played by MNCs, (1) Only I, 1, Hand V (2) Only I, IL, Mand Iv (3) Only III, 1V and V (4) Only 1, 1 and 11 99. Ina SHG (self help group) most of the decisions regarding saving and loan activities are taken by - (1) Bank (2) Members (3) State Government (4) Chairperson of SHG 100. We can obtain per capita income of a country by calculating - (1) Total income of a person 2) By dividing the national income by the total population of a country. (3) The total value of all goods and services, 4) Total exports of the country | [ECO-3] 98. Aelroet Sa A Prater Fa se at ae wae? 1 Sehr 3 freer tat om: afi areata 1 I. agteer & frarasia St & arert a Frais zen 3 gare ee & 1 I adem, Ata at & da aka sada ot eet emi a at afar e 1 IV, oreda die sett aedeeeor a age srafar ee B 1 V. aetecr } saan steat at oF FETS wart A aya yan shi a aaa 1, I, ILaitv (2) Fae, Ml, UT ste 1v G) aaa, IV sie Vv 4) aa, Hite mt 99, fect eri acre aye F aaa oie aor Se nfatahrat & eeter oiftrpit Pets ar aa B 7 (1) ae Q) ae 3) a aa 4) Bei Fern aye a Te 100. feet ar Ht ofa ast ora A oar & fay A rT wh et - (Do ait & ea ona a Q) oF tt 8 wea om A ta tt oF oad & arr tae G) wh ast ok tant Saw ae 4) 8a 3 am Pain a (32)