You are on page 1of 1

According to Rodríguez, did the American Revolution foster similar movements in Spanish

colonies? Why? Why did the revolution seem prosperous for the United States but not so much
for the other new American countries, and how did this affect the relationship between them?

According to Rodríguez the independence of the United States did not influence the Spanish
colonies to get independent because although Spanish Americans were aware of the
independence of the U.S, the events that were taking place such as the Boston party, it seems
that they were agree with the Spanish monarchy. Another aspect to consider is that the U.S and
the Spanish colonies did not share the same interests in regard to religion and the driving force for
the Spanish colonies to call for independence was due to the French empire invaded the Iberian
Peninsula, and they did not agree on that since they were loyal to the Spanish crown.

The revolution seem prosperous for the United States but not so much for the other new
American countries because by the time the United States achieve independence, they started to
export their products to Europe since it was ravaged by war and as a result, there was a high
demand of products.

You might also like