Question Bank CS Executive Entarnce Test Exam - English

Question 1 : Communication is a process by which information is exchange between individuals

through a common system of –
(X) Symbols
(Y) Signs
(Z) Behaviour

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. (X) and (Y)

B. (Y) and (Z)
C. (X) and (Z)
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 2 : “Colleges teach the one thing that is perhaps most valuable for the future employees to
know. This one basic skill is to organize and express ideas in writing and speaking”. This is said by –

A. Peter Drucker
B. Henry Fayol
C. Adam Smith
D. Fredrick Taylor

Correct Answer: A
Question 3 : Plain Language Commission insisted that the USP (Unique Selling Proposition) of
Business English Should be:

A. Simplicity
B. Clarity
C. (A) or (B)
D. (A) & (B)

Correct Answer: D
Question 4 : Which of the following is an essential part of communication ?

A. Reply
B. Acknowledgement
C. Feedback
D. Repetition
Correct Answer: C
Question 5 : Communication is essential –

A. In all types of organizations

B. At all levels of management
C. (A) or (B)
D. (A) & (B)

Correct Answer: D
Question 6 : ------ is an unspoken or unwritten message that uses body language.

A. Non-verbal communication
B. Verbal communication
C. Informal communication
D. Both (A) and (B)

Correct Answer: A
Question 7 : Which of the following is non-verbal communication ?
P. Body language
Q. Visual communication
R. Audio-visual communication

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. R
B. Q
C. P
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Question 8 : Non-verbal communication includes –
I. Movements
II. Meetings
III. Eye contact
IV. Conferences
V. Nodding the head

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. II, IV, I
B. III, V, IV
C. I, V, II
D. V, I, III
Correct Answer: D
Question 9 : Which of the following is example of written communication ?

A. Notice, agenda, notes on agenda

B. Minutes of meetings
C. Leaflet/Brochure/Handbills
D. All of above

Correct Answer: C
Question 10 : Research studies have shown that ------- of communication by executives of a
company is in the oral form.

A. 80%
B. 100%
C. 10%
D. 20%

Correct Answer: A
Question 11 : Which of the following can be treated as oral communication ?
(i) Brainstorming sessions
(ii) Grapevine
(iii) Eye contact
(iv) Presentation
(v) Radio listening
(vi) Minutes of meetings

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

B. (iv), (v), (ii), (i) & (vi)
C. (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)
D. (i), (ii), (v)

Correct Answer: D
Question 12 : Which of the following can be treated as a part of visual communication ?

A. Grapevine
B. Brainstorming sessions
C. Neon hoardings
D. All of above

Correct Answer: C
Question 13 : Arrange the process of communication in proper form.
Encoding, Decoding, Message, Feedback, Sender, Receiver

A. Message, Sender, Encoding, Decoding, Receiver, Feedback

B. Sender, Message, Encoding, Receiver, Decoding, Feedback
C. Sender, Message, Receiver, Encoding, Feedback, Decoding
D. Sender, Encoding, Decoding, Message, Receiver, Feedback

Correct Answer: B
Question 14 : Which of the following is/are not seven C’s of effective communication ?

A. Clarity of expression
B. Conciseness of message
C. Courtesy towards recipient
D. Co-ordination in work

Correct Answer: D
Question 15 : There must be at least three persons to allow the completion of the process in
interpersonal communication.

A. False
B. True
C. Partly false
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Question 16 : When people within the organization communication with each other, it is said to be –

A. An informal communication
B. An internal communication
C. External communication
D. Non-verbal communication

Correct Answer: B
Question 17 : The flow or pattern of communication may be –

A. Downward
B. Upward
C. Diagonal
D. Any of the above
Correct Answer: D
Question 18 : Communication is an ----------- process.

A. Ongoing
B. One way
C. Three way process
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Question 19 : Facial expressions; Gestures; Eye contact; Nodding the head and Physical
appearances are the form of –

A. Verbal communication
B. Non-verbal communication
C. Oral communication
D. Visual communication

Correct Answer: B
Question 20 : This type of communication flow usually takes place between people of the same
status/level of hierarchy in the organization.

A. Downward flow
B. Horizontal flow
C. Vertical flow
D. Upward flow

Correct Answer: B
Question 21 : The principles of effective writing include:
(X) Brevity
(Y) Clarity
(Z) Accuracy

Select the correct answer from the options given below –

A. (X)
B. (Y)
C. (Z)
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 22 : Select the statement about business communication that is not true –
A. Business Communication may be upward or downward.
B. Business Communication takes many forms- oral, print and electronic
C. In business you will be judged on your professional expertise, not your
communication ability.
D. If you communicate well, you are likely to be promoted.

Correct Answer: C
Question 23 : In the workplace, internal personal communication ----------

A. is unacceptable
B. can have a significant impact on the success of the operation
C. should be encouraged with no-restrictions
D. all of the above

Correct Answer: B
Question 24 : Which of the following is not an example of internal-operational communication ?

A. giving directives
B. constructing reports
C. placing orders with suppliers
D. requesting data from subordinates

Correct Answer: C
Question 25 : Which of the following is not true of business communication as a problem-solving
activity ?

A. There is one best solution to each business communication problem.

B. The business communication process may involve some backtracking rather than
following a strictly linear path.
C. Solving business communication problems involves creativity and judgment as
well as research and analysis.
D. The basic plans for common types of business message need to be adapted to
each situation.

Correct Answer: A
Question 26 : When one communications to transact some commercial activity i.e., providing goods
or services, with the intention of generating profits, then it is termed as-

A. Informal communication
B. Social communication
C. Self communication
D. Business communication

Correct Answer: D
Question 27 : is a written or a spoken message that uses words to exchange ideas/information.

A. Non-verbal communication
B. Verbal communication
C. Informal communication
D. Both (A) and (B)

Correct Answer: B
Question 28 : Which of the following is non verbal communication ?
(X) Oral communication
(Y) Written communication
(Z) Audio-visual communication

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. (X)
B. (Y)
C. (Z)
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 29 : Which of the following is verbal communication ?
(I) Facial expressions
(II) Gestures
(III) Audio-visual communication

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (I)&(II)

Correct Answer: C
Question 30 : Which of the following is not advantage of written communication ?

A. It takes much more time to compose a message in writing.

B. The use of headings and bullets enable us to organize the material for better
understanding.
C. It also enables us to revise the contents if we find them unsuitable for the recipient
from the point of view of clarity or interest.
D. All of above

Correct Answer: A
Question 31 : Which of the following provide immediate & quick feedback ?
(X) Written communication
(Y) Radio listening
(Z) Oral communication

Select the correct answer from the options given below-

A. (Y)
B. (X)
C. (Z)
D. All of above

Correct Answer: C
Question 32 : There are ----------- C’s of effective communication

A. Five
B. Seven
C. Three
D. Ten

Correct Answer: B
Question 33 : Which of the following is/are not seven C’s of effective communication ?

A. Completeness of information
B. Considering for receiver
C. Cooperation in work place
D. Correctness of facts

Correct Answer: C
Question 34 : People also communicate within the organization at a personal level this is known as –

A. An informal communication
B. An internal communication
C. Grapevine
D. (A) or (C)

Correct Answer: D
Question 35 : Communication is the task of imparting -----------------
A. Training
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Message

Correct Answer: B
Question 36 : Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Bailable offence

B. Non-Bailable offence

C. Cognizable offence

D. Non-cognizable offence

Correct Answer: A
Question 37 : Under section 138 of the Act, territorial jurisdiction does not arise on the following
places

A. Where cheque is issued

B. In the local limit where the cheque is presented in the bank

C. Where the cheque is dishonored by the bank

D. From where the notice to pay the amount is issued

Correct Answer: D
Question 38 : What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’?

A. There must be an allegation in the complaint

B. The allegation must be about the commission of an offence

C. The complaint must be made to the magistrate

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 39 : Which is not a negotiable instrument?

A. Bond

B. Promissory note

C. Bill of Exchange

D. Cheque

Correct Answer: A
Question 40 : Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Metropolitan Area

B. Assistant Public Procsecutors

C. Special Judicial Magistrate

D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 41 : Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.

A. 140

B. 150

C. 147

D. 211

Correct Answer: C
Question 42 : What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the court?

A. Summons

B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Attachment of property

D. Above all

Correct Answer: D
Question 43 : Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Non-Bailable offence
B. Cognizable offence
C. Non-cognizable offence
D. Both B and C

Correct Answer: B
Question 44 : What are the kinds of warrant?

A. Bailable warrants

B. Non-Bailable warrants

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 45 : What is the difference between summon and warrant?

A. Issuing of summon is a primary stage. Generally warrants are issued if the

attendance of an offender cannot be procured through summons

B. A summon is issued at the first instance in summons cases as well as in a

warrant case. But warrant cannot be issued at the first instance in summons cases.

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 46 : Which condition/s must be satisfied before issuing a proclamation?
A. A summon should have been legally issued against a person.

B. A warrant should have been legally issued against a person

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 47 : What are the important condition/s necessary for initiation of proceedings under
section 107?

A. Formation of opinion by magistrate

B. Existence of sufficient ground for proceeding

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 48 : Public nuisance may be defined as

A. An obstruction, risk or injury to the life

B. A risk or injury to health

C. An obstruction to the comfort or convenience of public at large

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 49 : Section ………… of the code of the criminal procedure deals with the circumstances
when a conditional order for removal of nuisance can be passed.

A. 131

B. 133

C. 139
D. 143

Correct Answer: B
Question 50 : Which condition/s should be fulfilled to constitute the Frist Information Report (F.I.R.)?

A. What is convency must be information

B. That information should be related to the commission of an offence on the face of

it.

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 51 : A ……….. is not entitled to maintenance under section 125 of the code of
criminal procedure, 1973.

A. Wife unable to maintain herself

B. Divorced wife (not remarried)

C. Minor daughter

D. Divorced wife remarried

Correct Answer: D
Question 52 : Inherent powers under section 482 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973 can be
exercised by

A. Judicial Magistrate first class

B. Sessions Judge

C. High Court

D. Chief Judicial Magistrate

Correct Answer: C
Question 53 : Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer
Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?

A. Section 149

B. Section 154

C. Section 155

D. Section 200

Correct Answer: B
Question 54 : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the
which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the
same sequence?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Four

Correct Answer: C

Sol.
Question 55 : How many meaningful English words can be formed by using 2nd, 4th, 7th and 9th letters
of the word ‘WONDERFUL’, each only once, but in different sequence?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None

Correct Answer: A

Sol.
Question 56 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth
and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the
third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one
such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

A. A
B. E
C. T
D. X

Correct Answer: E

Sol.
Question 57 : How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: C

Sol.
Question 58 : How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: C

Sol.
Question 59 : How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter
only once in each word?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: D

Sol.Meaningful words Þ LAME, MALE, MEAL

Question 60 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the
seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of
that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can
be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

A. T
B. L
C. E
D. Y

Correct Answer: D

Sol.
Question 61 : If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how
many letters will remain at the same position?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: A

Sol. H A N D O V E R
V R O N H E D A
No letter is at the same position.
Question 62 : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: E

Sol.
Question 63 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third,
the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more
than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your
answer is ‘B’.

A. V
B. T
C. E
D. A

Correct Answer: C

Sol.
Question 64 : If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the
next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter
in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the
replacement?

A. N
B. Q
C. J
D. M

Correct Answer: C

Sol.
Question 65 : How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many
letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: D

Sol.
Question 66 : How many meaningful English words can be formed by using two letters of the word
‘GOT’?

A. Three
B. Two
C. One
D. More than three

Correct Answer: B

Sol.Meaningful words Þ Go, To

Question 67 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the
tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of
that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than
one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

A. P
B. L
C. T
D. X

Correct Answer: C

Sol.
Question 68 : How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each
letter only once in each word?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: D

Sol.Meaningful words Þ ARE, EAR, ERA

Question 69 : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as
many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Correct Answer: D

Sol.
Question 70 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth,
the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of
that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such
word can be formed your answer is N.

A. I
B. A
C. L
D. M

Correct Answer: B

Sol.Meaningful Word Þ HAIL

Question 71 : Which one of these is not an element of discipline of economic?

A. Study of working of an economy and the issue faced by it

B. Economic problems of individuals and societies are not of other social cultural
aspects of human existence
C. The nature of economic problems and their solution is closely linked with the
structure of economic system and its progress and development

D. Increasing the overall economic well being of the members of the society

Correct Answer: D
Question 72 : The primary task of the discipline of economics is to study

A. The progress and development

B. Estimates of national income

C. Analyses the demand

D. The working of an economy and issue and problems faced by it

Correct Answer: D
Question 73 : “Study of an economy”includes:

A. Alternative forms of an economy like capitalism, socialism, a mixed economy etc

B. Interrelationship between economic units and their grops

C. Interrelationship between different economics with each other

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 74 : Which one from the following is a problem with wants?

A. Inequalities of income

B. Availability of insufficient of resources to satisfy them

C. Mismatch between available means (resources) and wants

D. Both (a) and (c)

Correct Answer: D
Question 75 : Who explained the theory of economics as “it is a method rather than doctrine an
apparatus of the mind, a technique of thinking which helps its possessors to draw correct conclusions
A. Adam smith

B. J.M. Keynes

C. Lionel robbins

D. Alfred marshall

Correct Answer: B
Question 76 : In which year was the book named “An enquiry into the nature and causes of wealth”
was given

A. 1846

B. 1948

C. 1776

D. 1775

Correct Answer: C
Question 77 : The great object of political economy of every country is to:

A. Increase the equalities of income

B. Decrease the political and military strength

C. Ensure regional development

D. Increase the riches and power of that country

Correct Answer: D
Question 78 : Find the correct match:

A. An inquiry into the nature and causes of wealth. Alfred marshall

B. Science which deals with wealth. Lionel Robbins

C. Economics is the science that studies human behavior as a relationship between

ends and scarce means which have alternative uses. Lionel robbins
D. Science of material well being. Samuelson

Correct Answer: C
Question 79 : The law of scarcity

A. Does not apply to rich, developed countries

B. Applies only to less developed country

C. Implies that consumer’s wants will be satisfied in a socialist system

D. Implies that consumer’s wants will never be satisfied

Correct Answer: D
Question 80 : Who expressed the view that economic is neutral between ends?

A. Marshall

B. Robbins

C. Adam smith

D. Paul A samuelson

Correct Answer: B
Question 81 : The definition of economics as a science of development & growth with the twin
objective of scarcity and efficiency, was given by-

A. Paul A. Samuelson

B. A.K. Sen

C. Lionel R. Robbins

D. Adam smith

Correct Answer: A
Question 82 : One of the following statements is not a positive statement

A. To check inflation, the RBI should raise the bank rate

B. Inflation has Impact on consumer price index

C. Unemployment is the major cause of widespread poverty

D. An increase in the income of the household result in a rightward shift in the

demand curve

Correct Answer: A
Question 83 : Microeconomic does not study

A. The level of output that an individual firm produces during a period of time

B. The determination of wage rate by the automobile industry during a given period

C. The determination of cause that result in hyper inflation in an economy

D. The determination of equilibrium output of an individual firm in a perfectly

competitive market

Correct Answer: C
Question 84 : A loan of Rs 10000 is to be paid back in 30 equal instalments. The amount of each
installment to cover the principal and at 4% p.a. C.I. is

A. Rs. 587.87
B. Rs. 587
C. Rs. 578.87
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Question 85 : Given the amount of available resources in the economy as demonstrated in figure
above, if the technology to produce computer monitor improves. So that with the help of given
resources more monitors can be produced, the production possibility curve__________

A. Will remain unchanged

B. Will shift to the left
C. Will shift to the left
D. Will form the intercept at point A, but the intercept at point B will shift to the right

Correct Answer: D
Question 86 : A capitalist economy is by and large-
A. A closed economy

B. A free market economy

C. A centrally controlled economy

D. an economy in which a government neither collects any taxes nor incurs any
expenditure

Correct Answer: B
Question 87 : After your board examination you could have got a job that would pay you Rs. 10,000
per month instead you go in for further studies spending Rs. 8,000 per month on books, fees, etc. The
opportunity cost of higher studies for you is

A. Rs. 8,000

B. Rs 10,000

C. Rs. 2,000

D. Rs. 18,000

Correct Answer: D
Question 88 : A country discovered a huge stock of gold lying buried in deep earth. It begins to mine
out the gold and also finds a foreign buyer. Graphically, this position would be shown as

A. Downward shift of production possibility curve

B. Upward shift of production possibility curve

C. Downward movement on a given production possibility curve

D. Upward movement on a given production possibility curve

Correct Answer: C
Question 89 : Profit is the only objective of all business firms

A. True
B. False
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

Correct Answer: B
Question 90 : Modern business is .....................

A. Constant
B. Profitable

C. Dynamic
D. Stable

Correct Answer: C
Question 91 : Features of business environment does not include

A. Uncertainty
B. Relativity

C. Static Nature
D. Specific and General forces

Correct Answer: C
Question 92 : ...................... tells the purpose of business existence.

A. Vision
B. Mission

C. Both (a)and (b)

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
Question 93 : Both Vision and Mission statements are commonly used to :

A. define measurement standards

B. create wider linkages with customers, suppliers and alliance partn

C. guide managements thinking on strategic issues.

D. enlist internal support

Correct Answer: C
Question 94 : "Where you can visualize your business in 7 years time". This is a:

A. Mission Statement
B.
Vision Statement
C. Business Statement
D. Statement of purpose.

Correct Answer: B
Question 95 : "To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance" is
.................. of ICSI

A. Vision
B. Mission
C. None of the above
D. Both (a) and (b) above.

Correct Answer: A
Question 96 : Types of Business Enviroment includes the following

A. Internal
B. External
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Question 97 : Internal business environment not include :

A. Man
B. Money
C. Marketing
D. Marketing Rrources

Correct Answer: E
Question 98 : Environment factors which are within the controi-Of-bi. siness are known as:

A. Micro factors
B. Internal factors
C. Macro factors
D. External factors

Correct Answer: B
Question 99 : .............. is a type of external environment.

A. Operating
B. General
C. Remote
D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: B
Question 100 : The objective of the partnership Act, 1932 is to define and amend the law relating to-

A. Partnership
B. Joint Ventures
C. Business Collaboration
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A
Question 101 : The partnership Act, 1932 Came into force on-

A. 1st day of April 1932

B. 1st day of October 1932
C. 1st day of January 1932
D. 31st day of December 1932

Correct Answer: B
Question 102 : According to the partnership Act, “Business” includes-

A. Trade
B. Occupation

C. Profession
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Question 103 : The relationship of Partnership arises out of
A. Contract
B. Status

C. Operation of law
D. Contract and status

Correct Answer: A
Question 104 : Micro factors are the factors that are in the company's immediate environment .

A. True
B. False
C. party True
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Question 105 : The name under which the partnership business is carried on is called

A. Trade mark
B. Partnership firm

C. Firm name
D. Registered name

Correct Answer: C
Question 106 : The government had recently launched central Equipment Identify Register Portal. It
operates under which of department?

A. Department of Science and Technology

B. Department of Telecom
C. Department of Biotechnology
D. Department of Public Enterprise

Correct Answer: B
Question 107 : Dhanu Jatra is currently celebrated in which state?

A. Odisha
B. Telangana
C. Jharkhand
D. Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
Question 108 : Fausta, a female block rhino, believed to be the world’s oldest rhino, has recently
died in Tanzanian conversation area. What is the IUCN status of the black rhinos?

A. Least concern
B. Endangered
C. Critically Endangered
D. Near threatened

Correct Answer: C
Question 109 : Which state is going to observe “No Vehicle Day”on the first day of every month in
2020?

A. Kerala
B. Gujarat
C. Punjab
D. Rajasthan

Correct Answer: D
Question 110 : Where was the event held to commemorate the 76th Anniversary of the First Flag
Hoisting by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose?

A. Kashmir
B. Jammu
C. Ladakh
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Correct Answer: D
Question 111 : Which state is going to conduct its maiden snow leopard survey?

A. Uttrakhand
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Haryana
D. Punjab

Correct Answer: A
Question 112 : Which ministry is set to launch “Santusht” portal for rapid grievance redressal for the
employers and the employees?

A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Labor and Employment
D. Ministry of Human Resource Development

Correct Answer: C
Question 113 : Who is going to head the recently constituted task force for developing the National
Infrastructure Pipeline?

A. Cabinet Secretary
B. Economic affairs Secretary
C. Revenue Secretary
D. Finance Secretary

Correct Answer: B
Question 114 : The dornier aircraft, that was recently inducted into the Otters Squadron, belongs to
which category?

A. Reconnaissance aircraft
B. Light utility aircraft
C. Surveillance aircraft
D. Strategic airlifter

Correct Answer: B
Question 115 : Captain Vikram Batra, after whom Delhi is to rename It’s Mukarba Chowk, was
martyred in which war?

A. Sino-Indian war of 1962

B. Indo-Pakistan war of 1947
C. Kargil war
D. Bangladesh Liberation War

Correct Answer: C
Question 116 : The agreement on the prohibition of attack against nuclear installation and facilities
was signed in 1988 between which two countries?

A. US and USSR
B. USSR and China
C. India and Pakistan
D. India and USSR

Correct Answer: C
Question 117 : From which Indian organization, the four personnel have been selected for training in
Russia for the Gaganyaan Mission, that is going to be launched in 2022?

A. ISRO
B. IAF
C. MARCOS
D. Indian Navy

Correct Answer: A
Question 118 : Who will launch the “Earthshot Prize” to motivate new solution to tackle climate crisis?

A. Duke of Cambrige
B. Queen Elizabeth II
C. Duke of Sussex
D. Prince of Wales

Correct Answer: A
Question 119 : Who will be the head of the recently cretaedSainya Karta Vibhag?

A. Prime Minister
B. Defence Minister
C. Finance Minister
D. Chief of Defence Staff

Correct Answer: D
Question 120 : Which nation has recently banned the ‘reef toxic’ sunscreen?

A. Australia
B. New Zealand
C. Palau
D. Nauru

Correct Answer: C