Advance Test-2 (29-06-20) PDF

PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A 1 0 0 12 0 0 0 3
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I REVIEW TEST # 02 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022 Date : 29- 06- 2020
TIME : 3 HOURS Maximum Marks : 186

PAPER -1
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do
so by the invigilator.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the bottom page corner of this sheet.
3. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
5. Write your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 22 pages and all the 18 questions in each subject
and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of
each section.
B. Filling the ORS :

9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
10. Write all information and sign in the box provied on part of the ORS (Page No. 1).
C. Question Paper Formate :

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
11. SECTION – I
(i) Contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
(ii) Contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
12. Section-II contains 5 questions The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive)
Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
CDG/2001CJA100120003
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022/29-06-2020
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

A to m ic No . H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
At o m ic m a sse s : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 0
Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
Permittivity of vacuum = 2
0c
0
Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
2/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
Nurture Course/Phase-I/29-06-2020/Paper-1
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION–I(i) : (Maximum Marks : 15)
This section contains FIVEquestions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. Momentum of a body moving in a straight line is p = (t2 + 2t+1) kg m/s. What force is acting on the body
at t = 2 s ? (force is rate of change of momentum wrt time)
(A) 6 N (B) 8 N (C) 4 N (D) 2N
2. Resultant of two vectors of magnitude 7 and 8 can not be
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 1 (D) 0
3. An object is released from rest and falls freely under gravity with uniform acceleration. It covers a
distance h during the first second of time. How far will it fall during the next second of time?
(A) h (B) 2 h (C) 3 h (D) 4 h
Space for Rough Work
CDG/2001CJA100120003 3/22
4. A deer escapes from a leopard and runs aways in straight line with constant velocity. The leopard again
PHYSICS
starts chasing the deer, when the deer has ran a distance 64 m. The leopard starts with initial speed
30 m/s but due to fatigue it has to reduce its speed and it does so by reducing speed uniformly by 4m/s
every 2 s. At what minimum speed must the deer run to escape away from the leopard ?
(A) 6 m/s (B) 15.5 m/s (C) 14 m/s (D) 1 m/s
5. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continues at constant speed
f
for time t and then decelerates at the rate to come to rest. If the total distance travelled is 15 S, then:
2
1 2 1 2 1 2
(A) S = ft (B) S = ft (C) S = 72
ft (D) S = ft
6 4
4/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 32)
PHYSICS
This section contains EIGHT questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark
will be awarded.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, Provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will
result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
y
6. x
a b c d
dy
is zero
dx
(A) At x = a (B) At x = b (C) At x = c (D) At x = d
7. A particle is moving along x-axis. Position of particle as a function of time is given by x = t2 – t + 1.
Here x is in meters and t is in seconds.
(A) Velocity of particle at any time t is given by v = 2t – 1
(B)Velocity of particle at any time t is given by v = t2 + 1
(C) Acceleration of particle is a = 2 m/s2
(D) Acceleration of particle is a = 1 m/s2
CDG/2001CJA100120003 5/22
d(sin t)
PHYSICS
8. sin tdt can be

dt
(A) 2cost (B) sint+cost (C) 0 (D) 2

9. Position- time graph of particle is as shown. Choose correct options.
x(m)
4 8 16 (s)
t
(A) Velocity of particle at t = 3s is 2m/s (B) Velocity of particle at t= 9s is –1m/s

(C) Acceleration of particle of t = 2s is zero (D) Acceleration of particle at t = 2s is non-zero.
10. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity u from a point O . When it returns to the
point of projection :
(A) its average velocity is zero (B) its displacement is zero
(C) its average speed is u/2 (D) its average speed is u
6/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
11. Which of the following speed-time graphs is not possible :
PHYSICS
v v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)

t t t t
12. If an unit vector aiˆ bjˆ is perpendicular to ˆi ˆj then value of a and b are
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) , (B) ,– (C) – ,– (D) Can't be determined
2 2 2 2 2 2
13. A particle is moving along x-axis. Position of particle is given by x = 2t2. Here x is measured in meters
and time t is measured is seconds.
(A) Acceleration of particle is 4 m/s2 (B) Acceleration of particle is 2 m/s2
(C) Initial velocity of particle is Zero (D) Initial velocity of particle is 2 m/s2
CDG/2001CJA100120003 7/22
SECTION – II : (Maximum Marks : 15)
PHYSICS
This section contains FIVE questions.

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
t 3 3t 2
1. The displacement of a particle moving a straight line is given as function of time as s = 2t ,
3 2
s is in m and t is in sec. The particle comes to momentary rest n times. Find the value of n.
2. Particle is moving on the straight path accoding to the given velocity-time graph, if the acceleration of
the particle is n , find the value of n
v (m/s)
60°
t (sec.)
dy
3. If y = 2x2 then at x = 1
dx
1
4. Find 2x dx
0
5. A hall has the dimensions 1 m × 2 m × 2m. A fly starting at one corner ends up at a diametrically
opposite corner. The magnitude of its displacement is (in m)
8/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
CHEMISTRY
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
1. Calculate the ratio of energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 6000Å wave length
radiation.
1 1
(A) 3 (B) (C) 2 (D)
3 2
2. An electromagnetic radiation with v = 5 × 1015 Hz is travelling in vacuum. How much time will it take
to cover a distance of 6 m ?
(A) 2 × 10–16 sec (B) 2 × 10–8 sec (C) 3 × 10–6 sec (D) 3 × 10–8 sec
3. Calculate the radius of nucleus of an atom having atomic mass number equal to 64.
(Take R0 = 1.3 × 10–15 m)
(A) 1.04 × 10–14 m (B) 1.3 × 10–15 m (C) 2.6 × 10–15 m (D) 5.2 × 10–15 m
CDG/2001CJA100120003 9/22
e
CHEMISTRY
4. Calculate the ratio of value for -particle to proton.
m
1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 4
4 2
5. Calculate the theshold frequency for metal M. Which when used in photoelectric effect experiment gives
the following graph between kinetic energy (max.) of photoelectron and frequency of incident radiation.
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
K.E.max
0 r
–13.26 × 10–20 J
(A) 13.26 × 10–20 Hz (B) 2 × 1014 Hz (C) 2 × 1014 Hz (D) 6.63 × 10–34 Hz
10/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
CHEMISTRY
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
6. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited
by monochromatic light of energy 12.09 eV. The possible spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atoms
according to Bohr's theory will be
(A) n = 3 to n = 1 (B) n = 3 to n = 2 (C)n = 2 to n = 1 (D) n = 4 to n = 1
7. Which of the following parameters are not same for all hydrogen like atoms and ions in their ground
state ?
(A)Radius of orbit (B) Speed of electron
(C) Energy of the electron (D) Orbital angular momentum of electron
CDG/2001CJA100120003 11/22
8. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of a proton and -particles will be 1 : 2 if their:
CHEMISTRY
(A) Velocity are in the ratio 1 : 8 (B) Velocity are in the ratio 8 : 1
(C) Kinetic energy are in the ratio 16:1 (D) Kinetic energy are in the ratio 1:16
9. The uncertainity in measurement of momentum is four times the uncertainity in measurement of position.
Choose the correct statement.
1 h 1 h
(A) The uncertainity in position is = . (B) The uncertainity in momentum is = .
4 2
h 1 h
(C) The uncertainity in momentum is = . (D) The uncertainity in velocity is = .
2m
10. As an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit in Be3+ ion, its
(A) K.E. increases (B) Speed increases
(C) Frequency of revolution increaes (D) P.E. decreases
12/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
11. A green bulb and a red bulb are emitting the radiations with equal power. Which of the following
CHEMISTRY
statements is/are correct ?
(A) Number of photons per second emitted by red bulb will be greater than green bulb.
(B) Number of photons per second emitted by green bulb will be greater than red bulb.
(C) Number of photons per second emitted by red bulb and green bulb will be equal.
(D) The wavelength of photon of red bulb will be greater than green bulb.
12. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have greater frequency than infrared radiation ?
(A) UV radiation (B) Visible radiation (C) Radio wave (D) Microwave
13. The following charged particles accelarated from rest, through the same potential difference, are projected
towards gold nucleus in different experiments.
, p, He+, Li2+
Which of the following particles have same distance of closest approach ?
(A) -particle (B) proton(p) (C) He+ ion (D) Li2+ ion
CDG/2001CJA100120003 13/22
SECTION – II : (Maximum Marks : 15)
CHEMISTRY
1. The energy of separation of an electron is 30.6 eV moving in an orbit of Li+2. Find out the number
of waves made by the electron in one complete revolution in the orbit.
2. Calculate the maximum kinetic eneargy of electron (in eV) ejected from platinum surface when radiation
of 155 nm falls on it. Work function of platinum is 5 eV. (Given: hc = 1240 eV nm)
3. The work function ( ) of some metals is listed below. The number of metals which will show photoelectric
effect when light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is
(Given : hc = 12040 eV nm)
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag Fe Pt W
(eV) 2.4 2.3 2.2 3.7 4.8 4.3 4.7 6.3 4.75
4. If uncertainity in momentum is within 3.313% for a tennis ball weighing 100 g and moving with
33
a 10
a velocity of 10 m/s. The uncertainity in position comes out to be m . Calculate ‘a’.
[h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js]

5. The circumference of the second orbit of an atom or ion having single electron, is 4 nm. The de-
Broglie wavelength of electron (in nm) revolving in this orbit is-
14/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
MATHEMATICS
PART-III : MATHEMATICS
a 1
1. If tanA = , and tanB = (a 0) then A + B equals to :-
a 1 2a 1
(A) 0 (B) /4 (C) /3 (D) /2
2. log22 + log24 + log28 + ........ + log21024 simplifies to
(A) a composite number (B) a prime number
(C) rational which is not an integer (D) irrational number
CDG/2001CJA100120003 15/22
MATHEMATICS
3. A quadratic equation with rational coefficients one of whose roots is tan is -
12
2 2 2 2
(A) x – 2x + 1 = 0 (B) x – 2x + 4 = 0 (C) x – 4x + 1 = 0 (D) x – 4x – 1 = 0
2
4. Graph of y = ax + bx + c = 0 is given adjacently. Which of following is not correct in given graph.
y
O x
Vertex
2
(A) a > 0 (B) b > 0 (C) c < 0 (D) b – 4ac > 0
5. Which one of the inequalities below is true?
(A) sin 1 < sin 2 < sin 3 (B) sin 3 < sin 2 < sin 1
(C) sin 2 < sin 1 < sin 3 (D) sin 3 < sin 1 < sin 2
16/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
MATHEMATICS
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
6. If tanA + tanB + tanC = tanA · tanB · tanC and sin2A + sin2B + sin2C = 4sinA · sinB · sinC then, which
of the following may be true
(A) A+ B + C = (B) A+ B + C = (C) A+ B + C = (D) A+ B + C =
7. For the equation |x|2 + |x| – 6 = 0, the correct statement (s) is (are) :
(A) sum of roots is 0 (B) product of roots is – 4
(C) there are 4 roots (D) there are only 2 roots
x 2 2x 1
8. The expression lies in the interval [a, b) ; (x R) then -
x 2 2x 7
(A) a + b = 1 (B) b – a = 1 (C) a + b = 2 (D) a + b = 6
CDG/2001CJA100120003 17/22
MATHEMATICS
9. If b > a then the equation (x –a) (x – b) –1= 0 has
(A) Both root in [a, b] (B) one root in ( ,a) (C) both roots in ( ,a) (D) one root in (b, )
10. If x = log35 & y = log1325, then which of the following is/are true -
(A) x < y (B) 1 < y < 2 (C) x > y (D) 2x = 3y
sin 2x sin 4x sin 6x

11. The value of at x , is greater than
cos 2x cos 4x cos6x 16
3
(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D)
2
18/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
MATHEMATICS
12. If a, b are non-zero real numbers and , the roots of x2 + ax + b = 0, then
2 2
(A) , are the roots of x 2 – (2b – a2) x + a2 = 0
1 1
(B) , are the roots of bx2 + ax + 1 = 0
(C) , are the roots of bx2 + (2b – a2) x + b = 0
(D) ( – 1), ( – 1) are the roots of the equation x2 + x (a + 2) + 1 + a + b = 0
1 t
13. If sin t + cos t = then tan is equal to:
5 2
1 1
(A) 1 (B) – (C) 2 (D) –
3 6
CDG/2001CJA100120003 19/22
MATHEMATICS SECTION – II : (Maximum Marks : 15)
1. The value of – log 2 3

3 2 is
2. If one root of equation x2 + bx + 12 = 0 is 4, while equation x2 + bx + q = 0 has equal roots then value
49
of q is where K is _____
K
3. If there are infinite values of x satisfying x 3 x 4 = k then possible number of integral values
of k is/are
b c c a a b
x y z
4. If logex – logey = a , logey – logez = b & logez – logex = c, then find the value of
y z x
5. If the equations k (6x2 + 3) + rx + 2x2 – 1 = 0 and 6k (2x2 + 1) + px + 4x2 – 2 = 0 have both roots
common, then the value of (2r – p) is
20/22 CDG/2001CJA100120003
CDG/2001CJA100120003 21/22
D. Marking scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
14. For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
option is darkened.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in
+4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in –2 marks,
as a wrong option is also darkened.
15. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only
the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this section.
16. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated
a The one and the only acceptable
a Part darkening
a a Darkening the rim

Answer will not be evaluated -
a Cancelling after darkening no marks, no negative marks
a Erasing after darkening
Figure-1 : Correct way of bubbling for valid answer and a few examplex of invalid answers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid
1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct Way of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)
Name of the Candidate Form Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
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+91-744-2436001 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in
22/22 Your Target is to Secure Good Rank in JEE 2022 CDG/2001CJA100120003

PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A 1 0 0 12 0 0 0 4
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I REVIEW TEST # 02 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022 Date : 29- 06- 2020
TIME : 3 HOURS Maximum Marks : 186

PAPER -2
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do
so by the invigilator.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the bottom page corner of this sheet.
3. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
5. Write your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 26 pages and all the 18 questions in each subject
and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of
each section.
B. Filling the ORS :

9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
10. Write all information and sign in the box provied on part of the ORS (Page No. 1).
C. Question Paper Formate :

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
11. SECTION – I
(i) Contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
(ii) Contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
(iii) contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, date etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with tw o questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has
ONLY ONE correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
CDG/2001CJA100120004
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

A to m ic No . H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
At o m ic m a sse s : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 0
Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
Permittivity of vacuum = 2
0c
0
Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
2/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
PHYSICS
PART-I : PHYSICS
This section contains SIX questions.
1. A ball projected vertically upward, returns back after 14sec. of projection. Find the maximum attained
during subsequent motion.
(A) 245m (B) 980m (C) 595m (D) 745m
2. A body starting from rest accelerates uniformly at 4m/s2 The distance covered by it in 3rd second of its
motion is
(A) 10m (B) 18m (C) 8m (D) 12m
3. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by dv 2.5 v where v is the
dt
instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
CDG/2001CJA100120004 3/26
4. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the
PHYSICS
particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel before coming to rest :-
(A) 24 m (B) 40 m (C) 56 m (D) 16 m
5. Starting from rest the acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t-1). The velocity of the particle at t=5 s is:-
(A) 15 m/s (B) 25 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) None of these
6. Consider velocity - time graph as shown.
velocity
10
4 8
2 time
–10
What is distance covered in total motion ?

(A) 40 m (B) 20 m (C) 80 m (D) 60 m
4/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
PHYSICS
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
7. A ball droped from 80m high building. Choose correct options.
(A) Ball reach ground after 2s (B) Ball reach ground after 4s
(C) Ball hit ground with 20m/s (D) Ball hit ground with 40m/s
8. A ball crosses same height at t = 1s and t = 3s. Choose correct option.
(A) Total time of flight is 4s (B) Total time of flight is 2s
(C) Projection speed is 40m/s (D) Projection speed is 20m/s
CDG/2001CJA100120004 5/26
9. A car start moving from rest with acceleration 2m/s2. Choose correct options.
PHYSICS
( A) After l second, speed of car is 2m/s (B) Car will cover 4m in 3s.
(C) Car will cover 4m in 2s (D) Car attain 3m/s speed after l second
10. A ball is thrown up from a tower with speed l0m/s, reaches the ground in 4 second. Choose options
(Take g = 10m/s2)
(A) Height of tower is 20m (B) Height of tower is 40m
(C) Distance travelled upto 3 second is 15m (D) Distance travelled upto 3 second is 25m
11. Which of the following equations have constant acceleration ?
(A) v = 3t (B) x = 4t2 + 3t (C) v = 4 x (D) t = x

6/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
12. A balloon is going up with constant velocity l0m/s. It drop a packet. Choose correct options for packet
PHYSICS
just after drop.
(A)Intial speed of packet is zero. (B) Intial speed of packet is l0m/s
(C) Intial acceleration of packet is zero after drop. (D) Acceleration a = –g of packet after drop.
13. The position -time(x-t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their homes P
and Q respectively are shown in figure. Choose the correct (s) answers
x
Q
P
A B
t
O
(A) A lives closer to the school than B (B) A starts from the school at earlier than B
(C) A move faster than B (D) A and B reach home at same time.
CDG/2001CJA100120004 7/26
14. Mark the correct statements for a particle going on a straight line (x–position coordinate, v–velocity,
PHYSICS
a–acceleration) :
(A) If the v and a have opposite sign, the object is slowing down.
(B) If the x and v have opposite sign, the particle is moving towards the origin.
(C) If the v is zero at an instant, then a should also be zero at that instant.
(D) If the v is zero for a time interval, then a is zero at any instant within the time interval.
8/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
SECTION-i (iii) : Paragraph Type (Maximum Marks: 12)
PHYSICS
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions related
to two paragraphs and two queston each paragraph .
Paragraph for Question no. 15 and 16
Diagonals of parallelogram represent addition and substration of side vectors. Answer following the
questions.
15. If A B A B , what is angle between A and B ?
(A) 0º (B) 180º (C) 90º (D) 60º
A
16. If A B is perpendicular to A B , then find B ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

CDG/2001CJA100120004 9/26
PHYSICS Paragraph for Question no. 17 and 18
v
A car is moving on a straight road. The velocity of the car varies (m/s)
with time as shown in the figure. Initially (at t = 0), the car was 8
at x = 0, where, x is the position of the car at any time 't'. 4
60 70
0 t
10 20 30 50 (second)
17. The variation of acceleration (a) with time (t) will be best represented –4
by :
a
a
(A) (B) t
10 20 30 50 60 70
t
10 20 30 60 70
a a
(C) 70 (D)
t t
10 20 30 10 20 30 60 70
18. The displacement time graph will be best represented by :
x(m) x(m)
x(m)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

t(s) (s) t(s)
10 20 30 60 70 10 20 30 60 70 10 20 30 60 70
10/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY
1. In an oil drop experiment, the following charges (in arbitrary units) were found on a series of oil droplets:
4.5 × 10–18 , 3.0 × 10–18 , 6.0 × 10–18, 7.5 × 10–18 , 9.0 × 10–18 . The charge on electron (in the same
unit) should be
(A) 3.0 × 10–18 (B) 9.0 × 10–18 (C) 1.5 × 10–18 (D) 1.6 × 10–19
2. The potential difference between cathode and anode in a cathode ray tube is V. The speed acquired by
the electrons is proportional to
(A) V (B) V (C) V2 (D) 1/ V
3. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 66 g moving with the velocity of 10 metre per second
is approximately :
(A) 10–35 metres (B) 10–33 metres (C) 10–31 metres (D) 10–36 metres
CDG/2001CJA100120004 11/26
4 -particles are projected towards the nucleus of following metals, with the same kinetic energy. Towards
CHEMISTRY
which metal, the distance of closest approach will be minimum ?

(A) Cu(Z =29) (B) Ag(Z=47) (C) Au(Z=79) (D) Ca=(Z=20)
5. Radiations of frequency, v, are incident on a photosensitive metal. The maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons is E. When the frequency of the incident radiations is doubled, what is the maximum
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ?
(A) 2E (B) E/2 (C) E + hv (D) E – hv
6. If the radius of the first Bohr orbit of the H atom is ‘r’ then for the Li2+ ion it will be
(A) 3 r (B) 9 r (C) r/3 (D) r/9
12/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
CHEMISTRY
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
7. Rutherford’s scattering experiment led to the conclusion that
(A) Nucleus is very small in size
(B) Atoms of all elements consist of electrons
(C) Most of the the space in the atom is empty
(D) Nucleus carries whole positive charge of atom.
CDG/2001CJA100120004 13/26
8. If the wave number of 1st line of Balmer series of H-atom is ‘x’ then :
CHEMISTRY
108x
(A) Wave number of 1st line of Lyman series of the He+ ion will be .
5
36x
(B) Wave numberof 1st line of Lyman series of the He+ ion will be .
5
5
(C) The wave length of 2nd line of Lyman series of H-atom is .
32x
32x
(D) The wave length of 2nd line of Lyman series of H-atom is .
5
9. In a H-like sample electrons make transition from 4th excited state to 2nd state than-
(A) 10 different spectral lines are observed
(B) 6 different spectral lines are observed
(C) Number of lines belonging to the Balmer series is 3.
(D) Number of lines belonging to Paschen series is 2.
14/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
10. According to Bohr’s theory :
CHEMISTRY
En = Total energy
Kn = Kinetic energy
Vn = Potential energy
rn = Radius of nth orbit
Which of the following is/are correct ?
Vn 1 1 Vn
(A) K 2 (B) Zy ; y 1 (C) Zy ; y 1 (D) E 2
n rn rn n
11. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because :

(A) There is a minimum frequency below which no photoelectrons are emitted
(B) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons depends only on the intensity of light not on
its frequency
(C) Even when metal surface is faintly illuminated with suitable energy photons the photoelectrons leave
the surface immediately
(D) Electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantised.
CDG/2001CJA100120004 15/26
12. Which of the following phenomena can not be explained by using electromagnetic wave theory ?
CHEMISTRY
(A) Interference (B) Photoelectric effect

(C) Black body radiations (D) Hydrogen spectrum
13. The frequency of certain line of the Lyman series (n2 = 4 to n1 =1) of the atomic spectrum of hydrogen
can satisfy the following conditions :
(A) It is the sum of the frequencies of a Lyman line and a Balmer line.
(B) It is the sum of the frequencies of a certain Lyman line, a Balmer line and a Brackett line.
(C) It is the sum of the frequencies of a Lyman line, a Balmer line and a Paschen line.
(D) It is the sum of the frequencies of a Lyman and a Paschen line.
14. Bohr’s theory is not applicable to -
(A) He (B) Li2+ (C) He2+ (D) the H-atom
16/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Quesiton no. 15 and 16
Werner Heisenberg considered the limits of how precisely we can measure the properties of an electron
or other microscopic particle. He determined that dicre is a fundamental limit to how closely we can
measure both position and momentum. The more accurately we measure the momentum of a particle,
the less accurately we can determine its position. The converse is also true. This is summed up in what
we now call the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
h
The equation is x. (mv)
4
The uncertainty in the position or in the momentum of a macroscopic object like a baseball is too small
to observe. However, the mass of microscopic object such as an electron is small enough for the
uncertainty to be relatively large and significant.
15. If the uncertainties in position and momentum are equal, the uncertainty in the velocity is :
h h 1 h
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 2m
16. If the uncertainty in velocity and position is same, then the uncertainty in momentum will be :
hm h h 1 h
(A) (B) m (C) (D)
4 4 4 m m 4
CDG/2001CJA100120004 17/26
Paragraph for Quesiton no. 17 and 18
CHEMISTRY
The French physicist Louis de Broglie in 1924 postulated that matter, like radiation should a dual behaviour.
He proposed the following relationship between the wavelength of a matenal particle, its linear
momentum p and planck constant h.
h h
p mv
The de Broglie relation implies that the wavelength of a particle should decrease as its velocity increases.
It also implies that for a given velocity heavier particles should have shorter wavelength.
The waves associated with particles in motion are called matter waves or de Broglie waves. These waves
differ from the electromagnetic waves as they
(i) have lower velocities
(ii) have no electrical and magnetic fields and
(iii) are not emitted by the particle under consideration
The experimental confirmation of the de Broglies relation was obtained when Davisson and Germer,
in 1927, observed that a beam of electrons is diffracted by a nickel crystal. As diffraction a charactensfcc
property of waves, hence the beam of electron behaves as a wave, as proposed by de brogue.
17. If proton, electron and a-parlicle are moving with same kinetic energy then the order of their de-Broglie's
wavelength.
(A) P
> e
> (B) > P
> e
(C) < P
< e
(D) e
= P
<
18. Using Bohr's theory, the transition, so that the electrons de-Broglie wavelength becomes 3 times of its
original value in He+ ion will be
(A) 2 6 (B) 2 4 (C) 1 4 (D) 1 6

18/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
MATHEMATICS
PART-III : MATHEMATICS
2013 3x
1. Number of integral values of x for which log 1 x 2
is defined, is/are
3
(A) 670 (B) 671 (C) 672 (D) 673
2. Let and x then value of x4 –32x + 25 can be
(A) 23 (B) 105 (C) 41 (D) 64
tan
3. If sin = 2sin then 2 is equal to
tan
2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

CDG/2001CJA100120004 19/26
MATHEMATICS
2 4 6
4. The value of cos cos cos is -
7 7 7
(A) –1/2 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/8
5. If are acute positive angles such that (tan2 –3)x2 + (sec3 –8)x + (2sin2 + 5sin –3)=0 is an
identity in x, then ( is equal to
5 5 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 3 3
6. Let are roots of the equation x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 then is equal to
(A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 25
20/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
MATHEMATICS
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
7. For x [0,3] , y = x2 – 5x + 3 has
(A) Least value = –3 (B) Greatest value = 3
13
(C) Least value (D) Greatest value = 5
4
x2 x 2
8. For y , which of the following is/are correct ?
x2 x 1
(A) No. of integers in the range is 1 (B) No. of integers in the range is 2
7
(C) Maximum value of y is (D) Minimum value of y is 1
3
9. Which of the following is/are correct ?
5 1 5 1
(A) sin 54 (B) sin18º
4 4
1
(C) max value of 3sinx +2cosx is 13 (D) 4 sin10º sin50º sin70º
2
CDG/2001CJA100120004 21/26
MATHEMATICS
10. cosec10º – 3 sec10º = , where and HCF ( )=1, then
(A) =5 (B) =3 (C) =4 (D)

1
log8 a
11. If 3log3 7 7 8
log.3 (3) , a, b N, HCF(a, b) 1 then
b
(A) a + b = 50 (B) a – b = 36 (C) a = 43 (D) b = 9
4x 6 3
12. If the complete solution set of the inequality log1/ 5 0 is a, , where a , c N then
x c
(A) a= 2 (B) c = 3 (C) ac = 4 (D) a + c = 4

13. If one of the roots of x2 – bx + c = 0, b, c Q is 2 3 then -
(A) logbc = 0 (B) b + c = 5 (C) logcb = 0 (D) bc = –4
14. The value of 3log 4 5
4log5 3 5log 4 3 3log5 4 is -
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) none of these
22/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
MATHEMATICS
Consider two quadratic trinomials f(x) = x2 –2ax + a2 –1 and g(x) = (4b –b2 –5)x2 – (2b –1)x +3b,
where a, b R
15. The value of a for which both roots of the equation f(x) = 0 are greater than –2 but less than 4, lie
in the interval
(A) – < a < –3 (B) –2 < a < 0 (C) –1< a < 3 (D) 5 < a <
16. If '1' lies between the roots of g(x) = 0, then number of integral values of b is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
CDG/2001CJA100120004 23/26
MATHEMATICS
2
Consider the equation 2log 3 x 2 log3 x 4 0
17. Number of solutions of the equation is/are

(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
18. Equation has
(A) One rational and one irrational solution (B) 2 irrational solutions
(C) Only one real solution (D) All solutions irrational
24/26 CDG/2001CJA100120004
CDG/2001CJA100120004 25/26
D. Marking scheme :
12. For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
13. For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
option is darkened.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in
+4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in –2 marks,
as a wrong option is also darkened.
14. For each question in Section-I(iii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to
only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this section.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated
a The one and the only acceptable
a Part darkening
a a Darkening the rim

Answer will not be evaluated -
a Cancelling after darkening no marks, no negative marks
a Erasing after darkening
Figure-1 : Correct way of bubbling for valid answer and a few examplex of invalid answers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid
1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct Way of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)
Name of the Candidate Form Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in
26/26 Your Target is to Secure Good Rank in JEE 2022 CDG/2001CJA100120004

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PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A 1 0 0 12 0 0 0 3

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I REVIEW TEST # 02 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TIME : 3 HOURS Maximum Marks : 186

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS :

C. Question Paper Formate :

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

8. sin tdt can be

(A) 2cost (B) sint+cost (C) 0 (D) 2

(A) Velocity of particle at t = 3s is 2m/s (B) Velocity of particle at t= 9s is –1m/s

(A) (B) (C) (D)

This section contains FIVE questions.

the particle is n , find the value of n

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

[h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js]

sin 2x sin 4x sin 6x

(C) , are the roots of bx2 + (2b – a2) x + b = 0

(D) ( – 1), ( – 1) are the roots of the equation x2 + x (a + 2) + 1 + a + b = 0

1. The value of – log 2 3

a The one and the only acceptable

a a Darkening the rim

a Erasing after darkening

Name of the Candidate Form Number

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

22/22 Your Target is to Secure Good Rank in JEE 2022 CDG/2001CJA100120003

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I REVIEW TEST # 02 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TIME : 3 HOURS Maximum Marks : 186

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS :

C. Question Paper Formate :

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

What is distance covered in total motion ?

(A) v = 3t (B) x = 4t2 + 3t (C) v = 4 x (D) t = x

15. If A B A B , what is angle between A and B ?

(A) 0º (B) 180º (C) 90º (D) 60º

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

18. The displacement time graph will be best represented by :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for Rough Work

which metal, the distance of closest approach will be minimum ?

(A) 2E (B) E/2 (C) E + hv (D) E – hv

11. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because :

(A) Interference (B) Photoelectric effect

(A) 2 6 (B) 2 4 (C) 1 4 (D) 1 6

(A) 670 (B) 671 (C) 672 (D) 673

2. Let and x then value of x4 –32x + 25 can be

(A) 23 (B) 105 (C) 41 (D) 64

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

10. cosec10º – 3 sec10º = , where and HCF ( )=1, then

(A) =5 (B) =3 (C) =4 (D)

(A) a= 2 (B) c = 3 (C) ac = 4 (D) a + c = 4

17. Number of solutions of the equation is/are