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Analysis
Spring 2017
Norwegian University of Science and
Technology Exercise set 5 solution
Department of Mathematical
Sciences
au 00 + bu 0 + cu = f ,
taken in the limit h → 0. (Strictly speaking, this definition of f makes sense only when
considering it as a regular distribution, i.e. it can only be applied within an integral, but we
shall not dig deeper into the details of this here). We begin by taking the Fourier transform
of both sides of the ODE. Since F (y 0 ) = i λF (y), we get
−aλ2 û + i bλû + c û = fˆ
To find fˆ(λ), we use the definition of the Fourier transform and take the limit as h → 0:
Z∞
f0
fˆ(λ) = p f (t )e −i λt dt
2π
−∞
Zh
f0 1 −i λt
= lim p e dt
h→0 2π 2h
−h
f0 −1 −i λt h
· ¸
= lim p e
h→0 2π 2i hλ −h
f0 sin(λh)
=p lim
2πλ h→0 h
f0
=p λ
2πλ
f0
=p .
2π
Thus, we have
f0
µ ¶
1
û(λ) = p .
2π −aλ2 + i bλ + c
p
b 4ac−b 2
where µ = 2a and ω = 2a . We can then factorize and split the polynomial into partial
fractions to find
f0
µ ¶
1 1
û(λ) = p − .
2π2ωa −λ + ω + i µ −λ − ω + i µ
We could now use the inverse Fourier transform directly, which would require a contour
integral. However, it is easier to consult a table of Fourier transforms (keeping in mind that
tables may use different conventions for the 2π factor(s) in the transform) and find that if
e −βt e i γt , t ≥ 0
(
g (t ) =
0, t < 0,
then
1 i
ĝ (λ) = p .
2π −λ + γ + i β
We can thus recognise that
e i ωt −e −i ωt
³ ´
( f 0 −µt
2ωa e i , t ≥0
u(t ) =
0, t < 0,
that is,
f 0 −µt
(
ωa e sin(ωt ), t ≥ 0
u(t ) =
0, t < 0.
3 B&N: 3.11 Let us consider the hint given in the exercise first. We want to show that there
can be no solution z with |z| = 1 to the quadratic equation
az 2 + βz + γ = 0, (1)
0 = az + β + γz
= az + β + az − bhz
= (2a − bh)Re(z) + β + i bhIm(z).
We must have equality for the real and imaginary part of this equation. Since a, b, c, h ∈ R,
we also have β ∈ R. Thus, the imaginary part gives Im(z) = 0 since b, h > 0, i.e. z = Re(z) ∈ R,
and so the problem reduces to
(2a − bh)z + β = 0.
Since |z| = 1, we must have z = 1 or z = −1. With z = 1, the above equation reduces to
ch 2 = 0, which is impossible. In the case z = −1, we need to have
bh − 2a + β = ch 2 + 2bh − 4a = 0.
This does seem to be possible; for some given b, c, h > 0 we can choose a to satisfy the
equality. Or, in other terms, given a, b, c > 0, z = −1 is a solution if one uses a step length h
satisfying the quadratic equation
ch 2 + 2bh − 4a = 0.
If one avoids this step length, there is no solution to (1) with |z| = 1. Now, what we want to
show is that
aw j + β + γw j 6= 0.
a(w j )2 + βw j + γ 6= 0.
4 B&N: 3.12 Taking the DFT of both sides of equation (3.11) we find that
Next, we use the shift property of the DFT ( ŷ j +1 = w j ŷ k ), and the fact that w −1 = w to find
aw k ŷ k + β ŷ k + γw k ŷ k = h 2 fˆk ,
that is,
fˆk
ŷ k = h 2 .
aw k + β + γw k