PEDIATRICS 1

Physician’s Licensure Examination

DATE

1. Your friend had her first child a year ago. The parent is very affectionate, and asks you:
“When will my child kiss me back with puckered lips?” You tell your friend that the
behavior is expected at:
a. 15 months
b. 18 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

2. A 14 year old boy goes to the clinic due to breast pain. Pertinent findings include exquisite
tenderness of the breasts but revealed no mass, discharge, nor skin changes. What will you
tell the patient?
a. Have a breast ultrasound done.
b. You will refer him to an expert on breast cancer.
c. He is undergoing normal pubertal changes.
d. Have breast mammography done.

3. An 8 year-old was brought to your clinic as a referral from school. The teacher noted that
he has trouble finishing tasks and is easily distracted. He is very talkative, often blurting
out answers. He cannot sit still, and has difficulty waiting his turn. His mother noticed the
same behavior at home. She also reports that he often losses things. Short of a full
developmental assessment, you suspect that the child has:
a. Autism
b. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. Asperger syndrome
d. Childhood disintegrative behavior

4. A 5 year old child who has been following up at your clinic has been noted to have
deterioration in terms of behavior. He has lost bladder and bowel control. His speech
deteriorated. He is no longer able to play with other children, and seemed to have
“regressed”. He displays stereotypical motor behavior. Previously, he had normal
development and reached normal milestones. The likely diagnosis is:
a. Autism
b. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. Asperger syndrome
d. Childhood disintegrative behavior

5. Several hours after birth, a newborn developed swelling over the parietal area. There was
no discoloration of the overlying skin, and it did not cross any suture line. The patient has:
a. Caput succedaneum
b. Craniotabes
c. Cephalhematoma
d. Molding

6. Most children will attain 20/20 vision by what age?

a. 3-4 years
b. 5-6 years
c. 7-8 years
d. 9-10 years

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PEDIATRICS 2
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

7. A mother was shocked to see bald patches on her daughters scalp. She immediately
brought the child to your clinic for consult. You examine the child and conclude that she
has alopecia areata. In the back of your mind, the differential diagnoses include the
following EXCEPT:
a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Trichotillomania
c. Tinea capitis
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

8. Deficiency in which of the following will produce lassitude, edema, muscle loss,
inadequate growth and increased susceptibility to infections?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. Water

9. A child was brought to you due to pallor. Complete blood count and smear showed
microcytic, hypochromic anemia. You treat him with ferrous sulfate 6mg/kg daily for a
month. Repeat CBC and smear showed normal findings. When will you stop giving
therapeutic doses of ferrous sulfate?
a. After another 2 weeks of treatment
b. After another 4 weeks of treatment
c. After another 6 weeks of treatment
d. After another 8 weeks of treatment

10. A neighbor shows you her month-old baby for consult. She tells you that the baby is
sluggish, does not feed well, and is constipated. You note that she is jaundiced, with a
glazed look, enlarged abdomen, umbilical hernia, & mottled skin. Which of the following
laboratory exams will you prioritize to help you with your diagnosis?
a. Chest x-ray
a. Lumbar tap
b. Serum T3, T4, TSH
c. Serum Na, K, Ca

11. Low birth weight infants weigh less than___ grams.

a. 1000
b. 2500
c. 2000
d. 1500
12. You note that a newborn baby boy’s prepuce can be retracted but cannot be returned back.
He has:
a. Hypospadias
b. Phimosis
c. Chordee
d. Paraphimosis

13. A neonate with heart rate over 100/ minute, slow irregular breathing, some flexion of the
extremities, grimace, pink body but blue extremities has an APGAR score of___ at 1
minute.
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9

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PEDIATRICS 3
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

14. A mother brings in her 8month old baby for immunization. Which of the following can you
give the baby?
a. Measles vaccine
b. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine
c. Varicella vaccine
d. Hepatitis B booster

15. Which vaccine is particularly important for food handlers to have?

a. Rabies vaccine
b. Typhoid vaccine
c. MMR vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine

16. A 2 year old child had Kawasaki disease. He was given IVIg on October 1, 2007. He has
not had his measles vaccine. The mother wants to get free measles immunization from the
DOH program on October 15- November 15, 2007. You tell the mom that he cannot have
his immunization yet. When is the earliest time he can have his measles immunization?
a. September 2008
b. October 2008
c. November 2008
d. December 2008

17. Which of the following microbes is related to Peptic ulcers?

a. H. influenzae
b. S. pneumoniae
c. H. pylori
d. S. aureus

18. Aspirin as an antipyretic is avoided in patients with Influenza and Varicella because of the
link to which disease entity?
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Fulminant hepatic failure
c. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
d. Reye syndrome

19. A 5 year old child was brought to the emergency room due to poisoning. She ingested a
bottle of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following antidotes should the ER resident
administer?
a. N-actylcysteine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Deferoxamine
d. Atropine

20. A depressed teenager overdosed on Isoniazid which she was taking for pulmonary
tuberculosis. Which of the following is the antidote?
a. N-actylcysteine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Deferoxamine
d. Atropine

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PEDIATRICS 4
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

21. A child with acrodermatitis enteropathica, poor wound healing, and growth retardation has:
a. Iron deficiency
b. Selenium deficiency
c. Taurine deficiency
d. Zinc deficiency

22. A mother is worried because her 1 year old child passes out stools only once a week. The
consistency and color are normal. The child does not strain to defecate. Physical
examination is likewise normal. What will you tell the mother?
a. Have a fecalysis done.
b. Have an abdominal ultrasound done.
c. Her child has functional constipation.
d. Her child’s stooling is normal.

23. A 12 year old’s upper central incisor got knocked out off the socket. He wants it replanted.
After rinsing the tooth but before getting to the dentist, what should he do?
a. Insert the tooth back into the socket
b. Soak the tooth in cow’s milk
c. Soak the tooth in saline
d. Soak the tooth in tap water with sugar

24. A child was brought to the ER due to intractable nonbilious vomiting. He complained of
severe abdominal pain of sudden onset. The child has abdominal distention and looks
dehydrated. You suspect gut obstruction. The first thing you should do is:
a. Get an abdominal x-ray.
b. Do fluid resuscitation.
c. Get serum electrolytes sample.
d. Send the patient for surgery immediately.

25. The patient above had gastric volvulus. If you had taken an abdominal radiograph, what
would you have seen?
a. Double tract sign
b. Double bubble sign
c. Double fluid level with Beak sign
d. Pneumatosis intestinalis

26. Which of the following is the pathophysiologic mechanism of diarrhea in Cholera?

a. Osmotic
b. Secretory
c. Reduction in anatomic surface
d. Alteration in motility

27. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure against dental caries?
a. Brush teeth after every meal with fluoridated toothpaste
b. Take oral fluoride supplement
c. Make sure drinking water contains fluoride at 1ppm
d. Decrease sugar intake

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PEDIATRICS 5
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

28. A baby was brought to your clinic due to failure to thrive. He had delayed passage of
meconium & chronic constipation. He has abdominal distention, & palpable mass on the
left lower quadrant. The rectal vault was empty but a gush of foul-smelling gas was noted
on rectal examination. Barium enema showed a dilated proximal colon & small caliber
distal colon. Short of a biopsy, your diagnosis is:
a. Intussusception
b. Congenital aganglionic megacolon
c. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
d. Gastric volvulus

29. Which of the following is an indication for tonsillectomy?

a. Prevention of rheumatic fever
b. Middle ear deafness
c. Chronic tonsillar hypertrophy gr III
d. Obstructive sleep apnea

30. Precocious puberty is defined as onset of puberty before age __ years in girls and age 9
years in boys.
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11

31. A known insulin- dependent diabetic comes to your clinic and complains of early morning
hyperglycemia. You suspect brittle diabetes. You measure his 3, 4, & 7 am glucose
concentration. The 3 & 4 am levels are 90& 120mg/dl respectively, while the 7am level is
markedly high. The patient is experiencing:
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Insulin shock
c. Somogyi phenomenon
d. Dawn phenomenon

32. A newborn was brought to the ER for seizures. She was born at home, and a sharpened
bamboo stick was used to cut the cord. The mother did not have prenatal check-up, and her
immunization status is unknown. Your diagnosis is neonatal tetanus. The drug of choice is:
a. Penicillin
b. Metronidazole
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Chloramphenicol

33. Cranial CT scan of a child with multiple congenital anomalies showed cysts and cavities
within the brain. This is known as:
a. Porencephaly
b. Lissencephaly
c. Schizencephaly
d. Holoprosencephaly

34. A newborn’s weight gain is approximately __ grams/ month at age 7-12 months.
a. 300
b. 400
c. 500
d. 600

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PEDIATRICS 6
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

35. A 2 week old was brought to the ER due to weakness. The mother tells you that he passes
so much urine. She further volunteers that ultrasound during pregnancy showed
polyhydramnios. PE shows a limp baby with poor pulses and very dry skin. He has
metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia & hyperchloremia. Anion gap was normal. Urine pH was
at 5. Which of the following diseases does the child have?
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Renal tubular acidosis
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
d. IgA nephropathy

36. A child with cyanotic heart disease suddenly stopped playing, sat down, and became
hyperpneic. He lost consciousness and was brought to the ER .The child is experiencing:
a. Hypoglycemic episode
b. Magic spell
c. Hypercyanotic spell
d. Arrhythmia

37. Which of the following is NOT an anti-arrhythmic drug?

a. Dopamine
b. Verapamil
c. Lidocaine
d. Phenytoin

38. A child with classic findings of Kawasaki was given a course of IVIg . However, fever and
tachycardia persisted. What is the next step in managing this case?
a. Increase aspirin dose to 150 mg/kg/day
b. Start steroids
c. Start dipyridamole
d. Give another course of IVIg

39. How will you manage a patient with acute otitis media who has been treated with
amoxicillin at 90mg/kg/24 hr for three days, but still has fever, ear pain and ear discharge?
The patient has not been treated with any other antibiotic prior to this episode.
a. Continue his medication
b. Do tympanocentesis
c. Give clindamycin at 40 mg/kg/24 hr
d. Shift to ceftriaxone 50mg/kg intramuscular, single dose

40. Which of the following diseases is part of the neonatal newborn screening?
a. Congenital toxoplasmosis
b. Congenital rubella
c. Congenital hypothyroidism
d. Congenital varicella

41. Which of the following markers tells you that your patient with Hepatitis B is highly
infective?
a. HBs Ag
b. HBe Ag
c. IgM anti-HBc
d. Anti- HBe

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PEDIATRICS 7
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

42. The ductus arteriosus functionally closes at:

a. 10- 15 hrs of life
b. 24 hours of life
c. 1 month of life
d. 3 months of life

43. A newborn was noted to be cyanotic. Which of the following bedside tests will you do to
differentiate between a cardiac & pulmonary cause of cyanosis?
a. ABG
b. CBC
c. Hyperoxia test
d. O2 sat determination by Pulse oxymeter

44. A patient with tetralogy of Fallot has a hematocrit of 70. What will you advise for this
patient?
a. Go home & drink plenty of water.
b. Admit & hydrate with pNSS
c. Admit & do phlebotomy
d. Nothing

45. The most common cardiac lesion in Down syndrome is:

a. Atrial septal defect
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Endocardial cushion defect

46. The usual amount of pericardial fluid in the pericardial space of a healthy child is:
a. 500- 550 mL
b. 150- 200 mL
c. 50-75 mL
d. 10-15 mL

47. Along with polyuria and polydipsia, which of the following is a hallmark of Diabetes
Insipidus?
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypercalcemia
48. A 10 year old child sustained a head injury from a vehicular accident. He developed
cerebral salt wasting. He was treated in the hospital and discharged improved. Aside from
volume replacement, the parents were instructed to give oral supplementation of which of
the following?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

49. Which of the following is TRUE about Prolactinoma?

a. The most common presenting symptom is blurring of vision
b. Most children will present with delayed puberty
c. Most common tumor of the pituitary in adolescents
d. Most patients can be managed with intranasal DDAVP

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PEDIATRICS 8
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

50. A 15 year old girl has been experiencing palpitations, tremors, excessive sweating, and
weight loss. She noticed that as she looks downward her upper eyelids are lagging behind.
You had serum thyroid hormone levels taken. Which of the following is expected to be
depressed?
a. T3
b. T4
c. Free T4
d. TSH

51. A 12 year old has been having frequent headaches. You note that she has a blood pressure
of 180/120. You had a difficult time managing the hypertension in your clinic so you had
her admitted for further investigation and management. Your differential diagnosis
includes the following EXCEPT:
a. Coarctation of the aorta
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Renovascular disease
d. Pheochromocytoma

52. A 14 year old boy was brought to your clinic due to delayed puberty. The parents noted
that his testes and phallu7s are quite small. They also report that he has learning
disabilities. The patient was tall but thin. There are no other abnormalities. The patient
most likely has:
a. Noonan syndrome
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Mc Cune Albright syndrome
d. Turner syndrome

53. True about the management goals of Diabetic ketoacidosis:

a. Insulin therapy is needed to arrest metabolic decompensation.
b. The initial hydrating fluid should be Lactated Ringer’s Solution
c. Because of the danger of hypokalemia, potassium should be added to the IV fluid
even if the patient has no urine output.
d. Treatment should start as soon as you have a clinical diagnosis.

54. An infant was noted to have a rapidly enlarging head, with a widely open anterior fontanel.
Cranial CT scan showed a cystic expansion of the fourth ventricle in the posterior fossa.
This patient has:
a. Chiari malformation type I
b. Chiari malformation type II
c. Dandy -Walker malformation
d. Agenesis of the corpus callosum

55. The most common form of craniosynostosis, characterized by premature closure of the
sagittal sutures producing a long & narrow skull, is known as:
a. Scaphocephaly
b. Turricephaly
c. Brachycephaly
d. Plagiocephaly

56. Which is true about status epilepticus?

a. Continuous convulsion lasting 25 minutes
b. Serial convulsions with return of consciousness in between
c. Always generalized
d. A medical emergency

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PEDIATRICS 9
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

57. A 2 year old was brought to the ER due to generalized tonic-clonic seizures at the height of
fever. The ER resident did a lumbar tap which showed: RBC= 0, WBC= 5/mm³, protein=
10mg/dL, glucose 60% of serum glucose. The patient has:
a. Viral meningitis
b. Bacterial meningitis
c. Tuberculous meningitis
d. Benign febrile seizures

58. A 13 year old complains of on & off non-throbbing headache. It usually starts in the
morning and builds up intensity during the day. It is localized at the occipital area. There
are no other symptoms. The patient most likely has:
a. Increased ICP
b. Migraine headache
c. Tension headache
d. Error of refraction

59. A 3 month old has infantile spasms. He has hypopigmented patches on the skin. Upon
further work-up, it was noted that he had an intracardiac mass near the apex of the left
ventricle. The patient most likely has:
a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Sturge-Weber disease
c. Von Hippel Lindau disease
d. Linear nevus syndrome

60. TRUE about Sydenham chorea:

a. 3 major features include chorea, hypotonia, & emotional lability A
b. One of the neurologic manifestations of rheumatic fever
c. The cause is unknown
d. Occurs most typically between ages 35-55 years

61. A teenager was brought to the ER for respiratory distress. He was immediately intubated.
The illness started as difficulty in walking, then weakness of the upper trunk & extremities,
and finally facial weakness. The history is unremarkable except for a nonspecific viral
illness 2 weeks ago. PE shows complete paralysis, with absent tendon reflexes. The likely
diagnosis is:
a. Bell palsy
b. Transverse myelitis
c. Spinal muscular atrophy
d. Guillain-Barre syndrome

62. A child with known allergies to seafood developed angioedema & urticaria after eating
pancit. At the ER, the resident-on-duty could barely hear any breath sound. He should
immediately administer which of the following drugs?
a. Epinephrine subcutaneously
b. Diphenhydramine intramuscularly
c. Loratadine orally
d. Dopamine intravascular

63. Which of the following antinuclear antibodies is specifically associated with Systemic
lupus erythematosus?
a. Anti- histone Ab
b. Anti- La/SSB Ab
c. Anti-Sm Ab
d. Anti-Scl Ab

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PEDIATRICS 10
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

64. Corticosteroids is part of the management of the following diseases EXCEPT:

a. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
b. Acute rheumatic fever
c. Kawasaki disease
d. Nephrotic syndrome

65. Which of the following is vasculitis of small vessels?

a. Takayasu arteritis
b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
c. Coarctation of the aorta
d. Juvenile Dermatomyositis

66. Which of the following symptoms of neonatal lupus is permanent (will not resolve without
intervention)?
a. Hematologic symptoms
b. Cardiac symptoms
c. Pulmonary symptoms
d. Neurologic symptoms

67. A 15 year-old complains of immobility along the hip joint. He had had this for quite some
time, occasionally with episodes of remission. A rheumatologist examined him and saw
that he also has enthesitis. He was negative for rheumatoid factor. The patient has:
a. Juvenile ankylosing spondylitis
b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
c. Reiter’s syndrome
d. Juvenile Dermatomyositis

68. A child was brought to the ER in pulseless arrest. You instruct the nurse to give
epinephrine. At what dose should the nurse give the 1st intravenous epinephrine?
a. 0.01mg/kg (1:1000)
b. 0.1mg/kg (1:1000)
c. 0.01mg/kg (1:10000)
d. 0.1 mg/kg (1:10000)

69. During resuscitation, what is the rate of chest compression for a child?
a. 40/ minute
b. 60/ minute
c. 80/ minute
d. 100/ minute

70. The visual analog scale as pain measurement tool may be used for children starting what
age?
a. 2 years
b. 4 years
c. 6 years
d. 8 years

71. A baby was born with cleft palate. Work-up revealed other anomalies including:
hypoplasia of the thymus, a cardiac defect, hypocalcemia. The baby most likely has:
a. Williams syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Fanconi syndrome

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PEDIATRICS 11
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

72. The pathology in Adrenoleukodystrophy involves abnormal accumulation of which of the

following?
a. Short chain fatty acids
b. Medium chain fatty acids
c. Long chain fatty acids
d. Very long chain fatty acids

73. Patients with Maple syrup urine disease require a diet low on branched- chain amino acid.
How a long will you advise the parents to give such diet for their babies with MSUD?
a. 3 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. For life

74. Which of the following is caused by a deficiency in lysosomal enzymes needed for the
degradation of glycosaminoglycans?
a. Mucolipidoses
b. Mucopolysaccharidoses
c. Glycogen storage disease
d. Sialidosis

75. A macrosomic newborn was noted to have an asymmetric Moro reflex. The left arm
remained adducted and internally rotated. Palmar grasp was intact. The baby has:
a. Klumpke ‘s paralysis
b. Erb-Duchenne paralysis
c. Phrenic nerve paralysis
d. Cerebral palsy

76. A newborn term baby delivered by caesarian section was noted to be tachypneic. He
improved with low flow oxygen. Tachypnea resolved after 3 days. The baby had:
a. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
b. Hyaline membrane disease
c. Group B Strep pneumonia
d. Persistent pulmonary hypertension

77. Differential diagnoses for jaundice in the first 24 hours of life except:
a. Physiologic jaundice
b. ABO incompatibility
c. Sepsis
d. Hemorrhage

78. An important reflex to facilitate breastfeeding:

a. Moro reflex
b. Palmar grasp reflex
c. Rooting reflex
d. Parachute reflex

79. An adolescent complains of lack of sleep. You run through her medical records and note
that she takes medication which may cause fragmented sleep. Which of the following is the
problem?
a. Digoxin
b. Salbutamol
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Loratadine

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PEDIATRICS 12
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

80. Which of the following is TRUE about menarche?

a. Usually occurs 4 years after the onset of puberty
b. The later the age of menarche, the sooner the establishment of ovulatory cycles
c. Percentage of body fat is a factor in the onset of menarche
d. Closely related to height age

81. A 5 year old was brought to your clinic due nasal congestion. The mother noted that her
child has been breathing through her mouth particularly during cold mornings. The child
often sneezes and wrinkles his nose. You note that he has a crease on his nose and dark
circles around his eyes. The child has:
a. Viral rhinitis
b. Bacterial rhinitis
c. Allergic rhinitis
d. Mucositis

82. The most common causes of pneumonia in normal children EXCEPT:

a. S. pneumoniae
b. S. pyogenes
c. S. aureus
d. P. carinii

83. Which of the following is a common cause of transplacental hepatitis?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

84. A baby born to a Hepatitis B Ag positive mother was given HBIg at birth and completed 3
doses of Hep B vaccine by age 6 months. When will you check for anti-HBS antibodies?
a. 1-2 months after the 3rd hep B vaccine dose
b. 3-4 months after the 3rd hep B vaccine dose
c. 5-6 months after the 3rd hep B vaccine dose
d. 7-8 months after the 3rd hep B vaccine dose

85. Drug of choice for primary prophylaxis of rheumatic fever:

a. Co-trimoxazole
b. Penicillin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Mebendazole

86. Pathologic finding in myocardial tissue affected by rheumatic fever:

a. Liebmann-Sack’s nodule
b. Lutembacher phenomenon
c. Rumpel-leede phenomenon
d. Aschoff nodule

87. Which of the following cannot be given simultaneously?

a. Cholera & yellow fever vaccines
b. OPV & HiB vaccines
c. DPT & Hep B vaccines
d. Flu & Hep A vaccines

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PEDIATRICS 13
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

88. Which is considered as positive PPD?

a. Below age 5 years with BCG: > 5mm
b. 5 years & above: > 5mm
c. 7 years & above: > 10mm
d. 7 years & above: > 12mm.

89. Which is the vector of malaria?

a. Anopheles mosquito
b. Culex mosquito
c. Aedes aegypti mosquito
d. Aedes africanus

90. What is the most common hematologic disease of infancy and childhood?
a. Acute Leukemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
d. Hereditary spherocytosis

91. Which of the following viral infections presents with high fever which abruptly lyses &
discrete, pink, raised, non-pruritic rash on the trunk which spreads to the neck, face &
proximal extremities?
a. Rubella
b. Roseola
c. Rubeola
d. Mumps

92. A child was born with cicatricial skin lesions, limb deformities, microcephaly, and
cataracts. Which of the following did the mother have during pregnancy?
a. HSV 1 infection
b. Rubella
c. Rubeola
d. Varicella

93. A child complains of anal pruritus causing sleep disruption. You do a cellophane test to
check for which of the following?
a. Enterobiasis
b. Ascariasis
c. Toxocatiasis
d. Schistosomiasis

94. A 4 year old was brought to the ER due to stridor. The symptoms started as mild brassy
cough progressing to intermittent stridor then to continuous stridor particularly at night.
Symptoms evolved in a couple of days. The child most likely has:
a. Epiglottitis
b. Bronchitis
c. Lanryngotracheobronchitis
d. Bronchiolitis

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PEDIATRICS 14
Physician’s Licensure Examination
DATE

95. A child was brought to you for evaluation of generalized petecchial rah and bruising. The
parents said that the rashes appeared just this morning. They could not recall any
significant illness except for a cold a couple of weeks ago. Complete blood count was done
& showed normal hemoglobin and WBC count, and a very low platelet count. The patient
has:
a. Acute leukemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Hemophilia
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

96. A 15 year old consulted for leg swelling and pain. X-ray showed lytic lesion with periosteal
reaction of the tibia. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Enchondroma

97. Which of the following is an indication for packed RBC transfusion?

a. Hb= 10 g/ dL in a female during her regular monthly period
b. Hb= 13 g/dL in a patient in heart failure
c. Hb= 9 g/dL in a 4 month old with severe pneumonia
d. Hb= 10 g/dL in an asymptomatic child

98. A child was noted to have difficulty of breathing described as “ hirap huminga, sumisipol
ang likod”. The mother said that he has had such episodes at night approximately 3x/
month, and 2x/ week during the day. The child had wheezing upon auscultation. Based on
symptoms alone, he is under which classification of asthma?
a. Severe persistent
b. Moderate persistent
c. Mild persistent
d. Intermittent

99. A newborn was noted to be tachypneic. On auscultation, he had a gr 3/6 continuous

murmur on the left upper sternal border. Chest x-ray showed cardiomegaly, LV form, with
increased pulmonary vascular markings, and a prominent aortic knob. The baby has:
a. ASD
b. VSD
c. PDA
d. PS

100. Benificience means:

a. the duty to avoid harm, as well as to advance the welfare of others
b. the ability to make our own decision and understand the consequences of that
decision
c. the right to interfere with the liberty of another person for the benefit of that person
d. full disclosure of information relevant for providing effective health care

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Physician’s Licensure Examination
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Key Answers
53. A
1. B 54. C
2. C 55. A
3. B 56. D
4. D 57. D
5. C 58. C
6. B 59. A
7. A 60. A
8. C 61. D
9. D 62. A
10. B 63. C
11. B 64. C
12. D 65. B
13. A 66. B
14. A 67. A
15. B 68. C
16. A 69. C
17. C 70. D
18. D 71. C
19. C 72. D
20. B 73. D
21. D 74. B
22. D 75. B
23. A 76. A
24. B 77. A
25. C 78. C
26. B 79. B
27. C 80. C
28. B 81. C
29. D 82. D
30. A 83. B
31. D 84. A
32. B 85. B
33. A 86. D
34. C 87. A
35. B 88. B
36. C 89. A
37. A 90. B
38. D 91. B
39. D 92. D
40. C 93. A
41. B 94. C
42. A 95. D
43. C 96. B
44. C 97. C
45. D 98. C
46. D 99. C
47. A 100. A
48. A
49. C
50. D
51. B
52. B

15