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QUESTION NO: 1
VPWS allows carriers to offer services such as point-to-point frame-relay, ATM, and Ethernet on a
single platform without the need for multiple overlay networks.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A.
Layer 3 direct Internet access service
B.
Layer 2 point-to-point service
C.
Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service
D.
Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is NOT a VPWS service supported on the Nokia 7750 SR?
A.
B.
F-pipe
C.
A-pipe
D.
I-pipe
E.
C-pipe
F.
G-pipe
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered best practice to configure
which of the following parameters as globally significant? (Choose two.)
A.
SDP ID
C.
Customer ID
D.
SAP ID
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
When a physical port is configured for null encapsulation, many SAPs can be configured using
that port.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
A.
VPWS: SAPs can be defined on Ethernet, POS, Sonet/SDH, or TDM channels.
B.
VPWS: Two SAPs are defined for a service that originates and terminates on the same Nokia
7750 SR
C.
VPLS: More than two SAPs can be defined in a service.
D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following commands is used to configure the encapsulation type of an Ethernet port?
A.
configure ethernetencap-typedot1q|null|qinq port port-id
B.
configure service port port-id ethemetencap-typedot1q|null|qinq create
C.
configure port port-id Ethernet encap-type dot1q|null|qmq
D.
configure service service-id Ethernet encap-type dot1q|null|qinq create
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
An E-pipe that has 2 or more SDPs configured.
B.
An E-pipe that has 3 or more SAPs configured.
C.
An E-pipe that has 2 SAPs on the same node but no SDPs configured
D.
An E-pipe that is configured between two nodes, each having 1 SAP and 1 SDP configured.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following options are used to configure an MPLS signaling type to be used on an
SDP? (Choose two.)
A.
configure service sdp sdp-id gre create
B.
configure service sdp sdp-id create
C.
Idp
D.
Isp Isp-name
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
A.
Dot1Q
B.
Q-in-Q
C.
ATM
D.
NULL
E.
Nil
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which tree in the CLI would you need to be in to add a QoS policy to a SAP?
A.
config>router#
B.
config>qos#
C.
config>port#
D.
config>service#
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
A.
config>service# epipe <service-id> shutdown
B.
config>service# vpws <service-id> shutdown
C.
config>service# <service-id> shutdown
D.
config>port# <port-id> shutdown.
E.
config>service# epipe <service-id> disable
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following commands is required to configure an Ethernet port to be used as a SAP in
a service?
A.
configure service sap <sap-id> access
B.
configure port <port-id> ethernet mode access
C.
configure port <port-id> ethernet mode network
D.
configure port <port-id> mode access
E.
configure port <port-id> mode network
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following tasks must be carried out before deleting an E-pipe service? (Choose four.)
A.
Shut down all SAPs associated with the service.
B.
Shut down all SDPs associated with the service.
C.
Delete all SAPs and SDPs associated with the service.
D.
Shut down all physical ports that are bound to a SAP.
E.
Delete the Customer ID.
F.
Shut down the service.
Answer: A,B,C,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
An operator needs to provision 6VPE on a Nokia 7750 SR that is also used to provide existing
IPv4 VPRN services. IPv6 VPRN customers use BGP as a PE-CE protocol. Which of the following
statements is FALSE regarding the configuration steps required?
A.
MP-BGP sessions need to be configured in the service provider network to support a VPN-IPv6
address family.
B.
PE routers must be configured to run MP-BGP and IPv6
C.
PE-to-CE BGP sessions need to be configured to support IPv6.
D.
The provider core must be configured to support IPv6
E.
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None of the above statements are false.
F.
All of the above statements are false
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
A customer requests that their Layer 2 Ethernet service be configured to forward frames up to
9000 bytes. The service provider is using MPLS encapsulation. What is the minimum MTU setting
for the network ports?
A.
9000
B.
9004
C.
9008
D.
9022
E.
9036
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
A.
ATM to Frame Relay translation.
B.
Frame Relay to Ethernet translation.
D.
Frame Relay tunneling over an ATM core network.
E.
Frame Relay tunneling over an MPLS/IP core network
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a fully meshed VPLS service with a default
setting? (Choose three.)
A.
The vc-id on the mesh-sdp must be explicitly configured.
B.
The vc-id on the mesh-sdp is automatically assigned by a PE using the service id.
C.
The VPLS service id, on all PE routers, does not have to match.
D.
The VPLS service id, on all PE routers, must match.
E.
If dynamic signaling is required, the signaling on all PE routers must be set to TLDP in the
configuration of the SDPs.
F.
The signaling on all PE routers will default to TLDP in the configuration of the SDPs; therefore, no
configuration change is required for dynamic signaling.
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5
E.
6
F.
10
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following statements are TRUE about configuring a SDP between an IES and a
VPLS? (Choose two.)
A.
The SDP must be a mesh
B.
The SDP must be a spoke.
C.
Once the SDP is configured on both PE routers, both the services will be operationally up without
further configuration changes.
D.
The Layer 2 MTUs must match between the IES and the VPLS
E.
The Layer 2 MTU must be 14 bytes smaller on the VPLS than it is on the IES.
QUESTION NO: 23
Port 1/1/1 has been configured as an access port with encapsulation dot1q on a Nokia 7750 SR.
Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two.)
A.
The SAP 1/1/1 will forward all traffic transparently.
B.
The SAP 1/1/1:0.* will forward all untagged traffic and traffic tagged with VLAN 0.
C.
The SAP 1/1/1:* will forward untagged traffic but not tagged traffic.
D.
TheSAP1/1/1:400 will forward customer traffic tagged with VLAN 400
E.
The SAP 1/1/1:0 will forward untagged traffic and traffic tagged with VLAN 0
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Which VPWS service would be used to create a point-to-point Frame Relay service?
A.
E-pipe
B.
A-pipe
C.
F-pipe
D.
I-pipe
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
A.
OSPF
B.
RIP
C.
BGP
D.
IS-IS
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
A.
A-pipe
B.
F-pipe
C.
C-pipe
D.
E-pipe
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
How many service labels must be signaled to bring up a fully meshed VPLS service among four
PE routers?
A.
1
B.
4
C.
6
D.
8
E.
12
F.
24
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following most accurately describes the default behavior of a VPLS regarding the
handling of a tagged frame at the ingress of SAP 1/1/1:100?
A.
The FCS is verified and the customer frame is transported intact over the service provider
network.
C.
The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is kept for transport over the
network.
D.
The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the
network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
What happens when a packet without a VLAN tag is received on a SAP provisioned with null
encapsulation while an SDP vc-type is provisioned as vlan?
A.
The frame is dropped.
B.
The service ID is added as the VLAN tag.
C.
A VLAN tag of 0 is added as the provider VLAN tag
D.
The frame is forwarded with no VLAN tag
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
A.
VPLS supports point-to-point connections.
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B.
VPLS supports multipoint-to-multipoint connections
C.
VPLS supports a distributed service
D.
VPLS supports a local service on a single node.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following statements best describes the flooding of traffic on a PE when traffic is
received on a SAP?
A.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs in the service.
B.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and spoke SDPs in the service.
C.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and mesh SDPs in the service.
D.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs, spoke SDPs, and mesh SDPs in the service.
E.
The traffic is not flooded.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following represents a SAP on a physical port configured with Q-in-Q encapsulation?
A.
sap 1/1/1
C.
sap 1/1/1:5:5
D.
sap 1/1/1:10.100
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
How many SAPs can be configured on a port configured with NULL encapsulation?
A.
1
B.
4096
C.
None. This encapsulation is not supported.
D.
The number is limited only by the capacity of the router
QUESTION NO: 35
Customer 'A' has sites on 3 different Nokia PE routers. The routers are connected to each other
through an IP/MPLS network in a full mesh fashion. Customer 'A' requires a VPLS service. Which
of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose2)
A.
Each router requires 1 VPLS service.
B.
Each router requires 2 VPLS services.
C.
Each router requires 1 SDP with 2 LSPs, one to each of the other 2 routers.
D.
Each router requires 2 SDPs.
E.
Each router requires 3 SDPs
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following statements best describes the flooding of traffic on a PE when traffic is
received on a spoke SDP?
A.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs in the service.
B.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and spoke SDPs in the service.
C.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and mesh SDPs in the service.
D.
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Traffic is flooded to all SAPs, spoke SDPs, and mesh SDPs in the service
E.
The traffic is not flooded.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
What does a PE do when a frame is received in a VPLS service with an unknown destination
address by default?
A.
Drop the frame.
B.
Flood the frame to all PEs participating in the service.
C.
Send a destination unreachable message back to the originating host.
D.
Store the frame until the destination is known
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
What is the default vc-type for an SDP on the Nokia 7750 SR?
A.
vc-type null
B.
vc-type ether
C.
vc-type vlan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following best completes the sentence: "An Internet Enhanced Service is
a_____________ service where the CE communicates with a ________________interface to
send and receive traffic.
A.
distributed/virtual
B.
local/sub
C.
routed/Layer 3
D.
distributed/routed
E.
Layer 2/loopback
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
A.
An OSPF adjacency can be established on an IES interface.
B.
IES allows provider MP-BGP sessions to be extended to customers.
C.
D.
An IES interface supports OSPF and IS-IS in passive mode only.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
What are the two major differences between configuring an IES service and configuring VPWS or
VPLS services? (Choose two.)
A.
IES does not support QoS.
B.
IES has a configurable IP-MTU
C.
A virtual route table must be configured for an IES service.
D.
An IES interface has an IP address assigned to it.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 43
A.
To test the ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP within the SDP encapsulation
B.
To determine the path MTU to the far-end IP address over an SDP.
C.
To determine the service MTU of the service using an SDP.
D.
To determine the presence of hosts using the service
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding sdp-ping? (Choose three.)
A.
Provides a mechanism to determine the hops an SDP traverses.
B.
Provides in-band uni-directional connectivity tests.
C.
Provides in-band round-trip connectivity tests.
D.
Tests ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP ID within the SDP encapsulation.
E.
Provides information regarding the exact MTU supported between service ingress and service
termination.
QUESTION NO: 45
Which OAM command can be used to verify the correct and consistent provisioning of a service
between two service end points?
A.
sdp-ping
B.
Isp-ping
C.
sap-ping
D.
svc-ping
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
A.
A physical port.
B.
ASAP.
C.
Ingress MPLS frames with a specific label.
D.
Entries that match an IP filter.
E.
Entries that match a MAC filter.
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
A technician sitting in a Network Operations Center would like to set up a remote mirror on a Nokia
7750 Service Router to examine some data traffic ingressing a port at a remote site. Which of the
following are required? (Choose two.)
A.
A mirror destination on the local and remote Nokia Service Router.
B.
A mirror source on the local and remote Nokia Service Router.
C.
A mirror source with the remote source specified on the remote Nokia Service Router.
D.
A mirror source with the remote source specified on the local Nokia Service Router.
E.
An SDP between the local and remote Nokia Service Routers.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Assuming the customer only needs to monitor traffic from PE3 to the customer site, what three
items are missing from PE3's configuration? (Assume that the IP/MPLS network structure between
the local and remote PEsis in place.)
A.
The mirror destination configuration on PE5 is missing the "remote-source" command,
B.
The mirror destination on PE3 needs a "remote-source" command.
C.
The mirror service IDs on the local and remote destinations must match.
D.
The mirror source on PE3 needs a "remote-source" command.
E.
The mirror source command on the remote PE3 needs a command that tells it to monitor port
1/1/2.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
On Nokia 7750 SR OS, routing information between the CE and PE can be exchanged using the
following methods.
A.
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
ISIS, RIP, OSPF, static routes
B.
BGP, ISIS, RIP, OSPF, static routes
C.
BGP, RIP, OSPF, static routes, OSPF3
D.
ISIS, RIP, OSPF, static routes, OSPF3
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
A.
The VRF is a virtual router on the PE router that contains the customer's routes for the VPRN
B.
Each PE maintains multiple VRFs based on the number of PE peers it connects to.
C.
Each PE has a VRF for each VPRN service provisioned on the router.
D.
All of the above.
E.
Only A and C.
F.
Only A and B
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of an MP-BGP in a VPRN?
B.
Nokia 7750 SR routers support MP-BGP for VPN label signaling in a VPRN service only if LDP is
used for LSP signaling.
C.
The multi-protocol nature of MP-BGP allows VPRN routes to be distributed within the provider
core network as IPv4 routes.
D.
MP-BGP is an enhanced version of BGP that can carry a service label, a tranpot label, and
customer route prefixes.
E.
None of the above statements describe the use of an MP-BGP in a VPRN.
F.
All of the above statements describe the use of an MP-BGP in a VPRN.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
A.
Yes. A routing policy is required to advertise routes between PE routers in a VPRN
B.
No. A routing policy is not required; the default behavior on the Nokia 7750 SR is to advertise all
VPRN routes between PE routers.
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
C.
A routing policy is required only when BGP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol, as shown in the
exhibit.
D.
A CE1 system interface can not be advertised to PE2 since the CE routers are not aware of the
VPRN.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Which of the following statements is NOT a valid reason to use MP-BGP as a routing protocol to
transport VPRN routes?
A.
The number of VPRN routes can become very large. MP-BGP can support a very large number of
routes.
B.
MP-BGP can carry routing information for a number of different address families.
C.
MP-BGP is designed to exchange information between routers that are not directly connected.
This feature keeps VPRN routing information out of P-routers.
D.
MP-BGP can carry additional information attached to a route as an optional BGP attribute.
E.
All of the above statements are valid reasons for using MP-BGP as a VPRN routing protocol.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
A.
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A route target is a BGP extended community used to identify the VRF table for a prefix at the
receiving PE
B.
A route target is a mechanism from which VPRN controls the distribution of VPN routing
information.
C.
Route target attributes are earned in a MP-BGP as attributes of the route.
D.
A route target is used by the PE router to identify the VRF that a VPN-lPv4 prefix is associated
with.
E.
All of the above statements describe a route target
F.
None of the above statements describe a route target
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
If CE1 and PE1 use BGP to exchange routing information and CE2 and PE2 use static routing to
forward traffic to and from the VPRN, which of the following statements is considered TRUE?
A.
An export policy is required on PE1 to advertise routes to CE1.
B.
An export policy is not required on PE2 to advertise routes to CE2.
C.
D.
All of the above statements are true
E.
All of the above statements are false
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a VPRN data plane flow?
A.
A data packet will receive a service label at the CE and a transport label at the ingress PE.
B.
A data packet intended for a remote CE will have its service label swapped at each P router along
the path towards the egress PE.
C.
At the egress PE, the transport label will be popped and the data packet forwarded with the
service label.
D.
The service label is popped by the remote CE. The unlabeled packet is forwarded based on the
longest match lookup algorithm in the VRF.
E.
All of the above statements are false.
F.
All of the above statements are true.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following steps is mandatory when enabling an MP-BGP session between PE routers
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
in a VPRN?
A.
Configure an autonomous system number in the global context.
B.
Configure a BGP group and peer parameters.
C.
Configure a VPN-IPv4 address family.
D.
All of the above steps are mandatory.
E.
None of the above steps are mandatory.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following is the correct configuration for an MP-BGP session on 6VPE1?
A.
PE1>config>router>bgp#info
--------------------------------------------
group "multi-bgp"
family vpn-ipv6
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
neighbor 10.10.10.2/32
local-address 10.10.10.1
peer-as 64496
exit
exit
B.
PE1>config>router>bgp#info
-------------------------------------------
group "multi-bgp"
neighbor 10.10.10.2
local-address 10.10.10.1
peer-as 64496
exit
exit
C.
PE1>config>router>bgp#info
--------------------------------------------
group "multi-bgp"
family vpn-ipv6
neighbor 10.10.10 2
local-address 10.10.10.1
peer-as 64496
exit
exit
D.
PE1>config>router>bgp#info
--------------------------------------------
group "multi-bgp"
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
family ipv6 vpn-ipv6
neighbor 10.10.10.2/32
local-address 10.10.10.1
peer-as 64496
exit
exit
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following is the correct configuration on 6VPE1 for a BGP peering session with CE1?
A.
PE1>config>service>vpm>bgp#info
---------------------------------------------------
group "toCE1"
family ipv6
export "mbgp-bgp"
neighbor 2001:db8:12::1
exit
exit
B.
PE1>config>service>vpm>bgp#info
---------------------------------------------------
group "toCE1"
family ipv6
export "mbgp-bgp"
neighbor 2001:db8:12:1
peer-as 64496
exit
exit
C.
PE1>config>router>bgp#info
---------------------------------------------------
group "toCEl"
family ipv6
export "mbgp-bgp"
peer-as 64497
exit
exit
D.
PE1>config>router>bgp#info
---------------------------------------------------
group "toCE1"
family ipv6
export "mbgp-bgp"
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
neighbor 2001:db8:12::1
peer-as 64496
exit
exit
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following must be configured when configuring an E-pipe service? (Choose four.)
A.
Configuring an E-pipe service with a customer ID
B.
Defining a SAP or SAPs.
C.
Binding to an SDP if it is a distributed service.
D.
Enabling the service using the no shutdown command.
E.
Creating and assigning an IP filter to the SAP.
F.
Configuring QoS parameters
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
B.
Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C.
Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D.
Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
A.
Layer 3 direct Internet access service.
B.
Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C.
Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D.
Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
A.
SDPs are a logical way to direct traffic from one router to another.
C.
SDP IDs are locally unique.
D.
SDP IDs must be unique across the network.
E.
SDPs are specific to one service type
F.
SDPs must use MPLS for their encapsulation
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
The terms "customer" and "service" are used synonymously when describing a service
implementation on the Nokia 7750 SR.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
A.
config>service# epipe service-id enable
B.
config>service# vpws service-id enable
D.
config>port# port-id no shutdown
E.
config>service# epipe service-id no shutdown
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
E-pipe services do no consume any MAC resources because MAC learning is disabled.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
When provisioning a spoke-SDP on an E-pipe, what MUST match on both ends of the service?
A.
Service ID
B.
Customer ID
C.
SAPID
D.
VC-ID
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
A.
configure router sdp sdp-id
B.
configure service sdp sdp-id create
C.
configure service mpls sdp sdp-id create
D.
configure service gre sdp sdp-id create
E.
configure service sdp sdp-id mpls create
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
A.
configure epipe service-id customer customer-id create
B.
configure service epipe service-id customer customer-id create
C.
configure epipe service-id create
E.
configure epipe service service-id customer customer-id create
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
When configuring RSVP-TE for transport tunnels, which command enables RSVP by default?
A.
configure router tunnel
B.
configure router gre
C.
configure router rsvp-te
D.
configure router transport-tunnel
E.
configure router mpls
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following conditions are necessary in order for service labels to be signaled between
two PE routers? (Choose three.)
A.
LDP must be enabled on both PE routers.
B.
RSVP must be enabled on both PE routers.
D.
The VC-ID must match between the two PE routers in both directions.
E.
The transport tunnel must be operationally up between the two PE routers in both directions.
F.
The SDP ID must match between the two PE routers in both directions.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following statements are TRUE about configuring a distributed E-pipe service?
(Choose two.)
A.
The vc-id on the spoke-sdp must be explicitly configured.
B.
The vc-id on the mesh-sdp must be explicitly configured.
C.
The vc-id on the spoke-sdp can be configured to match the service id.
E.
The vc-id on the spoke-sdp does not have to be explicitly configured and will use the service id.
F.
The vc-id on the mesh-sdp does not have to be explicitly configured and will use the service id.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
In a Layer 2 encapsulation, using Martini, what does the first (top) label represent?
A.
Tunnel Label
B.
VC Label
C.
Operational Control Word
D.
UNI
E.
NNI
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
In a Layer 2 encapsulation, using Martini, what does the second (bottom) label represent?
A.
Tunnel Label
C.
Operational Control Word
D.
VPI
E.
VCI
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following SAPs will forward tagged frames with an outer VLAN tag of 200? (Choose
three.)
A.
sap 1/1/1
B.
sap 1/1/1:*
C.
sap 1/1/1:*.0
D.
sap 1/1/1:0*
E.
sap 1/1/1:200.*
F.
sap 1/1/1:300:200
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
On which of the following is it NOT possible to configure a MTU?
A.
Network port
B.
Access port
C.
LSP
D.
SDP
E.
Service
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following statements best describes an FDB used in a VPLS service?
A.
A VPLS service does not use an FDB.
B.
An FDB is maintained on the PE router to track MAC addresses learned from all traffic through the
router.
C.
An FDB is maintained on the PE router to track MAC addresses learned from all VPLS services on
the router.
D.
A separate FDB is maintained for each VPLS service to track MAC addresses learned from each
service.
E.
For each VPLS service, two FDBs are maintained to track MAC addresses; one for unicast traffic
and one for multicast and broadcast traffic.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 79
A network consists of 4 PE routers. A customer requires a VPLS service and has sites connected
to each PE. Each site must have direct connectivity with all other sites. How many SDPs must be
configured on each PE?
A.
0
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
A.
The customer maintains complete control over routing.
B.
The adding of new sites is simplified; no re-configuration is required at existing sites.
C.
The clear demarcation of functionality between service provider and customer makes
troubleshooting easier.
D.
All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following defines a SAP that will select frames with an outer tag of '4' and ignore any
inner lag on a Q-in-Q encapsulated port?
A.
sap 1/1/1:0.*
B.
sap 1/1/1
C.
sap 1/1/1:*.4
D.
sap 1/1/1:4.*
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which protocol is used to signal the outer label for a VPN service?
A.
RSVP
B.
IPCP
C.
TLDP
D.
PPP
E.
Either RSVP or LDP
QUESTION NO: 83
When configuring an IES spoke termination to a VPLS, what must be explicitly configured in order
for the service to come up? (Choose two.)
A.
MTU must match on both services,
B.
Mesh-SDP with matching vc-id configured,
C.
Spoke-SDP with matching vc-id configured.
D.
Spoke-SDP.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
A.
A virtual routing/forwarding table is created per IES service.
B.
Only one IES service can be created for a single customer ID.
C.
More than one IP interface can be created within a single IES service.
D.
All IP interfaces created within the same IES service belong to the same customer
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 85
What command syntax would be used to create a new IES service with a service id of 5 and a
customer id of 1000?
A.
configure ies 5 customer 1000 create
B.
configure router ies 5 customer 1000 create
C.
configure service ies 5 customer 1000 create
D.
configure router ies 5 customer 1000
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following commands would be used to show the operational state of all IES services?
A.
show service id 5
B.
show service ies
C.
show service service-using ies
D.
show service id 5 base
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
Which of the following commands is used in an RSVP signaled MPLS tunnel to validate the path
MTU based on signaling across the LSP?
A.
Path MTU is always calculated from the MTU of the egress network port on the head end PE.
B.
oam sdp-mtu
C.
adspec
D.
cspf
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of the following best describes how the path-mlu is chosen for an SDP?
A.
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
An SDP does not have a path-mtu
B.
The path-mtu must be set by the administrator.
C.
By default, the path-mtu is calculated automatically from the network port MTU of the PE router.
D.
The path-mtu is calculated based on the service MTU of the service using the SDP.
E.
The path-mtu is signaled between the PE endpoints when the service is established.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Assuming the customer only needs to monitor traffic from PE3 to the customer site, what two
items are missing in the configuration of PE5, the Nokia 7750 Service Router in the Head Office?
(Assume that the IP/MPLS network structure between the local and remote PEs is in place.)
A.
The mirror destination configuration on PE5 is missing the "remote-source" command.
B.
There needs to be a mirror source configuration on PE5 with the "remote-source" command.
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
C.
This is not possible since the protocol analyzer is located at the Central Office. It needs to be at
the customer site.
D.
There needs to be a configuration command to put sap 1/1/3 on the mirror destination of PE5.
E.
There needs to be a configuration command to put sap 1/1/3 on the mirror source of PE5
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
A.
When a Nokia Service Router is rebooted, the mirror destination and mirror source must be re-
configured
B.
A mirror destination is shut down by default on a Nokia Service Router.
C.
A mirror source is shut down by default on a Nokia Service Router.
D.
When a Nokia Service Router is rebooted, the mirror destination must be re-configured.
E.
When a Nokia Service Router is rebooted the mirror source must be re-configured.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
A.
B.
The VPN label is swapped at each P router as a packet crosses the service provider network.
C.
The VPN label is also known as the inner label or service label.
D.
The VPN label indicates which VPRN a packet should be sent to once it reaches the egress PE.
E.
All of the above
F.
Only C and D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning route distinguishers on the Nokia 7750
SR?
A.
Route distinguishers are 12 bytes in length
B.
Route distinguishers are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form 16 byte VPN-IFV1 prefixes.
C.
Route distinguishers are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.
D.
CE routes must be configured with the proper route distinguishers for the VPRN they are
associated to
E.
All of the above statements are true.
F.
All of the above statements are false.
Answer: F
QUESTION NO: 94
A.
A VRF contains a single VPRN routes.
B.
Every VRF in a PE is associated with one or more route target attributes.
C.
Each VPRN needs a separate VRF in each PE router.
D.
On the Nokia 7750 SR, by default, there is a unique one-to-one association between a VPN label
and a VRF
E.
All of the above statements are true.
F.
All of the above statements are false.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the advertisement of VRF routes on a
Nokia 7750 SR?
A.
By default, a Nokia 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
B.
The default Nokia 7750 SR behavior describes all routes in a VRF that are advertised to other PE
routers.
C.
By default, a Nokia 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to other PE routers.
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
D.
By default, a Nokia 7750 SR advertises all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
A.
Multiple MP-BGP sessions are required to carry VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes.
B.
PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one
C.
In 6VPE, MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN label.
D.
In 6VPE, the provider core routers are IPv6-unaware.
E.
All of the above statements are true.
F.
All of the above statements are false.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
A.
6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over
an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B.
Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.
D.
6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E.
Both C and D are false.
F.
All of the above statements are true.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following is NOT a service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR?
A.
IES
B.
VPWS
C.
VPLS
D.
VPRN
E.
L2TP
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
B.
Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C.
Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D.
Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
A logical entity that provides a uniform, end-to-end configuration, management and billing model
for provisioning either Internet or VPN connectivity.
B.
Provides connectivity between customer access points.
C.
A service that can either be local or distributed.
D.
All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Once a service has been created with a customer association, it is possible to change the
customer association.
A.
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
Configuring the physical port in access mode.
B.
Configuring the physical port in network mode.
C.
Enabling the port using the no shutdown command.
D.
Ports are enabled by default, thus no need to use the no shutdown command.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
All services mapped to an SDP use the same transport encapsulation type (either GRE or MPLS)
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
A service provider wishes to configure a Layer 2 service that will forward customer VLAN tags.
When configuring an SDP for the service, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags on the
ingress PE?
A.
vc-type ether
B.
vc-type vlan
C.
vc-type dot1q
D.
vc-type null
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which service type is used to provide a bi-directional Layer 2 connection of TDM circuits over an
IP/MPLS network?
B.
E-pipe
C.
I-pipe
D.
F-pipe
E.
C-pipe
Answer: E
Explanation:
Which of the following SAP encapsulations support multiple services on a port? (Choose three.)
A.
dot1q
B.
null
C.
qinq
D.
atm
E.
ipcp
F.
bcp-null
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
When a tagged packet is received on a SAP configured with dot1q encapsulation, the VLAN tag
must match the value configured on the SAP in order to be forwarded.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a Layer 2 VPN service, the FCS is stripped when a customer packet arrives at the ingress PE
and regenerated on egress.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, what does a PE do to support VPLS services for different customers? (Choose two.)
A.
MAC learning.
B.
Maintain a different Forwarding Data Base for each service
C.
ARP mediation.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on a GRE
encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1514?
A.
1514
B.
1526
C.
1548
D.
1556
E.
1536
Answer: D
Explanation:
A network technician needs to set up a local mirror to replicate traffic for examination with a
protocol analyzer. The analyzer is on port 1/1/4 of his service router. Which of the following
configuration steps is required?
A.
A mirror source listing port 1/1/4.
B.
A mirror destination listing port 1/1/4.
D.
Verification that his IP/MPLS infrastructure is in place
E.
None of the above.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes the label stack for a packet in the VPRN context?
A.
An outer label and a transport label.
B.
An inner label and a service label.
C.
A transport label and a service label.
D.
An MPLS transport label
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following statements about VPRN is NOT true? (Choose two.)
A.
VPRN is an IP service that connects multiple sites in a single routed domain over the provider-
managed IP/MPLS network.
B.
C.
In a VPRN service, each customer router becomes a routing peer to other customer routers
D.
VPRN provides customer routers with transparent IP connectivity without knowledge of the MPLS
core
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A VPRN service is configured with BGP used as the CE-PE routing protocol. What address
families are required on the PE-CE BGP session?
A.
VPN-IPv4 address families are required in order for routes to be exchanged with the PE.
B.
Only default IPv4 address families are required since the CE is not aware of the VPRN service
C.
Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured on the PE-CE BGP session
D.
An IPv4 address family configuration is required for the PE-PE configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose
two.)
A.
When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
B.
C.
VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct
customers
D.
VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
E.
In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A.
6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over
an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B.
Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.
C.
On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the
nature of the network between the PEs.
D.
6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E.
Both C and D are false.
F.
All of the above statements are true.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Service tunnels and transport tunnels are bidirectional and only require the operator to configure
the tunnel on one router.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
Based on the output from PE router R1 about VPRN 100, by which protocol was 192.168.10.0/24
learned?
A.
BGP
B.
MP-BGP
C.
LDP
D.
MPLS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
An E-pipe service that has 1 SAP and 1 SDP configured.
B.
An E-pipe service that has 3 or more SAPs configured.
C.
An E-pipe service that has 2 SAPs on the same router and has no SDPs configured.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
show service id 100 base
B.
show service vpls 100
C.
show service vpls 100 summary
D.
show service vpls 100 all
E.
None of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A customer requests that their Layer 2 Ethernet service be configured to forward frames up to
1514 bytes. The service provider is using MPLS encapsulation and RSVP-TE fast-reroute with
facilities bypass on their redundant IP/MPLS network. What is the minimum MTU setting for the
network ports?
A.
1514
B.
1528
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
C.
1536
D.
1540
E.
1560
Answer: D
Explanation:
On a dot1Q encapsulated port, frames with a VLAN tag of 0 and untagged frames are forwarded
to the null SAP
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, what happens when a packet with a VLAN tag is received on a SAP provisioned with
null encapsulation?
A.
The original VLAN tag is removed.
B.
The original VLAN tag is kept.
C.
The VLAN tag is replaced by a provider tag.
D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Why must the MTU be changed when configuring an IES spoke termination to a VPLS?
A.
The default service MTU on a VPLS service is 1514 bytes.
B.
The default IP MTU of an IES is set based on the network port MTU.
C.
During VC label signaling, the VC MTU is verified and must match.
D.
All of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
What is the best approach of making MTUs match between a VPLS and a spoke IES in order to
bring up the service?
A.
Change the service MTU of the VPLS to match the IES.
B.
Set the ip-mtu of the IES service to match the service MTU of the VPLS service.
C.
Change the MTU of the SDP attached to the VPLS to match the service MTU of the VPLS.
D.
Set the DNF flag on the IES service.
Which of the following commands can be used to compare the VC MTU signaled between two PE
routers?
A.
show router route-table
B.
show router Idp bindings
C.
show service service-using
D.
show service egress-label
E.
show router rsvp session
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
To mirror service requirements of a customer with a single branch office and multiple remote sites
B.
To utilize unused ports of a service router until they are required for a service.
C.
To replicate traffic from a service port to another port for debugging or monitoring functions
D.
To ease the configuration burden of services that support a large number of subscribers
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Mirror slicing is used to logically separate a port that is being monitored.
B.
Mirror slicing configuration is earned out in the mirror destination.
C.
By default, mirror slicing is enabled so that only the protocol headers of data traffic are replicated
to a mirror port.
D.
The maximum number of mirror slices that can be made on a network and access port are 256
and 8, respectively
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following SAPs will toward tagged frames but NOT untagged frames?
A.
sap 1/1/1
B.
sap 1/1/1:*
C.
sap 1/1/1:*.0
D.
E.
None of the above.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Which of the following statements best describes the main difference between an I-pipe and an E-
pipe interworking?
A.
An I-pipe is a point-to-point Layer 2 VPN capable of only carrying Ethernet payloads. An E-pipe
interworking refers to the transportation of ATM/FR traffic over an E-pipe.
B.
An I-pipe is used for performing Ethernet interworking with ATM/FR/PPP using bridged-PDUs. An
E-pipe interworking is used for performing Ethernet interworking with ATM/FR/PPP using routed-
PDUs.
C.
An I-pipe is used for performing Ethernet interworking with ATM/FR/PPP using routed-PDUs. An
E-pipe interworking is used for performing Ethernet interworking with ATM/FR/PPP using bridged-
PDUs.
D.
None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following statements best describes how an FDB is populated with MAC addresses in
a VPLS service?
A.
A VPLS service does not use an FDB.
C.
The router reads the source MAC address of packets passing through the service.
D.
The router uses reverse ARP (RARP) to resolve the MAC addresses for unknown destinations.
E.
The router is programmed with MAC addresses by the network administrator.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which protocol is used to signal the inner label for a L2-VPN service?
A.
RSVP
B.
IPCP
C.
TLDP
D.
PPP
E.
Either RSVP or LDP
F.
M-BGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
sdp-ping
B.
Isp-ping
C.
svc-ping
D.
sdp-mtu
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes the flooding of traffic on a PE when unknown traffic is
received on a mesh SDP?
A.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs in the service.
B.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and spoke SDPs in the service.
C.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and mesh SDPs in the service.
D.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs, spoke SDPs. and mesh SDPs in the service.
E.
The traffic is not flooded.
Answer: B
Explanation:
How many SAPs can be configured on a port configured with dot1q encapsulation?
A.
1
B.
4095
C.
None. This encapsulation is not supported.
D.
The number is limited only by the capacity of the router
Answer: B
Explanation:
Choose the following components that are necessary for the configuration of a mirror service.
(Choose two.)
A.
A mirror destination to indicate which ports to monitor.
B.
A mirror source to indicate which ports to monitor.
C.
A mirror destination to indicate on which sap or sdp traffic should be replicated.
D.
A mirror source to indicate on which sap or sdp traffic should be replicated
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A.
config>service>ies# interface "to-CE" customer customer-id create
B.
config>service>ies# interface to CE create
C.
config>service>ies# interface to CE
D.
config>service>ies# interface "to-CE" create
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one SAP to another on a single node.
B.
Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one service to another on a single node.
C.
Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one access port to another.
D.
Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from services on one router to services on another.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of the following commands would be used to configure a new VPLS service that will use a
default vc-id of 5 and a customer id of 4?
B.
configure service vpls 5 customer 4 create
C.
configure service vpls 100 customer 4 vc-id 4 create
D.
configure service vpls vc-id 5 customer4 create
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following MUST be identical for a service between two PEs?
A.
Customer ID
B.
SDP ID
C.
Service ID
D.
VC ID
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
A transport tunnel can carry many service tunnels.
C.
A single network port can carry more than one transport tunnel.
D.
Both MPLS and GRE transport tunnels use a service label.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
All services bound to the same SDP must be the same service type.
B.
All services bound to the same SDP will have the same transport encapsulation.
C.
Any operation on an SDP will affect all services bound to that SDP.
D.
An SDP is used to direct traffic for a service from one router to another.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following about the components of a service on the Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?
A.
An SDP can be used by more than one service and customer.
B.
A SAP can only be created on an access port.
D.
A customer is only created on one site of a distributed service.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of the following SAP encapsulations does NOT support multiple services on a port?
A.
Dot1q
B.
Null
C.
QinQ
D.
ATM
Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on the output shown, what is the value of the service's VC ID?
A.
2
B.
12
C.
30
D.
44
E.
100
F.
The VC ID cannot be determined from the output
Answer: D
Which protocol is used to signal the service label for a Layer 3 VPRN service?
A.
L-LDP
B.
T-LDP
C.
RSVP-TE
D.
MP-BGP
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
config>service# epipe <service-id> enable
B.
config>service# vpws <service-id> enable
C.
config>service# <service-id> no shutdown
D.
config>port# <port-id> no shutdown
E.
config>service# epipe <service-id> no shutdown
Answer: E
Which of the following can be used to detect the smallest path MTU in an RSVP signaled MPLS
tunnel?
A.
ADSPEC
B.
CSPF
C.
Service ping
D.
LSP trace
Answer: A
Explanation:
Consider an E-pipe service configured with SAP 1/1/1:5 and SAP 1/1/1:6. If the SAP 1/1/1:5
accepts an ingress frame, which of the following is TRUE?
A.
The frame egresses from 1/1/1:6 with no VLAN tag.
B.
The frame egresses from 1/1/1:6 with VLAN tag 5.
C.
The frame egresses from 1/1/1:6 with VLAN tag 6.
D.
The frame egresses from 1/1/1:6 with an inner VLAN tag of 5 and an outer VLAN tag of 6.
Answer: C
The SAP 1/1/1:2.3 receives an untagged Ethernet frame. Which of the following is TRUE?
A.
The frame is dropped.
B.
VLAN tags 2 and 3 are added to the frame.
C.
Only outer VLAN tag 2 is added.
D.
Only inner VLAN tag 3 is added.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SAP configured in the form of 1/1/1:0/32 would be used for which type of VPWS?
A.
A-pipe
B.
C-pipe
C.
E-pipe
D.
F-pipe
Answer: A
Explanation:
A customer requests that their Layer 2 Ethernet service be configured to forward frames up to
1500 bytes. The service provider is using MPLS encapsulation (without RSVP-TE fast-reroute) on
their IP/MPLS network. What is the minimum MTU setting for the network ports?
A.
1512
B.
1522
C.
1536
D.
1542
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which service type is needed to bridge an ATM-attached user and an Ethernet-attached user?
A.
A-pipe
B.
F-pipe
C.
C-pipe
D.
E-pipe
Answer: D
Explanation:
An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What value will be derived for the VC-MTU?
A.
4078
B.
4986
C.
5014
D.
5022
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
The Ethernet port must be set to network mode, and the service must have a spoke SDP.
B.
The Ethernet port must be set to network mode.
C.
The Ethernet port must be set to access mode.
D.
The Ethernet port must be set to access mode, and the service must have a spoke SDP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A service has a null encapsulated SAP and a ‘vc-type vlan’ SDP. What happens when the SAP
A.
The frame is dropped.
B.
The service ID is added as the provider VLAN tag.
C.
A VLAN tag of 0 is added as the provider VLAN tag.
D.
The frame is forwarded with no provider VLAN tag.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What MTU value should be set on the access
port for a Q-in-Q encapsulated SAP?
A.
5000
B.
5004
C.
5008
D.
5018
Answer: C
Explanation:
A service needs to accept frames that have the following: an outer VLAN tag of 200 with an inner
VLAN tag of 33; and frames that have an outer VLAN tag of 250 with an inner VLAN tag of 33.
A.
1/1/1:200.*
B.
1/1/1:*.33
C.
1/1/1:*.*
D.
This requires two SAPs: 1/1/1:200.33 and 1/1/1:250.33
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
Spoke SDPs prevent loops in a VPLS.
B.
Mesh SDPs and spoke SDPs can be used in the same VPLS.
C.
A spoke SDP does not require the routers at both ends to be directly connected.
D.
A mesh SDP is identical to a spoke SDP except for its flooding behavior.
Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, what does a Nokia 7750 SR do to support VPLS services for different customers?
A.
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
Dedicates a separate port for each customer.
B.
Performs ARP look-ups for each service.
C.
Maintains a different IP routing table for each service.
D.
Maintains a different MAC Forwarding Database for each service.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Consider a network that has four PE routers. If a customer wants a VPLS that has sites on only
three of the PEs, how many mesh SDPs need to be configured for this service?
A.
3
B.
4
C.
6
D.
12
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The VC-IDs used between the E-pipe and VPLS must match.
C.
The service ID of the E-pipe can be different from that of the VPLS.
D.
The service MTU of the VPLS and E-pipe must match.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes how a MAC FDB is populated in a VPLS service?
A.
A VPLS service does not use a MAC FDB.
B.
The router reads the destination MAC address of frames passing through the service.
C.
The router reads the source MAC address of frames passing through the service.
D.
The router uses reverse ARP (RARP) to resolve the MAC addresses for unknown destinations.
E.
The router is programmed with MAC addresses by the network administrator.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes the flooding of traffic on a PE when unknown traffic is
received on a SAP of a VPLS?
A.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs in the service.
C.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and mesh SDPs in the service.
D.
Traffic is flooded to all SAPs, spoke SDPs, and mesh SDPs in the service.
E.
The traffic is not flooded.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Both clips of output are from router R4. The show service command indicates that an SDP is
down. What might be the cause?
A.
The mesh SDP on router R4 has been shutdown.
C.
The service MTU on 10.10.10.1 has been set to a different value.
D.
The IngLbl and EgrLbl that router R4 has for 10.10.10.1 are identical.
Answer: C
Explanation:
How many service labels must be signaled to bring up a fully-meshed VPLS among five PE
routers?
A.
1
B.
5
C.
10
D.
20
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
ping
B.
Isp-ping
C.
traceroute
D.
Isp-trace
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
PE2 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.
B.
PE1 needs a mirror destination with the remote source specified.
C.
PE1 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.
D.
PE1 and PE2 need a mirror source specified.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
vprn-ping
B.
sdp-ping
C.
traceroute
D.
lsp-trace
Answer: D
PE1 and PE2 are Nokia 7750 SRs. What needs to be added to PE1's configuration to mirror traffic
between PE2 and the customer site?
A.
A "remote-source" needs to be added to the mirror destination on PE1.
B.
A mirror source needs to be added to PE1 with a "remote-source".
C.
This is not possible since the protocol analyzer is located at the Central Office. It needs to be at
the customer site.
D.
A mirror source with SAP 1/1/2 needs to be added on PE1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
E-pipe 100 is using an SDP with an LSP that uses the path shown (PE1-PE2-PE3-PE4). Based on
the OAM command output, which of the following is FALSE?
A.
The E-pipe can support a maximum MTU size of 1578.
B.
The ports of the link PE2-PE3 have an MTU of 1578.
C.
An svc-ping of the E-pipe will succeed.
D.
If the step size was 2, the maximum response size would be the same.
Which one of the following items CANNOT be used as a mirror source on a Nokia 7750 SR?
A.
IP filter
B.
MAC filter
C.
Egress label
D.
Ingress label
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following about the Nokia 7750 SR's sdp-ping utility is FALSE?
A.
It tests uni-directional or round-trip in-band connectivity.
B.
It tests the reachability of hosts that are using an SDP.
C.
It tests the reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP through its tunnel.
D.
It can be used by specifying only an SDP ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on an MPLS
encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1500?
A.
1500
B.
1508
C.
1514
D.
1522
Answer: D
Explanation:
On a Nokia 7750 SR, the OAM command 'svc-ping' can be used with options ‘local-sdp’ and
'remote-sdp'. Which of the following is TRUE?
A.
‘local-sdp’ and 'remote-sdp' indicate that all services using these SDPs are pinged.
B.
‘local-sdp’ and ‘remote-sdp’ indicate that pings are initiated from both local and remote routers.
C.
Both ‘local-sdp’ and 'remote-sdp' take parameters to specify which SDPs are used for the test.
D.
‘local-sdp’ indicates that the ping is sent in-band, and ‘remote-sdp’ indicates the return ping is in-
band.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
A packet receives a service label and a transport label at the ingress PE.
B.
A packet has its service label swapped at each P router.
C.
The egress PE pops the service label, and the transport label is forwarded.
D.
The service label is popped by the remote CE.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following about route distinguishers on the Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?
A.
Route distinguishers are used to ensure that VPRN IP prefixes are globally unique.
B.
Route distinguishers are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form IPv6 prefixes.
C.
Route distinguishers are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.
D.
CE routes use a route distinguisher to indicate which VPRN they are associated to.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 4, Volume D
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
QUESTION NO: 180
On the Nokia 7750 SR, which one of the following steps is NOT required when enabling an MP-
BGP session between PE routers in a VPRN?
A.
Configuring an autonomous system number in the global context.
B.
Configuring a BGP group and peer parameters.
C.
Configuring a VPN-IPv4 address family.
D.
Configuring an export policy to advertise routes between PEs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
They are used to identify the VRF table for a prefix at the receiving PE.
B.
They are used by VPRNs to control the distribution of VPN routing information.
C.
They are distributed to all PEs and CEs that are part of the VPRN.
D.
They are distributed to PEs to identify the VRF table that a VPN-IPv4 prefix is associated with.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
An IES can only have one interface.
B.
An IES interface can have an SDP or a SAP.
C.
An IES can perform fragmentation.
D.
An IES must have an IP address assigned to it.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Part of a 6VPE deployment is shown in this exhibit. Which of the following is the correct
configuration and context on PE1 for a BGP peering session with CE1?
A.
Option A
B.
Option B
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Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
C.
Option C
D.
Option D
Answer: A
Explanation:
This output is from a router that is part of a 6VPE deployment using a VPRN. Which type of router
would this configuration be found on?
A.
A CE router.
B.
A P router.
C.
A PE router.
D.
Both P and PE routers.
Answer: A
On a Nokia 7750 SR, why must the MTU be explicitly set when configuring an IES spoke
termination to a VPLS?
A.
By default, a VPLS signals an MTU based on the network port.
B.
By default, an IES sets its ip-mtu to the VC MTU of the VPLS.
C.
By default, an IES uses an MTU value based on its SAP.
D.
By default, an IES uses an MTU based on the network port.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Assuming CE1 exports its system address using BGP, is a routing policy required on PE1 to
advertise CE1's system address to PE2?
A.
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Yes. A routing policy is required to advertise routes between PE routers in a VPRN regardless of
the CE-PE routing.
B.
Yes. A routing policy is required in this case because BGP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol.
C.
No, a routing policy is not required. By default, the Nokia 7750 SR will advertise all VPRN routes
between PE routers.
D.
No, a routing policy is not required on PE1, but an import policy is required on PE2.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
An IES has a configurable VC MTU.
B.
An IES interface has an IP address assigned to it.
C.
IES supports QoS.
D.
An IES requires a spoke SDP.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When using MP-BGP for an IPv4 VPRN service, what address family needs to be used for a PE-
CE BGP session?
A.
B.
The IPv4 address family.
C.
Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured.
D.
The same address family must be used for the provider network and the PE-CE.
Answer: B
Explanation:
On the Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following statements about MP-BGP used for a VPRN is
TRUE?
A.
Routes from different customers with the same IPv4 address prefix are treated as equivalent by
MP-BGP.
B.
MP-BGP will advertise routes to other BGP sessions on the same PE without the need of policies.
C.
The multi-protocol nature of MP-BGP allows VPRN routes to be converted into IPv4 routes in the
provider core network.
D.
MP-BGP is an enhanced version of BGP that can carry customer route prefixes for multiple
VPRNs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
R1 and R4 are providing a VPRN for the CEs. Which of the following about the traceroute run on
router R5 is TRUE?
A.
The traceroute will only show one hop: R5-R6.
B.
The traceroute will only show 2 hops; R5-R1 and R4-R6.
C.
The traceroute will only show 3 hops: R5-R1, R1-R4 and R4-R6.
D.
The traceroute will show one hop for each router in the provider core and one for each CE-PE
hop.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The outer label allows traffic to transit across the MPLS network.
B.
The inner label identifies the VPRN service.
C.
MP-BGP is used to signal VPRN labels.
D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
A VPRN is a Layer 3 service.
B.
A PE maintains a separate forwarding table for each VPRN.
C.
The service provider manages the customers IP addressing.
D.
Multiple VPRNs can be deployed over the same IP/MPLS network infrastructure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The output is from PE router R1 about VPRN service 100. From which protocol did router R1
learn the prefix 192.168.20.0/24?
A.
LDP
B.
BGP
C.
MP-BGP
D.
MPLS
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
To advertise VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes, two MP-BGP sessions are required.
B.
PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one.
C.
MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN labels.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
VRF information is advertised between PEs using MP-BGP.
B.
VRF tables are used to forward traffic to CEs.
C.
P routers use VRF tables to maintain customer-specific information.
D.
VRF tables provide isolation between customers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which protocol can be used to signal the outer label for a VPN service?
A.
IPCP
B.
LDP
C.
PPP
D.
TLDP
A.
SDP IDs must be locally unique.
B.
SDPs are specific to one service type.
C.
SDPs must use MPLS for their encapsulation.
D.
An SDP is required for a local service.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following is TRUE when a service uses a GRE transport tunnel?
A.
The service takes a route determined by the IGP.
B.
The tunnel does not use a service label.
C.
The service label is swapped at each hop in the transport network.
D.
The tunnel is bidirectional and only requires configuration at one end of the service.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following fields is NOT present in a GRE encapsulated VPN service packet?
A.
DLC Header
B.
Control Word
C.
Transport Label
D.
Service Label
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The dot1Q default SAP (port: *) can be used to pass VLAN tags transparently through a network.
B.
The dot1Q null SAP (port: 0) accepts all tagged frames and untagged frames.
C.
The dot1Q default SAP (port: *) accepts all untagged frames and any frames with tag values that
are not used as a service-delimiting value on another SAP.
D.
A dot1q null SAP (port: 0) and a dot1q default SAP (port: *) cannot both be defined on the same
port.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Consider an E-pipe service configured with SAP 1/1/1:5 and SAP 1/1/1:6.7. If the SAP 1/1/1:5
accepts an ingress frame, which of the following is TRUE?
A.
The frame egresses 1/1/1:6.7 with an outer VLAN tag of 6 and inner tag of 7.
B.
The frame is dropped at the egress SAP 1/1/1:6.7.
C.
The frame egresses 1/1/1:6.7 with VLAN tag 5.
D.
The frame egresses 1/1/1:6.7 with VLAN tag 6.
Answer: A
Explanation:
On which component is vc-type configured to create an E-pipe service that preserves the VLAN
tag during transport?
A.
The SDP itself (outside of the epipe context).
B.
The SAP in the E-pipe.
C.
The mesh SDP in the E-pipe.
D.
The spoke SDP in the E-pipe.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
vc-type ether
B.
vc-type vlan
C.
vc-type dot1q
D.
vc-type null
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
F-pipes use SAPs in the form of port: DLCI (e.g. 1/2/3:65).
B.
To the customer, the PE appears as a native Frame Relay UNI (User Network Interface).
C.
Multiple Frame Relay circuits can be mapped to a single F-pipe service on the Nokia 7750 SR.
D.
The MPLS control word is required because the Frame Relay header is not encapsulated in the
frame.
Answer: C
Explanation:
B.
sap 1/1/1:*
C.
sap 1/1/1:0
D.
sap 1/1/1:1
Answer: D
Explanation:
The SAP 1/1/1:2.3 receives an Ethernet frame with outer VLAN tag 5 and inner VLAN tag 3.
Which of the following is TRUE?
A.
The frame is dropped.
B.
The frame's outer tag is changed to match the SAP, and it is accepted.
C.
The frames outer tag is dropped, and the frame is accepted.
D.
The frame's tags are removed, and the frame is accepted.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Click the exhibit. This output is from router R4. Service 333 is a VPLS. Why might the peer
10.10.10.1 have the same value for IngLbl and EgrLbl?
A.
B.
10.10.10.1 has yet to send its own unique label.
C.
Router R4 is using the same tunnel to send and receive to 10.10.10.1.
D.
The service on 10.10.10.1 is down, so it is rejecting packets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A customer has sites on three different Nokia 7750 SRs. The customer requires a fully-meshed
VPLS. Which of the following is TRUE?
A.
Each router requires 1 SDP.
B.
Each router requires 2 SDPs.
C.
Each router requires 3 SDPs.
D.
Each router requires 6 SDPs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
They allow a VPLS to scale more easily.
C.
They allow a service to span multiple metro networks.
D.
They simplify the configuration required when adding new PEs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
By default, what does the Nokia 7750 SR do when a frame with an unknown destination address
is received in a VPLS?
A.
It drops the frame.
B.
It floods the frame to all PEs participating in the service.
C.
It sends a destination unreachable message back to the originating host.
D.
It sends the frame to the closest neighbor.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
By default, the VC ID on the mesh SDPs of a VPLS are set to the service ID.
B.
A VPLS appears to the customer as a direct Ethernet connection.
D.
By default, T-LDP is used for signaling service labels.
Answer: B
Explanation:
E-pipe 100 is using an SDP (4) with an LSP that uses the path shown (PE1-PE2-PE3-PE4). Which
of the following is the expected output from the OAM command?
B.
Option B
C.
Option C
D.
Option D
Answer: A
Explanation:
PE1 and PE2 are Nokia 7750 SRs. Which of the following is the missing configuration required on
PE2 to complete the mirror?
A.
Option A
B.
Option B
C.
Option C
D.
Option D
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
mac-trace
B.
svc-ping
C.
lsp-trace
D.
traceroute
Answer: C
Explanation:
An operator at PE1 wants to analyze the traffic between CE1 and PE1 on SAP 1/1/3. On a Nokia
7750 SR, which of the following is NOT required as part of the configuration?
A.
A mirror source with a defined source type.
C.
A mirror destination with a SAP defined.
D.
A mirror destination and a mirror source with the same service ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
The service label is swapped for a transport label during transport.
B.
The transport label is used to forward packets between PEs.
C.
The service label is used to identify which VPRN a packet belongs to.
D.
Labels are initially added at the ingress PE.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
An IES provides a Layer 3 interface to a customer.
B.
A virtual routing/forwarding table is created per IES service.
D.
An IES interface's IP address, if bound to a port, will appear in the routing table.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This output is from PE router R1. Based on the output about VPRN 100, how many prefixes has
router R1 learned from CE router R5?
A.
0
B.
2
C.
3
D.
6
Answer: B
A.
Service providers can apply QoS, ingress/egress traffic shaping and policing on a per service
basis.
B.
Different customers with overlapping address space can be accommodated.
C.
There is a clear demarcation of customer and service provider networks.
D.
Customers can connect to the same service using different subnets.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
Route targets are carried in MP-BGP updates.
B.
Route targets identify the VRF that a VPN-IPv4 prefix is associated with.
C.
Route targets are communicated between PEs that are part of a specific VPRN.
D.
Route targets identify the egress SAP of a service towards a CE.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
The CE must be an IGP peer of the IES.
B.
The CE must be on the same subnet as the IES.
C.
The CE must use an E-pipe to connect to the IES.
D.
The CE must fragment any frames that are too large for the IES.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
Each VRF table contains routes for a single VPRN.
B.
Route targets are used to determine if a prefix belongs to a VRF.
C.
Routes in the VRF table are advertised to the core routers.
D.
VPN labels identify which VRF table should be used for a packet.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Route distinguishers are contained in VPN-IPv4 prefixes.
B.
Route distinguishers allow the same IP prefix to be used for more than one destination in a single
VPRN.
C.
Route distinguishers allow MP-BGP to manage multiple routes for the same IP prefix.
D.
Route distinguishers are only used by the PE routes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
VPN-IPv4 allows multiple customers to have overlapping IP addresses.
B.
CE routers use VPN-IPv4 prefixes to differentiate between services.
C.
PE routers are responsible for creating VPN-IPv4 prefixes.
D.
A VPN-IPv4 prefix is composed of a route distinguisher (RD) and an IPv4 address.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An IPv4 MPLS provider network is being configured for 6VPE. BGP is being used for the PE-CE
protocol to exchange IPv6 routes. Which of the following is FALSE?
B.
PE routers must be configured to run MP-BGP.
C.
PE-to-CE BGP sessions need to be configured to support IPv6.
D.
The provider network core must be configured to support IPv6.
Answer: D
Explanation:
On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following statements about the default advertisement of VRF
routes is true?
A.
All routes in the VRF are advertised to the PEs and CEs.
B.
No routes in the VRF are advertised to the PEs or to the CEs.
C.
All routes in the VRF are advertised to the PEs, but not to the CEs.
D.
All routes in the VRF are advertised to the CEs, but not to the PEs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The SAP 1/1/1:2.3 receives an Ethernet frame with outer VLAN tag 2 and inner VLAN tag 5.
Which of the following is TRUE?
B.
The inner tag is removed, and the frame is forwarded.
C.
The inner tag is changed to match the SAP, and the frame is forwarded.
D.
The frame is dropped.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of the following SAPs can be used so that only untagged frames and frames with a VLAN
tag of 0 are accepted?
A.
sap 1/1/1:0
B.
Requires both sap 1/1/1:0 and sap 1/1/1:*
C.
sap 1/1/1:0-4096
D.
sap 1/1/1:*
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following SAPs will forward all tagged and untagged frames on the port?
A.
sap 1/1/1
C.
sap 1/1/1:0.*
D.
sap 1/1/1:0
Answer: A
Explanation:
An SDP using MPLS encapsulation is configured for an E-pipe service. The network port on the
Nokia 7750 SR used by the SDP has an MTU of 8000. What is the SDP path MTU?
A.
7958
B.
7978
C.
8022
D.
8042
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
The VC ID on the mesh SDP must be explicitly configured.
B.
The VC ID on the spoke SDP must be explicitly configured.
D.
The VC ID on the spoke SDP does not have to be explicitly configured and it will use the service
id.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes a MAC FDB used by a VPLS service?
A.
A VPLS service does not use a MAC FDB.
B.
A single MAC FDB is shared by all VPLS services on a PE.
C.
A separate MAC FDB is used on the PE for each VPLS service.
D.
Each VPLS service uses a separate MAC FDBs for unicast and multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following about the Nokia 7750 SR svc-ping, when used in-band, is FALSE?
A.
It will show the hops taken between service endpoints.
B.
It will test the delay across the service.
C.
It will test the SDPs of a service in both directions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on an MPLS
encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1518?
A.
1520
B.
1540
C.
1548
D.
1556
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which one of the following commands on a Nokia 7750 SR can take a FEC as a parameter to
verify if a packet for that FEC reaches the appropriate LER?
A.
ping
B.
sdp-ping
C.
svc-ping
D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 prefixes over an
IPv4 infrastructure.
B.
Customers connected to 6VPE can run IPv6 or IPv4.
C.
On a PE router, if the MP-BGP next hop is an IPv4 address, a mapped IPv6-compliant address
will be used.
D.
6VPE implements its own VPN-IPv6 address family and is a replacement for MP-BGP.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
An export policy is required on PE1 to advertise routes to CE1.
B.
An export policy is required on CE1 to advertise local routes to PEL
C.
An export policy is required to advertise routes between the PE routers.
D.
No export policy is required on PE2 or CE2 due to the static routes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
An IES requires a spoke SDP.
B.
A virtual route table must be configured for an IES service.
C.
An IES service must use static routes to communicate with customer networks.
D.
An IES must have at least one SAP defined.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of the following about the BGP VPN-IPv4 address family is FALSE?
B.
VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish between duplicate prefixes originating from different
customers.
C.
In a VPRN, data traffic is carried in packets that have VPN-IPv4 addresses.
D.
VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Topic 5, Volume E
Which of the following about the components of a service on the Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?
A.
An SDP can be used by more than one service.
B.
A SAP can only be created on an access port.
C.
The same SAP ID can be used on different PEs by the same service.
D.
A customer can only have a single service associated to it.
Answer: C
Explanation:
B.
The IES must use an IP address that is different than the CE.
C.
The IES can only include one SAP for the CE.
D.
The IES must include a network port.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
A route target is used to distinguish to which VRF table a prefix belongs.
B.
A route target appended to an IPv4 prefix produces a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
C.
Multiple route targets can be part of a single MP-BGP update.
D.
Route targets must be configured for VPRNs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following about the components of a distributed service on the Nokia 7750 SR is
TRUE?
A.
A SAP can only be used by one service on a router.
C.
A service is created on each site before the customer is created.
D.
SAPs must be created before a service is created.
Answer: A
Explanation:
B.
The service requires a second spoke SDP on this router.
C.
The service's VC ID is 44.
D.
The service will accept VLAN tag 100.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Service tunnels are unidirectional.
B.
Transport tunnels are unidirectional.
C.
A service will use the same service label for every hop.
D.
A local service requires a transport tunnel.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a Layer 2 encapsulation using T-LDP, what does the second (bottom) label represent?
A.
Tunnel Label
C.
Operational Control Word
D.
VPI
E.
VCI
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following statements about SAPs that are part of a VPWS is FALSE?
A.
SAPs can be defined on Ethernet, POS, Sonet/SDH, or TDM channels.
B.
Only one SAP is required for a service that originates and terminates on the same Nokia 7750 SR.
C.
SAPs can have QoS policies assigned to them.
D.
Multiple SAPs can be defined on the same port.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
More than one SAP can be configured on a physical port that is configured for null encapsulation.
C.
SAPs can be created on ports designated as "Network".
D.
SAPs can only be created on Ethernet ports.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What is the minimum MTU value that should
be set on an access port for a dot1q encapsulated SAP on this service?
A.
5000
B.
5004
C.
5008
D.
5014
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
The PE routers of the service are responsible for learning MAC addresses.
B.
Flooding ensures that all PEs in a fully-meshed VPLS will learn the source address of all traffic.
D.
Multiple VPLSes on the same PE share the same MAC FDB.
Answer: D
Explanation:
By default, how does a VPLS handle a tagged frame received at the ingress of a null SAP on a
Nokia 7750 SR?
A.
The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is kept and transported over
the network.
B.
The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over
the network.
C.
The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is kept and transported over the
network.
D.
The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the
network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is output from router R4. Service 333 is a VPLS. Why does peer 10.10.10.1 not have an
EgrLbl?
A.
The SDP to 10.10.10.1 on router R4 is shutdown.
B.
Router R4 has not sent a label to router R1 (10.10.10.1) yet.
C.
10.10.10.1 has a different service MTU set.
D.
10.10.10.1 has not sent a label to router R4 yet.
Answer: D
Explanation:
How many service labels must be signaled to bring up a fully-meshed VPLS among three PE
routers?
A.
1
B.
3
C.
6
D.
12
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of "Hub and Spoke'' VPLS deployments?
A.
They reduce the number of SDPs that need to be configured.
B.
They can be used to work around physical topologies that prevent a fully meshed deployment.
C.
They prevent loops that can be introduced by mesh deployments.
D.
They can simplify the implementation of security policy enforcement and packet inspection.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which utility on the Nokia 7750 SR can be used to investigate an MPLS path?
A.
Isp-trace
B.
Idp-trace
C.
Sdp-ping
D.
Svc-ping
E.
Ping
If the Nokia 7750 SR is rebooted after an "admin save'' has been performed, which of the following
about mirror services is TRUE?
A.
Only the mirror source must be re-configured.
B.
Only the mirror destination must be re-configured.
C.
Both the mirror destination and mirror source must be re-configured.
D.
Neither the mirror destination nor the mirror source must be re-configured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
Family ipv4
B.
Family ipv6
C.
Family ipv4 ipv6
D.
Family vpn-ipv4
E.
Family vpn-ipv4 vpn-ipv6
Answer: E
Explanation:
Part of a 6VPE deployment is shown. Which of the following is the correct configuration and
context on router CE1 for a BGP peering session with 6VPE1?
B.
Option B
C.
Option C
D.
Option D
Answer: D
Explanation:
The output is from PE router R4 about VPRN service 100. How many prefixes have been learned
from the MP-BGP protocol?
A.
0
B.
2
C.
D.
6
Answer: C
Explanation:
On a Nokia 7750 SR, what is the recommended approach for making sure that MTUs between a
VPLS and its spoke IES termination match?
A.
Set the service MTU of the VPLS to match the IES MTU.
B.
Set the ip-mtu of the IES to match the service MTU of the VPLS.
C.
Set the SDP MTU of the IES to match the SDP MTU of the VPLS.
D.
Set the MTU of the IES's network port to match the service MTU of the VPLS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
A SAP can be associated with more than one service.
B.
A SAP is the subscriber's point of entry to the service network.
C.
A SAP is created by specifying a physical port and an encapsulation type.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a Layer 2 encapsulation using T-LDP, what does the first (top) label represent?
A.
Tunnel Label
B.
VC Label
C.
Operational Control Word
D.
UNI
E.
NNI
Answer: A
Explanation:
When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered best practice to configure
which of the following parameters as globally significant?
A.
Customer ID and SAP ID.
B.
Customer ID and Service ID.
C.
SAP ID and Service ID.
E.
SDP ID and SAP ID.
F.
SDP ID and VC ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
On a Nokia 7750 SR, which vc-type will strip service delimiting tags at the ingress PE?
A.
vc-type ether
B.
vc-type vlan
C.
vc-type dotlq
D.
vc-type null
Answer: A
Explanation:
What happens by default on a Nokia 7750 SR when a null encapsulated SAP receives a frame
with a VLAN tag?
A.
The original VLAN tag is removed.
B.
The original VLAN tag is kept.
D.
The VLAN tag is kept and a provider tag is added.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
ADSPEC sets an SDP's MTU to the smallest MTU value found along the LSP path.
B.
RSVP must be enabled on all MPLS routers of a path to use ADSPEC.
C.
ADSPEC can automatically adjust the service MTU.
D.
ADSPEC can be enabled on individual LSPs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
All SAPs of a VPLS belong to the same broadcast domain.
B.
When a new site is added, all the existing sites need to be shutdown and re-provisioned.
C.
An additional T-LDP session is required between PEs for each additional VPLS that is
provisioned.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CEs use BGP and export policies to advertise their local prefixes with the VPRN on their PEs.
If the VPRN is functioning properly, which of the following commands will succeed when
performed on router R1?
A.
"ping 192.168.20.1"
B.
"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.10.1 destination 192.168.20.1"
C.
"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.20.1 destination 192.168.10.1"
D.
"ping 10.10.10.6" (router R6's system IP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
They are signaled between PE devices using MP-BGP.
B.
They are swapped at each P router as a packet crosses the service provider network.
C.
They are also known as the inner label or service label.
D.
They indicate to the egress PE the VPRN to which a packet belongs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on this output from PE router R1, how many other PEs are participating in the VPRN?
A.
0
B.
1
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 153
Nokia 4A0-104 Exam
C.
2
D.
3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following statements about mirror slicing on the Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?
A.
Mirror slicing is used to logically separate a port that is being monitored.
B.
Mirror slicing is configured in the mirror destination context.
C.
When mirror slicing is enabled, only the protocol headers of the traffic are replicated.
D.
A mirror can be configured with multiple slices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
A PE uses the same VRF table for all the VPRN services on it.
B.
A PE uses a VRF to maintain forwarding information.
C.
Information for VRFs can be advertised between PEs by MP-BGP.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
An SDP is not required for a local service.
B.
A single SDP can carry different types of services.
C.
An SDP can simultaneously support GRE and MPLS encapsulation.
D.
An SDP can use the system IP address to indicate the far-end router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Mesh SDPs assist MAC learning by flooding traffic to other mesh SDPs.
B.
A PE keeps a single FDB for all VPLSes it has.
C.
Frames received on a SAP that are broadcast, multicast or unknown are flooded.
D.
The FDB only stores the MAC addresses of remote sites.
A network consists of four PE routers. A customer requires a VPLS and has sites connected to
each PE. The VPLS is fully meshed using IP/MPLS. How many SDPs must be configured on each
PE?
A.
3
B.
4
C.
6
D.
8
Answer: A
Explanation:
What happens by default on a Nokia 7750 SR when a VPLS accepts a tagged frame at the
ingress SAP 1/1/1:100?
A.
The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is kept and transported over
the network.
B.
The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over
the network.
C.
The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is kept for transport over the
network.
D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
What Nokia 7750 SR OAM tool can be used to verify the end-to-end connectivity of a service?
A.
Sdp-ping
B.
Isp-ping
C.
Svc-ping
D.
Sdp-mtu
Answer: C
Explanation:
A VPLS has a service MTU of 1600. To create an IES spoke termination to the VPLS, what ip-mtu
value must be used for the IES?
A.
1586
B.
1596
C.
1600
D.
1614
A.
SDP
B.
Network port
C.
LSP
D.
Service
E.
RSVP
Answer: C
Explanation:
An SDP using GRE encapsulation is configured for an E-pipe service. The network port used by
the SDP has an MTU of 8000. What value does the SDP path MTU have by default on a Nokia
7750 SR?
A.
7958
B.
7978
C.
8022
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A VPLS receives a frame with the single VLAN tag 35 on the Q-in-Q SAP 1/1/1:35.*. Which of the
following describes default Nokia 7750 SR behavior?
A.
The frame is dropped.
B.
The VLAN tag is removed, and the frame is transported over the network.
C.
The VLAN tag is kept, and the frame is transported over the network.
D.
The VLAN tag is kept, a VLAN of 0 is added, and the frame is transported over the network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following about the lsp-ping command on the Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?
A.
An echo request is sent based on the LSP's label stack.
B.
Echo reply packets may not take the same path as the LSP.
C.
The IP destination address is used to initiate echo requests.
D.
The test fails if the LSP is not operationally up.
The operator at PE1 wants to analyze the traffic between CE4 and PE2. On a Nokia 7750 SR,
which of the following is required as part of the configuration?
A.
Both PE1 and PE2 need a mirror source.
B.
PE2 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.
C.
PE1 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.
D.
Both PE1 and PE2 need a mirror destination.
E.
PE2 needs a mirror destination that specifies a SAP.
Answer: D
Which of the following about route distinguishers on the Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?
A.
Route distinguishers are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form IPv6 prefixes.
B.
CE routers use a route distinguisher to indicate which VPRN they are associated to.
C.
A route distinguisher combined with an IPv4 prefix produces a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
D.
Route distinguishers are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Customers must use the same routing protocol as the service provider.
B.
Customers belonging to the same VPRN service must use the same subnet.
C.
Service providers only need to perform configurations on the PEs to add additional VPRNs.
D.
For each VPRN, only one customer can be connected at each PE.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The two PEs are providing 6VPE and IPv4 VPRNs. The core network is IPv4/MPLS. Which of the
following is the BGP family configuration for the MP-BPG on the PEs?
A.
family ipv4 ipv6
B.
family vpn-ipv4 ipv6
C.
family vpn-ipv4 vpn-ipv6
D.
family ipv6 vpn-ipv6
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
They both function as a Layer 2 switch from the service provider's perspective.
C.
They both use SAPs as the demarcation point between the customer and the provider.
D.
MAC addresses are learned by VPLSes, but not by E-pipes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP.
B.
It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct.
C.
It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs.
D.
It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The core P routers will swap the service label at each hop.
B.
The CE pushes the VPRN service label on to the packet and then forwards it to the ingress PE.
D.
At the egress PE, the transport and service labels are popped.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
I-pipes and E-pipes use bridged PDUs to perform ATM/FR/PPP Ethernet interworking.
B.
I-pipes use bridged PDUs to perform ATM/FR/PPP Ethernet interworking. E-pipes use routed
PDUs to perform ATM/FR/PPP Ethernet interworking.
C.
I-pipes use routed PDUs to perform ATM/FR/PPP Ethernet interworking. E-pipes use bridged
PDUs to perform ATM/FR/PPP Ethernet interworking.
D.
I-pipes and E-pipes use routed PDUs to perform ATM/FR/PPP Ethernet interworking.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The service has a VC ID of 44.
B.
The service’s data is encapsulated using GRE.
C.
The service is a distributed service.
D.
The service’s port is using dot1q encapsulation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
The frame egresses from the null SAP without the VLAN tag 5.
B.
The frame egresses from the null SAP with VLAN tag 5.
C.
The frame egresses from the null SAP with VLAN tag 0.
D.
The frame is dropped at the null SAP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
If the frame has a VLAN tag of 33, it is accepted.
B.
If the frame has a tag other than 33, it is dropped.
C.
If the frame is untagged, a VLAN tag of 33 is added, and the frame is accepted.
D.
If the frame is untagged, it is dropped.
Answer: D
Explanation: