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this not because none of these arguments need revision, but because
gone since then. I won’t come close to touching on all of this work –
with luck we’ll get to some more of it in Q and A, and you’ll get to
Part I.
Since the 1960s, European economic historians have moved away from
East Asia. Smithian dynamics worked there, too, but didn't transform
fuel, fiber and building materials still came from the land. Britain,
I argue, needed for its escape not only technology and institutions,
results more like the Yangzi Delta or Japan’s Kinai region than like
19th century England. (It’s important here to compare like with like:
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discontinuity to be explained -- because its just as easy to see
from 1430 to 1550, and didn’t clearly surpass 1430 levels until the
19th century, even in London and Amsterdam; they didn’t even equal
1430s levels before the late19th or even early 20th century in most
because people spent more hours per year working for the market,
and definitely spent less time making goods for their own households
-- in other words, they specialized more and bought other things, some
elsewhere). Rice-deflated day wages mostly fell after about 1100, but
circa 1750, earnings for farmers and textile producers in the Yangzi
Delta still matched up well against England. (It’s worth noting here
that wage earners were a much smaller part of the population in China,
and for institutional reasons, earned far less than even most tenant
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to-tenant, rough parity lasted into the 1820s – for textile workers,
their own spinning wheels looms and worked for themselves, earning
very limited evidence suggests that nutritional standards held up, and
rates were apparently no higher than European ones between 1550 and
England. (OVERHEAD)
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forward in Europe, while in China per capita non-grain consumption
almost certainly declined -- 1900 figures for cloth and sugar, for
fluxes from dry-farming areas of North China and England, circa 1800,
and they do not show more severe soil depletion in China: if I threw
Western Eur advantage circa 1750, despite much sparser pop -- Chinese
use land and fuel very intensively, and they're actually better off in
declining yields (though there were also areas, mostly right around
sandstorms became more common, etc. Why does much of this stabilize
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One crucial factor is the switch in a few areas to sub-terranean
innovation, but also one of luck: Chinese coal deposits are just much
Moreover, 18th century Chinese coal mines, being mostly in very dry
areas, wrestled with sudden gas explosions, not (as in England) with
early ones converted less than 1% of the energy they used to motion,
and in 1800, 80% of them were at the pit-head, where fuel was
energy -- coal, timber and water power, as well as ores – and simply
But that trade tended to run into one of two problems. In a place
like Eastern Europe, with many barriers to factor mobility and many
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limited – and indeed, the Baltic trade plateaued by 1650, at a
growth and exit from agriculture in the Netherlands.) But over the
longer haul, the freer trade of advanced Chinese regions with their
interior also hit limits. With hinterland families more or less free
stimulated population growth in places like North China and the Middle
Yangzi during the 18th century; and as the best land filled up, some
export and reducing demand for imported textiles. What had been by far
manufactures and thus against the YD: the same piece of cloth bought
stole it from Joel Mokyr’s work on the Low Countries in the 18th and
19th centuries– showing that you don’t need any special pathology to
otherpositive shocks.)
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The New World, however, was different. Smallpox, etc.,
depopulates the region, and much of the labor force was replaced by
look like a modern one – spending a lot on imported capital goods (in
this case human, kidnapped, capital goods) and a fair amount on mass
Asia’s most advanced regions may have suffered from markets working
very well while factor endowments were not different enough among
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New World – for British and later Northwest European growth. Even in
substitutes for Britain’s New World imports would have required about
exceeds Britain’s total arable and pasture land put together. Without
Yangzi Delta.
For current purposes, then, the Great Divergence made five key
20th century nation-states: thus China and Europe, or the most advanced
areas within each of those units (the Yangzi Delta and Britain or
Britain plus the Netherlands), but not Britain and China, unless we’re
these are rarely the big story). Second, the Great Divergence –
areas anywhere else – comes relatively late (probably in the late 18th
century), which rules out a lot of the old explanations such as only
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divergence should have come much earlier. Third, a late divergence
that were made possible by this initial growth and helped to keep the
indicated that a place like the Yangzi delta, which did not get the
resources and technology. Fourth, because modern growth came late, and
of the late 18th and especially the 19th century were crucial, with both
change, though picking up, was still not rapid enough to overcome
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made the crucial difference, they were not the institutions of
did not distinguish the region from East Asia – but institutions
So 20 year’s later, what can we add to this story, and what must
we change about it? There’s been a lot more quantitative work done
foe China as a whole, gathering speed in the second half of the 18th
that Qing GDP estimates are very fragile), we see signs of decreasing
as 1730, and evident even in the LY by 1780 or so. That’s the pattern
more functional “cores,” but it seems to have begun earlier than I’d
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mid-18th C YD may not have been that much above early 17th – and by
early 19th, it’s below it; what’s still up for grabs is where the peak
was in begtween those dates, and thus when decline started and how bit
up in 2 senses. First, note that we’re now mostly arguing about when
in the 18th century to put this versus older stories that plumped for
GDP numbers (such as very low estimates of Ming GDP that have now been
portion of the 18th century, then that still leaves open the question of
when even the most advanced parts of Europe began to exhibit modern
shows, Dutch GDP in 1750-1800 only briefly reached 10% above its 1640
peak, and was back down to 5% above that peak by 1800-1807; during the
stagnant (never rising above 2% above the 1640 peak). And that 1640
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looks closely at the improved GDP time series for Britain compiled by
Broadberry et al and finds that if you leave out a brief (though very
impressive) growth spurt in the late 1300s and another in the late
per year. (And both of those spurts in per capita GDP came during
figures, per capita GDP growth falls to 0.2% per year: better than the
basis for claiming that Britain (much less “the West”) had clearly
growth, and the regression (at least for the richest part of China)
doubts that the 19th century was very bad almost everywhere in China)
that still sounds like (a) a pretty late great divergence and (b) a
weak indication that the North Sea region was safely launched on a
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horizon, at least in part due to external resource bonanzas that
originally suggested.
there weren’t things going on in Europe much earlier than 1750 that
strange to claim that there hadn’t been: very few historical phenomena
lousy, especially for the service sector, but it does seem that
productivity growth there was less sustained, and that the percentage
look for sustained urban dynamism outside Europe.) And there has been
change and on human capital – though both are quite hard to quantify,
and the relationship between the two before the rise of systematic,
specify. I don’t think a clear picture has emerged yet, but we know a
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Meanwhile, we also know more than did in 2000 about some things
and now seem unlikely to be a big deal. For instance, work by Bob
Allen, Jan Luiten Van Zanden, Li Bozhong and others has shown that
with that in Britain and the Netherlands almost into the 19th century,
while land productivity was much higher, and TFP was therefore
probably higher. It is also clear that the YD figures are much higher
than those for various parts of continental Europe that became earlier
followers of the IR than the Delta was. Given the number of stories
over the last 25 years or so showing that European guilds were not
had been means that their dissolution couldn’t have been as important
suggested that our story of the GD is simply “coal and colonies,” but
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knit school, and I always said that these were not sufficient
constraint on growth.
claim – it’s obvious that you can’t keep moving people out of
goes WAY up, you bring lots more land under the plow (which was not
from elsewhere, and it’s equally obvious that modern economic growth
fossil fuels were purely exogenous gifts: one had to be able to mine,
ship, and use the fossil fuels, and overseas resources weren’t purely
those questions. (Maybe it didn’t always read that way, but that was
the intent.) And I think that intervention has been useful: I would
call attention, among other work, to the 2005 Williamson and O’Rourke
article “From Malthus to Ohlin.” They ask when and how Britain was
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from 1500 – 1730, weakening but not vanishing over the rest of the 18th
irrelevant to that ratio (which they say describes their data for
between 1730 and 1842, and (astonishingly, even to me) conclude that
One need not go that far, of course, to accept that there has
been something really different about the economic world of the last
couple of centuries, and that having been successful in that world was
along. Understanding how and why the divergence happened is much more
difficult than the already difficult tasks of estimating its size and
timing. But we’ve now made a lot of progress and what and when, and
discontinuities that go into the hows and whys. In short, we’ve come
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