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IELTS Class &

Practice Material

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IELTS Class &
Practice Material for

Listening
module
CONNECTORS

CONTINUE THE TREND:

Similarly / In the same way / In the Same Stride / In the same vein / In the same
breath / On the same lines / Following the suit / Likewise.

Besides / In addition / Moreover / Furthermore

Followed by / And / Both…and / Not only…but (also) / As well as / Apart from / In


addition to

Above all / On top of it / Last but not the least / Last but far from the least / Last
through by no means the least

SHIFT THE TREND:

But / However / Nevertheless / Nonetheless / Yet / Still / Rather

On the other hand / On the contrary / In contrast / Conversely / Having said that

Though / Although / Even though / While / Whilst / Whereas

Despite / Inspite of / Irrespective of / Regardless of / Not with standing

CAUSE AND EFFECT:

Therefore / Hence / Thence / Consequently / Eventually / As a result / Resultantly /


That’s why / Which is why

Because / As / Since / For

Because of / Due to / Attributed to / Thanks to / Owing to / Blamed on


Practice Listening Test no .1
Practice Test 1
LISTENING

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Circle the appropriate letter.

Example
What has the woman lost?
A a briefcase C a handbag
B a suitcase D a wallet

1 What does her briefcase look like?

A B C D
2 Which picture shows the distinguishing features?

A B C D
3 What did she have inside her briefcase?
A wallet, pens and novel C pens and novel
B papers and wallet D papers, pens and novel

12
Listening

4 Where was she standing when she lost her briefcase?

A B C D
5 What time was it when she lost her briefcase?

A B C D

Questions 6-10

Complete the form Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

PERSONAL DETAILS FORM

Name: Mary (6) ...........................................................................................

Address: Flat 2

(7) ............................... (8) ..................................................... Road

Canterbury

Telephone: (9) ......................................................................................................

Estimated value of lost item: (10) £ ............................................................................


Practice Test 1

SECTION 2 Questions 11-21


Questions 11-13
Tick the THREE other items which are mentioned in the news headlines.

NEWS HEADLINES
A Rivers flood in the north

Example
B Money promised for drought victims ü
C Nurses on strike in Melbourne

D Passengers rescued from ship

E Passengers rescued from plane

F Bus and train drivers national strike threat

G Teachers demand more pay

H New uniform for QANTAS staff

I National airports under new management

14
Listening

Questions 14-21
Complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces
provided.

The Government plans to give (14) $ ................................................ to assist the


farmers. This money was to be spent on improving Sydney’s
(15) ........................................................................ but has now been re-allocated.
Australia has experienced its worst drought in over fifty years.
Farmers say that the money will not help them because it is
(16) ............................................................. .

An aeroplane which was carrying a group of (17) ..................................................


was forced to land just (18) ................................................. minutes after take-off.
The passengers were rescued by (19) ............................................................ . The
operation was helped because of the good weather. The passengers
thanked the (20) ............................................................... for saving their lives but
unfortunately they lost their (21) .................................................................. .
Practice Test 1

SECTION 3 Questions 22-31


Questions 22-25
Circle the appropriate letter.

Example
The student is looking for the School of
A Fine Arts.
B Economic History.
C Economics.
D Accountancy.

22 The orientation meeting


A took place recently.
B took place last term.
C will take place tomorrow.
D will take place next week.
23 Attendance at lectures is
A optional after 4 pm.
B closely monitored.
C difficult to enforce.
D sometimes unnecessary.
24 Tutorials take place
A every morning.
B twice a week.
C three mornings a week.
D three afternoons a week.
25 The lecturer’s name is
A Roberts.
B Rawson.
C Rogers.
D Robertson.

16
Listening

Questions 26-31

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Course requirements:
Tutorial paper:

•A piece of work ON A given topic. Students must:


• (26) .......................................................... for 2 5 minutes
• (27) .........................................................
• give to lecturer for marking

Essay topic:

Usually (28) ........................................................................

Type of exam:

(29) .........................................................................................

Library:

Important books are in (30) ............................................. .

Focus of course:

Focus on (31) ........................................................................ .


Practice Test 1

SECTION 4 Questions 32-41


Questions 32-33

Circle the appropriate letter.


32 The speaker works within the Faculty of
A Science and Technology.
B Arts and Social Sciences.
C Architecture.
D Law.
33 The Faculty consists firstly of
A subjects.
B degrees.
C divisions.
D departments.

Questions 34-36
Complete the notes m NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

The subjects taken in the first semester in


this course are psychology, sociology,
(34) ................…………………………. and
.…….....................………………. .

Students may have problems with


(35) ................…………………………. and
(36) ………………..................………. .

18
Reading

Questions 37-41

Circle the appropriate letter.


37 The speaker says students can visit her
A every morning.
B some mornings.
C mornings only.
D Friday morning.
38 According to the speaker, a tutorial
A is a type of lecture.
B is less important than a lecture.
C provides a chance to share views.
D provides an alternative to groupwork.
39 When writing essays, the speaker advises the students to
A research their work well.
B name the books they have read.
C share work with their friends.
D avoid using other writers’ ideas.
40 The speaker thinks that plagiarism is
A a common problem.
B an acceptable risk.
C a minor concern.
D a serious offence.
41 The speaker’s aims are to
A introduce students to university expectations.
B introduce students to the members of staff.
C warn students about the difficulties of studying.
D guide students round the university.
Practice Listening Test no. 2
2
Practice Test 2
LISTENING

 


Complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

KATE

Her first impressions of the


town
Example Quiet

Type of accommodation (1)

Her feelings about the


(2)
accommodation

Her feelings about the other


(3)
students

Name of course Environmental Studies


Difficulties experienced on the
(4)
course
Suggestions for improving the
(5)
course

LUKI

First type of accommodation (6)

Problem with the first


(7)
accommodation

Second type of
(8)
accommodation

Name of course (9)

Comments about the


course
Computer room busy
Suggestions for improving the
(10)
course

34
Listening

+


Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

There are many kinds of bicycles available:


racing
touring
(11) ..............................................
ordinary

They vary in price and (12) ................................................ .

Prices range from $50.00 to (13) ......................................... .

Single speed cycles are suitable for (14) ................................ .

Three speed cycles are suitable for (15) ................................. .

Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills
and (16) ............................................. .

Ten speed bikes are better because they are (17) ............................ in
price but (18) ...................................... .

Buying a cycle is like (19) ................................. .

The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of


the (20) ............................................. .

35
Practice Test 2

. 


 

Circle the correct answer.
21 At first Fiona thinks that Martin’s tutorial topic is
A inappropriate.
B dull.
C interesting.
D fascinating.
22 According to Martin, the banana
A has only recently been cultivated.
B is economical to grow.
C is good for your health.
D is his favourite food.
23 Fiona listens to Martin because she
A wants to know more about bananas.
B has nothing else to do today.
C is interested in the economy of Australia.
D wants to help Martin.
24 According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from
A India.
B England.
C China.
D Africa.

36
Listening

  
Complete Martin’s notes Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Commercially grown
banana plant

Each banana tree produces


(25) .......................................................
of bananas.
On modern plantations in tropical
conditions a tree can bear fruit after
(26) ............................................ .

Banana trees prefer to grow (27) ......................................... and they require


rich soil and (28) ..................................... . The fruit is often protected by
(29) ............................................... .
Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other (30) .......................................... .

 
 

Circle the TWO correct boxes.

Consumption of Australian bananas


A Europe

B Asia

C New Zealand

D Australia

E Other

37
Practice Test 2

,   

  

Circle the correct answer

According to the first speaker:


33 The focus of the lecture series is on
A organising work and study. C coping with homesickness.
B maintaining a healthy lifestyle. D settling in at university.
34 The lecture will be given by
A the president of the Union. C a sports celebrity.
B the campus doctor. D a health expert.

According to the second speaker:


35 This week’s lecture is on
A campus food. C sensible eating.
B dieting. D saving money.

  
Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

A balanced diet
A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living.
Vitamins in food can be lost through (36) ............................................... .
Types of vitamins:
(a) Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body.
(b) Water soluble vitamins - not stored, so you need
a (37) ......................................................... .
Getting enough vitamins
Eat (38) .................................................................... of foods.
Buy plenty of vegetables and store them in
(39) .................................................................................. .

38
Listening

  

Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided.

Example
Try to avoid
................................
sugar, salt and butter

40 ................................
.....................................
milk, lean meat, fish,
nuts, eggs

41 ................................
.....................................
bread, vegetables and
fruit

39
Practice Listening Test no 3
3
Practice Test 3
LISTENING

SECTION 1 Questions 1-12

Questions 1-4

Circle the appropriate letter

Example
How does the woman travel every day?
A by car
B by bus
C on foot
D by train

1 What are the parking regulations on campus?


A undergraduate parking allowed
B postgraduate parking allowed
C staff parking only allowed
D no student parking allowed
2 The administration office is in
A Block B.
B Block D.
C Block E.
D Block G.
3 If you do not have a parking sticker, the following action will be taken:
A wheel clamp your car.
B fine only.
C tow away your car and fine.
D tow away your car only.

54
Listening

4 Which picture shows the correct location of the Administration office?

Questions 5-10

Complete the application form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

Application
Applicationfor
forparking
parkingsticker
sticker
Name (5) ...................................................................................................
Name (5) ...................................................................................................
Address (6) Flat 13 ..................................................................................
Address (6) Flat 13 ..................................................................................
Suburb (7) .................................................................................................
Suburb (7) .................................................................................................
Faculty (8) ...............................................................................................
Faculty (8) ...............................................................................................
Registration number (9) ..........................................................................
Registration number (9) ..........................................................................
Make of car (10) ......................................................................................
Make of car (10) ......................................................................................

Questions 11-12

11 Cashier’s office opens at A 12.15 B 2.00 C 2.15 D 4.30


12 Where must the sticker be displayed? ...................................................................

55
Practice Test 3

SECTION 2 Questions 13-23

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Date the museum was opened (13)

The museum consists of a building and (14)

Handicapped toilet door shows Example: a weelchair

The Education Centre is signposted by (15)

If you lose your friends, meet at the (16)

Warning about The Vampire (17)

How often are the tours of The Vampire? (18)

Person featured in today’s video (19)

The Leisure Gallery shows how Australian culture is


(20)
influenced by

The Picture Gallery contains pictures by (21)

Cost of family membership of the museum (22)

“Passengers and the Sea” includes a collection of (23)

56
Listening

SECTION 3 Questions 24-32

Questions 24-27

Click the correct answer


24 Mark is going to talk briefly about
A marketing new products.
B pricing strategies.
C managing large companies.
D setting sales targets.
25 According to Susan, air fares are lowest when they
A include weekend travel.
B are booked well in advance.
C are non-refundable.
D are for business travel only.
26 Mark thinks revenue management is
A interesting.
B complicated.
C time-consuming.
D reasonable.
27 The airline companies want to
A increase profits.
B benefit the passenger.
C sell cheap seats.
D improve the service.

Questions 28-32

Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

Two reasons for the new approach to pricing are:


(28) .......................................................................... and
(29) .......................................................................... .
In future people will be able to book airline tickets (30) ................................................... .
Also being marketed m this way are (31) ............................................................ and
(32) ................................................................. .

57
Practice Test 3

SECTION 4 Questions 33-42

Questions 33-37

Complete the table Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

SPACE MANAGEMENT
RESEARCH METHOD INFORMATION PROVIDED

what customers think about


Questionnaires
(33) .........................................................

(34) ............................................ how customers move around supermarket aisles

Eye movement
the most eye-catching areas of the shop
(35) ............................................

Computer programs the best (37) ........................................


e.g. (36) ..................................... for an article in the shop

58
Listening

Questions 38-42

Label the cliagiam Wiite NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each anmer

A SUPERMARKET AISLE
ENTRANCE EXIT
First shelves -customers Checkout - often used
usually to sell
(38) ................................ (42) ................................
these. ........................................

AISLE
Products placed here
sell well particularly
if they are placed
(39) ...............................
.......................................

These areas are


known as
(40) ................................
........................................

Gondola end -prime Gondola end —


position: often find
used to launch launch (41) .............................
new products .....................................
displayed here.

59
Practice Listening
Practice Listening Test no.4
Test no
04
Practice Test 4
LISTENING

SECTION 1 Questions 1-12

Questions 1-5

Circle the appropriate letter

Example What are the students looking for?


A Main Hall C Old Hall
B Great Hall D Old Building

1 Where is the administration building?

A B C D
2 How many people are waiting in the queue?
A 50 B 100 C 200 D 300
3 What does the woman order for lunch?

A B C D

75
Practice Test 4

4 What does the woman order to drink?

A B C D
5 How much money does the woman give the man?
A $2.00 B $3.00 C $3.50 D $5.00
Questions 6-10

Complete the registration form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Name of student: (6) ..........................................................................


Address: (7) Flat 5/ ...............................................................
Town: (8) ..........................................................................
Tel: (9) ..........................................................................
Course: (10) ........................................................................

Questions 11-12

11 What did the man buy for her to eat?

A B C D
12 What must the students do as part of registration at the university?
A Check the notice board in the Law Faculty.
B Find out about lectures.
C Organise tutorial groups.
D Pay the union fees.

76
Listening

SECTION 2 Questions 13-21

Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

STUDENT BANKING
Recommended Banks Location

Barclays Realty Square

National Westminster Example: Preston Park

Lloyds City Plaza

Midland (13) ........................................................

Note: May not be allowed all facilities given to resident students.

Funding
• Must provide (14) .................................... I can support myself.
• Services will depend on personal circumstances and discretion of Bank Manager.
Opening an account
• Take with me: (15) .................................... and letter of enrolment.
• Recommended account: (16) .........................................................
• Bank supplies: (17) ................................ and chequecard which guarantees
cheques.
Other services
• Cashcard: (you can (18) ....................................... cash at any time.)
• Switch/Delta cards: (take the money (19) .......................... the account.)
Overdraft
• Must have (20) ....................................................
•Sometimes must pay interest.
Opening times
• Most banks open until (21) ...................................... during the week.
• Some open for a limited time on Saturdays.

77
Practice Test 4

SECTION 3 Questions 22-31

Questions 22-25

Complete the factsheet. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

FACTSHEET - Aluminium Cans


• (22) ............................................ produced every day in the US — more cans
produced than nails or (23) .......................................................
• each can weighs 0.48 ounces — thinner than two
(24) .........................................................................
• can take more than 90 pounds of pressure per square inch — over
(25) ............................................ the pressure of a car tyre

Questions 26-31

Label the aluminium can. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

(26) .............................. Tab Lid — makes up


..................................... (30) .......................... of
Rim total weight

(29) ..............................

(27) .............................. Body


reflective surface of (26) ..............................
aluminium can easily at base
be decorated
Base — shaped like
(28) ..............................
to withstand pressure

78
Listening

SECTION 4 Questions 32-42

Questions 32-42

Complete the lecture notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Purpose of the mini lecture


To experience To find out about
(32) ..................................................... (33)..........................................................

The three strands of Sports Studies are:


a Sports psychology
b Sports (34) ..............................................
c Sports physiology
a The psychologists work with

a The psychologists work with (35) ...................................................................


They want to discover what (36) ...................................................................

b Sports marketing looks at (37) ...................................................................


Sport now competes with (38) ...................................................................
Spectators want (39) ...................................................................

c Sports physiology is also known as


(40) ...................................................................
Macro levels look at (41) ...................................................................
Micro level looks at (42) ...................................................................

79
Introduction

HOW SHOULD YOU INTERPRET YOUR SCORES? Listening


T e s t 1 Practice Test Test no 5
Listening
In the Answer key at the end of the each set of Listening and Reading answers you will find
a chart which will help you assess if, on the basis of your practice test results, you are ready
5
to take the IELTS exam.
In interpreting your score, there are a number of points you should bear in mind.
Your performance in the real IELTS test will be reported in two ways: there will be a Band
Score from 1 to 9 for each of the modules and an Overall Band Score from 1 to 9, which is SECTION 1 Questions 1-10
the average of your scores in the four modules.
However, institutions considering your application are advised to look at both the Overall Questions 1-5
Band and the Bands for each module. They do this in order to see if you have the language
skills needed for a particular course of study. For example, if your course has a lot of Complete the form below.
reading and writing, but no lectures, listening comprehension might be less important and a Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
score of 5 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7. However, for a
course where there are lots of lectures and spoken instructions, a score of 5 in Listening
might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7.
Once you have marked your papers you should have some idea of whether your Listening
and Reading skills are good enough for you to try the real IELTS test. If you did well
VIDEO LIBRARY
enough in one module but not in others, you will have to decide for yourself whether you are
ready to take the proper test yet.
The Practice Tests have been checked so that they are about the same level of difficulty as
APPLICATION FORM
the real IELTS test. However, we cannot guarantee that your score in the Practice Test
papers will be reflected in the real IELTS test. The Practice Tests can only give you an idea of EXAMPLE ANSWER
your possible future performance and it is ultimately up to you to make decisions based on
your score. Surname Jones
Different institutions accept different IELTS scores for different types of courses. We have
based our recommendations on the average scores which the majority of institutions accept.
The institution to which you are applying may, of course, require a higher or lower score First names: Louise Cynthia
than most other institutions.
Sample answers or model answers are provided for the Writing tasks. The sample answers Address: Apartment 1,72 (1) Street
were written by IELTS candidates; each answer has been given a band score and the
candidate's performance is described. Please note that the examiner's guidelines for marking Highbridge
the Writing scripts are very detailed. There are many different ways a candidate may achieve
a particular band score. The model answers were written by an examiner as examples of very
good answers, but it is important to understand that they are just one example out of many Post code: (2)
possible approaches.
Telephone: 9835 6712 (home)
(3) (work)
Driver's
licence number: (4)
Date of birth: Day: 25th Month: (5) Year: 1977
Questions 6—8 SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Circle THREE letters A-F. Questions 11-13
What types of films does Louise like?
Complete the notes below
A Action Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
B Comedies
C Musicals
D Romance
E Westerns Expedition Across Attora Mountains
F Wildlife Leader: Charles Owen
Prepared a (11) for the trip
Questions 9 and 10 Total length of trip (12)
Climbed highest peak in (13)
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

9 How much does it cost to join the library?


Questions 14 and 15

10 When will Louise's card be ready? Circle the correct letters A-C.

14 What took the group by surprise?


A the amount of rain
B the number of possible routes
C the length of the journey

15 How did Charles feel about having to change routes?


A He reluctantly accepted it.
B He was irritated by the diversion.
C It made no difference to his enjoyment.

Questions 16—18

Circle THREE letters A-F.


What does Charles say about his friends?
A He met them at one stage on the trip.
B They kept all their meeting arrangements.
C One of them helped arrange the transport.
D One of them owned the hotel they stayed in.
E Some of them travelled with him.
F Only one group lasted the 96 days.
Questions 19 and 20 SECTION 3 Questions 21-30
Circle TWO letters A-E. Questions 21-25
What does Charles say about the donkeys?
Complete the table below.
A He rode them when he was tired. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
B He named them after places.
C One of them died.
D They behaved unpredictably. TIM JANE
E They were very small.
Day of arrival Sunday (21)

Subject History (22)

Number of books to read (23) (24)

Day of first lecture Tuesday (25)

Questions 26-30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

26 What is Jane's study strategy in lectures?

27 What is Tim's study strategy for reading?

28 What is the subject of Tim's first lecture?

29 What is the title of Tim's first essay?

30 What is the subject of Jane's first essay?


SECTION 4 Questions 31-40 Questions 36-40
Questions 31-35 Complete the table below.
Write the appropriate letters A-G against Questions 36-40.
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Job Main role

Type of course: Physical Fitness Instructor (36)


Course duration and level Entry requirements
Sports Administrator (37)

Sports Psychologist (38)


Example (39)
Physical Education Teacher
Physical Fitness Instructor Six-month certificate None
Recreation Officer (40)

Sports Administrator (31) (32)


MAIN ROLES
in sports administration
A the coaching of teams

B the support of elite athletes


Sports Psychologist (33) Degree in psychology
C guidance of ordinary individuals

D community health

Physical Education Four-year degree in (34) . E the treatment of injuries


Teacher education
F arranging matches and venues

G the rounded development of children


Recreation Officer (35) None
Test2
Practice Listening Test no 6 Complete the form below.

Listening Test WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

6
SECTION 1 Questions 1-10 INSURANCE
Questions 1 and 2
Circle the correct letters A-C.
APPLICATION FORM
Example
Name: Mr Gavin (7)
Gavin moved into his apartment...
A two days ago.
(B) two weeks ago. Address: (8) Biggins Street
C two months ago.
(9)
1 Gavin's apartment is located on the ...
Date of Birth: 12th November \QbO
A ground floor.
B second floor. Telephone: Home: 9&72 4 5 5 5
C third floor.
Nationality: (10)
2 The monthly rent for Gavin's apartment is ...
A $615.
B $650.
C $655.

Questions 3-6
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

ITEM VALUE •
(3) " $450
(4) $1,150
Watches $2,000
CDs and (5) $400
Total annual cost of insurance (6) $
SECTION 2 Questions 11-20 Questions 18-20

Question 11 Complete the notice below.


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Circle the correct letter A-D.
Smith House was originally built as ...
A a residential college.
B a family house.
C a university.
D an office block.

Questions 12-14
Complete the explanation of the room number.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
• No noise after 9 pm.

• Smoking only allowed on (18)

• No changes can be made to (19)

If you have any questions, ask the (20)


SECTION 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 26-30.

Complete the table below. According to the speakers, in which situation are the following media most useful?
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. A individual children
B five or six children
C whole class
Forms of media Examples

Print • books Answer


• (21)
Pictures • (22)
26 tapes
Audio (listening) • CDs
• (23) 27 computers

Audio-visual • film 28 videos


• (24) 29 books
• videos
30 wall maps
Electronic (25)
Test 3
Questions 5-7
Listening Listening Test 7 Choose two letters A-E.
5 The respondent mainly watches TV ...
A in the early morning.
SECTION 1 Questions 1-10 B around midday.
C in the afternoon.
Questions 1-4 D in the early evening.
E at night.
Circle the correct letters A-C. 6 On the new channel, the respondent would like to see more ...
Example A children's programmes.
B documentaries.
The respondent is C local service programmes.
A 20-33 years old D travel programmes.
(B) 34-54 years old E health programmes.
C over 54 years old
7 The respondent would advise the new channel to ...
A" spend more money on drama.
1 The respondent works in ... B train their broadcasters to higher standards.
C improve sound quality.
A the professions.
D broadcast interviews with famous people.
B business.
E talk more to customers.
C other.

2 The respondent has a salary of ... Questions 8-10


A 0-£15,000 a year. Circle the correct letters A-C.
B £15,OOO-£35,OOO a year.
C over £35,000 a year. 8 The respondent feels that adverts should occur every ...

3 The respondent watches TV for ... A 10 minutes.


B 15 minutes.
A relaxation. C 20 minutes.
B entertainment.
C information. 9 The respondent would like to attend special promotions if ...
A expenses are paid.
4 Every day the respondent watches TV for ...
B he is invited specially.
A 30 minutes-1 hour. C they are held locally.
B 1 hour-2 hours.
C more than 2 hours. 10 The respondent would like to receive ...
A no mail.
B requested mail.
C all mail.
SECTION 2 Questions 1 1 - 2 0
Questions 11-14
Circle FOUR letters A-G. Questions 17-20

Which FOUR activities of the Union are mentioned by the speaker? Write the appropriate letters A-C against Questions 17-20.
A raising money for good causes What are the locations of the following places in Radford?
B political campaigning
A part of the Metro Tower building
C running a newsagent's B in the main square in the centre of the town
D running a supermarket C some distance from the centre of the town
E providing cheap tickets
F helping with accommodation
G providing catering services
17 the hi-tech fitness centre

Questions 15 and 16 18 the ice rink

Circle TWO letters A-E. 19 the new cinema

Which TWO of the following can you get advice about from the Union? 20 the Theatre Royal
A immigration
B grants
C medical problems
D personal problems
E legal matters
SECTION 3 Questions 21-30 Questions 27-30

Questions 21-23 What is Dr Simon's opinion on the following points?

Complete the notes below. Tick column A if he is in favour


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer, Tick column B if he has no strong opinion either way
Tick column C if he is against

DISSERTATION INFORMATION A B C

(27) Buying a computer


Hand-in date: (21)
(28) Reading previous year's dissertations
Length: (22) to words
(29) Using questionnaires as main research instrument
Extra programme offered on: (23)
(30) Interviewing tutors

Questions 24-26

Complete the table below.

DISSERTATION TIMETABLE
Date Action

31 January Basic bibliography

7 February (26)
February-March (25)
(26) to Write up work

21 May Hand in work


SECTION 4 Questions 31-40 37 Underground water supplies ...
A 18% of Australia's water.
Questions 31-37 B 4 8 % of Australia's water.

C 80% of Australia's water.


Circle the correct letters A-C.

31 The driest continent is ... Questions 38-40


A Australia.
B Africa. Circle THREE letters A-E
C Antarctica.
Which THREE of the following uses of dam water are mentioned?
32 The evaporation rate in Australia is ... A providing water for livestock
A lower than Africa. B watering farmland
B higher than Africa. C providing water for industry
C about the same as Africa. D controlling flood water
E producing hydro-electric power
33 Rainfall in Australia hardly penetrates the soil because ...
A the soil is too hard.
B the soil is too hot.
C plants use it up.

34 In sandy soils water can ...


A evaporate quickly.
B seep down to rock.
C wash the soil away.

35 Water is mainly pumped up for ...


A people to drink.
B animals to drink.
C watering crops.

36 Natural springs are located ...


A in unexplored parts of Australia.
B quite commonly over all Australia.
C in a few areas of Australia.
Test 4
Practice Listening Test no 8 SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11 and 12
8 Listening Test Circle the correct letters A-C.

SECTION
8
1 Questions 1-10 11 At Rainforest Lodge there aren't any ...
A telephones or TVs.
Questions 1 and 2 B newspapers or TVs.
C telephones or newspapers.
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. - 12 The guests are told to ...
A carry their luggage to the cabin.
MIC HOUSE AGENCY — REPAIRS B go straight to the restaurant.
C wait an hour for dinner.

Address: Apartment 2, (1) , Newton Questions 13-15


Length of lease: one year
Date moved in: (2) Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 3-9 TOUR NAME DETAILS

Complete the table below. Orchid and Fungi walking tour


Write A if the repair will be done immediately.
B if the repair will be done during the following week.
C if the repair will be done in two or more weeks. Four-Wheel-Drive tour to the (13)

Item Problem When to be done


Fishing to catch lunch
washing machine leaking
cooker (3) (4) Crocodile Cruise departs at (14) daily
windows (5) B
flickers (7) (15) departs at sundown
(6)
(8) torn (9)

Question 10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.


Workman to call between (10) and
Questions 16-20 SECTION 3 Questions 21-30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Questions 21-25

What THREE items of. clothing does the speaker recommend for the rainforest? Circle the correct letters A-C.

16 21 These sessions with a counsellor are ...


A compulsory for all students.
17 B available to any students.
C for science students only.
18
22 The counsellor says that new students have to ...
Which TWO things in the rainforest does the speaker give a warning about?
A spend more time on the college premises.
19 B get used to working independently.
C work harder than they did at school.
20
23 John complains that the resource centre ...
A has limited opening hours.
B has too few resources.
C gets too crowded.

24 The counsellor suggests to John that...


A most other students can cope.
B he needs to study all the time.
C he should be able to fit in some leisure activities.

25 Before being able to help John the counsellor needs to ...


A talk with some of his lecturers.
B consult his tutor.
C get more information from him.
Questions 26-30 SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Questions 31-35%. •
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Circle the correct letters A-C.

31 John was first interested in the subject because of something ...


WRITING
A he had witnessed.
B he had read about.
• Pay careful attention to the question C he had experienced.
• Leave time to (26) 32 The main research method was ...
A interviews.
LISTENING B questionnaires.
C observation.
• Try to (27) lectures
33 Which pie chart shows the proportion of men and women respondents?
• Check notes with (28)

READING

• Choose topics of (29) 34 How many respondents were there?

• Buy a good (30) A 50-100


B 100-150
C 150-200

35 The most common type of road rage incident involved ...


A damage to property.
B personal violence.
C verbal abuse.
Questions 36-40
Which group gave the following advice?

Tick Column A if it was mainly women. READING PASSAGE 1


Tick Column B if it was mainly men.
Tick Column C if it was both men and women. You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

A B C

Example
Green Wave Washes Over Mainstream Shopping
Don't stop to ask directions. . V
Research in Britain has shown that green professional groups and those aged 35
(36) Avoid eye contact with other drivers. consumers' continue to flourish as a to 44.
significant group amongst shoppers. This Between 1990 and 1994 the
(37) Inform someone of your likely arrival time. suggests that politicians who claim proportion of consumers claiming to be
environmentalism is yesterday's issue unaware of or unconcerned about green
(38) Ensure car keys are ready when you return to the car. may be seriously misjudging the public issues fell from 18 to 10 per cent but the
mood. number of green spenders among older
(39) Leave plenty of space when parking. A report from Mintel, the market people and manual workers has risen
research organisation, says that despite substantially. Regions such as Scotland
(40) Keep all doors locked. recession and financial pressures, more have also caught up with the south of
people than ever want to buy England in their environmental concerns.
environmentally friendly products and a According to Mintel, the image of green
'green wave' has swept through consumerism as associated in the past
consumerism, taking in people with the more eccentric members of
previously untouched by environmental society has virtually disappeared. The
concerns. The recently published report consumer research manager for Mintel,
also predicts that the process will repeat Angela Hughes, said it had become
itself with 'ethical' concerns, involving firmly established as a mainstream
issues such as fair trade with the Third market. She explained that as far as the
World and the social record of average person is concerned
businesses. Companies will have to be environmentalism has not gone off the
more honest and open in response to boil'. In fact, it has spread across a much
this mood. wider range of consumer groups, ages
Mintel's survey, based on nearly 1,000 and occupations.
consumers, found that the proportion Mintel's 1994 survey found that 13 per
who look for green products and are cent of consumers are 'very dark green',
prepared to pay more for them has nearly always buying environmentally
climbed from 53 per cent in 1990 to friendly products, 28 per cent are 'dark
around 60 per cent in 1994. On average, green', trying 'as far as possible' to buy
they will pay 13 per cent more for such such products, and 21 per cent are 'pale
products, although this percentage is green' - tending to buy green products if
higher among women, managerial and they see them. Another 26 per cent are
Practice Listening Test no. 9

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10


Complete the notes below.
Listening

SECTON 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

11 Who is Mrs Sutton worried about?

……………………………………………..

12 What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together?

………………………………………..

Questions 13-17
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Name of Health Number of doctors Other information Information about


Centre doctors
Dean End 13............................. Appointment system Dr Jones is good with
15............................. 16.............................
than South Hay patients.
Dr Shaw is good with
small children.

South Hay 14............................. Building less modern than Dr Williams helps people
Dean End with 17.............................
………………….
Test 1

Questions 18-20

Question 18
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Doctors start seeing patients at the Health Centre from........................o’clock.

Question 19
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication?


A people over 17 years
old B unemployed people
C non-UK residents
D people over 60 years old E
pregnant women

Question 20
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER

The charge for one item of medication is about £..................................


Listening

SECTION 3 Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NUMBERS AND/OR NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Test 1

SECTION 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letters A-C.

31 Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted?

32 According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is


A pregnancy. B
osteoporosis.
C lack of exercise.

33 As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends


A pain killers.
B relaxation therapy.
C exercise routines.

34 The back is different from other parts of the body because


A it is usually better at self-repair.
B a back injury is usually more painful.
C its response to injury often results in more damage.

35 Bed rest is advised

A for a maximum of two


days. B for extreme pain only.
C for pain lasting more than two days.

36 Being overweight
A is a major source of back pain.
B worsens existing back pain.
C reduces the effectiveness of exercise.
Listening

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letters A—C.

Strongly Recommended Not


recommended in certain recommended
circumstances
A B C

Example Answer
B C
Diet if overweight [A]

37 Buy special orthopaedic


A B C
chairs

Example
Answer
Buy orthopaedic A C
[B]
mattresses

38 Buy shock-absorbing
inserts A B C

39 Wear flat shoes A B C

40 Buy TENS machine A B C


Practice Listening Test no. 10

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Programme of Activities for First Day

Time Place Event


Example
1 ...................... Meet the Principal and staff
10.00
10.15 Talk by 2 .......................

10.45 Talk by 3 .......................

4....................... Classroom 5 5....................... test

30
Listening

Questions 6-10
Label the rooms on the map below.

Choose your answers from the box below and write them next to questions 6-10.

CL Computer Laboratory
DO Director’s Office
L Library
MH Main Hall
S Storeroom
SAR Self Access Room
SCR Student Common Room
SR Staff Room

31
Test 2

SECTION 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

TYPE OF HELP EXAMPLES


FINANCIAL • grants

• 11 ........................................
• childcare
12 ........................................
• nurseries
ACADEMIC • 13 .......................................

• using the library

• individual interests
14 ........................................
• 15 ........................................

32
Listening

Questions 16-20
Complete the notes below.

Write NUMBERS OR NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

33
Test 2

SECTION 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letters A-C.
21 At the start of the tutorial, the tutor emphasises the importance
of A interviews.
B staff selection.
C question techniques.

22 An example of a person who doesn’t ‘fit in’ is someone who


A is over-qualified for the job.
B lacks experience of the tasks set.
C disagrees with the rest of the group.

23 An important part of teamwork is having trust in


your A colleagues’ ability.
B employer’s directions.
C company training.

24 The tutor says that finding out personal information


is A a skill that needs practice.
B avoided by many interviewers. C
already a part of job interviews.

34
Listening

Questions 25-29
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Question 30
Choose the correct letter A—C.
What is the tutor trying to do in the tutorial?
A describe one selection technique
B criticise traditional approaches to interviews
C illustrate how she uses personality questionnaires

35
Test 2

SECTION4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31 and 32
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 33 and 34
Label the diagrams.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Introduction to Hat-Making

cut into centre and 33....................................the cut

stick flaps to 34.........................................of circle

36
Listening

Questions 35-37
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 38-40
Indicate who made the hats below. Write the appropriate letter A-E next to each name.

38 Theresa........................

39 Muriel........................

40 Fabrice........................

37
Practice Listening Test no. 11

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

54
Listening

SECTION2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MEMBERSHIP OF SPORTS CENTRE

Cost 11 £.............................. per 12..............................

Where? 13.................................

When? 2 to 6 pm, Monday to Thursday

Bring: Union card

Photo

Fee

Questions 14-16
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Always bring sports 14................................. when you come to 15................................. or use the
Centre’s facilities.

9 am to 10 pm on 16.................................
Opening hours
10 am to 6 pm on Saturdays

50% ‘morning discount’ 9 am to 12 noon on weekdays

55
Test 3

Questions 17-20
Look at the map of the Sports Complex below.

Label the buildings on the map of the Sports Complex.

Choose your answers from the box below and write them against Questions 17-20.

Arts Studio
Football Pitch
Tennis Courts
Dance Studio
Fitness Room
Reception
Squash Courts

56
Listening

SECTION 3 Questions 21-30

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

57
Test 3

SECTIO N 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

"NEW" MEAT CAN BE COMPARED TO PROBLEM

kangaroo 31....................... 32.......................

crocodile chicken fatty

ostrich 33.......................

Questions 34-36
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

OSTRICH PRODUCT USE


Ostrich feathers • tribal ceremonial dress

• 34 .......................

• decorated hats
Ostrich hide • 35 .......................

Ostrich 36 ..........................................• ‘biltong’

58
Listening

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letters A-C.

37 Ostrich meat
A has more protein than beef. B
tastes nearly as good as beef. C
is very filling.

38 One problem with ostrich fanning in Britain


is A the climate.
B the cost of transporting birds.
C the price of ostrich eggs.

39 Ostrich chicks reared on farms


A must be kept in incubators until
mature. B are very independent.
C need looking after carefully.

40 The speaker suggests ostrich farms are profitable


because A little initial outlay is required.
B farmed birds are very productive. C
there is a good market for the meat.

59
Practice Listening Test no. 12

SECTION 1 Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2

Questions 3-5

Label the map. Choose your answers from the box below. Write the appropriate letters A-E on
the map.

A State Bank
B St George’s
Hospital C Garage
D Library
E University

76
Listening

Questions 6-10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Gift for Susan Gift for baby

What will they buy? 6......................................... 7........................................

Where will they buy the gifts? 8......................................... 9........................................

Approximate prices? $15 10 $...................................

77
Test 4

SECTION 2 Questions 11-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.


For the recommendation column, write
A You must buy this.
B Maybe you should buy this.
C You should never buy this.

Name Advantage(s) Disadvantage(s) Recommendation

Unbreakable • Contains no
11..........................
Vacuum Flask • Expensive
• Steel guaranteed
• Leaves 13 ………. B
for 20 years
..............
• Keeps warm for
12..........................

Whistle Key • Press-button light • Unpleasant noise


useful for finding • Doesn’t work
Holder 16 ....................
keyhole through
• 14.......................... 15..........................

Army Flashlight • Useful for


(squeeze light) 17.......................... • Has 19.................. C
• Works
18..........................

Decoy Camera (to • Realistic • Difficult to fix


A
trick burglars) 20.......................... onto wall

78
Listening

SEC TIO N 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letters A—C.

21 Amina’s project is about a


local A school.
B hospital.
C factory.

22 Dr Bryson particularly
liked A the introduction.
B the first chapter. C
the middle section.

23 Amina was surprised because


she A thought it was bad.
B wrote it quickly.
C found it difficult to do.

Questions 24-26
What suggestions does Dr Bryson make? Complete the table as follows.

Write A if he says KEEP UNCHANGED


Write B if he says REWRITE
Write C if he says REMOVE COMPLETELY

Example Answer
Section headings B

Information on housing 24 .................

Interview data 25 .................

Chronology 26 .................

79
Test 4

Questions 27-30
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

80
Listening

SECTION4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34
Write NUMBERS AND/OR NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS for each answer.

31 Between what times is the road traffic lightest?


………………………………………………………………………………………………..
32 Who will notice the noise most?
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
33 Which day of the week has the least traffic?
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
34 What will be the extra cost of modifying houses?
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Question 35
Choose the correct letter A-D.

The noise levels at the site can reach


A 45 decibels.
B 55 decibels. C
67 decibels. D
70 decibels.

81
Test 4

Questions 36-38
Complete the table showing where devices used in reducing noise could befitted in the houses.

Write: W for walls


D for doors
C for ceilings

Example Answer
acoustic seals D

36 double thickness plaster board


37 mechanical ventilation

38 air conditioning

Questions 39 and 40
Choose the correct letters A-D.

39 Which is the correct construction for acoustic double glazing?

82
Listening

40 What is the best layout for the houses?

83
13
14
15
16
17
Practice Listening No. 18
Section 1 Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3
Choose THREE letters B-H.

Which THREE other activities does the customer want to do?


A visit family
B save money
C study geography
D study English
E do some winter sports
F go sailing
G join a walking tour
H meet young people
0:00
Questions 4-7
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

CUSTOMER'S DETAILS
Name: Su Ming Lee
Address: (4) ........................................ Kew

Mobile: (5) 0402 ........................................


Day and date
(6) ........................................
of departure:
Length of course (7) ........................................
Method of payment credit card

Questions 8-10
Label the map below.

Write the correct letter A-G next to questions 8-10.


8) The language school is at .........................................
9) The hotel is at .........................................
10) The bookshop is at .........................................
Practice Listening No. 18
Section 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

11) .................... are often known by their famous bridges.


12) The speaker compares a bridge to a cathedral or .....................
13) Sydney Harbour Bridge is nicknamed .....................

Questions 14-18
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Date Event

1916 (14) .................... agreed to finance bridge

Contract signed with engineering firm

(15) .................... 1926 Construction involved:


• knocking down (16) ....................
• creation of many jobs

1932 Bridge completed at a cost of (17) £....................

March 1932 Opening ceremony Ribbon cut by a man riding a (18) ....................

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the questions below.


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

19 How long is the tunnel? ....................

20 Name ONE thing the tunnel can withstand. ....................


Practice Listening No. 18
Section 3 Question 21 - 30
Question 21
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 Which graph shows the distribution of animals painted on the caves? .................... .

Questions 22-25
How does the woman describe each type of drawing?
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 22-25.

A uncommon E consisting of dots


B realistic F complex
C two-dimensional G important
D childish H huge
22 bulls .................... .
23 humans .................... .
24 signs .................... .
25 fish .................... .

Questions 26-27
Label the diagram below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
26. ........................................
27. ........................................

Questions 28-30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
28 The cave was closed in 1963 because.
A the tourists had drawn pictures on the walls.
B the air was harming the rock art.
C so few people were visiting the site.

29 How does David feel about the closure of the


cave?
A He agrees with the decision.
B He thinks it was a bad idea.
C He has no views on the matter.

30 How can people enjoy the drawings today?


A The government has re-opened the cave.
B The drawings have been photographed.
C A replica of the cave has been built.
Practice Listening No. 18
Section 4
Questions 31-32
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
What is marketing?
31 .................... and .................... represent only two aspects of marketing.
Marketing involves
• finding customers
• ensuring customer satisfaction
• 32 ....................
Questions 33-34
Complete the chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Questions 35-38
Which market research method is used by each of these businesses?
Write the correct letters A-C next to questions 35-38.

A customer observation
B free offers
C in-store surveys
35 supermarkets .................... .
36 department stores .................... .
37 fast-food companies .................... .
38 theme parks .................... .

Questions 39-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Product performance Customers are

• poor • unhappy
• good • 39 ....................
• 40 .................... • delighted
IELTS Class &
Practice Material for

Reading
module
True/False/Not Given:
A statement is True When it has the same meaning as the source does.
The ‘YES’ statements usually need deep analysis.
If there is striking resemblance between the question and the source,
Mostly it would NOT be YES.

Q: John is not as tall as Jack.


S: Jack is taller than John.

Q: Kate was not hardworking.


S: Kate is still lazy.

Q: Women have less skills.


S: Men have greater skill deficiency.

A statement is NO when it is contradictory to source.


Contradiction is brought about by Negatives or Antonyms (standard & contextual)
Negatives:
No, Not, Never, None, No one, Nobody, Nothing, Nope, Nay, Naught, Neither, Nor, Nil, Null,
Little / Few( No), Hardly / Scarcely /Barely ( Not) Seldom / Once in a blue moon( Never)
Rather / Too (negative connotation)

A statement is NO also when the answer to the primary question is given but a different one or
similar one but not the same one.

Q: IRRI is in Geneva.
S: IRRI is not in Geneva.

Q: IRRI is in Geneva.
S: IRRI is in Manila.

Q: IRRI is in Geneva.
S: In order to raise food production to feed a growing population, the United Nations, in its
meeting held in Geneva in 1956, took the decision to establish the International Rice
Research Institute (IRRI).

Q: The aim of the programme is to generate employment.


S: The mission, aimed at eradicating poverty, has met only partial success so far.

Q: The UCAD method has been successfully implemented in Australia.


S: Following the successful implementation in Austria, Australia is planning to adopt the UCAD
manufacturing process.

Q: Steve resigned his job for a better pay.


S: In order to pursue his interest in astronomy, Steve, at the age of 47, left his position in Royal
Mail against the will and wish of his family.

Page
Q: Car-pooling resulted in a rapid reduction of pollution and traffic.
S: To counter pollution and traffic, finally, car-pooling was adopted in 1998. As a result, there
was improvement in the situation by 2006.

Q: Danning Road will not operate for two days.


S: Owing to the repair works, Danning Road will remain closed from 6am Saturday the 11
August to 6pm Sunday the 12 August.

Q: The flight test was a success mainly because the wind was blowing at high speed.
S: Because of the high speed of the wind to some extent, and of initial thrust to a great extent,
the flight experiment was surprisingly successful.

Q: There is no port activity in Male now.


S: With enormous developments in other sectors, the port activity which once flourished in Male,
has drastically declined over the last decade.

Q: You cannot take tickets 45 minutes before the show.


S: Please note that the ticket counter opens only one hour before the show starts.

Q: If you take the admission in the last week, the fee is lower.
S: For all the admissions taken during six weeks prior to the commencement of classes, full
payment is due

Q: There are six blue wheel chairs in the room.


S: The room has only tables and mats to sit on.

Q: Only black pen is permitted to write the exam.


S: Anything other than hard black pencil is not allowed to write the test.

Q: There is a wider price range in walmart than in Qmart.


S: The prices in Walmart vary from $5000 to $7500 while in Qmart they vary between $1 to
$4000.

Q: Children learn quickly by asking questions.


S: If children are asked questions, they learn fast.

Page
A statement is Not Given when a) the source is nowhere given
b) the source is given but the answer to the primary question is Not Given.
c)the source is given but the answer to the primary question is doubtfully/unclearly/ vaguely
given.

Q: The rise in the number of working women is a positive trend.


S: The survey reported a doubling in the strength of female work force.

Q: There is no water transport in the KSA.


S: The only country that does not have a single river is the KSA.

Q: There are staff in the lab to assist students.


S: Chiswick College has ultra-sophisticated and well-equipped lab that remains open round the
clock for all full-time students.

Q: There is no maximum age limit for admission into the course.


S: To take admission into the course, one must be over 18 years of age.

Q: Africa is a poor region.


S: It is widely assumed that Africa is a poor continent.

Q: Smoking causes heart attack.


S: Smoking poses a high risk of heart attack.

Q: pollution is the biggest problem in Mexico now.


S: In Mexico, pollution is a major problem today.

Q: Road accidents are the greatest cause of deaths in Indonesia every year.
S: Thousands of people are being killed in road accidents in Indonesia each year

Q: Bombay is the most populous city in Asia.


S: Bombay is one of the most populous Asian cities.

Q: Food is the most important need for humans.


S: Food, shelter and clothing are the most important needs for human beings.

Q: Japan imports more steel than France.


S: 70% of the total imports in Japan is steel whereas it is only 30% in the case of France.

Q: B is the son of A.
S: A is the father of B.

Page
Paragraph Headings / Paragraph Matchings

1. UNDERSTAND each heading thoroughly (Think of alternatives/examples/


relevant matter or Translate into MT). Strike off the examples if given.

2. After reading a Para and before moving over to the next para, go to the
headings. SHORT-LIST the relevant heading(s). (Full-length heading should
be related) If there is only one heading heading related, confirm it.

3. If multiple headings are related to the Para, CHECK COVERAGE: choose that
heading which is related the whole para or most part of it.

4. If you cannot make your choice on the basis of the coverage, CHECK
MATCHING.

DIRECT MATCHING: - If the words of a heading - exactly or almost exactly


-are given in the first and /or the last line of the Para, A V O I D it.

INDIRECT MATCHING: - If synonyms /antonyms /examples /explanation of a


heading are given in the first and / or the last sentence of the para, PREFER it.

5. Whether a heading is singular or plural is also an important factor.

6. At least one INTERROGTIVE HEADING, if given will be an answer.

7. 'QUOTED '/ [BRACKETED]/ -FLANKED - expressions often hold important


clues.

8. GRASP the theme of the Para from the FIRST SENTENCE where feasible.

9. Keep your options open -UNDECIDED, if need be.

10. Always apply the first 3 principles first.

11. In the case of Paragraph Matchings -where the answers are letters - even if the
question is related to ONE sentence of the Para, it could be the answer.
Also, IF INSRUCTED ACCORDINGLY, REPITITION WILL HAPPEN.
READING: GAP-FILLINGS

1. READ TWO QUESTIONS WHERE THE ANSWERS ARE WORDS.

a) UNDERSTAND THE WORDS AROUND THE BLANK


b) UNDERLINE THE KEY WORDS
c) LIST NOT GIVEN -- GUESS EXAMPLES
d) LIST GIVEN -- SHORT-LIST SUITABLE OPTIONS

2. READ THE PASSAGE. FIND THE KEY WORDS -DIRECTLY OR INDIRECTLY.


a) MARK THE WHOLE SENTENCE AS THE SOURCE. UNDERSTAND THE
SOURCE.
b) UNDERSTAND THE LISTED OPTIONS, IF GIVEN.GET THE ANSWER.

3. MAINTAIN ACCURACY IN WORD LIMIT, SPELLING AND CASE.

4. NEVER REPEAT THE WORDS FROM THE QUESTION IN THE ANSWER –


DIRECTLY / INDIRECTLY.

5. WRITE THE ATTACHED WORDS WHERE NECESSARY.

6. APPLY THE PROXIMITY PRINCIPLE WHERE FEASIBLE AND DESIRABLE.


(IN THE SOURCE, THE ANSWER WOULD BE CLOSE TO THOSE WORDS
WHICH ARE CLOSE TO THE BLANK.)

7. UTILIZE THE INTERNAL CLUES WHERE AVAILABLE.

8. UNDERSTAND THE PROBABLE LOCATION OF THE ANSWER.

9. DO NOT USE ANY OPTION MORE THAN ONCE, NOT EVEN THE EXAMPLE.

HOWEVER, IF THE OPTIONS ON THE LIST ARE DESIGNATED WITH


ALPHABET - WHEN THE ANSWERS ARE LETTERS -YOU MUST READ
ALL THE QUESTIONS AT THE BEGINNING ITSELF, BECAUSE ANY
ANSWER CAN BE FOUND ANYWHERE IN THE PASSSAGE. ALSO, IF
INSTRUCTED ACCORDINGLY, REPITITION WILL HAPPEN.
PRACTICE READING-01
READING PASSAGE -1
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading passage 1.

EARLY TELECOMMUNICATIONS DEVICES


Although it is hardly used anymore, the telegraph is familiar to most people. This early
telecommunications device is credited, as any school student knows, to Samuel Morse, who in 1844,
made the first long-distance electronic communication via his invocation, the Morse telegraphs. What is
not so commonly known is that Morse’s was not the only.telegraph nor he the only such inventor at this
time. A rival system, developed by William Cooke and Charles Wheatstone, was patented in England in
1845 and was subsequently adopted for use, by British rail companies to enable speedy communication
between rail stations.

However, the Cooke-Wheatstone telegraph, which used six wires and a fragile receiver requiring five
magnetic needles, proved to be awkward to use, difficult to transport and expensive to build. Morse’s
version used one wire and a receiver of a simpler and stronger design. This is, no doubt, why it became
the favored telegraph in many parts of the world, especially the United States, which built a
telegraph line along railway tracks crossing the North American continent, linking eastern cities with
western Frontiers.

Morse chose the Magnetic Telegraph Company to handle the patents for his telegraph technology, and
within seven years of the appearance of his invention, the company had licensed use of the telegraph
to more than 50 companies across the US. In 1851, twelve of these companies came together to form
the Western Union Company. By 1866, Western Union had grown to include more than 4000 telegraph
offices, almost all in rail stations.

Another early telecommunications device is still very much with us: the telegraph .Although the
telephone is popularly thought to be the brainchild of one man, Alexander Graham Bell, this is not the
whole truth. Phillip Reis, a school teacher in Germany, invented a device in 1861 that he labeled a
telephone. Reis’s invention was limited to transmitting musical tones, however, and could not send the
sound of the human voice across the wire.

While Reis was working on his invention, Bell and another man, Elisha Cray, were also working toward
the invention of the telephone, though by an indirect route. Both were, in fact, seeking ways of
allowing multiple telegraph signals to travel along the same telegraph line –a system known as a
harmonic telegraph. Bell worked on Boston while Gray was based in Chicago, and the two were rivals in
their area of research. For both inventors, the perfection of the harmonic telegraph proved too
difficult and both, separately but at around the same time, changed plans and started on the
development of a telephone. Most interesting of all is the fact that both men applied for a patent to
the US patent Office for their respective telephones on the same day, 14 February 1876. Bell was lucky
enough to have arrived a few hours earlier then Gray and so it was bell whose name was to be forever
associated with the telephone. The harmonic telegraph, incidentally, was perfected by Thomas Edison,
best known as the inventor of the light bulb, in 1881

Rights to Bell’s patent (now recognized as the most voluble patent in the history of technology)were
offered to Western Union for $100000, with the assumption that the giant telegraph company would
be enthusiastic about the new technology. But western union dislikes bell’s design and instead asked
Elisha Gray to make refinements to his original telephone design. Bell’s company began to set up its
own business and sell telephones, while western union, with its somewhat different design, was its
computer.
PRACTICE READING-01
Competition between the two continued for about two years, but all the while, the Bell Company was
mounting a legal challenge to Western Union, claiming it held the only true basic patents for the
telephone. It based its claim on the fact that Bell had beaten Gray to the Patent Office and so should
be the sole recognized inventor of the telephone Eventually, Western Union had to agree With Bell and
gave up its telephone rights and patents to the Bell Company. The telegraph company’s entire network
of telephone was handed over to the Bell Company. As Compensation, Western Union was given 20 per
cent of revenue from rental of its former equipment; this arrangement was to last until Bell’s patents
expired. In an effort to fight the power the Bell Company enjoyed from exclusive rights to bell’s
patents, a small telephone company, pacific Union, established telephone services in the 1920s and
1930s that it claimed were based on the telephone design of Phillips Reis. They maintained that
because Reis’s invention pre-dated Bell’s, the Bell design was not the first of its kind and, therefore,
Bell’s patents were not valid. Although the court accepted that the company may have been using
Reis’s technology, nonetheless held that only Bell’s patents could legally be used.

The Bell Company named American telephone & Telegraph thus firmed an effective monopoly on
telephone services in the United States. The company subsequently grew to such an extent that, a
century later, it was the largest privately held enterprise in the world, with more than a million
employees controlling communications between more than 100 million telephones. In 1984, American
Telephone & Telegraph was found by a US court to be too monopolistic and was ordered to be broken
up to several smaller companies.

Patent: An official recognition of a person as the inventor of a device monopoly exclusive control of a
market.

Questions 1-5
Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN TREE WORDS from the passage for each answer
write your answers in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

Year Event Inventor(s)

(by surname)

1845 Patent of telegraph …… (1)…….

1851 Establishment of…. (2)…….

1861 Invention of telephone …… (3)…..

1876 Application for patent of (4)…… Gray

1881 Successful development of …..(5) Edition


PRACTICE READING-01
Questions 6-10

Look at following lists of inventors and companies. Match each inventor to ONE of the companies that
used his/their technology. Choose E if there is no information in the reading passage. Write the
appropriate letters A-E in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet.

N.B: You may use any letter more than once.

Inventers Companies

Morse Example * A British rail companies

(6) Bell B Pacific Union

(7) Cooke and Wheatstone C American Telephone & Telegraph

(8) Edition D Western Union

(9) Gray or

(10) Reis E no information in reading passage

*Example answer : D

Questions 11-14
USING NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following question. Write your answer s in boxes
11-14 on your answer sheet.
11. Name ONE reason way Cooke and Whetstone’s invention was not as successful as Morse’s
12. In what type of location did Western Union typically offer its telegraph services?
13. What sort of information was Reis’s original invention able to send?
14. What device did Alexander Graham Bell try but fail to invent?

READING PASSAGE 2
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-28, which are based on Reading passage 2
CATEGORISING LOVE
Although many people would no doubt think it impossible, social psychologists over the past several
decades have been attempting to categories and quantify the notion of love. And while there may
never be agreement on how this is best done, much of the research to date is quite thought-provoking.

Sternberg (1986) sees love in terms of the interplay between three independently quantifiable aspects:
passion, intimacy and decision/commitment. Sternberg defines passion as the romantic and sexual
components of a relationship. Intimacy is the degree of closeness a person feels for another.
Decision/commitment concerns both one’s decision about being in love with a person and, once in
established relationship with that and, once in an established relationship with that person, how
committed one is to loving one’s partner.
PRACTICE READING-01
Intimacy

Decision/ passion

Commitment

The intensity of each of the three aspects tells us how a love relationship can be characterized. If
decision/commitment is strong, for example, but intimacy and passion are low, then the result is
empty love, according to Sternberg. He defines liking, meanwhile, as the type of love resulting from a
high degree of intimacy but low decision/commitment and passion. When passion is the only
component that is strongly felt, this means that infatuation best describes the relationship. Romantic
love occurs when there is a balance of passion and intimacy at relatively high levels but there is little
decision/commitment. When all three aspects are more or less equally balanced, however, the
relationship can be called one of consummate love, and this says Sternberg, is probably the healthiest
in terms of the longevity of the relationship and the happiness of the partners.

In yet another categorization of love, Lee (1973) divides the emotion in to six different styles, each
with its own name:

Love style Characteristics

Eros romantic, Passionate love;

Based on ideal images of one’s partner

Ludus game-playing love; playful and teasing

Storge friendship love

Pragma practical, logical love; a

shopping-list’ approach to seeking a partner

Mania possessive, dependent love

agape selfless, altruistic love; puts partner’s interests above own

Lee believes most people feel or experience love as a combination of two or more of the about styles,
and that both partners may approach their relationship with styles that are sometimes compatible and
sometimes not. Hen drink and Hen drink (1986) investigated how men and women categories their
PRACTICE READING-01
feelings and experiences of love using scales developed to measure Lee’s six styles. They found that
women scored higher on storge, pragma and mania styles, while men scored higher on ludus.

In a subsequent study, Hendrick and Adler (1988) looked at how men’s and women’s scores for the six
love type correlated with satisfaction in their love relationship was more likely to be satisfactory if
eros and agape scores for both partners were high, while a high score of ludus was more common in
relationship marked by dissatisfaction.

The question of why different types or styles of love exist may best be addressed by attachment
theory. The theory is based on observations of infants developing attachments to adults interpreted by
Bowl by (1980) as a natural, evolutionary behavior that promotes survival of the infant by staying close
to adults when there is danger. Ainsworth et al. (1978) divide attachment behavior in to three types:
secure, anxious-ambivalent and avoidant. A secure attachment style forms when the infant and the
care-giving adult interact with consistent caring and regular physical contact, giving the infant
confidence to explore the world with little fear. When the adult gives care inconsistently or tries to
interface too much in the infant’s activities, the attachment style is more likely to be anxious-
ambivalent. An avoidant style results from regular refusal by the care giving adult to give attention or
physical contact to the infant.

Hazan and Shaver (1987), believing love o be a form of attachment, speculate that early attachment
styles extend in to adulthood and characterize a person’s style of showing love for another person.
They base their supposition on the reported histories of over 1200 people, who wrote of both their
adult romantic experience and their relationship with their parents. Adults with secure attachment
styles reported that they found it fairly easy to get close to other people and enjoy a relationship
Characterized by mutual dependence. Moreover, there was little fear of being rejected by others.
Those with avoidant attachment styles said they were not comfortable getting close to others, found it
difficult to trust others completely and did not like having to rely on others. People in the anxious-
ambivalent category felt their partners did not wish to become as intimate with them as they
themselves would have liked. They also worried that they were not loved by their partners and
constantly treated about their romantic relationships.

Questions 15-19
There are several diagrams illustrating the triangular relationship of passion, intimacy and,
decision/commitment, as defined by Stemberg (1986) in reading passage 2.Look at each diagram and
determine whether it illustrates:

A consummate live
B romantic love
C empty love
D infatuation
E liking
or
F no information in the reading passage.
PRACTICE READING-01
Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 15-19 on your answer sheet.

Example C

intimacy

decision/ passion

commitment

15 intimacy 18 intimacy

Decision/ decision/ passion

Commitment passion commitment

16 intimacy 19 intimacy

Decision/ passion

Decision/ passion commitment

Commitment

17 intimacy

Decision/

Commitment passion
PRACTICE READING-01

Questions 20-25

In Reading Passage 2, Lee (1973) divides love in to six distinct styles. Each of the comments below can
be attributed to a person with one of those styles. Classify the comments as typical of:

A agape
B eros
C ludus
D mania
E pragma
F storge
Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 20-25 on your answer sheet.

Example:

I would rather suffer myself then let my partner suffer

Answer: A

20. ’ Our relationship is satisfying because it developed from a deep friendship.’


21. ‘ I can’t relax if I suspect my partner is with somebody else. I want him/her all to myself.’
22. ‘ When I chose my partner, I considered how he/she would affect my career ambitions.’
23. ‘ My partner looks just like the kind of person I’ve always wanted to be with. I was attracted to
him/her as soon as we met.’
24. ’ I wouldn’t hesitate to give everything I own to my partner if he/she wanted it.’
25. ‘ I like to keep my partner guessing whether I really love him/her.’
Questions 26-28
Complete the sentence below with words taken from reading passage 2. Use NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 26-28 on your answer sheet.
26. If adults consistently withdraw from contact with an infant, the likely result will be a (n) -----------
attachment style.
27. Adults with-------------- attachment styles tend to wish for more closeness from their partners than
they are getting.
28. Dependence on others may present a problem for people with----------- attachment styles.
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-42, which are based on Reading passage 3.
Questions 29-33
Reading passage 3 has 6 paragraphs.
PRACTICE READING-01
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraph B-F from the list of headings below. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 29-33 on your answer sheet.

N.B. There are more heading then paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use any of the
headings more than once.

List of headings

(i) Responsibilities of responding police officers


(ii) Perceived advantages of rapid response
(iii) Police response to public satisfaction
(iv) Communicating response time to people requesting
help
(v) When rapid response is and is not necessary
(vi) Role of technology in improvement police response
(vii) Response time and success of response
(viii) Public demand for catching criminals
(ix) Obstacles to quickly contacting the police

Example:

Paragraph A Answer: vi

29. Paragraph B

30. Paragraph C

31. Paragraph D

32. Paragraph E

33. Paragraph F

Rapid police Response


A Police department in the United States and Canada see it as central to their role that they respond
to calls for help as quickly as possible. This ability to react fast has been greatly improved with the aid
of technology. The telephone and police radio, already long in use, assist greatly in the reduction of
police response time In more recent times there has been the introduction of the 911 emergency
system, which allows the public eastern and faster contact with police, and the use of police computer
systems, which assist police in planning patrols and assigning emergency requests to the police officers
nearest to the scene of the emergency.

B An important part of police strategy, rapid police response is seen by police officers and the public
alike as offering tremendous benefits. The more obvious once are the ability of police to apply first-aid
lifesaving techniques quickly and the greater likelihood of arresting people who may have participated
in a crime. It aids in identifying those who witnessed an emergency or crime, as well as in collecting
evidence. The overall reputation of a police department, too, is enhanced if rapid response is
PRACTICE READING-01
consistent, and this in itself promotes the prevention of crime. Needless to say, rapid response offers
the public some degree of satisfaction in its police force.

C While these may be the desired consequences of rapid police response, actual research has not
shown it to be quite so beneficial. For example, it has been demonstrated that rapid response leads to
greater likelihood of arrest only if responses are in the order of 1-2 minutes after a call is received by
the police. When response times increase to 3-4 minutes-still quite a rapid response-- the likelihood of
an arrest is substantially reduced. Similarly, in identifying mimeses to emergencies or crimes, police
are far more likely to be successful if the arrive at the scene no more than four minutes, on average,
after receiving a call for help yet both police officers and the public define rapid response as
responding up to 10-12 minutes after calling the police for help.

D Should police assume all the responsibility for ensuring a rapid response? Studies have shown that
people tend to delay after an incident occurs before contacting the police. A crime victim may be
injured and thus unable to call for help, for example, or no telephone may be available at the scene of
the incident. Often, however, there is no such physical barrier to calling the people. Indeed, it is very
common for crime victims to all their parents, their minister, or even their insurance company first.
When the police are many called in such cases, the effectiveness of even the most rapid of responses is
greatly diminished.
PRACTICE READING-01
E The effectiveness of rapid response also needs to be seen in light of the nature of the crime. For
example, when someone rings the police after discovering their television set has been stolen from
their home, there is little point, in terms of identifying those responsible for the crime, in ensuring a
very rapid response, It is common in such burglary or theft cases that the victim discovers the crime
hours, days, even weeks after it has occurred when the victim is directly involved in the crime,
however, as in the case of a robbery, rapid response, provided the victim was quickly able to contact
the police, is more likely to be advantageous. Based on statistics comparing crimes that are discovered
and those in which the victim is directly involved, Spellman and Brown (1981) suggest that three on
four calls to police need not be met with rapid response.

F It becomes clear that the importance of response time in collecting evidence or catching criminals
after a crime must be weighed against a variety of factors. Yet because police department officials
assume the public strongly demands rapid response, they believe that every call to the police should be
met with it studies have shown, however, that while the public wants quick response, more important
is the information given by the police to the person asking for help. If a caller is told the police will
arrive in five minutes but in fact it takes ten minutes or more, waiting the extra time cam be
extremely frustrating. But if a caller is told he or she will have to wait 10 minutes and the police
indeed arrive within that time, the caller is normally satisfied. Thus, rather than emphasizing rapid
response, the focus of energies should be on establishing realistic expectations in the caller and making
every effort to meet them.

Questions 34 and 35

Name the TWO LATEST technological developments that reduce response time. Using NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS for each answer, write the two developments separately in boxes 34-35 on your answer
sheet

Questions 36-42

Do the following statements reflect the climes of the write in reading passage 3? In boxes 36-42 write:

YES Is the statement reflects the writer’s claims

NO If the statement contradicts the writer

NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage

36. Police believe there is a better chance of finding witnesses to a crime if response is rapid.
37. A response delay of 1-2 minutes may have substantial influence on whether or not a suspected
criminal is caught.
38. The public and the police generally agree on the amount of time normally taken for a rapid
response.
39. Physical barriers are the greatest cause of delay in contacting police.
40. Rapid response is considered desirable in handling cases of burglary.
41. Research shows that some75 per cent of crimes are discovered by victims after they have been
committed.
42. Police departments are usually successful in providing a response regardless of the circumstances of
the crime or emergency.
Reading Test no. 2
3
Reading Test no. 3
3
Practice Reading Test - 4
Practice Test 4 4
READING
READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below



1 23 
 23

A Glass, in one form or another, has long been in noble


service to humans As one of the most widely used
of manufactured materials, and certainly the most
versatile, it can be as imposing as a telescope mirror
the width of a tennis court or as small and simple as
a marble rolling across dirt The uses of this
adaptable material have been broadened
dramatically by new technologies glass fibre
optics — more than eight million miles —
carrying telephone and television signals
across nations, glass ceramics serving as the
nose cones of missiles and as crowns for
teeth; tiny glass beads taking radiation doses
inside the body to specific organs, even a new
type of glass fashioned of nuclear waste in
order to dispose of that unwanted material.

B On the horizon are optical computers These


could store programs and process
information by means of light - pulses from
tiny lasers - rather than electrons And the
pulses would travel over glass fibres, not
copper wire These machines could function
hundreds of times faster than today’s
electronic computers and hold vastly more
information Today fibre optics are used
to obtain a clearer image of smaller and
smaller objects than ever before - even bacterial

80
Reading

viruses. A new generation of optical shape the glass. In this way, the envelope
instruments is emerging that can provide of a light bulb is made by a single
detailed imaging of the inner workings machine at the rate of 66,000 an hour, as
of cells. It is the surge in fibre optic use compared with 1,200 a day produced by
and in liquid crystal displays that has set a team of four glassblowers.
the U.S. glass industry (a 16 billion dollar
business employing some 150,000 E The secret of the versatility of glass lies
workers) to building new plants to meet in its interior structure. Although it is
demand. rigid, and thus like a solid, the atoms are
arranged in a random disordered fashion,
C But it is not only in technology and characteristic of a liquid. In the melting
commerce that glass has widened its process, the atoms in the raw materials
horizons. The use of glass as art, a are disturbed from their normal position
tradition spins back at least to Roman in the molecular structure; before they
times, is also booming. Nearly can find their way back to crystalline
everywhere, it seems, men and women arrangements the glass cools. This
are blowing glass and creating works of looseness in molecular structure gives
art. «I didn’t sell a piece of glass until the material what engineers call
1975,» Dale Chihuly said, smiling, for tremendous “formability” which allows
in the 18 years since the end of the dry technicians to tailor glass to whatever
spell, he has become one of the most they need.
financially successful artists of the 20th
century. He now has a new commission F Today, scientists continue to experiment
- a glass sculpture for the headquarters with new glass mixtures and building
building of a pizza company - for which designers test their imaginations with
his fee is half a million dollars. applications of special types of glass. A
London architect, Mike Davies, sees
D But not all the glass technology that even more dramatic buildings using
touches our lives is ultra-modern. molecular chemistry. “Glass is the great
Consider the simple light bulb; at the turn building material of the future, the
of the century most light bulbs were hand «dynamic skin»,’ he said. “Think of glass
blown, and the cost of one was equivalent that has been treated to react to electric
to half a day’s pay for the average worker. currents going through it, glass that will
In effect, the invention of the ribbon change from clear to opaque at the push
machine by Corning in the 1920s lighted of a button, that gives you instant
a nation. The price of a bulb plunged. curtains. Think of how the tall buildings
Small wonder that the machine has been in New York could perform a symphony
called one of the great mechanical of colours as the glass in them is made
achievements of all time. Yet it is very to change colours instantly.” Glass as
simple: a narrow ribbon of molten glass instant curtains is available now, but the
travels over a moving belt of steel in cost is exorbitant. As for the glass
which there are holes. The glass sags changing colours instantly, that may
through the holes and into waiting come true. Mike Davies’s vision may
moulds. Puffs of compressed air then indeed be on the way to fulfilment.

Adapted from “Glass: Capturing the Dance of Light” by William S. Ellis, National Geographic
81
Practice Test 4

Questions 1-5

Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading/or each
paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-5
on your answer sheet. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.
You may use any heading more at once.
Example Answer

/ 0

$# '3$!/
i Growth in the market for glass crafts
ii Computers and their dependence on glass
iii What makes glass so adaptable
iv Historical development of glass
v Scientists’ dreams cost millions
vi Architectural experiments with glass
vii Glass art galleries flourish
viii Exciting innovations in fibre optics
ix A former glass technology
0 $  

%
0
+ %
,
. %
5
, %

* %
4

82
Reading

Questions 6-8

The diagram below shows the principle of Coming’s ribbon machine. Label the diagram by
selecting NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the Reading Passage to fill each
numbered space. Write your answers in boxes 6-8 on your answer sheet.

Questions 9-13

Look at the list below of the uses of glass. According to the passage, state whether these uses
exist today, will exist in the future or are not mentioned by the writer. In boxes 9-13 write
A if the uses exist today
B if the uses will exist in the future
C if the uses are not mentioned by the writer
9 dental fittings
10 optical computers
11 sculptures
12 fashions
13 curtains

83
Practice Test 4

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27 which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below

Why some women cross


the finish line ahead of men

RECRUITMENT Selection, shows that while one in six


The course is tougher but women are
men who appear on interview shortlists
staying the distance, reports Andrew get jobs, the figure rises to one in four
Crisp. for women.

B The study concentrated on applications


A Women who apply for jobs in middle or for management positions in the $45,000
senior management have a higher success to $110,000 salary range and found that
rate than men, according to an women are more successful than men in
employment survey. But of course far both the private and public sectors Dr
fewer of them apply for these positions. Elisabeth Marx from London-based NB
The study, by recruitment consultants NB Selection described the findings as

84
Rreading

encouraging for women, in that they send E In Europe a recent feature of corporate
a positive message to them to apply for life in the recession has been the de-
interesting management positions. But layering of management structures.
she added, “We should not lose sight of Sears said that this has halted progress
the fact that significantly fewer women for women in as much as de-layering has
apply for senior positions in comparison taken place either where women are
with men.” working or in layers they aspire to. Sears
also noted a positive trend from the
C Reasons for higher success rates among recession, which has been the growing
women are difficult to isolate. One number of women who have started up
explanation suggested is that if a woman on their own.
candidate manages to get on a shortlist,
then she has probably already proved F In business as a whole, there are a
herself to be an exceptional candidate. number of factors encouraging the
Dr Marx said that when women apply prospect of greater equality in the
for positions they tend to be better workforce. Demographic trends suggest
qualified than their male counterparts but that the number of women going into
are more selective and conservative in employment is steadily increasing. In
their job search. Women tend to research addition a far greater number of women
thoroughly before applying for positions are now passing through higher
or attending interviews. Men, on the education, making them better qualified
other hand, seem to rely on their ability to move into management positions.
to sell themselves and to convince
employers that any shortcomings they G Organisations such as the European
have will not prevent them from doing a Women’s Management Development
good job. Network provide a range of
opportunities for women to enhance
D Managerial and executive progress made their skills and contacts. Through a series
by women is confirmed by the annual of both pan-European and national
survey of boards of directors carried out workshops and conferences the barriers
by Korn/Ferry/Carre/ Orban to women in employment are being
International. This year the survey shows broken down. However, Ariane Berthoin
a doubling of the number of women Antal, director of the International
serving as non-executive directors Institute for Organisational Change of
compared with the previous year. Archamps in France, said that there is
However, progress remains painfully only anecdotal evidence of changes in
slow and there were still only 18 posts recruitment patterns. And she said, “It”s
filled by women out of a total of 354 non- still so hard for women to even get on to
executive positions surveyed. Hilary shortlists -there are so many hurdles and
Sears, a partner with Korn/Ferry, said, barriers.’ Antal agreed that there have
“Women have raised the level of grades been some positive signs but said “Until
we are employed in but we have still not there is a belief among employers, until
broken through barriers to the top.” they value the difference, nothing will
change.”

85
Practice Test 4

Questions 14-19

Reading Passage 2 has 7 paragraphs (A-G). State which paragraph discusses each of the
points below. Write the appropriate letter (A-G) in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

Example 
4!/#&$$!#-5#$ !&%46-

14 The drawbacks of current company restructuring patterns.


15 Associations that provide support for professional women.
16 The success rate of female job applicants for management positions.
17 Male and female approaches to job applications.
18 Reasons why more women are being employed in the business sector.
19 The improvement in female numbers on company management structures.

Questions 20-23

The author makes reference to three consultants in the Reading Passage. Which of the list of
points below do these consultants make? In boxes 20-23 write
M if the point is made by Dr Marx
S if the point is made by Hilary Sears
A if the point is made by Ariane Berthoin Antal
20 Selection procedures do not favour women.
21 The number of female-run businesses is increasing.
22 Male applicants exceed female applicants for top posts.
23 Women hold higher positions now than they used to.

Questions 24-27

Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS answer the following questions. Write your
answers in boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet.
24 What change has there been in the number of women in top management positions
detailed in the annual survey?
25 What aspect of company structuring has disadvantaged women?
26 What information tells us that more women are working nowadays?
27 Which group of people should change their attitude to recruitment?

86
Reading

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-39 which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.

Population viability analysis


Part A
To make political decisions about the extent and type of forestry in a region
it is important to understand the consequences of those decisions. One tool
for assessing the impact of forestry on the ecosystem is population viability
analysis (PVA). This is a tool for predicting the probability that a species
will become extinct in a particular region over a specific period. It has been
successfully used in the United States to provide input into resource
exploitation decisions and assist wildlife managers and there is now enormous
potential for using population viability to assist wildlife management in
Australia’s forests.
A species becomes extinct when the last individual dies. This observation is
a useful starting point for any discussion of extinction as it highlights the
role of luck and chance in the extinction process. To make a prediction about
extinction we need to understand the processes that can contribute to it and
these fall into four broad categories which are discussed below.
Part B
A Early attempts to predict population viability were based on demographic
uncertainty Whether an individual survives from one year to the next
will largely be a matter of chance. Some pairs may produce several young
in a single year while others may produce none in that same year. Small
populations will fluctuate enormously because of the random nature of
birth and death and these chance fluctuations can cause species extinctions
even if, on average, the population size should increase. Taking only this
uncertainty of ability to reproduce into account, extinction is unlikely if
the number of individuals in a population is above about 50 and the
population is growing.
B Small populations cannot avoid a certain amount of inbreeding. This is
particularly true if there is a very small number of one sex. For example,
if there are only 20 individuals of a species and only one is a male, all
future individuals in the species must be descended from that one male.
For most animal species such individuals are less likely to survive and
reproduce. Inbreeding increases the chance of extinction.

87
Practice Test 4

C Variation within a species is the raw material upon which natural selection
acts. Without genetic variability a species lacks the capacity to evolve and
cannot adapt to changes in its environment or to new predators and new
diseases. The loss of genetic diversity associated with reductions in
population size will contribute to the likelihood of extinction.

D Recent research has shown that other factors need to be considered.


Australia’s environment fluctuates enormously from year to year. These
fluctuations add yet another degree of uncertainty to the survival of many
species. Catastrophes such as fire, flood, drought or epidemic may reduce
population sizes to a small fraction of their average level. When allowance
is made for these two additional elements of uncertainty the population
size necessary to be confident of persistence for a few hundred years may
increase to several thousand.

Part C
Beside these processes we need to bear in mind the distribution of a population.
A species that occurs in five isolated places each containing 20 individuals
will not have the same probability of extinction as a species with a single
population of 100 individuals in a single locality.
Where logging occurs (that is, the cutting down of forests for timber) forest-
dependent creatures in that area will be forced to leave. Ground-dwelling
herbivores may return within a decade. However, arboreal marsupials (that is
animals which live in trees) may not recover to pre-logging densities for over
a century. As more forests are logged, animal population sizes will be reduced
further. Regardless of the theory or model that we choose, a reduction in
population size decreases the genetic diversity of a population and increases
the probability of extinction because of any or all of the processes listed above.
It is therefore a scientific fact that increasing the area that is loaded in any
region will increase the probability that forest-dependent animals will become
extinct.

88
Reading

Questions 28-31

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Part A of Reading
Passage 3? In boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

Example Answer
A link exist between the consequences of decisions and
the decision making process itself. YES

28 Scientists are interested in the effect of forestry on native animals.


29 PVA has been used in Australia for many years.
30 A species is said to be extinct when only one individual exists.
31 Extinction is a naturally occurring phenomenon.

Questions 32-35

These questions are based on Part B of Reading Passage 3.


In paragraphs A to D the author describes four processes which may contribute to the
extinction of a species. Match the list of processes (i-vi) to the paragraphs. Write the
appropriate number (i-vi) in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more processes than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

Processes
32 Paragraph A i Loss of ability to adapt
ii Natural disasters
33 Paragraph B
iii An imblance of the sexes
34 Paragraph C iv Human disasters
35 Paragraph D v Evolution
vi The haphazard nature of
reproduction

89
Practice Test 4

Questions 36-38

Based on your reading of Part C, complete the sentences below with words taken from the
passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in
boxes 36-38 on your answer sheet.
While the population of a species may be on the increase, there is always a
chance that small isolated groups ... (36) ...
Survival of a species depends on a balance between the size of a population
and its ... (37) ...
The likelihood that animals which live in forests will become extinct is
increased when ... (38) ...

Question 39

Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 39 on your answer sheet.
39 An alternative heading for the passage could be:
A The protection of native flora and fauna
B Influential factors in assessing survival probability
C An economic rationale for the logging of forests
D Preventive measures for the extinction of a species

90
PRACTICE READING TEST-5
QUESTIONS 1-14
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which refer to Reading Passage 1 below
READING PASSAGE 1
A different taste of things to come
The French are turning their noses up at wine and rejecting their croissant in favour of breakfast
cereal, the English are turning from tea to mineral water and the Spanish are turning to pizza at an
alarming rate. In short, we are beginning to see the evolution of the Euro consumer. That seems to be
the message from research conducted by Europanel, an association of research companies across 23
countries which monitor buying patterns using consumer panels.
Social and demographic factors and the marketing strategies of multinational food and drink companies
are combining to make the lifestyles of different European nations more alike. The main demographic
factors leading to this increasing uniformity across the continent are falling birth rates and easier
divorce, according to one member of Europanel. He said “The result is smaller households, which rely
more on things such as microwaves and convenience goods, whatever the nationality.
Even the French, who are proud of their cuisine, are turning to the microwave. Latest Europanel
figures show that 38% of French kitchens house a microwave, just under the figure of 40% in water
Germany. In Britain, the figure is 57%.
The French are also becoming ‘less French’ as they continue to shy away from wine. Wine consumption
in France fell by an average of 6% a year between 1986 and 1992. By contrast, the British are drinking
more.
A key demographic factor is average household size, measured by the number of adult residents.
Already the spread between nations is quite narrow. Western Germany has the lowest figure in western
Europe at 2.2 adults, and Spain the highest at 3.2, followed by Italy at 2.8. The gap will narrow still
further because, surprisingly enough, the birth rates in Catholic countries such as Spain and Italy are
falling.
Another factor is the rise of the one-person household, frequently misinterpreted to mean harbouring
an unmarried or divorced man or woman living alone. Statistically, one-person households include
single-parent households, the number of which are shooting up. The phenomenon is growing. Forty per
cent of Swedish homes are now one –person households, compared with 29% ten years earlier. In
western Germany the figure is 35% (30% ten years ago); in the Netherlands 29% (16%), and in Ireland
21% (17%).
In Spain, the one-adult household was so rare a decade ago it did not register statistically; now the
figure is 10%. Hence the growth in demand for convenience foods. In Spain, the annual growth rate for
pizza sales between 1986 and 1992 was 34% while growth last year showed a little to 16%. Other factors
affect consumer habits. For instance, Piper says that the wider prevalence of central heating in chilly
Britain is the chief cause of the decline in the popularity not just of tea but of all hot drinks. Another
major factor is aggressive multinational marketing. After all, the French cannot indulge a craving for
sliced bread if all that is on offer is a baguette. The products have to be on the supermarket shelves. In
fact, there have to be supermarket shelves. There must be enough space to put new choices on offer.
Once a major manufacturer has won a dominant share in a mature market, it will look abroad for
pastures new. Breakfast cereals are one such product. With growth opportunities in the mature British
market slowing, manufacturers crossed the Channel.
As a result, cereal sales in France grew by 18% a year between 1986 and 1992, and continued to grow
by 10% last year. Similarly, tomato ketchup sales have boomed in such unlikely places as Spain and
France, with growth rates of 28% and 18% respectively.
How far the process will go is anybody’s guess. Increased choice is all very well, but the prospect of
every kitchen in Europe serving up milk-sodden cereal in the morning and microwaved pizza in the
evening is surely depressing one.
Question 1-4
Complete the following statements with not more than FOUR WORDS TAKEN FROM THE TEXT. Write
your answers in the spaces numbered 1-4 on the answer sheet. An example has been done for you.

Example: The association responsible for the research in this passage is known as
Answer : Europanel

The eating habits of some European nations are becoming less diverse because of two groups of
factors, namely
1. …and
2. ….. ……. ……..
3. until recently, it was wrongly believed that the one-person household consisted of….
4. as soon as it has become successful in an established market, a large company…

Question 5-9
Below are listed some of the lifestyle changes affecting various European nations. Match each change
with the country in which it is said to occur by writing the appropriate letter A-F in the spaces
numbered 5-9 on the answer sheet. One has been done for you as an example.
There are more countries than you need but you may use some countries more than once.
Example :eating more pizza
Answer: A.

5. eating more cereals


6. drinking less wine
7. using more central heating
8. drinking less tea
9. having fewer children

List of Countries
A Spain B Italy C France
D Germany E Britain F Sweden

Questions 10-14
Which of the following changes are the result of smaller households according to the reading passage?
Write Y for Yes or N for No in the spaces numbered 10-14 on the answer sheet.
10. increased use of microwaves
11. increasing popularity of breakfast cereals
12. decrease in popularity of hot drinks
13. increased demand for convenience foods
14. growth in sales of tomato ketchup
QUESTIONS 15-27
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27 which refer the Reading Passage 2 below
READING PASSAGE 2
Fire Tests
More fires start in a building’s contents, not its structure. Understanding how fire grows indoors-in
enclosed spaces-is the first step in limiting its potential for death and destruction. Fire tests have been
around for years, and most building codes make reference to them Some, however, are obsolete, in the
sense that they can’t accommodate a growing number of new materials in new configurations. Nor can
they rank items in order of flammability. What is needed are graded tests that attach numbers could
then be plugged into suitable computer models. The computer could work out the total flammability of
an item, depending on what it’s made of, how it’s put together, and where it’s placed.
Computer models are becoming important in fire research. Scientists are hoping that one day, with
enough data and sufficiently powerful computers they will be able to calculate, without actually
setting fire to anything, the way a fire will spread in any given building
A fire indoors is a very different animal from one outdoors. When you put a match to your incinerator,
the flames build up steadily. Most of the heat is lost to the atmosphere, so you have no trouble staying
close by.
Inside a room, it obeys different and more complex physics, and the danger quietly multiplies. First,
instead of a match, imagine a cigarette dropped into the back of a lounge chair. Cigarettes, you should
know, are among the major causes of fires in houses. A carelessly discarded cigarette can stay alight in
a concealed crevice for as long as 45 minutes. Then, after smouldering away, the chair’s upholstery
suddenly ignites. Within perhaps 30 seconds, smoke, combustion gases, and heat begin curling
upwards, and before 1 minute has passed, they have started building up in a trapped layer under the
ceiling

As the chair continues to burn the layer gets hotter and thicker, and after 2 minutes it starts radiating
heat back down to the chair and other furniture in the room. After 3 minutes or so the trapped heat
can become so intense that we see ‘flash over’-everything in the room, including combustible gases,
has reached ignition point and bursts into flame.
Experiments have shown that some polyurethane armchairs can, 5 minutes after ignition, give out 1-2
megawatts of heat. That’s no more than a lively incinerator produces; but when it’s confined in a
room it can easily induce flash-over. After flash-over anybody still in the room would be dead. People
rarely appreciate how quickly a small fire indoors can turn into a deadly inferno. They waste time
going to the laundry to get a bucket of water instead of making sure everybody else is out of the house.
By the time they get back, the fire will almost certainly be out of control. Billowing clouds of smoke
and toxic gases quickly spiil through doorways and along halls, enveloping and incapacitating sleeping
occupants in the rest of the house.
You can appreciate that modeling the entire course of an indoor fire on a computer is a daunting task.
The program needs to consider the flaming combustion zone, the rising thermal plume above, it, the
hot gas layer beneath the ceiling, and ventilation. Turbulence of air is very difficult to model because
large eddies can grow from features as small as 0.1 mm across
Nevertheless, fire researchers overseas have simplified models to study aspects of fire behavior in
homes, hospitals, aircraft, tunnels, stadiums, shopping malls and airports. For example, the Fire
Research Station in Britain has spent 7 years developing ‘Jasmine’, which can show how air circulates
into a burning building and how the smoke layer deepens with time.
In the United States, the National Bureau of Standards has developed ASET, which calculates ‘available
safe egress time’. This fire growth model requires figures for rates of mass loss, smoke release,
production of toxic gases, and heat build-up. Most existing tests, as well have noted, fail to provide the
necessary data. They will need to be modified, or a whole new generation of tests devised.
Questions 15-18
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the reading passage and write T
for true or F for false in the spaces numbered 15-18 on the answer sheet.
15. Some older fire tests only show how a fire starts in a building’s structure.
16. A computer would be able to grade the flammability of an item
17. Flash-over can best be prevented with bucket of water
18. An adequate computer program for predicting the effects of a fire is not easy to set up.

Question 19-25
Below is a list of the stages in the build-up of an indoor fire caused by a cigarette dropped down the
back of an upholstered chair. Decide where each stage first in the following table according to the
time when it occurs and write the appropriate letters A-H in the spaces numbered 19-25 on the answer
sheet.
Up to 45 mins. Up to 1 min. 2 mins. 3 mins and after
Before ignition after ignition

Example: A 19.__________ 22.____________ 24._____________

20. _________ 23. ____________

21. _________ 25._____________

List of stages
A. The cigarette smoulders unseen
B. The heat trapped in the room intensifies
C. Smoke, gases and heat rise towards the ceiling
D. The hot layer beneath the ceiling spreads heat back to the chair to the chair and
other furniture in the room
E. A layer of heat is formed under the ceiling
F. Smoke and gases into other parts of the houses, endangering anyone who may be
there
G. Everything in the room reaches ignition point and bursts into flame
H. The upholstery catches fire
Questions 26-27
What are two models for observing fire behavior that have been developed overseas? Write the answers
in the spaces numbered 26-27 on the answer sheet.

26._______________
27._______________
QUESTIONS 28-42
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-42 which refer to Reading Passage 3 below
READING PASSAGE 3
SOME MISCONCEPTIONS ABOUT ABORIGINAL AUSTRALIA
When airline pilot Percy Trezise began to explore the rock art galleries of Cape York peninsula in the
early 1960s-a hobby that was to obsess him for the next 30 years-the consensus of academic opinion
was that Australia had been peopled for less than 10,000 years. Stone tools found in Kakadu have now
been dated to at least 50,000 years, and camp sites as diverse as lake Mango in the Willandra lakes
region of NSW and WA’s upper Swan River have yielded tools charcoal radiocarbon-dated to between
38,000 and 45,000 years. More than a dozen other sites date to more than 30,000 years-indisputable
evidence, says archeologist Josephine Flood, of the great antiquity of Aboriginal culture.
Thirty years ago, the first Australians were still thought of as a backward race. Trezise recalls in his
book Dream Road, that there was much sage discussion on whether they were even capable of abstract
thought. Since then, reawakened interest in and growing knowledge of Australia’s aboriginal heritage
has demonstrated that this is a complex, subtle and rich culture.
The close we look at Australian prehistory, the more it continues of confound our assumptions. Until
recently, the authoritative view was that the population of Australia at the time of the arrival of
Europeans in 1788 was probably somewhere between 250,000 and 500,000. But the discovery,
beginning two years ago, of a vast Aboriginal graveyard at Lake Victoria near the confluence of the
Murray and Darling rivers has thrown even this into doubt. At least 10,000 skeletons are buried in the
sands of Lake Victoria, possibly as many as 40,000. Researchers are wondering if they have stumbled on
the demographic hub of an infinitely more populous prehistoric Australia than was ever previously
supposed, at the crossroads of two of its greatest river highways. Archeologist Dr. Colin Pardoe of the
SA museum says the idea of 300,000 or so people in Australia before white settlement must be radically
re-evaluated. ‘I believe that we should be thinking 10 times that’, he told science writer Julian Cribb
recently. As Cribb noted, this would be a greater population than pre-Roman Britain’s.
Though Aborigines might see themselves as indigenous (in the sense, as Josephine Flood explains, that
they have no race history not associated with this continent) there is no doubt that they were in fact
Australia’s first migrants. Their springboard was provided by the last ice age, or Pleistocene period,
which lasted between two million and 10,000 years ago. So much water was locked up on land that the
ocean level dropped perhaps 150m. There was never a complete land bridge to south-east Asia, but
Arnhem Land was linked to Papua New Guinea for most of the past 100,000 years, says Flood, and this
would have been one of the easiest routes for ice-age immigrants moving south. What is certain, says
Flood in her excellent book The Riches of Ancient Australia, is that once here, the first Australians
spread rapidly. The inland would have been dry, but considerably more hospitable than it is today. The
inland salt pans were then fresh-water lakes teeming with fish, and the country was much greener.
Questions 28-37
Below is a summary of Reading Passage. Complete the summary by choosing ONE suitable word from
the list below write your answers in the spaces numbered 28-37 on the answer sheet.
Note that there are more words than you need.
SUMMARY
Recent 28 . findings in Australia indicate that previous ideas about Aboriginal 29. may need
to be revised. Charcoal radio-carbon dating of 30. found in different campsites provides evidence
of a society that goes back as far as 50000 years. Furthermore, vast numbers of 31. have been
discovered buried in the lake Victoria region, leading researchers to reconsider their estimates of 32 .
before white settlement. It appears that there may have been 10 times as many 33._______ as
were previously thought.
If we go back far enough, we can consider the Aborigines as the first migrants because they would have
been able to come 34. from Papua New Guinea during the last ice Age. During this35.
there was a land 36. between Arnhem land and Papua New Guinea which would have
facilitated movement. The land itself would have been more 37____________than nowadays with
fresh-water fish in the lakes and plenty of vegetation.
List of words
Period civilization habitable

Population skeletons inhabitants

Link archeological across

Century exploration out

Settled implements

Questions 38-42
The table below sets out information from the passage in three categories: former beliefs about
Aboriginal Australia, recent changes to these beliefs, and the evidence for these changes. Sort the
items of information below the table into their appropriate categories. Write the letters A-E next to
the numbers 38-42 on the answer sheet.
Table
Former belief Recent changes Evidence for changes
Human beings had 38. 39.
inhabitated Australia for less
than 10,000 years.

40. 41. 42.

Items of information
A. the population was between 250,000 and 500,000
B. graves were discovered at Lake Victoria
C. the population could have been about 3,000,000
D. tools from different campsites were radio-carbon dated
E. Australia Aboriginal civilization goes back about 45,000 years.
Practice Reading Test - 6
Practice Test 1 6
READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-15 which are based on Reading
Passage 1 below

A spark, a flint: How fire leapt to life


The control of fire glasses were also
was the first and used by Mexican
perhaps greatest Aztecs and the
of humanity’s Chinese.
steps towards a Percussion
life-enhancing methods of fire-
technology lighting date back
To early man, fire to Paleolithic times,
was a divine gift when some Stone
randomly delivered Age tool-makers
in the form of discovered that
lightning, forest chipping flints
fire or burning lava. produced sparks.
Unable to make The technique
flame for became more
themselves, the efficient after the
earliest peoples discovery of iron,
probabh stored fire about 5000 vears
by keeping slow burning logs alight or by ago In Arctic North America, the Eskimos
carrying charcoal in pots. produced a slow-burning spark by striking
How and where man learnt how to produce quartz against iron pyrites, a compound that
flame at will is unknown. It was probably a contains sulphur. The Chinese lit their fires
secondary invention, accidentally made by striking porcelain with bamboo. In
during tool-making operations with wood or Europe, the combination of steel, flint and
stone. Studies of primitive societies suggest tinder remained the main method of fire-
that the earliest method of making fire was lighting until the mid 19th century.
through friction. European peasants would Fire-lighting was revolutionised by the
insert a wooden drill in a round hole and discovery of phosphorus, isolated in 1669
rotate it briskly between their palms This by a German alchemist trying to transmute
process could be speeded up by wrapping a silver into gold. Impressed by the element’s
cord around the drill and pulling on each end. combustibility, several 17th century chemists
The Ancient Greeks used lenses or concave used it to manufacture fire-lighting devices,
mirrors to concentrate the sun’s rays and but the results were dangerously
burning inflammable. With phosphorus costing the

20
Reading

eqimalent of several hundred pounds per That was 62 years after a Swedish chemist
ounce, the hrst matches were expensive. called Pasch had discovered non-toxic red
The quest for a practical match really began or amorphous phosphorus, a development
after 1781 when a group of French chemists exploited commercially by Pasch’s
came up with the Phosphoric Candle or compatriot J E Lundstrom in 1885.
Ethereal Match, a sealed glass tube Lundstrom’s safety matches were safe
containing a twist of paper tipped with because the red phosphorus was non-toxic;
phosphorus. When the tube was broken, air it was painted on to the striking surface
rushed in, causing the phosphorus to self- instead of the match tip, which contained
combust. An even more hazardous device, potassium chlorate with a relatively high
popular in America, was the Instantaneous ignition temperature of 182 degrees
Light Box — a bottle filled with sulphuric centigrade.
acid into which splints treated with chemicals America lagged behind Europe in match
were dipped. technology and safety standards. It wasn’t
The first matches resembling those used until 1900 that the Diamond Match
today were made in 1827 by John Walker, Company bought a French patent for safety
an English pharmacist who borrowed the matches — but the formula did not work
formula from a military rocket-maker called properly in the different climatic conditions
Congreve. Costing a shilling a box, prevailing in America and it was another 11
Congreves were splints coated with sulphur years before scientists finally adapted the
and tipped with potassium chlorate. To light French patent for the US.
them, the user drew them quickly through The Americans, however, can claim several
folded glass paper. “firsts” in match technology and marketing.
Walker never patented his invention, and In 1892 the Diamond Match Company
three years later it was copied by a Samuel pioneered book matches. The innovation
Jones, who marketed his product as Lucifers. didn’t catch on until after 1896, when a
About the same time, a French chemistry brewery had the novel idea of advertising
student called Charles Sauria produced the its product in match books. Today book
first “strike-anywhere” match by substituting matches are the most widely used type in
white phosphorus for the potassium chlorate the US, with 90 percent handed out free by
in the Walker formula. However, since white hotels, restaurants and others.
phosphorus is a deadly poison, from 1845 Other American innovations include an anti-
match-makers exposed to its fumes afterglow solution to prevent the match from
succumbed to necrosis, a disease that eats smouldering after it has been blown out; and
away jaw-bones. It wasn’t until 1906 that the the waterproof match, which lights after
substance was eventually banned. eight hours in water.
Practice Test 1




Complete the summary below. Choose your answers from the box at the bottom of the page
and write them in boxes 1 8 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more words than spaces so you will not use them all You may use any of the
words more than once.

EARLY FIRE-LIGHTING METHODS

Primitive societies saw fire as a ... (Example) ... gift. Answer heavenly

They tried to ... (1) ... burning logs or charcoal ... (2) ... that they could create
fire themselves. It is suspected that the first man-made flames were produced
by ... (3) ...

The very first fire-lighting methods involved the creation of ... (4) ... by, for
example, rapidly ... (5) ... a wooden stick in a round hole. The use of ... (6) ...
or persistent chipping was also widespread in Europe and among other peoples
such as the Chinese and ... (7) ... . European practice of this method continued
until the 1850s ... (8) ... the discovery of phosphorus some years earlier.

List of Words
Mexicans random rotating
despite preserve realising
sunlight lacking heavenly
percussion chance friction
unaware without make
heating Eskimos surprised
until smoke

22
Rreading

 

Look at the following notes that have been made about the matches described in Reading
Passage 1. Decide which type of match (A-H) corresponds with each description and write
your answers in boxes 9 15 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more matches than descriptions so you will not use them all. You may use any
match more than once.

Example Answer
could be lit after soaking in water H

NOTES
9 made using a less poisonous type of phosphorus
10 identical to a previous type of match
11 caused a deadly illness
12 first to look like modern matches
13 first matches used for advertising
14 relied on an airtight glass container
* made with the help of an army design

Types of Matches
A the Ethereal Match
B the Instantaneous Lightbox
C Congreves
D Lucifers
E the first strike-anywhere match
F Lundstrom’s safety match
G book matches
H waterproof matches
Practice Test 1

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 16-28 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

Zoo conservation programmes


One of London Zoo’s recent advertisements caused me some irritation, so
patently did it distort reality. Headlined “Without zoos you might as well tell
these animals to get stuffed”, it was bordered with illustrations of several
endangered species and went on to extol the myth that without zoos like
London Zoo these animals “will almost certainly disappear forever”. With
the zoo world’s rather mediocre record on conservation, one might be
forgiven for being slightly sceptical about such an advertisement.
Zoos were originally created as places of entertainment, and their suggested
involvement with conservation didn’t seriously arise until about 30 years
ago, when the Zoological Society of London held the first formal
international meeting on the subject. Eight years later, a series of world
conferences took place, entitled “The Breeding of Endangered Species”, and
from this point onwards conservation became the zoo community’s
buzzword. This commitment has now been clearh defined in The World Zpo
Conservation Strategy (WZGS, September 1993), which although an
important and welcome document does seem to be based on an unrealistic
optimism about the nature of the zoo industry
The WZCS estimates that there are about 10,000 zoos in the world, of which
around 1,000 represent a core of quality collections capable of participating
in co-ordinated conservation programmes. This is probably the document’s
first failing, as I believe that 10,000 is a serious underestimate of the total
number of places masquerading as zoological establishments. Of course it is
difficult to get accurate data but, to put the issue into perspective, I have
found that, in a year of working in Eastern Europe, I discover fresh zoos on
almost a weekly basis.
The second flaw in the reasoning of the WZCS document is the naive faith it
places in its 1,000 core zoos. One would assume that the calibre of these
institutions would have been carefully examined, but it appears that the criterion
for inclusion on this select list might merely be that the zoo is a member of a
zoo federation or association. This might be a good starting point, working on
the premise that members must meet certain standards, but again the facts don’t
support the theory. The greatly respected American Association of Zoological
Parks and Aquariums (AAZPA) has had extremely dubious members, and in
the UK the Federation of Zoological Gardens of Great Britain and Ireland has

24
Reading

occasionally had members that have been roundly censured in the national press.
These include Robin Hill Adventure Park on the Isle of Wight, which many
considered the most notorious collection of animals in the country. This
establishment, which for years was protected by the Isle’s local council (which
viewed it as a tourist amenity), was finally closed down following a damning
report by a veterinary inspector appointed under the terms of the Zoo Licensing
Act 1981. As it was always a collection of dubious repute, one is obliged to
reflect upon the standards that the Zoo Federation sets when granting
membership. The situation is even worse in developing countries where little
money is available for redevelopment and it is hard to see a way of incorporating
collections into the overall scheme of the WZCS.
Even assuming that the WZCS’s 1,000 core zoos are all of a high standard
complete with scientific staff and research facilities, trained and dedicated
keepers, accommodation that permits normal or natural behaviour, and a policy
of co-operating fully with one another what might be the potential for
conservation? Colin Tudge, author of Last Animals at the Zoo (Oxford University
Press, 1992), argues that “if the world”s zoos worked together in co-operative
breeding programmes, then even without further expansion they could save
around 2,000 species of endangered land vertebrates’. This seems an extremely
optimistic proposition from a man who must be aware of the failings and
weaknesses of the zoo industry the man who, when a member of the council of
London Zoo, had to persuade the zoo to devote more of its activities to
conservation. Moreover, where are the facts to support such optimism?
Today approximately 16 species might be said to have been “saved” by captive
breeding programmes, although a number of these can hardly be looked upon
as resounding successes. Beyond that, about a further 20 species are being
seriously considered for zoo conservation programmes. Given that the
international conference at London Zoo was held 30 years ago, this is pretty
slow progress, and a long way off Tudge’s target of 2,000.
Practice Test 1


 

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 16-22 write
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

Example Answer
London Zoo’s advertisements are poorly presented. NOT GIVEN

16 London Zoo’s advertisements are dishonest.


17 Zoos made an insignificant contribution to conservation up until 30 years ago.
18 The WZCS document is not known in Eastern Europe.
19 Zoos in the WZCS select list were carefully inspected.
20 No-one knew how the animals were being treated at Robin Hill Adventure Park.
21 Colin Tudge was dissatisfied with the treatment of animals at London Zoo.
22 The number of successful zoo conservation programmes is unsatisfactory.

  

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 23-25 on your answer sheet.
23 What were the objectives of the WZCS document?
A to improve the calibre of zoos world-wide
B to identify zoos suitable for conservation practice
C to provide funds for zoos in underdeveloped countries
D to list the endangered species of the world

+, Why does the writer refer to Robin Hill Adventure Park?


to support the Isle of Wight local council
- to criticise the 1981 Zoo Licensing Act
 to illustrate a weakness in the WZCS document
 to exemplify the standards in AAZPA zoos

26
Reading

25 What word best describes the writer’s response to Colin Tudges’ prediction on captive
breeding programmes?
A disbelieving
B impartial
C prejudiced
D accepting

  
The writer mentions a number oj factors H hich lead him to doubt the value of the WZCS
document Which THREE of the following factors are mentioned? Write your answers (A-F)
in boxes 26-28 on your answer sheet.

List of Factors
A the number of unregistered zoos in the world

B the lack of money in developing countries

C the actions of the Isle of Wight local council

D the failure of the WZCS to examine the standards of


the “core zoos”

E the unrealistic aim of the WZCS in view of the


number of species “saved” to date

F the policies of WZCS zoo managers


Practice Test 1

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-40 which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.

ARCHITECTURE - Reaching for the Sky


Architecture is the art and conditions created by quick-and-easy-to-handle
science of designing buildings industrialisation. A new style of reinforced concrete and an
and structures. A building architecture emerged to reflect improved ability to
reflects the scientific and more idealistic notions for the prefabricate building sections
technological achievements future. It was made possible by meant that builders could
of the age as well as the ideas new materials and construction meet the budgets of
and aspirations of the techniques and was known as commissioning authorities
designer and client. The Modernism. and handle a renewed
appearance of individual By the 1930s many buildings demand for development
buildings, however, is often emerging from this movement quickly and cheaply. But this
controversial. were designed in the led to many badly designed
The use of an architectural International Style. This was buildings, which discredited
style cannot be said to start or largely characterised by the bold the original aims of
finish on a specific date. use of new materials and simple, Modernism.
Neither is it possible to say geometric forms, often with Influenced by Le
exactly what characterises a white walls supported by stilt- Corbusier’s ideas on town
particular movement. But the like pillars. These were stripped planning, every large British
origins of what is now of unnecessary decoration that city built multi-storey housing
generally known as modern would detract from their primary estates in the 1960s. Mass-
architecture can be traced purpose — to be used or lived in. produced, low-cost high-rises
back to the social and Walter Gropius, Charles seemed to offer a solution to
technological changes of the Jeanneret (better known as Le the problem of housing a
18th and 19th centuries. Corbusier) and Ludwig Mies van growing inner-city population.
Instead of using timber, der Rohe were among the most But far from meeting human
stone and traditional building influential of the many architects needs, the new estates often
techniques, architects began who contributed to the proved to be windswept
to explore ways of creating development of Modernism in deserts lacking essential
buildings by using the latest the first half of the century. But social facilities and services.
technology and materials the economic depression of the Many of these buildings were
such as steel, glass and 1930s and the second world war poorly designed and
concrete strengthened steel (1939-45) prevented their ideas constructed and have since
bars, known as reinforced from being widely realised until been demolished.
concrete. Technological the economic conditions By the 1970s, a new respect
advances also helped bring improved and war-torn cities for the place of buildings
about the decline of rural had to be rebuilt. By the 1950s, within the existing townscape
industries and an increase in the International Style had arose. Preserving historic
urban populations as people developed into a universal buildings or keeping only their
moved to the towns to work in approach to building, which facades (or fronts) grew
the new factories. Such rapid standardised the appearance of common. Architects also
and uncontrolled growth new buildings in cities across the began to make more use of
helped to turn parts of cities world. building styles and materials
into slums. Unfortunately, this Modernist that were traditional to the
By the 1920s architects interest in geometric simplicity area. The architectural style
throughout Europe were and function became exploited usually referred to as High
reacting against the for profit. The rediscovery of Tech was also emerging. It

28
Reading

celebrated scientific and different styles of architecture in Twentieth century


engineering achievements by the same building became architecture will mainly be
openly parading the known as Post Modern. Other remembered for its tall
sophisticated techniques architects looked back to the buildings. They have been
used in construction. Such classical tradition. The trend in made possible by the
buildings are commonly architecture now favours smaller development of light steel
made of metal and glass; scale building design that frames and safe passenger
examples are Stansted reflects a growing public lifts. They originated in the US
airport and the Lloyd’s awareness of environmental over a century ago to help
building in London. issues such as energy meet the demand for more
Disillusionment at the efficiency. Like the Modernists, economical use of land. As
failure of many of the poor people today recognise that a construction techniques
imitations of Modernist well designed environment improved, the skyscraper
architecture led to interest in improves the quality of life but is became a reality.
various styles and ideas from not necessarily achieved by
the past and present. By the adopting one well defined style
1980s the coexistence of of architecture. Ruth Coleman

  

Complete the table below using information from Reading Passage 3. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 29-35 on your answer
sheet.
STYLE OF BUILDING
PERIOD CHARACTERISTICS
PERIOD MATERIALS

Example
Before 18th
... (29) ...
century
traditional

introduction of steel, glass and exploration of latest


1920s
... (30) ... concrete technology
1930s -
... (31) ... geometric forms
1950s
decline of pre-fabricated
1960s ... (32) ...
Modernism sections
end of Modernist ... (33) ...
1970s traditional materials
era of historic buildings
beginning of sophisticated techniques
1970s metal and glass
... (34) ... era paraded

1980s Post-Modernism ... (35) ...


Practice Test 1

  

Reading Passage 3 describes a number of cause and effect relationships. Match each Cause
(36-40) in List A, with its Effect (A-H) in List B.
Write your answers (A-H) in boxes 36 40 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more effects in List B than you will need, so you will not use all of them. You
may use any effect more than once if you wish.

List A CAUSES List B 

36 A rapid movement of people from A The quality of life is improved.


rural areas to cities is triggered by
technological advance.
B Architecture reflects the age.

37 Buildings become simple and


C A number of these have been
functional.
knocked down.

38 An economic depression and the


D Light steel frames and lifts are
second world war hit Europe.
developed.

39 Multi-storey housing estates are


E Historical buildings are preserved.
built according to contemporary
ideas on town planning. F All decoration is removed.

40 Less land must be used for G Parts of cities become slums.


building.
H Modernist ideas cannot be put
into practice until the second half
of the 20th century.

30
Practice Reading Test - 7
Practice Test 3 07
READING
READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12 which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

-%1, %2-,3-4
A The compiling of dictionaries has been historically the provenance
of studious professorial types - usually bespectacled - who love
to pore over weighty tomes and make pronouncements on the
finer nuances of meaning. They were probably good at crosswords
and definitely knew a lot of words, but the image was always
rather dry and dusty. The latest technology, and simple technology
at that, is revolutionising the content of dictionaries and the way
they are put together.

B For the first time, dictionary publishers are incorporating real,


spoken English into their data. It gives lexicographers (people
who write dictionaries) access to a more vibrant, up-to-date
vernacular language which has never really been studied before.
In one project, 150 volunteers each agreed to discreetly tie a
Walkman recorder to their waist and leave it running for anything
up to two weeks. Every conversation they had was recorded. When
the data was collected, the length of tapes was 35 times the depth
of the Atlantic Ocean. Teams of audio typists transcribed the tapes
to produce a computerised database of ten million words.

C This has been the basis - along with an existing written corpus -
for the Language Activator dictionary, described by lexicographer
Professor Randolph Quirk as “the book the world has been waiting
for”. It shows advanced foreign learners of English how the
language is really used. In the dictionary, key words such as “eat”
are followed by related phrases such as “wolf down” or “be a
picky eater”, allowing the student to choose the appropriate phrase.
D “This kind of research would be impossible without computers,”
said Delia Summers, a director of dictionaries. “It has transformed
the way lexicographers work. If you look at the word “like”, you
may intuitively think that the first and most frequent meaning is
the verb, as in “I like swimming”. It is not. It is the preposition, as
in: “she walked like a duck”. Just because a word or phrase is

60
Reading

used doesn’t mean it ends up in a dictionary. The sifting out process


is as vital as ever. But the database does allow lexicographers to
search for a word and find out how frequently it is used - something
that could only be guessed at intuitively before.

E Researchers have found that written English works in a very


different way to spoken English. The phrase “say what you like”
literally means “feel free to say anything you want”, but in reality
it is used, evidence shows, by someone to prevent the other person
voicing disagreement. The phrase “it”s a question of crops up on
the database over and over again. It has nothing to do with enquiry,
but it’s one of the most frequent English phrases which has never
been in a language learner’s dictionary before: it is now.

F The Spoken Corpus computer shows how inventive and humorous


people are when they are using language by twisting familiar
phrases for effect. It also reveals the power of the pauses and
noises we use to play for time, convey emotion, doubt and irony.

G For the moment, those benefiting most from the Spoken Corpus
are foreign learners. “Computers allow lexicographers to search
quickly through more examples of real English,” said Professor
Geoffrey Leech of Lancaster University. “They allow dictionaries
to be more accurate and give a feel for how language is being
used.” The Spoken Corpus is part of the larger British National
Corpus, an initiative carried out by several groups involved in the
production of language learning materials: publishers, universities
and the British Library.

61
Practice Test 3

Questions 1-6

Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xi) in boxes 1-6
on your answer sheet. Paragraph C has been done for you as an example.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use
any heading more than once.

List of Headings
i Grammar is corrected
ii New method of research
iii Technology learns from dictionaries
iv Non-verbal content
v The first study of spoken language
vi Traditional lexicographical methods
vii Written English tells the truth
viii New phrases enter dictionary
ix A cooperative research project
x Accurate word frequency counts
xi Alternative expressions provided

1 Paragraph A
2 Paragraph B
 
Paragraph C 0$

3 Paragraph D
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
6 Paragraph G

62
Rreading

Questions 7-11

The diagram below illustrates the information provided in paragraphs B-F of Reading
Passage 1 Complete the labels on the diagram with an appropriate word or words Use NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each space Write your answers in boxes 7 11 on your
answer sheet

Example
Current, real-life data The portrayal of
collected during feelings through
Reseach
........................................ ... (11) ...

Spoken Corpus
Data from computer
... (7) ...
written corpus

LANGUAGE
ACTIVATOR

Key words
Differences between
and
written and
... (8) ...
Most frequently ... (10) ... use
used ... (9) ... of
words.

Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 12 on your answer sheet
12 Why was this article written?
A To give an example of a current dictionary.
B To announce a new approach to dictionary writing.
C To show how dictionaries have progressed over the years.
D To compare the content of different dictionaries

63
Practice Test 3

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-26 which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Moles happy as homes go underground


A The first anybody knew about Dutchman moles. Growing numbers of Europeans
Frank Siegmund and his family was are burrowing below ground to create
when workmen tramping through a field houses, offices, discos and shopping
found a narrow steel chimney protruding malls. It is already proving a way of life in
through the grass. Closer inspection extreme climates; in winter months in
revealed a chink of sky-light window Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens
among the thistles, and when amazed can escape the cold in an underground
investigators moved down the side of the complex complete with shops and even
hill they came across a pine door health clinics. In Tokyo builders are
complete with leaded diamond glass and planning a massive underground city to
a brass knocker set into an underground be begun in the next decade, and
building. The Siegmunds had managed underground shopping malls are already
to live undetected for six years outside common in Japan, where 90 percent of
the border town of Breda, in Holland. the population is squeezed into 20
They are the latest in a clutch of percent of the landspace.
individualistic homemakers who have
burrowed underground in search of D Building big commercial buildings
tranquillity. underground can be a way to avoid
disfiguring or threatening a beautiful or
B Most, falling foul of strict building “environmentally sensitive” landscape.
regulations, have been forced to Indeed many of the buildings which
dismantle their individualistic homes and consume most land -such as cinemas,
return to more conventional lifestyles. supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or
But subterranean suburbia, Dutch-style, libraries -have no need to be on the
is about to become respectable and surface since they do not need windows.
chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted
away inside a high earth-covered noise E There are big advantages, too, when it
embankment next to the main Tilburg comes to private homes. A development
city road recently went on the market for of 194 houses which would take up 14
$296,500 each. The foundations had yet hectares of land above ground would
to be dug, but customers queued up to occupy 2.7 hectares below it, while the
buy the unusual part-submerged number of roads would be halved. Under
houses, whose back wall consists of a several metres of earth, noise is minimal
grassy mound and whose front is a long and insulation is excellent. “We get 40 to
glass gallery. 50 enquiries a week,” says Peter
Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth
C The Dutch are not the only would-be Sheltering Association, which builds

64
Reading

similar homes in Britain. "People see this Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises
as a way of building for the future." An 82 one-bedroomed apartments and
underground dweller himself, Carpenter 12 maisonettes and forms a house/
has never paid a heating bill, thanks to hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built
solar panels and natural insulation. into a hill and little can be seen from
outside except a glass facade. Patnzia
F In Europe the obstacle has been Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says
conservative local authorities and it is little different from living in a
developers who prefer to ensure quick conventional apartment.
sales with conventional mass produced
housing. But the Dutch development was H Not everyone adapts so well, and in
greeted with undisguised relief by South Japan scientists at the Shimizu
Limburg planners because of Holland's Corporation have developed "space
chronic shortage of land. It was the creation" systems which mix light,
Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on sounds, breezes and scents to
the idea of making use of noise stimulate people who spend long
embankments on main roads. His two- periods below ground. Underground
floored, four-bedroomed, two- offices in Japan are being equipped
bathroomed detached homes are now with "virtual" windows and mirrors,
taking shape. "They are not so much while underground departments in the
below the earth as in it," he says. "All the University of Minnesota have
light will come through the glass front, periscopes to reflect views and light.
which runs from the second floor ceiling
to the ground. Areas which do not need I But Frank Siegmund and his family love
much natural lighting are at the back. The their hobbit lifestyle. Their home
living accommodation is to the front so evolved when he dug a cool room for
nobody notices that the back is dark." his bakery business in a hill he had
created. During a heatwave they took
G In the US, where energy-efficient homes to sleeping there. "We felt at peace
became popular after the oil crisis of and so close to nature," he says.
1973, 10,000 underground houses have "Gradually I began adding to the
been built. A terrace of five homes, rooms. It sounds strange but we are
Britain's first subterranean development, so close to the earth we draw strength
is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy's from its vibrations. Our children love it;
outstanding example of subterranean not every child can boast of being
architecture is the Olivetti residential watched through their playroom
centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by windows by rabbits.

65
Practice Test 3

Questions 13-20

Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xii) in boxes 13
20 on your answer sheet. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

List of Headings
i A designer describes his houses
ii Most people prefer conventional housing
iii Simulating a natural environment
iv How an underground family home developed
v Demands on space and energy are reduced
vi The plans for future homes
vii Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation
viii Some buildings do not require natural light
ix Developing underground services around the world
x Underground living improves health
xi Homes sold before completion
xii An underground home is discovered

Example Answer

/ 0$$

13 Paragraph B
14 Paragraph C
15 Paragraph D
16 Paragraph E
17 Paragraph F
18 Paragraph G
19 Paragraph H
20 Paragraph I

66
Reading

Questions 21-26

Complete the sentences below with words taken from the reading passage. Use NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your
answer sheet.
21 Many developers prefer mass-produced houses because they ...
22 The Dutch development was welcomed by ...
23 Hurkmans’ houses are built into ...
24 The Ivrea centre was developed for ...
25 Japanese scientists are helping people ... underground life.
26 Frank Siegmund’s first underground room was used for ...

67
Practice Test 3

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-38 which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.

A Workaholic Economy
FOR THE first century or so of the increased production has been almost
industrial revolution, increased entirel} decoupled from employment.
productivity led to decreases in working Some firms are even downsizing as their
hours. Employees who had been putting profits climb. “All things being equal,
in 12-hour days, six days a week, found we”d be better off spreading around the
their time on the job shrinking to 10 hours work,’ observes labour economist
daily, then, finally, to eight hours, five Ronald G. Ehrenberg of Cornell
days a week. Only a generation ago social University.
planners worried about what people Yet a host of factors pushes employers
would do with all this new-found free to hire fewer workers for more hours
time. In the US, at least, it seems they and, at the same time, compels workers
need not have bothered. to spend more time on the job. Most of
Although the output per hour of work has those incentives involve what Ehrenberg
more than doubled since 1945, leisure calls the structure of compensation:
seems reserved largely for the quirks in the way salaries and benefits
unemployed and underemployed. Those are organised that make it more
who work full-time spend as much time profitable to ask 40 employees to labour
on the job as they did at the end of World an extra hour each than to hire one more
War II. In fact, working hours have worker to do the same 40-hour job.
increased noticeably since 1970 — Professional and managerial employees
perhaps because real wages have supply the most obvious lesson along
stagnated since that year. Bookstores now these lines. Once people are on salary,
abound with manuals describing how to their cost to a firm is the same whether
manage time and cope with stress. they spend 35 hours a week in the office
There are several reasons for lost leisure. or 70. Diminishing returns may
Since 1979, companies have responded eventually set in as overworked
to improvements in the business climate employees lose efficiency or leave for
by having employees work overtime more arable pastures. But in the short
rather than by hiring extra personnel, says run, the employer’s incentive is clear.
economist Juliet B. Schor of Harvard Even hourly employees receive benefits -
University. Indeed, the current economic such as pension contributions and medical
recovery has gained a certain amount of insurance - that are not tied to the number
notoriety for its “jobless” nature: of hours they work. Therefore, it is more

Reprinted with permission. Copyright © 1994 by Scientific American, Inc. All rights reserved.

68
Writing

profitable for employers to work their crises take people away from the
existing employees harder. workplace.’ Positive experiences with
For all that employees complain about reduced hours have begun to change the
long hours, they, too, have reasons not more-is-better culture at some
to trade money for leisure. “People who companies, Schor reports.
work reduced hours pay a huge penalty Larger firms, in particular, appear to be
in career terms,” Schor maintains. “It”s more willing to experiment with flexible
taken as a negative signal’ about their working arrangements...
commitment to the firm.’ [Lotte] Bailyn It may take even more than changes in
[of Massachusetts Institute of the financial and cultural structures of
Technology] adds that many corporate employment for workers successfully to
managers find it difficult to measure the trade increased productivity and money
contribution of their underlings to a for leisure time, Schor contends. She
firm’s well-being, so they use the number says the U.S. market for goods has
of hours worked as a proxy for output. become skewed by the assumption of
“Employees know this,” she says, and full-time, two-career households.
they adjust their behavior accordingly. Automobile makers no longer
“Although the image of the good worker manufacture cheap models, and
is the one whose life belongs to the developers do not build the tiny
company,” Bailyn says, “it doesn”t fit the bungalows that served the first postwar
facts.’ She cites both quantitative and generation of home buyers. Not even the
qualitative studies that show increased humblest household object is made
productivity for part-time workers: they without a microprocessor. As Schor
make better use of the time they have, and notes, the situation is a curious inversion
they are less likely to succumb to fatigue in of the “appropriate technology” vision
stressful jobs. Companies that employ more that designers have had for developing
workers for less time also gain from the countries: U.S. goods are appropriate
resulting redundancy, she asserts. “The extra only for high incomes and long hours.
people can cover the contingencies that you
know are going to happen, such as when Paul Walluh

69
Practice Test 3

Questions 27-32

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In
boxes 27-32 write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

Example Answer
During the industrial revolution people worked harder. NOT GIVEN

27 Today, employees are facing a reduction in working hours.


28 Social planners have been consulted about US employment figures.
29 Salaries have not risen significantly since the 1970s.
30 The economic recovery created more jobs.
31 Bailyn’s research shows that part-time employees work more efficiently.
32 Increased leisure time would benefit two-career households.

Questions 33-34

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 33 and 34 on your answer sheet.
33 Bailyn argues that it is better for a company to employ more workers because
A it is easy to make excess staff redundant.
B crises occur if you are under-staffed.
C people are available to substitute for absent staff.
D they can project a positive image at work.
34 Schor thinks it will be difficult for workers in the US to reduce their working hours
because
A they would not be able to afford cars or homes.
B employers are offering high incomes for long hours.
C the future is dependent on technological advances.
D they do not wish to return to the humble post-war era.

70
Reading

Questions 35-38

The writer mentions a number of factors that have resulted, in employees working longer
hours. Which FOUR of the following factors are mentioned? Write your answers (A-H) in
boxes 35-38 on your answer sheet.

List of Factors
A Books are available to help employees cope with stress.
B Extra work is offered to existing employees.
C Increased production has led to joblessness.
D Benefits and hours spent on the job are not linked.
E Overworked employees require longer to do their work.
F Longer hours indicate greater commitment to the firm.
G Managers estimate staff productivity in terms of hours worked.
H Employees value a career more than a family.

71
Practice Reading Test 8 Strategy 2 Flexible fair rostering mixed results across wards as well. For
example, in wards with staff members who
Where possible, staff were given the
had long-term genuine illness, there was
opportunity to determine their working
little chance of winning, and to some extent
READING PASSAGE 1 schedule within the limits of clinical the staff on those wards were
needs. disempowered. Our experience would
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are bused on Reading Passage 1 Strategy 3: Individual absenteeism and suggest that the long-term effects of
below. incentive awards on absenteeism are
Each month, managers would analyse the questionable.
pattern of absence of staff with excessive
sick leave (greater than ten days per year for Over the time of the study, staff were given
ABSENTEEISM IN NURSING: full-time employees). Characteristic patterns
of potential 'voluntary absenteeism' such as
a larger degree of control in their rosters.
This led to significant improvements in

A LONGITUDINAL STUDY absence before and after days off, excessive


weekend and night duty absence and
multiple single days off were
communication between managers and
staff. A similar effect was found from the
implementation of the third strategy. Many
communicated to all ward nurses and then, of the nurses had not realised the impact
Absence from work is a costly and felt that every effort was made to schedule as necessary, followed up by action. their behaviour was having on the
disruptive problem for any organisation. staff fairly. organisation and their colleagues but there
The cost of absenteeism in Australia has Results were also staff members who felt that
been put at 1.8 million hours per day or In another longitudinal study of nurses
working in two Canadian hospitals, Hacket Absence rates for the six months prior to the talking to them about their absenteeism was
$1400 million annually. The study reported Incentive scheme ranged from 3.69 per cent 'picking' on them and this usually had a
here was conducted in the Prince William Bycio and Guion (1989) examined the
reasons why nurses took absence from to 4.32 per cent. In the following six months negative effect on management—employee
Hospital in Brisbane, Australia, where, prior they ranged between 2.87 per cent and 3.96 relationships.
to this time, few active steps had been taken work. The most frequent reason stated for
absence was minor illness to self. Other per cent. This represents a 20 per cent
to measure, understand or manage the improvement. However, analysing the Conclusion
occurrence of absenteeism. causes, in decreasing order of frequency, Although there has been some decrease in
were illness in family, family social absence rates on a year-to-year basis, the
overall absence rate was 3.60 per cent in the absence rates, no single strategy or
Nursing Absenteeism function, work to do at home and combination of strategies has had a
bereavement. first year and 3.43 per cent in the following
A prevalent attitude amongst many nurses year. This represents a 5 per cent decrease significant impact on absenteeism per se.
in the group selected for study was that from the first to the second year of the Notwithstanding the disappointing results,
there was no reward or recognition for not Method it is our contention that the strategies were
study. A significant decrease in absence
utilising the paid sick leave entitlement In an attempt to reduce the level of not in vain. A shared ownership of
absenteeism amongst the 250 Registered an over the two-year period could not be
allowed them in their employment demonstrated. absenteeism and a collaborative approach to
conditions. Therefore, they believed they Enrolled Nurses in the present study, the problem solving has facilitated improved
may as well take the days off — sick or Prince William management introduced Discussion cooperation and communication between
otherwise. Similar attitudes have been three different, yet potentially The non-financial incentive scheme did management and staff. It is our belief that
noted by James (1989), who noted that sick complementary, strategies over 18 months. appear to assist in controlling absenteeism this improvement alone, while not tangibly
leave is seen by many workers as a right, in the short term. As the scheme progressed measurable, has increased the ability of
Strategy 1: Non-financial (material) it became harder to secure prizes and this management to manage the effects of
like annual holiday leave.
incentives contributed to the program's losing absenteeism more effectively since this
Miller and Norton (1986), in their survey of Within the established wage and salary momentum and finally ceasing. There were study.
865 nursing personnel, found that 73 per system it was not possible to use hospital
cent felt they should be rewarded for not funds to support this strategy. However, it
taking sick leave, because some employees was possible to secure incentives from loca This article has been adapted and condensed from the article by G. William and K. Slater (1996), 'Absenteeism in
always used their sick leave. Further, 67 per businesses, including free passes to nursing: A longitudinal study', Asia Pacific Journal of Human Resources, 34(1): 111-21. Names and other details
cent of nurses felt that administration was entertainment parks, theatres, restaurants, have been changed and report findings may have been given a different emphasis from the original. We are
not sympathetic to the problems shift work etc. At the end of each roster period, the grateful to the authors and Asia Pacific Journal of Human Resources for allowing us to use the material in this •"'
way.
causes to employees' personal and social ward with the lowest absence rate would
lives. Only 53 per cent of the respondents win the prize.
Questions 1-7 Questions 8-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? Complete the notes below.
In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet write Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the passage, for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.
YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
In the first strategy, wards with the lowest absenteeism in different
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage
periods would win prizes donated by ... (8) . . . .
1 The Prince William Hospital has been trying to reduce
absenteeism amongst nurses for many years.
In the second strategy, staff were given more control over their
2 Nurses in the Prince William Hospital study believed ...(9)....
that there were benefits in taking as little sick leave as
possible.
In the third strategy, nurses who appeared to be taking ... (10)... sick
3 Just over half the nurses in the 1986 study believed that leave or ... (11) ... were identified and counselled.
management understood the effects that shift work had
on them.
Initially, there was a ... (12)... per cent decrease in absenteeism.
4 The Canadian study found that 'illness in the family'
was a greater cause of absenteeism than 'work to do at The first strategy was considered ineffective and stopped. The second
home'.
and third strategies generally resulted in better ... (13) ... among staff.
5 In relation to management attitude to absenteeism the
study at the Prince William Hospital found similar
results to the two 1989 studies.

6 The study at the Prince William Hospital aimed to find


out the causes of absenteeism amongst 250 nurses.

7 The study at the Prince William Hospital involved


changes in management practices.
READING PASSAGE 2 F Technical solutions can reduce the emphasis on people instead of cars.
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 pollution problem and increase the fuel Good local government is already
efficiency of engines. But fuel bringing this about in some places. But
below.
consumption and exhaust emissions few democratic communities are
depend on which cars are preferred by blessed with the vision - and the capital
customers and how they are driven. - to make such profound changes in
Many people buy larger cars than they modern lifestyles.
need for daily purposes or waste fuel by
driving aggressively. Besides, global car H A more likely scenario seems to be a
use is increasing at a faster rate than the combination of mass transit systems
improvement in emissions and fuel for travel into and around cities, with
A There are now over 700 million motor wider area. Today about 90 per cent of efficiency which technology is now small 'low emission' cars for urban use
vehicles in the world - and the number is inland freight in the United Kingdom making possible. and larger hybrid or lean burn cars for
rising by more than 40 million each year. is carried by road. Clearly the world use elsewhere. Electronically tolled
The average distance driven by car users cannot revert to the horse-drawn G One solution that has been put forward highways might be used to ensure that
is growing too - from 8 km a day per wagon. Can it avoid being locked into is the long-term solution of designing drivers pay charges geared to actual
person in western Europe in 1965 to 25 congested and polluting ways of cities and neighbourhoods so that car road use. Better integration of
km a day in 1995. This dependence on transporting people and goods? journeys are not necessary - all transport systems is also highly
motor vehicles has given rise to major essential services being located within desirable - and made more feasible by
D In Europe most cities are still designed walking distance or easily accessible by
problems, including environmental modern computers. But these are
for the old modes of transport. public transport. Not only would this
pollution, depletion of oil resources, solutions for countries which can
Adaptation to the motor car has save energy and cut carbon dioxide
traffic congestion and safety. afford them. In most developing
involved adding ring roads, one-way emissions, it would also enhance the
B While emissions from new cars are far systems and parking lots. In the United countries, old cars and old technologies
quality of community life, putting the continue to predominate.
less harmful than they used to be, city States, more land is assigned to car use
streets and motorways are becoming than to housing. Urban sprawl means
more crowded than ever, often with that life without a car is next to
older trucks, buses and taxis, which impossible. Mass use of motor vehicles Questions 14-19
emit excessive levels of smoke and has also killed or injured millions of
fumes. This concentration of vehicles people. Other social effects have been Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs (A-H). Which paragraphs concentrate on the
makes air quality in urban areas blamed on the car such as alienation following information? Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in boxes 14-19 on your answer
unpleasant and sometimes dangerous and aggressive human behaviour. sheet.
to breathe. Even Moscow has joined
E A 1993 study by the European
the list of capitals afflicted by NB You need only write ONE letter for each answer.
Federation for Transport and
congestion and traffic fumes. In
Environment found that car transport 14 a comparison of past and present transportation methods
Mexico City, vehicle pollution is a
is seven times as costly as rail travel in
major health hazard.
terms of the external social costs it 15 how driving habits contribute to road problems
C Until a hundred years ago, most entails such as congestion, accidents,
journeys were in the 20 km range, the pollution, loss of cropland and natural 16 the relative merits of cars and public transport
distance conveniently accessible by habitats, depletion of oil resources, and
horse. Heavy freight could only be so on. Yet cars easily surpass trains or 17 the writer's own prediction of future solutions
carried by water or rail. The invention buses as a flexible and convenient mode
of the motor vehicle brought personal of personal transport. It is unrealistic 18 the increasing use of motor vehicles
mobility to the masses and made rapid to expect people to give up private cars
freight delivery possible over a much in favour of mass transit. 19 the impact of the car on city development
Questions 20-26 READING PASSAGE 3
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3
In boxes 20-26 on your answer sheet write on the following pages.

YES if the statement agrees with the information Questions 27-33


NO if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs (A-H).
Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-H from the list of headings below.
20 Vehicle pollution is worse in European cities than anywhere else. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

21 Transport by horse would be a useful alternative to motor vehicles. NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

22 Nowadays freight is not carried by water in the United Kingdom.


List of Headings
23 Most European cities were not designed for motor vehicles. i Common objections
ii Who's planning what
24 Technology alone cannot solve the problem of vehicle pollution.
iii This type sells best in the shops
25 People's choice of car and attitude to driving is a factor in the pollution problem. iv The figures say it all
v Early trials
26 Redesigning cities would be a short-term solution. vi- They can't get in without these
vii How does it work?
viii Fighting fraud
ix Systems to avoid
x Accepting the inevitable

27 Paragraph B

28 Paragraph C
29 Paragraph D
30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G
33 Paragraph H
plants, the handkey received its big break when it was used to control
' access to the Olympic Village in Atlanta by more than 65,000 athletes,
trainers and support staff. Now there are scores of other applications.
F Around the world, the market is growing rapidly. Malaysia, for
A Students who want to enter the University of Montreal's Athletic example, is preparing to equip all of its airports with biometric face
Complex need more than just a conventional ID card - their identities scanners to match passengers with luggage. And Japan's largest maker
must be authenticated by an electronic hand scanner. In some California of cash dispensers is developing new machines that incorporate iris
housing estates, a key alone is insufficient to get someone in the door; scanners. The first commercial biometric, a hand reader used by an
his or her voiceprint must also be verified. And soon, customers at some American firm to monitor employee attendance, was introduced in
Japanese banks will have to present their faces for scanning before they 1974. But only in the past few years has the technology improved
can enter the building and withdraw their money. enough for the prices to drop sufficiently to make them commercially
viable. 'When we started four years ago, I had to explain to everyone
B All of these are applications of biometrics, a little-known but fast-growing what a biometric is,' says one marketing expert. 'Now, there's much
technology that involves the use of physical or biological characteristics more awareness out there.'
to identify individuals. In use for more than a decade at some high-
security government institutions in the United States and Canada, C Not surprisingly, biometrics raise thorny questions about privacy and the
biometrics are now rapidly popping up in the everyday world. Already, potential for abuse. Some worry that governments and industry will be
more than 10,000 facilities, from prisons to day-care centres, monitor tempted to use the technology to monitor individual behaviour. 'If
people's fingerprints or other physical parts to ensure that they are who someone used your fingerprints to match your health-insurance records
they claim to be. Some 60 biometric companies around the world pulled with a credit-card record showing you regularly bought lots of cigarettes
in at least $22 million last year and that grand total is expected to and fatty foods,' says one policy analyst, 'you would see your insurance
mushroom to at least $50 million by 1999. payments go through the roof.' In Toronto, critics of the welfare
fingerprint plan complained that it would stigmatise recipients by forcing
C Biometric security systems operate by storing a digitised record of some them to submit to a procedure widely identified with criminals.
unique human feature. When an authorised user wishes to enter or use
the facility, the system scans the person's corresponding characteristics H Nonetheless, support for biometrics is growing in Toronto as it is in many
and attempts to match them against those on record. Systems using other communities. In an increasingly crowded and complicated world,
fingerprints, hands, voices, irises, retinas and faces are already on the biometrics may well be a technology whose time has come.
market. Others using typing patterns and even body odours are in
various stages of development.

D Fingerprint scanners are currently the most widely deployed type of


biometric application, thanks to their growing use over the last 20 years
by law-enforcement agencies. Sixteen American states now use
biometric fingerprint verification systems to check that people claiming
welfare payments are genuine. In June, politicians in Toronto voted to do
the same, with a pilot project beginning next year.

E To date, the most widely used commercial biometric system is the


handkey, a type of hand scanner which reads the unique shape, size and
irregularities of people's hands. Originally developed for nuclear power

)
Questions 34-40

Look at the fallowing groups of people (Questions 34-40) and the list of biometric systems
(A-F) below.
Match the groups of people to the biometric system associated with them in Reading Passage 3.
WRITING TASK 1
Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet. You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

NB You may use any biometric system more than once. The first chart below shows the results of a survey which sampled a cross-section of
100,000 people asking if they travelled abroad and why they travelled for the period
34 sports students 1994-98. The second chart shows their destinations over the same period.

35 Olympic athletes Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
You should write at least 150 words.
36 airline passengers

37 welfare claimants VISITS ABROAD BY UK RESIDENTS BY PURPOSE OF VISIT (1994-98)

38 business employees 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998

39 home owners Holiday 15,246 14,898 17,896 19,703 20,700

40 bank customers Business 3,155 3,188 3,249 3,639 3,957

Visits to friends and relatives 2,689 2,628 2,774 3,051 3,181


List of Biometric Systems
A fingerprint scanner Other reasons 982 896 1,030 1,054 990
B hand scanner
TOTAL 22,072 21,610 24,949 27,447 28.828
C body odour
D voiceprint
E face scanner DESTINATIONS OF VISITS ABROAD BY UK RESIDENTS
F typing pattern BY MAIN REGION (1994-98)

Western Europe North America • Other areas Total

1994 19,371 919 1,782 22,072

1995 18,944 914 1,752 21,610

1996 21,877 1,167 1,905 24,949

1997 23,661 1,559 2,227 27,447

1998 24,519 1,823 2,486 28,828


Practice Reading Test 9
Practice Test 2
-09
READING

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

Right and left-handedness in humans


Why do humans, virtually alone among all handed. Even among identical twins who
animal species, display a distinct left or have exactly the same genes, one in six pairs
right-handedness? Not even our closest will differ in their handedness.
relatives among the apes possess such What then makes people left-handed if it is
decided lateral asymmetry, as psychologists not simply genetic? Other factors must be
call it. Yet about 90 per cent of every human at work and researchers have turned to the
population that has ever lived appears to brain for clues. In the 1860s the French
have been right-handed. Professor Bryan surgeon and anthropologist, Dr Paul Broca,
Turner at Deakin University has studied the made the remarkable finding that patients
research literature on left-handedness and who had lost their powers of speech as a
found that handedness goes with sidedness. result of a stroke (a blood clot in the brain)
So nine out of ten people are right-handed had paralysis of the right half of their body.
and eight are right-footed. He noted that this He noted that since the left hemisphere of
distinctive asymmetry in the human the brain controls the right half of the body,
population is itself systematic. “Humans and vice versa, the brain damage must have
think in categories: black and white, up and been in the brain’s left hemisphere.
down, left and right. It”s a system of signs Psychologists now believe that among
that enables us to categorise phenomena that right-handed people, probably 95 per cent
are essentially ambiguous.’ have their language centre in the left
Research has shown that there is a genetic hemisphere, while 5 per cent have right-
or inherited element to handedness. But sided language. Left-handers, however, do
while left-handedness tends to run in not show the reverse pattern but instead a
families, neither left nor right handers will majority also have their language in the left
automatically produce off-spring with the hemisphere. Some 30 per cent have right
same handedness; in fact about 6 per cent hemisphere language.
of children with two right-handed parents Dr Brinkman, a brain researcher at the
will be left-handed. However, among two Australian National University in Canberra,
left-handed parents, perhaps 40 per cent of has suggested that evolution of speech went
the children will also be left-handed. With with right-handed preference. According to
one right and one left-handed parent, 15 to Brinkman, as the brain evolved, one side
20 per cent of the offspring will be left-

40
Reading

became specialised for fine control of that of a boy. So, if something happens to
movement (necessary for producing speech) the brain’s development during pregnancy,
and along with this evolution came right- it is more likely to be affected in a male
hand preference. According to Brinkman, and the hemisphere more likely to be
most left-handers have left hemisphere involved is the left. The brain may become
dominance but also some capacity in the less lateralised and this in turn could result
right hemisphere. She has observed that if a in left-handedness and the development of
left-handed person is brain-damaged in the certain superior skills that have their origins
left hemisphere, the recovery of speech is in the left hemisphere such as logic,
quite often better and this is explained by rationality and abstraction. It should be no
the fact that left-handers have a more surprise then that among mathematicians
bilateral speech function. and architects, left-handers tend to be more
In her studies of macaque monkeys, common and there are more left-handed
Brinkman has noticed that primates males than females.
(monkeys) seem to learn a hand preference The results of this research may be some
from their mother in the first year of life but consolation to left-handers who have for
this could be one hand or the other. In centuries lived in a world designed to suit
humans, however, the specialisation in right-handed people. However, what is
(unction of the two hemispheres results in alarming, according to Mr. Charles Moore,
anatomical differences: areas that are a writer and journalist, is the way the word
involved with the production of speech are “right” reinforces its own virtue.
usually larger on the left side than on the Subliminally he says, language tells people
right. Since monkeys have not acquired the to think that anything on the right can be
art of speech, one would not expect to see trusted while anything on the left is
such a variation but Brinkman claims to have dangerous or even sinister. We speak of left-
discovered a trend in monkeys towards the handed compliments and according to
asymmetry that is evident in the human Moore, “it is no coincidence that left-
brain. handed children, forced to use their right
Two American researchers, Geschwind and hand, often develop a stammer as they are
Galaburda, studied the brains of human robbed of their freedom of speech”.
embryos and discovered that the left-right However, as more research is undertaken
asymmetry exists before birth. But as the on the causes of left-handedness, attitudes
brain develops, a number of things can affect towards left-handed people are gradually
it. Every brain is initially female in its changing for the better. Indeed when the
organisation and it only becomes a male champion tennis player Ivan Lendl was
brain when the male foetus begins to secrete asked what the single thing was that he
hormones. Geschwind and Galaburda knew would choose in order to improve his game,
that different parts of the brain mature at he said he would like to become a left-
different rates; the right hemisphere hander.
develops first, then the left. Moreover, a Geoff Maslen
girl’s brain develops somewhat faster than

41
Practice Test 2




Use the information in the text to match the people (listed A-E) with the opinions (listed
1-7) below. Write the appropriate letter (A-E) in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. Some
people match more than one opinion.

A Dr Broca
B Dr Brinkman
C Geschwind and Galaburda
D Charles Moore
E Professor Turner

Example Answer
Monkeys do not show a species specific preference for
left or right-handedness. B

1 Human beings started to show a preference for right-handedness when they first
developed language.
2 Society is prejudiced against left-handed people.
3 Boys are more likely to be left-handed.
4 After a stroke, left-handed people recover their speech more quickly than right-
handed people.
5 People who suffer strokes on the left side of the brain usually lose their power of
speech.
6 The two sides of the brain develop different functions before birth.
7 Asymmetry is a common feature of the human body.

42
Reading

 

Using the information in the passage, complete the table below. Write your answers in boxes 8
10 on your answer sheet.

Percentage of children left-handed

One parent left-handed


... (8) ...
One parent right-handed

Both parents left-handed ... (9) ...

Both parents right-handed ... (10) ...



Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 11 and 12 on your answer sheet.
11 A study of monkeys has shown that
A monkeys are not usually right-handed.
B monkeys display a capacity for speech.
C monkey brains are smaller than human brains.
D monkey brains are asymmetric.

12 According to the writer, left-handed people


A will often develop a stammer.
B have undergone hardship for years.
C are untrustworthy.
D are good tennis players.

43
Practice Test 2

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-27 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

MIGRATORY BEEKEEPING

Taking Wing
To eke out a full-time living from their
honeybees, about half the nation’s 2,000
commercial beekeepers pull up stakes
each spring, migrating north to find more
flowers for their bees. Besides turning
floral nectar into honey, these
hardworking insects also pollinate crops
for farmers -for a fee. As autumn
approaches, the beekeepers pack up their
hives and go south, scrambling for
pollination contracts in hot spots like
California’s fertile Central Valley.
Of the 2,000 commercial beekeepers in the money — for their keepers. Second,
United States about half migrate This pays beekeepers can carry their hives to farmers
off in two ways Moving north in the summer who need bees to pollinate their crops. Every
and south in the winter lets bees work a longer spring a migratory beekeeper in California
blooming season, making more honey — and may move up to 160 million bees to

44
Rreading

flowering fields in Minnesota and every produce as much honey as possible during
winter his family may haul the hives back to this period, the beekeepers open the hives
California, where farmers will rent the bees and stack extra boxes called supers on top.
to pollinate almond and cherry trees. These temporary hive extensions contain
Migratory beekeeping is nothing new. The frames of empty comb for the bees to fill
ancient Egyptians moved clay hives, with honey. In the brood chamber below, the
probably on rafts, down the Nile to follow bees will stash honey to eat later. To prevent
the bloom and nectar flow as it moved toward the queen from crawling up to the top and
Cairo. In the 1880s North American laying eggs, a screen can be inserted
beekeepers experimented with the same idea, between the brood chamber and the supers.
moving bees on barges along the Mississippi Three weeks later the honey can be gathered.
and on waterways in Florida, but their lighter, Foul smelling chemicals are often used to
wooden hives kept falling into the water. irritate the bees and drive them down into
Other keepers tried the railroad and horse- the hive’s bottom boxes, leaving the honey-
drawn wagons, but that didn’t prove practical. filled supers more or less bee free. These
Not until the 1920s when cars and trucks can then be pulled off the hive. They are
became affordable and roads improved, did heavy with honey and may weigh up to 90
migratory beekeeping begin to catch on. pounds each. The supers are taken to a
For the Californian beekeeper, the pollination warehouse. In the extracting room, the
season begins in February. At this time, the frames are lilted out and lowered into an
beehives are in particular demand by farmers “uncapper” where rotating blades shave
who have almond groves; they need two away the wax that covers each cell. The
hives an acre. For the three-week long bloom, uncapped frames are put in a carousel that
beekeepers can hire out their hives for $32 sits on the bottom of a large stainless steel
each. It’s a bonanza for the bees too. Most drum. The carousel is filled to capacity with
people consider almond honey too bitter to 72 frames. A switch is flipped and the frames
eat so the bees get to keep it for themselves. begin to whirl at 300 revolutions per minute;
centrifugal force throws the honey out of
By early March it is time to move the bees. the combs. Finally the honey is poured into
It can take up to seven nights to pack the barrels for shipment.
4,000 or so hives that a beekeeper may own.
These are not moved in the middle of the day After this, approximately a quarter of the
because too many of the bees would end up hives weakened by disease, mites, or an
homeless. But at night, the hives are stacked ageing or dead queen, will have to be
onto wooden pallets, back-to-back in sets of replaced. To create new colonies, a healthy
four, and lifted onto a truck. It is not necessary double hive, teeming with bees, can be
to wear gloves or a beekeeper’s veil because separated into two boxes. One half will hold
the hives are not being opened and the bees the queen and a young, already mated queen
should remain relatively quiet. Just in case can be put in the other half, to make two
some are still lively, bees can be pacified with hives from one. By the time the flowers
a few puffs of smoke blown into each hive’s bloom, the new queens will be laying eggs,
narrow entrance. filling each hive with young worker bees.
The beekeeper’s family will then migrate
In their new location, the beekeeper will pay with them to their summer location.
the farmer to allow his bees to feed in such
places as orange groves. The honey produced Adapted from “America's Beekeepers:
here is fragrant and sweet and can be sold by Hives for Hire” by Alan Mairson,
the beekeepers. To encourage the bees to National Geographic.

45
Practice Test 2




The flow chart below outlines the movements of the migratory beekeeper as described in
Reading Passage 2
Complete the flow chart Choose your answers from the box at the bottom of the page and
write your answers in boxes 13 19 on your answer sheet.

BEEKEEPER MOVEMENTS

Example Answer
pollinate
In February, Californian farmers hire bees to help ...........................................almond trees.

In March, beekeepers ... (13) ... for migration at night when the hives are ... (14) ... and
the bees are generally tranquil. A little ... (15) ... can ensure that this is the case.

They transport their hives to orange groves where farmers ... (16) ... beekeepers for
placing them on their land. Here the bees make honey.

After three weeks, the supers can be taken to a warehouse where ... (17) ... are used to
remove the wax and extract the honey from the ... (18) ... .

After the honey collection, the old hives are rejected. Good double hives are ... (19) ... and
re-queened and the beekeeper transports them to their summer base.

List of Words/Phrases
smoke chemicals pay
barrels protection charge
set off light split
pollinate machines supers
combs screen prepare
full empty queens

46
Reading

  
Label the diagram below Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for
each answer Write your answers in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet.

A BEEHIVE

  

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes
24-27 write.
YES if the statement agrees with the information given
NO if the statement contradicts the information given
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this

24 The Egyptians keep bees on the banks of the Nile.


25 First attempts at migratory beekeeping in America were unsuccessful.
26 Bees keep honey for themselves in the bottom of the hive.
27 The honey is spun to make it liquid.

47
Practice Test 2

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-41 which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.

practices new socialised forms of provision


TOURISM have developed in order to cope with the
mass character of the gazes of tourists as
opposed to the individual character of
A Tourism, holidaymaking and travel are these travel Places are chosen to be visited and
days more significant social phenomena be gazed upon because there is an
than most commentators have considered anticipation especially through
On the face of it there could not be a more daydreaming and fantasy of intense
trivial subject for a book And indeed since pleasures, either on a different scale or
social scientists have had considerable involving different senses from those
difficulty explaining weightier topics such as customarily encountered Such anticipation
work or politics it might be thought that they is constructed and sustained through a
would have great difficulties in accounting variety of non-tourist practices such as
for more trivial phenomena such as films TV literature, magazines records and
holidaymakmg However there are videos which construct and reinforce this
interesting parallels with the study of daydreaming
deviance This involves the investigation of D Tourists tend to visit features of landscape
bizarre and idiosyncratic social practices and townscape which separate them off
which happen to be defined as deviant in from everyday experience Such aspects
some societies but not necessarily in others are viewed because they are taken to be in
The assumption is that the investigation of some sense out of the ordinary The
deviance can reveal interesting and viewing of these tourist sights often
significant aspects of normal societies It involves different forms of social patterning
could be said that a similar analysis can be with a much greater sensitivity to visual
applied to tourism elements of landscape or townscape than
B Tourism is a leisure activity which is normally found in everyday life People
presupposes its opposite namely regulated linger over these sights in a way that they
and organised work It is one manifestation would not normally do in their home
of how work and leisure are organised as environment and the vision is objectified or
separate and regulated spheres of social captured through photographs postcards
practice in modern societies Indeed acting films and so on which enable the memory
as a tourist is one of the defining to be endlessly reproduced and recaptured
characteristics of being modern’ and the
popular concept of tourism is that it is E One of the earliest dissertations on the
organised within particular places and subject of tourism is Boorstins analysis of
occurs for regularised periods of time Tourist the pseudo event (1964) where he argues
relationships arise from a movement of that contemporary Americans cannot
people to and their stay in various experience reality’ directly but thrive on
destinations This necessarily involves some “pseudo events Isolated from the host
movement that is the journey and a period environment and the local people the
of stay in a new place or places The journey mass tourist travels in guided groups and
and the stay are by definition outside the finds pleasure in inauthentic contrived
normal places of residence and work and attractions gullibly enjoying the pseudo
are of a short term and temporary nature events and disregarding the real world
and there is a clear intention to return outside Over time the images generated
“home within a relatively short period of time of different tourist sights come to
constitute a closed self-perpetuating
C A substantial proportion of the population of system of illusions which provide the
modern societies engages in such tourist tourist with the basis for selecting and

48
Reading

evaluating potential places to visit Such the provision of such objects and, on the
visits are made says Boorstin, within the other hand changing class, gender, and
“environmental bubble of the familiar generational distinctions of taste within the
American style hotel which insulates the potential population of visitors It has been
tourist from the strangeness of the host said that to be a tourist is one of the
environment characteristics of the “modern experience
Not to go away is like not possessing a car
F To service the burgeoning tourist industry, or a nice house Travel is a marker of status
an array of professionals has developed in modern societies and is also thought to
who attempt to reproduce ever-new objects be necessary for good health The role of
for the tourist to look at These objects or the professional, therefore, is to cater for
places are located in a complex and the needs and tastes of the tourists in
changing hierarchy This depends upon the accordance with their class and overall
interplay between, on the one hand, expectations
competition between interests involved in

  

Raiding Passage 3 has 6 paragraphs (A-F) Choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 28
32 on your answer sheet Paragraph D has been done for you as an example.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them You may use any
heading more than once.

List of Headings
i The politics of tourism
ii The cost of tourism
iii Justifying the study of tourism
iv Tourism contrasted with travel
v The essence of modern tourism
vi Tourism versus leisure
vii The artificiality of modern tourism
viii The role of modern tour guides
ix Creating an alternative to the everyday experience

28 Paragraph A
29 Paragraph B
30 Paragraph C
Example Answer

/ $0

31 Paragraph E
32 Paragraph F

49
Practice Test 2

  

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In
boxes 33-37 write
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

Example Answer
People who can’t afford to travel watch films and TV. NOT GIVEN

33 Tourism is a trivial subject.


34 An analysis of deviance can act as a model for the analysis of tourism.
35 Tourists usually choose to travel overseas.
36 Tourists focus more on places they visit than those at home.
37 Tour operators try to cheat tourists.

  

Chose one phrase (A-H) from the list of phrases to complete each key point below. Write the
appropriate letters (A-H) in boxes 38-41 on your answer sheet.
The information in the completed sentences should be an accurate summary of points made
by the writer.
NB There are more phrases A-H than sentences so you will not use them all. You may use any
phrase more than once.
38 Our concept of tourism arises from ...
39 The media can be used to enhance ...
40 People view tourist landscapes in a different way from ...
41 Group tours encourage participants to look at ...

List of Phrases
A local people and their environment. E the individual character of travel.
B the expectations of tourists. F places seen in everyday life.
C the phenomena of holidaymaking. G photographs which recapture our
D the distinction we make between holidays.
work and leisure. H sights designed specially for
tourists.

50
IELTS Class &
Practice Material for

Writing
module
Writing Task 2
Type-1
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of studying and living in a foreign country./
work-study/
studying through distance education/
having pets/
going on tours/
developing tourism/
space tourism/
living in a multi-cultural community/
that motorized flight ha brought to society/
that fastfood has brought to society/
living in rural/urban area
living in house / flat/
living nuclear family / joint family/
playing traditional games / video games.
--------------------------------------------------------
Advantages & disadvantages
Gains & drawbacks
Merits & demerits
Positives & nagatives
Pro's& con's
Boons& banes
Benifits & losses
Virtues& vices
...........................................................
Introduction /50words:
.....................................
(..... Theme paraphrased....) is relatively a new concept/ is not a new phenomenon.
But , in more recent times , this trend has gained momentum / gained popularity ,thanks
to/ due to ( ...reasons...).However, there are both advantages and disadvantages to
(...theme...).

Body /para 1 of 2 / 75 to 85 words/Advantages:


.......................................................
Writing Task 2
Type-1
There are several benifits to (...theme...)/The virtues bestowed by (...theme...) are
aplenty.The most remarkable merit to this is(....adv1...).
- Discuss it.-
In the same way, .......adv 2........ .
In addition,....adv 3........ .
Last ,but far from the least,....last adv... .

Para 2 of 2 /75 to 85 words /Disadvantages :


...............................................
On the other hand , the potential drwbacks involved in (...theme..) can barely be
overlooked./Having said that,(...theme...) is not completetely free from drawbacks .The
worst possible loss from this is/ The most dreaded danger involved in this is (.....dis 1....) .
Discuss it.
Besides, (....dis 2... ) .
Futhermore, (.... dis3...) .
And , that is not all. (...last dis....)

Conclusion / 50 words :
......................................
Therefore on the basis of all the points discussed till now and by my personal experiences
as well, I would like to state in conclusion that ,
Support -- since the positives outnumber and outweigh the perceived negatives and also
since these negatives can easily be redressed, (.....theme...) is certainly worth sought-
after.
Oppose-- since the negatives outnumber and outweigh the perceived positives and also
the negatives are too perilous to be ignored,(....theme...) is indeed not as meritorious as it
is often made out to be.
Neutral -- since there are as many and as significant negatives as are positives ,efforts
must be made to minimize the former and optimize the latter.
Writing Task 2
Type-2
Task 2 type 2: PROBLEM—CAUSES , EFFECTS AND SOLUTIONS:
Drug abuse among the youth is on the rise.

The no. of vehicles is multiplying rapidly.

Pollution and traffic are rising by –the-day.

More and more rubbish is being produced now-a-days.

The use of disposable products is picking up fast.

Overweight among children is increasing alarmingly.

Indulgence of teenagers in criminal activities is rising.

Increasing no. of skilled and qualified people are leaving their home-country for other
nations.

Big sport events such as the Soccer World Cup are often turning violent and bloody.

The no. of languages is on the decline.

Many schools have severe problem with student behavior.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

INTRODUCTION:

{ …..problem…} is one of the major problems that the world / society is facing today. If
immediate and serious measures are not taken to tackle this scourge, the consequences
would be unimaginable. However, in order to find the right remedies, firstly, the real
reasons must be unearthed.

BODY:

CAUSES/REASONS/FACTORS RESPONSIBLE FOR THIS/ FACTORS LEADING TO THIS/WHY


IS THIS HAPPENING?/WHAT FACTORS CONTRIBUTE TO THIS?

There are several factors responsible for…{problem..}.

The most important reason for this problem is….CAUSE1…..


Writing Task 2
Type-2
…………………………………………………………………………………………….

The worst culprit of this ‘crime’ is……CAUSE1…

DISCUSS IT.

In the same vein , {..problem…} is also largely attributed to….CAUSE 2…

Beside , this problem ,even, owes ,partly, to ..CAUSE 3….

Last , though by no means the least,{..problem..} is often blamed on…LAST CAUSE… .

EFFECTS/INFLUENCES/IMPACTS/IMPLICATIONS/RESULTS/REPERCUSSIONS/CONSEQUEN
CES/OUT-COMES/AFTER-MATH /FALL-OUTS/PROBLEMS/DANGERS:

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….

The implications of ..{problem..} are far-reaching.

The most telling impact of this problem is…..EFFECT1.

DISCUSS IT.

In addition, {..problem..} would also lead to….EFFECT2.. .

Moreover, this problem may , at times ,result in…EFFECT3… .

And , that is not all. {…problem..} is also frequently blamed for…LAST EFFECT… .

SOLUTIONS/SUGGESTIONS/RECCOMENDATIONS/REMEDIES/WHAT SHOULD BE
DONE..?/STEPS TO CONTROL/MEASURES TO MINIMIZE…

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

But how can ….{problem..} be curtailed?

Firstly, I firmly believe that …….SOL1… .

DISCUSS IT.

In the same stride, it is strongly recommended that…..SOL2…. .


Writing Task 2
Type-2
Also, it would be immensely helpful if, …..SOL3… .

Last, but far from the least, {….SOL4…} would also be highly efficacious in alleviating
{…problem…}

CONCLUSION:

Therefore , on the basis of all the discussion till now as well as going by my personal
experiences, one thing that I would like to state finally is that, unless concerted and war-
footed efforts made to address the malady of {…problem..}, ..[what will happen?/ broad
effect ..briefly..]

MODIFIED TYPE 2:

PRESENT TREND—WHY IS THIS HAPPENING? AND HOW FAR IS THIS TRUE IN YOUR
COUNTRY? / IS IT POSITIVE OR NEGATIVE?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………….

MORE AND MORE PEOPLE ARE PREFERRING TO LIVE IN NUCLEAR FAMILIES RATHER
THAN JOINT FAMILIES.

INCREASING NO. OF PEOPLE ARE EMIGRATING TO OTHER COUNTRIES.

FEWER AND FEWER PEOPLE ARE CHOOSING THE PROFESSION OF TEACHING.

MOST PEOPLE ARE NOT FINDING QUALITY TIME TO SPEND WITH FAMILY AND
FRIENDS.

MANY FAMILIES ARE NOT ABLE TO HAVE MEALS TOGETHER.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Writing Task 2
Type-2
INTRODUCTION:

Contrary to the yester years when…..PAST TREND…….. ,now-a-days,…….PRESENT


TREND.

[ Contrary to the yester years when ,most people used to live in extended families,
under one roof with shared economy and division of labour, now-a-days, increasing
proportion of people are opting to live in smallish nuclear house-holds.]

Keeping aside, for now, whether this trend is progressive or regressive, the reasons why
this is happening are often found to be mani-fold.

BODY:

2 TO 4 CAUSES IN AS MANY PARAS.

CONCLUSION: ANSWER THE OTHER QUESTION.

HOW FAR IS THIS TRUE IN YOUR COUNTRY?

As far as the scenario in our country is concerned, it is found to be much akin to what it
is in the rest of world. Even here, ….PRESENT TREND AGAIN… .

IS IT POSITIVE OR NEGATIVE?

As regards whether this development is beneficial or detrimental , my personal


contention is that,………..

Positive or Negative….. .
EI\GLISH SPRINGS.
#203, Above Reliance fresh, near Satyam theatre, Ameerpet. Phone: gO32-TaS-777
| knoweng@gmail.com

TYPE 3: Statement + Agree or disagree:


Sample questions:
L. We need not consume meat or its products to be healthy.
2. Co-education is betterthan uni-sex education.
3. Animals should not be used in scientific research and experiments.
4. The best way to reduce pollution and traffic is to hike fuel prices.
5. Women should not be allowed into police and defence
6. Capital punishment must be completely done away with.
7' lntei'national sport- events such as the Soccer world Cup ease tensions and improve relations between
nations.
8. Govt. should provide free babycare for working mothers.
9' successful people in films, sports and music are earning huge incomes when
compared to other regular
professionals. lt is unfair
10'As technology develops, traditional skills and lifestyles die out. tt is pointless
to try to keep them alive.
Do you ogree or disagree?/
To what extent do you ogree or disagree?/
How for do you ogree or disogree?/
What do you think/say?
What is your opinion on this?/
Present a written arguement.
1L. Peopte are spending lots of money on music.
Do we need music?
ls traditionol rnusic ntore importont thon popular music?

Introduction:
Many people say that....(statement).... .._.

But , some others argue that ....(opposite statement)...


However, I am of the opinion that....(your view)....
......................oR.
It is, nowadays, widely contended that ...(statement).......
But, at the same time, there is also a strong counter-argument
amongst some sections of people
that.... (opposite statement)...
However, I personally subscribe to the view that....(your view)......
Body: Support your view with 2 to 4 points in as many paragraphs.

Page | 1

1
ENGLISH SPRINGS.
#2S3' Above Reliance fresh, near Satyam theatre, Ameerpet. Phone: gO32-TOS-7TZ knoweng@gmail.com
I

Body (Approach 1)
Para I (Positives of your option)
'ltis rny firril belief that, (your view...), mainly because it bestows us with numerous benefits, the most
re,rnarkable of which is that, (adavantagel ....).

There are innumerable cases that stand indisputabte testimony to what has been claimed here. For
instancg {example...)
ln ttre sarne vein, another significantly positive aspect of this is that, (advantage2...).
i.ast, though by no means the least, (last advantage...).
Para 2 (Nqatives of other option)
^ ,fu8?46*Ierhand, the potential drawbacksinvolved in (other option...) can barely be overlooked.
The
wntpo$e loss from this is tha! (disadvantage 1...).
{tt}lisjua*ure, citing an example would be apt to strengthen the claim made here (example...).
,Besides, anather.perilous implication from this is that, (disadvantage2...).
Last butfarfrom the least, (last disadvantage...).
Para3
Ofrourse, sne of the major charges often leveled
your ooGocr-.!- But, it must not be forgotten that it is not beyond human endeavor to find
a solution to this
probNem-

Body (Approach 2)
Para I
The principalmost reason why I firmly opine that, (your view...) is the sheer number of
cases that
stand indisputable testimony to this. For instance, (Example...)
Para 2
ln the sarne vein, another case of example for my favoring ihis view is that, (Example
2....)
Conclusion:
Therefore, p'ersuaded by all the discussiorr till now as well as driven by my personal experiences, I would
like to reiterate that, ....(your view again) .

Page | 2

2
tr
1

ENGTISH SPRII{GS.
Phone: 90'32-705-777 | knoweng@gmail'com
#203" Above Reliance fresh. near Satyam theatre' Ameerpet.

lntroduction:

It is a widely held belief that ....(statement 1)" '

amongst Some sections of people


But, at the sarne time there is also a strong counter-argument
tha-L,..{staternent 2 )....
factors before any
the opininon that this is a matter to be debated in iight of several
Horalever, I arn of
conclusion is drawn/can be reached'

tsudy/pe.ru I' of 2150 to100 words ,/ Discuss the 1st view:

of the main
i#i'rcpne@believed that /argued that ...(statementl)..... . This is mainly because/one
.raasoasu*rryilfsview is held is that ....(reason 1)..... . Diicuss with an example
(reason 2)'
rlnltr#Fsarme#n, the proponents of (statement L) also claim that

by no means the least, the advocates of this view draw


strength from the fact that (last
,r,u,thaxh
.wrol-
i&mre,3 sf 2/50 to L00 words /Discuss the 2nd view

contend that ""'(statement 2 ) '


on-ilre ottrerhand, there are certain groups of people who vehemently
why this view is held
rSepr*nciplmost reason for their favor ing this icjea is that/One of the main reasons
isthat---..lsup,port the 2nd statement)' Discuss wtth an example'

Morwer,:dre apologists of (..Theme of the 2nd statement) posit that (reason 2)'

La&butfa(&ryn the least, (last reason)'

Cmctrueisn:

Thus, it isesident f:.cm till now rhat both the argumei:t: carry srrengtn ano signtftcance
all the discussion
to the proposition that,.""(your
and neithercan be refuted outright. Nonetheless, I personally subscribe
view ctearly)-

P,T.O

2
IELTS Class &
Practice Material for

Speaking
module
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
Personal details
1. What is your full name?
2. How can I call you?
3. Could you tell me what is meant by your name?
4. What is meant by your surname?
5. How do people in this area get the surnames?
6. Where do you basically come from?
7. Where are you living now?
8. Why are you living here?
9. Can you elaborate a bit on your native place? (place of birth)
10. Could you tell me something about your permanent address?
11. Could you describe your street?
12. Could you describe your colony?
13. Could you describe your house?
14. Could you describe your favorite room in your house?
15. Could you tell me about your family?
16. Could you elaborate on your childhood?
17. Tell me about your positives and negatives
18. What are your hobbies?
19. Could you tell me something about Hyderabad?
20. Which country are you planning to go to and why?
21. What is your daily routine?
22. Why have you chosen your subject?
23. What is your favourite subject?
24. What made you chose your profession?
25. How would you like work/job to be?
26. Describe the nature of your job.
27. What kind of satisfaction do you desire?
28. What are the problems you near faced with in your profession?
29. Would you like any changes in your job?
30. Would you like to change your job?
31. Who do you like most in your family?
32. Tell me about your neighbor /colony?
33. How have you been benefited from them?
34. Speak about the neighbor who influences you most?
35. Do you prefer living individually or in a colony?
36. What factors improve community relations?
37. Who takes care of household chores at your home?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
38. Whose responsibilities do you think are they husband or wife?
39. Describe any two housed appliances.
40. What more would you like?
41. What are the advantages and disadvantages of living in a multicultural society?
42. Describe the recent changes crept in your city’s infrastructure.
43. How can our city bc kept clean and green?
44. Discuss the most challenging experience you faced with.
45. Speak about a happiest moment in your life.
46. Speak about one of your achievements.
47. What are the personality traits you admire?
48. Tell me about an occasion you went to a place with your friend or family?
49. What is your favorite age?
50. Can you elaborate a bit on your place?
51. Could you describe your street?
52. Can you tell me something about your colony?
53. Can you describe your house and surroundings?
54. Can you describe your house?
55. Could you describe the house you lived in your childhood?
56. Can you describe your favorite room in your house?
57. Tell me about the room you lived in your childhood.
58. Tell me about your family.
59. Can you tell me about your childhood days?
60. Tell me something about your schooling?
61. Tell me something about your Father education.
62. Tell me about your strengths and weaknesses.
63. What are your hobbies and interests?
64. Can you brief down your daily routine?
65. At this time of the day. What do you usually do?
66. How do you find Hyderabad?
67. Tell me about your college?
68. What does your job involve?
69. What are your plans?
70. Which country are planning to go to? Why?
71. What does your name mean?
72. Why do you think did your parents give this name?
73. Where you live how do people get surnames?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)

Education
1. How should an ideal school be?
2. Which subject do you like most?
3. Which subject do you not like?
4. Tell me about your further education.
5. How do you think is distance learning different from classroom teaching?
6. How far can computers replace a teacher?
7. What changes have you observed in teaching methods be after 25 years?
8. Would you like to study in co-education?
9. Should there be punishment in school?
10. Should there be uniforms?
11. Do you prefer separate classes for dull and cream students?
12. Do you like to be a hostler or a day-scholar?
13. How would you like to spend your weekends?
14. Discuss the role of career guidance.
15. What forms would you like in the present educational system?
16. Tell me about a project done by you.
17. Can you describe the school you studied in?
18. How were the teaching methods?
19. How were the teachers?
20. Was there any teacher who influenced you most?
21. Have you observed any Changes in the teaching methods?
22. Do you expect any changes in future?
23. What role does technology have in teaching?

Your place
1. Could you tell me something about Hyderabad?
2. What are the problems here?
3. What should be done to better the conditions here?
4. What are various means of public transport in your city?
5. Which means of transport do you prefer and why?
6. What are the disadvantages with public transport?
7. How can we improve it?
8. What changes have you observed in the industrial scenario of your city since your
childhood?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
9. Speak about any two industries?
10. Which place do you come from?
11. How big is it?
12. How many live there?
13. What is the composition of the people?
14. What are their occupations?
15. What kind of people are they?
16. What is the climate like there?
17. Is your place famous for anything?
18. Are there any places of importance?
19. What facilities are there?
20. What more would you like?
21. What are the advantages of living there?
22. Are there any problems?
23. What should be done by the government?
24. Have you observed any changes since your childhood?
25. Do you think they are good?

Pollution
1. How can we check pollution?
2. What do you think would be the effects of global warming/green house effects?

Seasons
1. What are various seasons faced with in your country?
2. What’s your favourite season?
3. During which months does it fall?
4. Do you have any festivals in these seasons?
5. Which season do you enjoy most?
6. Which season do children enjoy most?
7. Which season is best to go on tours?
8. What kind of outfit do you prefer in that season?
9. What steps would you like your government to take in various seasons?
10. How would you think can the world survive drought in future?
11. What can we do survive the extreme effects in various seasons?

Friend
1. Speak about your closest friend.
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
2. Have you done anything good together?
3. How do you spend time with your friends?
4. How frequently do you meet?
5. When do you meet?
6. Whose company do you enjoy most? why?
7. Which friendship is better in childhood or in adulthood?
8. How do you define a friend/ friendship?
9. Who are more important friends or relatives?
10. How do friends differ from parents?

T.V Programs, advertisements and marketing


1. What are the effects of TV on the society?
2. Speak about your favorite TV show?
3. Which age group watches the program?
4. Do you like any changes in the program?
5. How do people differ in their tastes of TV program?
6. What changes have you observed in the TV programs since your childhood?
7. What changes do you expect in the next 25 years?
8. Do you like TV’s to be in schools?
9. Narrate your favorite advertisement?
10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of commercial advertisements?
11. Do you like any restrictions on TV programs?
12. What do you think are the advantages of radio over TV?

Movies
1. What kind of movies do you like?
2. How do men and women differ in their tastes of movies?
3. What do you think will be the changes in the next 25 years?
4. What are the changes you have observed in movies over past 25 years?
5. How do people differ from the urban in their tastes of movies?
6. How do the young differ from the old in their tastes of movies?
7. Where do you prefer watching a movie at home or theatre?
8. Do you think movies influence the society?
9. Describe the line of a movie that you have seen?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
10. Speak about your favorite actor or actress?
11. If given a chance would you like to actor?
12. Speak about a character in book or movie?
13. Should there be a censor.
14. Should children watch movies?
15. If yes what type of movies?

Sports
1. Describe a game/sport that you like and how often do you play?
2. Narrate a match you have seen?
3. Speak about your favorite personality?
4. What about the tensions they sometimes cause?
5. What are various sports played in India?
6. What is the importance of playing sports for various age groups?
7. What should the government do to encourage playing sports?
8. How do men and women differ in sports?
9. Why do women play different sports?
10. How have you been benefited from playing the sports?
11. What is the most popular sports team in India? Why?
12. Is being interested in sports good for the country?

Collections
1. If you have to collect one thing what would you collect? Why?
2. What are the various thing collected by people?

Music
1. What are various types of music heard in India?
2. Speak about your favorite piece of music?
3. Have you recommended listening to your favorite song?
4. How frequently do you listen to it?
5. Have you observed any changes in people‘s tastes of music?
6. What are the benefits of learning music?
7. What are the benefits of appreciating music?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
8. Do you know playing any instrument?
9. Do we need a teacher to learn music?
10. Which musical instrument do you like most?
11. Which music is more important traditional or international?

Technologies
1. How do people react to new technologies?
2. How can we make them accept new technologies?
3. What changes have there been in appliances since your child?
4. What changes do you except in the next 25 years?
5. Speak about any two influencing technologies developed.
6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the internet?
7. What are the uses of a cell phone?
8. Do you use your cell phone or computer more? Why?
9. What do people use more?
10. What changes have you observed in cell phones?
11. What changes have you observed in computers?

Marriages
1. How would you like your spouse to be?
2. What factors do people consider while choosing spouse?
3. What are various kinds of marriages in India?
4. Describe a wedding you have been to?
5. What significance does marriage have?
6. Who should choose life-partner-parents or self?
7. Have you observed any changes in the trends of choosing life partner?
8. Is it good?

Favourite time leisure


1. What is your favourite time of a day?
2. What do you do during that time?
3. What do your family members do during that time?
4. What do people in your country do during the time?
5. How do you relax?
6. What do you do during leisure?
7. How do people in your country relax?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
8. How do men and women differ in the way of relaxation?
9. How important is relaxing/ leisure now a days?
10. How do you manage time?
11. How do people in your country manage time?
12. How important is managing time?
13. How many hours do you spend with your family?
14. How many hours leisure do you find a day?
15. How do you spend your free time?
16. Do you wish for more leisure?

Celebrations, celebrities and Achievements


1. Describe a party you have been to?
2. How do you celebrate your success?
3. How are birthdays celebrated in India?
4. Is celebration important?
5. Speak about an Indian who‘s got world fame?
6. Speak about your favourite personality?
7. What are the advantages and disadvantages of being a celebrity?

Food and Restaurants


1. When /why do people in your country go to restaurants?
2. When/why do you go to restaurants?
3. How different would an experience at restaurant be?
4. What kind of food do you like most?
5. What are various types of food in India?
6. What are the changes you have observed in recipes since your childhood?
7. What changes do you expect in the next 25 years?
8. Speak about your favourite meal.
9. Speak about the cating habits of people on your colony?
10. Where you live are there any restaurant?
11. Speak about your favourite restaurant?
12. How frequently do you visit it ?
13. With whom do you go there?
14. What are the advantages and disadvantages of fast food?

Parks and Gardens


(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
1. What are various types of parks seen in India?
2. Describe a park you have been to?
3. Are there any parks or gardens where you live?
4. When do people go to parks?
5. Why do people go to parks?
6. When why do you go to parks?
7. Which is your favourite park?
8. How frequently do visit it?
9. With whom do you go there?
10. How good a hobby can gardening be?
11. What are preferred as public plants and private plants?
12. Discuss the need for play parks for children.

Children and old people


1. Speak about a child you know?
2. Do you see any changes between the childhood of your generation and the present day
children?
3. Do you think they are in a better world now?
4. How are children affected by modern technology?
5. Speak about an old person you know?
6. What kind of welfare is available in your country for the old?
7. What more do you like?
8. Do old people have friends in your country?
9. How do old people spend time?
10. How do grand parents spend time with children?
11. Why do grandparents love to spend with kids?
12. What differences have you seen in grandparents then and now?

Letters and Greeting cards


1. Do you write letters?
2. Do you think frequency of letter writing has comedown?
3. Why has letter writing come down?
4. Tell me about a letter you have written or received?
5. What is the importance of e-mail in to –days world?
6. Are there any benefits of postal mail?
7. How important is sending greeting cards?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
8. Why was the use of greeting cards declined in recent times?
9. What should we do to encourage using of greeting cards?
10. Speak about your favourite greeting cards.

Shopping and Business


1. Describe the shops in your area.
2. Describe your favourite shopping mail.
3. How should an ideal mall be?
4. Who shop in your family?
5. What kind of goods would you like to shop?
6. What do you consider while choosing a good?
7. What do people consider while choosing a good?
8. What kind of goods do women like to shop and do men like to shop?
9. How do people differ in their shopping destinations?
10. Where do you like to shop—in a local market or a mall?
11. What are the present shopping trends?
12. Speak about an item you brought but didn’t like?
13. What business would you want to do in future?
14. Is any specialist knowledge for that?
15. If you win a lottery what will you do?
16. What are the advantages of reading newspapers and magazines?
17. Compare Radio and TV.
18. Compare Radio and TV and newspaper.
19. How important are photographs in newspapers?
20. Speak about a photograph that influenced you.
21. Do you like taking photographs?
22. How good a hobby can photography be?
23. What photograph do you have at home?
24. What natural scenery would you like to photograph?

New skills
1. If you get a chance which new skill would you like to acquire?
2. What would you like to learn? Why?
3. Is learning new skills important?
4. Is there any ideal age for learning new skills?

Tours and holidays


(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
1. Speak about tour you went on (OR) Describe a tourist spot.
2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of tourism?
3. Speak about your favourite tourist spot.
4. Speak about your favourite holiday spot.
5. What is the best time to go on tours?
6. Do you like to go alone/with family/with friends.
7. Where do you like to go on tours/to restaurants?
8. Speak about your favourite public holiday.
9. Speak about your favourite festival.
10. If given a chance which country would you like to tour? Why?
11. How many holidays do you have per week?
12. Would you like more holidays?
13. Do you think children should have holidays?
14. Should children have any activity in holidays?
15. Do you travel?
16. Where do you travel frequently?
17. How often do you go there?
18. When do you prefer traveling?
19. By what transport do you prefer traveling?
20. With whom do you prefer traveling?
21. Do you think traveling should be educative?
22. Do you think children should travel?
23. Do you enjoy traveling?

Reading and Library


1. How different is book reading from browsing the net?
2. Tell me about a book you were fascinated by or your childhood.
3. When do you prefer reading?
4. When do people in your country prefer reading?
5. Express the advantages of having a library in your area.
6. What is your favourite section in library?
7. Do you think children should go to library?
8. How can we encourage going to library?

Furniture
1. What furniture do you have at home traditional or modern?
2. What piece of furniture you have at home?
(Formerly known as ‘The Institute of IELTS’)
3. Have you brought anything recently?
4. Are any new materials being used for furniture?
5. At what stage of life is furniture brought?
6. Where do you buy furniture? Why?

Culture
1. What do you know about the Indian culture?
2. How has it changed since your childhood?
3. How would it be 20 years from now?
4. Bring out the differences between city life and rural life?

Sounds
1. Which sounds do you like and hate?
2. Do you like to live in a clam ir noisy area?
3. Has the city grown noisy over the last years?
4. What should we do to control sound pollution?

Adventures
1. What is meant by an adventure?
2. Name a few adventures?
3. Speak about an adventurous person?
4. If anything happens to the adventurers, should public help?
5. Can we teach adventurism?

Clothing, fashion and Jewellery:


1. What are the various types of clothing we see in India?
2. What are the changes you have observed since your childhood?
3. What would be the changes in future?
4. Can you tell about the character on the basis of the wear?
5. What decides fashion?
6. Speak about your favourite outfit?
7. How frequently do you wear it?
8. When do you prefer wearing it?
9. When did you first wear it?
10. How did other respond?
0

Cue Card Topics

Traffic
Environmental problems
Music
Advertisements
Water bodies
Swimming
Sports
Dance
Sculpture
Ceremonies
Parties
Flowers
Walking
Bikes, Bicycles & Vehicles
Picnics
Gardening
Diary Writing
Laws
TV channels & Programs
Losing Items
Being late
Host & Guest
Helping
Saving
Websites
Conversations
Second-hand items
1

Parties:

1. Describe a party you attended?


Say:
what it was for.
when you attended.
where you attended.
how the party went on. and
how you felt about.
2. Are parties important?
3. How good is attending parties?
4. Do you prefer attending or giving a party?
5. Have you seen any changes in the parties since your childhood?
6. Why are parties held?
7. Should there be any restrictions on parties?
8. What are the kinds of parties held in your country?
9. Which age groups enjoy parties most? Why?

Flowers:

1. Speak about a flower that you like most


Say:
what it is.
how it looks. and
why you like it.
2. Name a few flowers?
3. Why are flowers given as gifts?
4. Are flowers used for decoration, why?
5. For what purpose are flowers used in your country?
6. Which flowers suit what occasion?

Traffic:

1. Speak about an episode when you were help up in a traffic jam


You should say:
when it happened.
where it happened.
why it happened. &
what happened became of it.
2. Why do traffic jams occur?
2

3. When do traffic jams occurs?


4. What steps should the govt. take to control traffic?
5. Should people do anything to avert traffic jams?
6. Should traffic knowledge be included in school curriculum?

Music:

1. What kind of music do the young like?


2. What kind of music do old people enjoy?
3. What changes have you observed in the people’s tastes of music since your
childhood?
4. Speak about a musical concert you attended?
5. How different is it to attend a musical concert from listening to recorded
music?
6. Do you know how to play any musical instrument?
7. Do you know singing?
8. Is a teacher necessary to learn music?
9. How can we encourage children to learn music? Is it good for them?

Ceremonies:

1. Speak about a ceremony that is performed in your culture/country


Say:
what it is.
how it is performed.
when you came to know about it.
when you came to know about it. &
explain how significant it is.
2. Are ceremonies important?
3. When are ceremonies performed in your culture/country?
4. Have you seen any changes in the importance given to ceremonies since
your childhood?
5. Is the change good
6. Do you expect any change in the people’s attitude to ceremonies in the
future?
7. Speak about a ceremony that you attended.
8. How do various age groups look up on ceremonies?
3

Environmental problems:

1. Speak about an environmental problem that your country is facing


Say:
what the problem is.
what the main reasons are.
what the effects are. and
2. How important is including environmental awareness in
school curriculum?
3. What changes have you seen in the attitude of the people
towards environmental problems?
4. Whose responsibility is it – Governments or people’s-to
counter/protect environmental problems?

Advertisements:

1. Speak about an advertisement that made you buy something


Say:
what it contains.
when you saw it.
where you saw it.
what you bought. and
why you bought it.
2. Were you happy with What you bought?
3. Do you think advertisements influence people to buy?
4. What kinds of adverts suit which products?
5. Should there be a censor to the control adverts?
6. Have you seen any changes in adverts since your childhood?
7. What kind of adverts are most influential?
8. How do advertisements benefit people?
9. Can adverts be harmful for people?

Water Bodies:

1. Speak about a water body (Sea/river/lake/pond/stream/canal)


That you have close to your place
Say:
what it is.
where it is.
how the land near it is. and
how the atmosphere there is.
4

2. What kind of activities do people enjoy near water bodies?


3. How beneficial is it to have a water body nearby?
4. Can there be any problems?
5. What kind of influence do water bodies have on the culture of the people
there?

Swimming:

1. Speak about a swimming pool that you have close to your place
Say:
where it is.
how it looks. and
what facilities are available there.
2. Do you know swimming?
3. Where did you learn swimming?
4. When did you learn swimming?
5. How did you learn swimming?
6. How do people learn swimming in your country?
7. Is a coach necessary to learn swimming?
8. What are the benefits of swimming?
9. What is the right age to learn swimming?
10. Is swimming relaxing?

Sports:

1. Speak about a sport that you find exciting


You should Say:
what it is.
how it is played. and
why you find it exciting.
2. Do you enjoy playing or watching the sport?
3. Do you enjoy watching on TV or watching live more?
4. What should the govt. do to encourage sports in the country?
5. Some people take it as hobby and some people take it as a profession.
Which is better?
6. Is a coach necessary to learn sports?
7. If children want to be sports professionals, should they be encouraged by
parents?
5

Dance:

1. Speak about a dance performance you attended


Say:
when you attended it.
where you attended it.
who performed it. and
what was the performance and how you felt about it?
2. Speak about your favourite from of dance
Say:
What it is.
When you know it first.
Why you like it.
3. Do you ever dance?
4. Why did/didn’t you learn dancing?
5. How beneficial is dancing?
6. Is a teacher important to learn dance?
7. What kind of dance do the young like?
8. What kind of dance do the old like?
9. What are various forms dance seen in India?
10. Have you seen any changes in People’s taste of dance since
your childhood?
11. Can dance help relax?
12. Now-a-days many children are keen on learning dance. Is it
good to encourage them?
13. How easy is it in your country, to take up dance as
Profession?

Sculptures:

1. Speak about a sculpture that impressed you most


Say:
where you saw it.
when you saw it.
how it looks. and
why it impressed you.
2. Where are sculptures seen in your country?
3. How popular are they?
4. What materials are used to make sculptures?
5. Why are statues erected in public places?
6

Handicrafts:

1. Speak about a handicraft which impressed you


Say:
what it was.
where you saw it.
when you saw it.
how it looks. and
explain why it impressed you?
2. Are they popular in your country?
3. Which age group(s) like handicrafts?
4. Can they be given as gifts?
5. Has their popularity increased or decreased over the time? Why?
6. Should the govt. encourage handicrafts, Why?
7. How different are handicrafts from the machine made things?

Walking:

1. Describe a walk that you regularly take


Say:
when you take the walk.
where you go.
what you see on the way.
how long it takes. and
how you feel after the walk.
2. When do people in your country go walking? (At what times
during a day)
3. How beneficial is walking?
4. Does walking help relax?
5. Why has walking come down over the years?
6. Should the govt. encourage walking? How?
7. Should the children be encouraged to walk? How?

Bicycles:

1. Describe a bicycle you rode in your childhood


Say:
how it looked.
during which age you rode it. and
whether you enjoyed riding it or not.
7

2. Do you still have that bicycle?


3. Do you still ride a bicycle?
4. Why has bicycle riding lost popularity over the years?
5. What are the benefits of bicycle riding?
6. How can the govt. encourage riding bicycles?
7. Should children be encouraged to ride bicycles? How?
8. What are various kinds of bicycles that you know?
9. Is riding a bicycle relaxing?

Motor vehicles:

1. Speak about a motor vehicle (bike or car) that you want to buy
In future
Say:
what it is.
how it looks.
why you want to buy it. And
where you want to buy it.
2. Do you know driving?
3. When did you learn driving?
4. Is learning driving important?
5. How do people learn driving in your country?
6. Do you prefer going by public transport or by your vehicle?
Why?
7. How can the govt. reduce the no. of vehicles?
8. Which age groups like what kind of vehicles?
9. What are the advantages of having a personal vehicle?
10. Are there any disadvantages?

Picnics:

1. Speak about a picnic you went on


Say:
where you went.
when you went.
how you spent your time. and
with whom you went.
2. Do you enjoy going on picnics?
3. When do people prefer going on picnics in your country?
4. Which season is suitable for picnics?
8

5. Are there any famous picnic spots in your area?


6. Which age groups enjoy picnic king most?
7. Do you prefer going on picnics with friends or with family?
8. Should children be taken on picnics?

Gardening:

1. Describe a garden you have seen


Say:
where it is.
which plants are seen there. and
explain whether you like it or not.
2. Do you have a garden in your house?
3. Is it good to have a garden?
4. How good is gardening/
5. Why has gardening come down over the years?
6. How can people be encouraged to grow gardens?
7. Should children be taught gardening at school level?
8. Which plants are preferred as public plants and as private Plants?
9. How good a hobby is gardening?

Dairy writing:

1. Do you write dairy? Why/Why not?


2. Is dairy writing useful? How?
3. Why has dairy writing come down over the years?
4. Do you know anyone writing dairy?
5. Which age groups usually write dairy?

Laws:

1. Speak about a law that exists in your country


Say:
what the law states.
when you came to know about it.
how you came to know about it. and
explain whether it is useful or not.
2. Are laws respected in your country?
9

3. How can we make people respect laws?


4. Have you seen any change in the attitude of the people towards
laws?
5. Why do some people break laws?
6. Do you know any law that is specifically for youngsters?
7. Who make laws in your country?
8. Do you want any new law to be introduced?
9. Should children be taught about laws?
10. Is there any law you think is not useful?
11. When you get a problem, do you prefer going to police or a
Lawyer?

TV programmes:

1. Speak about a story that you saw on TV


Say:
what the story is.
when you watched it.
on which channel you watched it. and
how you felt about it.
2. Speak about your favourite TV channel
Say:
what it is.
when you watched it first.
what kind of programmes are telecasted.
3 . Which age groups like this channel?
4. Which age groups like what kind of programmes?
5. What kind of channels are most useful for the young?
6. Do men and women differ in their tastes of TV programmes?
Why?
7. Speak about a TV program that enjoy watching most
Say:
what the title of the program is.
when you watched it first.
what it is about. And
why you like it.

Losing Items:

1. Speak about an item you lost


10

Say:
what you lost.
when you lost.
where you lost. and
how you felt about the loss.
2. Which items do people lose?
3. Are there any other things that people lose?
4. Why do people lose things?
5. What should people do not to lose things?
6. What do people do in order not to lose things?
7. When you lost something, did you tell others about it?
8. How did they respond?

Being late:

1. Speak about an occasion when you were late for something


Important
Say:
when it happened.
what you were late for.
why you were late. and
what happened due to that.
2. Why do people become late?
3. When people get late, what reasons do usually cite?
4. Do you think they are genuine?
5. What should people do in order not to get late?
6. Is being on time important?
7. Should children be taught to be punctual? How?
8. Have you seen any change the people’s attitude towards
Punctuality over the last 20 years?
9. Why has this change occurred?

Hosts & Guests:

1. Speak about an occasion when you had a guest at home


Say:
who visited.
when they came. and
what preparations you made and how you spent the time.
2. How did they feel about your treatment?
11

3. Do you prefer being a guest or a host?


4. Do people prefer being guests or hosts?
5. When you go out-station, do you prefer staying in a hotel or in a
Friend’s/relative’s house?
6. Speak about an occasion when you were a guest at somebody’s
House?

Helping:

1. Speak about an incident when somebody helped you


Say:
who helped you.
what the help was.
when you got the help. and
what the result of the help was.
2. Do you help others?
3. Do you get help from others in your place?
4. What do you consider when you help others?
5. Are the people in your place helping?
6. Do you think people are more helping now than in the past?
7. How can propagate helping nature among people/children?
8. Speak about an incident when you helped someone?
9. When you need help whom do you ask?
10. Can helping-nature be taught?
11. Do you think some people are more helping by birth?

Saving:

1. Speak about an episode of shopping when you saved money


Say:
when you saved.
how much you saved. and
how you saved.
2. How do you save money?
3. How do people in your country save money?
4. Should children be taught how to save money? How?
5. Do you think people are saving more now than in the past?
6. Is saving money important?
7. Which age groups are more conscious of saving?
8. Can you suggest some ways of saving money?
12

9. Does being miserly help save money?

Websites:

1. Speak about a website you find most useful


Say:
what it is.
how you came to know about it.
when you browsed it first. and
how it is useful to you.
2. With which age group is that website very popular?
3. What is the right age to start browsing the net?
4. What kind of websites are useful to children?
5. How can we protect children from the negative effects of the
Internet?
6. Should old people also use the net?

Conversations:
1. Speak about an important conversation you had with somebody
Say:
when you had it.
with whom you had it.
what was discussed. and
what was the outcome.
2. How frequently do you involve yourself in conversations?
3. Do you speak to strangers? Why/why not?
4. How can we initiate a conversation with a stranger?
5. Are there benefits speaking to strangers?
6. Are there any dangers?
7. Do you think a girl-girl conversation would be different from
boy-boy conversation?
8. Do you prefer conversing with boys or girls?
9. Are people having more conversation now than in the past?

Second-hand items:

1. Speak about a household appliance in your house, which is not


functional any more
Say:
13

what it is.
when you bought it.
when it stopped working.
why it stopped working. and
whether you have it now or not.
2. Why do household appliances usually go wrong?
3. When a good/item stops working do you prefer getting it
repaired or replaced?
4. Do you buy second-hand items? Why/why not?
5. Why do some people buy the seconds?
6. Are there benefits buying second-hand goods?
7. In what cases do you suggest buying pre-owned goods?
8. Do you people have emotional attachment with goods in your
Country?

Fruits & Vegetables:

1. How often do you take fresh fruits and vegetables?


2. Where you live, is it tough or easy to get fresh fruits and vegetables?
3. How important is it to take fruits and vegetables?
4. Are people now taking less fruits than in the past? Why/why not?
5. What should the government do ensure easy access to fruits and
vegetables?

Birds:

1. Speak about a bird you like


Say:
what it is.
when you saw it first.
where you saw. And
why you like it.
2. Can you name a few birds you know?
3. What kind of birds are seen in your country?
4. Has their number declined over the years? Why?
5. Do you think government should take any steps to
Culture/country?
6. Do you birds have special place in your culture/country?
7. Should children be taught about birds?
14

Uniform & Fashion:

1. Should there be uniforms in schools? Why?


2. Should offices also have uniforms? Why/why not?
3. What significant do uniforms carry?
4. Why do same people not like wearing uniforms?
5. What influences fashion in your country?
6. How has fashion changed over the last two decades in your country?
7. Who give more importance to fashion men or women? Why?
8. Are fashion-designerspopular in your country?

Police and Lawyers:

1. Who command more respect in your country police or lawyer? Why?


2. When in problem, do people prefer going to a police man or lawyer? Why?
3. Why do some people have bad opinion on police or lawyer?
4. Do movies influences people’s opinion on police or lawyer?
5. Has there been any change in the people’s attitude towards police and lawyers
since your chilhood?
6. In what ways should policing and law be improved yet?

Managers & Leadership:

1. Speak about a friend who has leadership qualities


Say:
who it is.
what qualities she/he.
what he/she has done with them.
2. Are leadership qualities important?
3. Do you like any popular leaders?
4. Can leadership qualities be taught to children?
5. Should manages be paid more than other workers in an organization ?
why/why not?
6. Are there any other professionals who should be paid more?
7. Do managerial abilities make any difference?

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