ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

(Đề dùng cho thí sinh thi vào Chuyên Anh )

(Đề thi có 4 phần, gồm 6 trang)
Thời gian: 150 phút

PART A: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (3 points).
1. A. curriculum B. particular C. flexible D. economics
2. A. naked B. checked C. booked D. ticked
3. A. result B. destroy C. simple D. construct
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the
same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (2 points).
1. A. photography B. minority C. heroic D. amateur
2. A. emergency B. facility C. itinerary D. stationery

PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (40 points)

I. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your
answer sheet (10 points).
1. Would you like to go to the movies tomorrow?- Sure. By then I (finish)__my exam.
2. He has been sleeping since 10 o’clock. It’s time he (wake) _____up.
3. Mr. Lam: I can’t understand this letter.
Mrs. Hoa: I will call my son. He (translate) _____it for you.
4. John: A man answered the phone. I suppose it was her husband.
Mary: It (be) _____her husband. He’s been dead for ages.
5-6. Look! Her eyes (be) _____red and wet. She must (cry) _____.
7-8. You (stop) _____by a policeman if you (cross) _____the road now.
9-10. The man at the corner table (glance) _____my way to see if I (listen) _____.

II. Supply the correct form of the capital words in brackets. Write the answers on
your answer sheet (10 points).
1. I am afraid you have been ____. She no longer works for us. (INFORM)
2. If you are not satisfied with the services, write a letter of ____to the manager.
(COMPLAIN)
3. Bananas are mainly grown in _______countries. (TROPIC)
4. When you are late for school, you should___to your teacher. (APOLOGY)
5. He was kept in the hospital overnight as a ___measure. (PRECAUTION)
6. They work as _______in a big hotel. (RECEIVE)
7. The test was difficult, but ____I had enough time to finish it. (FORTUNE)
8. These children voluntarily spent their summer vacation helping the _______.
(ADVANTAGE)
9. The police asked _______if they had seen the accident. (PASS)
10. I live in a room_______the garden. (LOOK)

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III. There are 10 extra words in the following passage. Find and write them on
your answer sheet. (10 points)
1. Mother Teresa was one of the most influential personalities of the
2. twentieth century. However, her life was neither easy nor glamorous.
3. She was born in Skopje, Macedonia in 1910. At the age of 18 years,
4. she left her home in Skopje and joined in the Sister of Loreto, an Irish
5. community of the nuns with missions in India. She went to India as a
6. missionary. She did became a teacher of English in a secondary school.
7. The school was in a nice area but for there were slums nearby.
8. Conditions there were absolutely terrible. She was horrified by what
9. she saw it. She insisted on leaving her comfortable convent and going
10. to live among the poor. At first, her supervisors tried to discourage her
11. from leaving the convent, but in the end, they agreed on to let her go.
12. Soon other people heard about her work and came to help with her.
13. Although she had no money herself, she succeeded in building shelters
14. for the dying people and schools for the poor. By the 1990s, she had
15. become famous for and she was eventually given Nobel Prize for her
16. service to the poor. Mother Teresa died on September 5th, 1997.

IV.Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in each of the following sentences
and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (10 points).
1. Going by plane costs _______taking the train to Ho Chi Minh City from Hue.
A. twice more than B. twice as much as
C. as much twice as D. as much as twice
2. We are going to have a _______trip to Ha Long Bay after the final test.
A. seven-days B. seven-day C. seventh-day D. seventh-days
3. He is _______a lot of study pressure to win a place at university.
A. under B. for C. in D. with
4. The state laws limit the speed _______motorists are permitted to drive.
A. which B. at which C. that D. on which
o o
5. Ha Noi will_______temperature between 32 C and 39 C.
A. experience B. be C. own D. get
6. Robert surprised everyone when he_______the job of office manager.
A. turned away B. turned back C. turned down D. turned over
7. She never says a word. She is as _______as a mouse.
A. quiet B. small C. slight D. noiseless
8. It’s essential that every student _______the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. pass C. would pass D. passed
9. The meeting has been brought____to Monday due to the seriousness of the situation.
A. on B. out C. down D. forward
10. I can’t walk in these high-heeled boots. I keep_______.
A. falling off B. falling back C. falling over D. falling out

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 PART C: READING (30 points)
I. Read the text and choose the most suitable word/phrase from the ones given
below to fill in each gap. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of on the universe that can support human life.
(1)______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western
world (2)______on consuming two- thirds of the world’s resources while half of the
world’s population do so (3)______to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the
(4)______resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere
fertile soil is (5)______built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are
exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (6)______. We discharge
pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result,
the planet’s ability to support people is being (7)______at the very time when rising
human numbers and consumption are (8)______increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy,
medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9)______us fed, comfortable, healthy and
active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (10) _____
indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and
everyone will suffer.
1. A. Yet B. Still C. Although D. Despite
2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely
4. A. only B. individual C. lone D. alone
5. A. sooner B. either C. neither D. rather
6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely
7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut
8. A. making B. having C. taking D. doing
9. A. hold B. maintain C. keep D. stay
10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain

II. Read the text and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (5 points)
The brain of the average human weighs approximately 1.4 kilograms and
consists of three main parts: the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the brain stem. The
cerebrum is by far the largest of the three parts, taking up 85% of the brain by weight.
The outside layer of the cerebrum, the cerebral cortex, is a grooved and bumpy surface
covering the nerve cells beneath. The various sections of the cerebrum are the sensory
cortex, which is responsible for receiving and decoding sensory messages from
throughout the body; the motor cortex, which sends action instructions to the skeletal
muscles; and the association cortex, which receives, monitors, and processes
information. It is in the association cortex that the processes that allow humans to
think take place. The cerebellum, located below the cerebrum in the back part of the
skull, is the section of the brain that controls balance and posture. The brain stem
connects the cerebrum and the spinal cord. It controls various body processes such as
breathing and heartbeat.

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1. What is the author’s main purpose?
A. To demonstrate the physical composition of the brain.
B. To explain how the brain processes information
C. To describe the functions of the parts of the brain.
D. To give examples of human body functions.
2. The passage states that the most massive part of the brain is the ________ .
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebral cortex D. cerebrum
3. The sensory cortex___________________________.
A. receives and processes information from the senses
B. provides a surface covering for nerve cells
C. is where the human process of thinking occurs
D. senses that messages should be sent out to the muscles
4. The word “decoding” is closest in meaning to___________ .
A. collecting B. processing C. gaining D. sending
5. Which one is closest in meaning to the word “posture”?
A. personal opinion B. quick movement C. position of body D. speech

III. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable phrase from A – F to
fill in each gap. There is one extra phrase that you don’t need to use. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
A. major new strains come into being
B. showing any evidences of illness
C. present in an animal
D. H and N spikes are produced
E. evolved in the bird kingdom
F. transmitted from place to place

Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause
disease in animals. In addition, man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a
greater number of wild birds seem to carry the virus without (1)_____. Some
scientists conclude that a large family of influenza viruses may have (2) _____, a
group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without
contracting the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strains
are (3) _____and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are (4) _____at
the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing
different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza virus can
recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new
spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way(5) _____. Another
possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example,
to produce a new strain which is transmitted to man.
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IV. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
We can develop alternative sources of energy, and unless we try we’ll never
succeed. In stead of (1) _______ fossil fuels we should be concentrating on more
economical uses of electricity (2)______can be produced from any sources of
energy.
If we did not waste so (3) _______energy, our resources would last longer.
We can save more (4) _______by conservation than we can produce for the same
amount of money. (5) _______we do research on solar energy, wind power, tidal
power, hydroelectric plants, our fossil fuels will run out (6)_______we will all
freeze or starve to (7) _______.
Many countries are (8)_______much more time and money on research
because the energy from the sun, the waves and the wind (9)_______forever. We
really won’t survive unless we start (10) ______cleaner and safer sources of energy.
PART D: WRITING (25 points)
I. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same.
Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
1. It was not until 1980 that they began to learn English.
 Not until___________________________________________.
2. I often talk to a very graceful girl on the way home from school.
 The girl____________________________________________.
3. He could not afford to buy the car.
 The car____________________________________________.
4. He was very sorry that he didn’t see Audrey on her trip to London.
 He greatly__________________________________________.
5. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died.
 The singer had______________________________________.
6. They thought that the little girl had found out the keys accidentally.
 The keys___________________________________________.
7. I only made that terrible mistake because I wasn’t thinking.
 Had ______________________________________________.
8. I am always nervous when I face a lot of people.
 Facing_____________________________________________.
9. She and I had never been there before.
 Neither_____________________________________________.
10. It’s a pity I lied to my parents.
 If only______________________________________________.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it contains the capital word at
the end of the sentence and keeps the same meaning. Write the answers on your
answer sheet. (5 points)
1. I supposed you were very tired after your long walk. (MUST)
2. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
3. Flooding in this region was the result of the heavy rain. (RESULTED)
4. He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee. (EARNED)
5. Anna has improved a lot this term. (PROGRESS)

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III. Paragraph writing (10 points)
The ao dai should be used as uniform for girls at secondary schools. Do you
agree or disagree?
Write a paragraph of about 120-150 words using your own reasons and
examples to justify your answer.
-------- THE END --------

Họ và tên thí sinh ....................................................... SBD ........................

Chữ ký của giám thị 1 .......................Chữ ký của giám thị 2 ......................

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 S Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
(Dùng cho đề thi vào Chuyên Anh )
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Thời gian: 150 phút

(Gồm có 3 trang)

PART A: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Pronunciation (3 points)
1. C 2. A 3. A
II. Stress (2 points)
1. D 2. D

PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (40 points)

I. Verb form (10 points)

1. will have finished 6. must have cried

2. woke 7. will be stopped
3. will translate 8. cross
4. can’t have been 9. glanced
5. are 10. was listening

II. Word formation (10 points)

1. misinformed 6. receptionists
2. complaint 7. fortunately
3. tropical 8. disadvantaged
4. apologise/ apologize 9. passers-by
5. precautionary 10. overlooking

III. Error identification (10 points)

1. years (line 3) 6. it (line 9)

2. in (line 4) 7. on (line 11)
3. the (line 5) 8. with (line 12)
4. did (line 6) 9. people (line 14)
5. for (line 7) 10. for (line 15)

IV. Multiple choice (10 points)

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C

PART C: READING (30 points)

I. Cloze reading (10 points)

1. A 6. D
2. C 7. C
3. B 8. A
4. A 9. C
5. B 10. A

II. Reading comprehension 1 (5 points)

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C

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III. Reading comprehension 2 ( 5 points)

1. B 2. E 3. F 4. C 5. A

IV. Gap filling (10 points)

1. burning/ using 6. and

2. which/ that 7. death
3. much 8. spending
4. energy/electricity 9. lasts
5. Unless 10. using/ developing

PART D: WRITING (25 points)

I. Rewriting 1 (10 points)

1. Not until 1980 did they begin to learn English.

2. The girl whom/who/that I often talk to on the way home from school is very graceful.
The girl to whom I often talk on the way home from school is very graceful.
3. The car was too expensive for him to buy.
4. He greatly regeretted not seeing/ having seen Audrey on her trip to London.
5. The singer had very little money (left) when he died, which surprised everybody.
6. The keys were thought to have been found out accidentally by the little girl.
7. Had I been thinking, I would not have made that terrible mistake.
8. Facing a lot of people always makes me nervous.
9. Neither of us had (ever) been there before.
Neither she nor I had (ever) been there before.
10. If only I had told the truth to my parents.
If only I had told my parents the truth.
If only I hadn’t lied to my parents.
If only I hadn’t told a lie to my parents.

II. Rewriting 2 (5 points)

1. You must have been very tired after your long walk.
2. Some interesting new information has come to light/ has been brought to light.
3. The heavy rain resulted in flooding in this region.
4. Swearing at the referee earned him a two - match suspension.
(him) a suspension for two matches.
5. Anna has made a lot of progress this term.
III. Paragraph writing (10 points)
- If the contents are not relevant, the paragraph IS NOT COUNTED.
- If the contents are relevant, ASSESS in accordance with this scale:

Criteria Details
- Is a solid unit with 3 parts (topic sentence, supporting
sentences, concluding sentence).
Appearance - Paragraph should be indented only in the first line.
( 1 point) - If Ss’ writing looks like an essay, subtract 0.5 point.
- Number of words is about 120-160. Less than 120 words or
more than 160 words, subtract 0.3 point.
- Topic sentence: Ss must mention whether they agree or
disagree with the statement.
- There should be 2 or 3 supporting sentences and examples or
Structure
explanations for each supporting idea.
(2 points)
- Concluding sentence(s): Ss can summarize the main ideas in
supporting sentences, paraphrase the topic sentence or suggest
solutions.
Coherence - Topic sentence and supporting sentences must be relevant
(1 point) - Examples/explanations must be relevant to the supporting idea
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 that they support.
- If Ss’ writing has a good use of linking words -> 0.5 point
Unity
- If Ss’ writing has a flexible use of unfamiliar transitional
(1 point)
signals ->1 point.
- If Ss’ writing is free of grammartical mistakes and spelling
Grammar and mistakes ->2 points.
vocabulary - If Ss’ writing has a wide range of sentence patterns, wide
(3 points) range of vocabulary and less common vocabulary ->3 points.
- Subtract 0.25 point for one mistake.
Persuasiveness
The writing is convincing.
(2 point)
* Lưu ý:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 1 điểm.
- Quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 10.

Điểm bài thi = Tổng số câu đúng

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