DBM MCQ Updated

DIGITAL BUISNESS MANAGEMENT
MODULE 03 - DIGITAL BUSINESS SUPPORT SERVICES
Q1 - What does ERP stand for?

a) Enterprise Resource Planning
b) Enterprise Resource Program
c) Enterprise Recycling Program
d) Environmental Resource Planning
Q2 - Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) has been criticized on a number of grounds. Which of
the following is not a common criticism of ERP?
a) It can have a disruptive effect on the organization’s operations
b) It does not allow decisions and databases from all parts of the organization to be
integrated
c) Implementation is expensive
d) The effect it has on businesses is disappointing
Q3 - The ____________________ and ____________________ manage the supplier relations,

monitor the vendor activities and manage the supplier quality in an organisation.
a) Supplier management, customisation processes
b) Supplier maintenance, control processes
c) Supplier management, control processes
d) Supplier maintenance, customisation processes
Q4 - As processes become more automated and efficient,

a) It is best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
b) It is not best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
c) It is best to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
d) It is best to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.
Q5 - Identify the right answer.

The two major objectives of Human Resources are:
A. To provides instant updates of information.
B. To make the workflow cost effective.
C. To provide training to the employees.
D. To provide self service benefits to the employees
Instagram : https://instagram.com/mahto_amit_?igshid=bx748yevfjjv
CODES
a) B,C,
b) D,A,
c) B,D
d) A,C
Q6 - CRM yields employees with ______________ and improves personal___________

efficiencies
a) Work, work advantage
b) Customisation, work
c) Work advantage, work
d) Customisation, work advantage
Q7 - Select the modules that decides the inputs required and suppliers for delivery?
A. Inventory placing
B. Inventory order assessment
C. Inventory requisition
D. Supplier Performa
CODES:
a) A,D
b) D,B
c) C,B
d) D,C
Q8 - Identify the correct answer: The three major activities associated with ERP inventory
management are:
A. Identifying inventory requirements
B. Customising information
C. Monitoring item usages
D. Integrating the inventory balances
CODES:
a) B,C,D
b) D,A,B
c) A,C,D
d) C,B,A
Q9 -The Sales Support component helps the sales and marketing department to……………………...
a) Support existing customers only.
b) Supports in developing new business.
c) Support existing customers but does and help to develop new business.
d) Support existing customers and, at the same time, to develop new business
Q10 - ______ are collected and archived in a manner that offers full support for _______
process control techniques.
a) Product quality metrics, Statistical
b) Statics, Product quality metrics
c) Production quality, Statistical
d) Product quality metrics, Financial
Q11 - The sales and distribution modules of many ERP vendors, offer a comprehensive set of
best of its kind components for both _______ and _______ management.
a) Manufacturing, Production
b) Sales, Distribution
c) Planning, Business
d) Order, Logistics
Q12 - One common mistake that companies resort when selecting an ERP system is
a) Non biased selection
b) Over-emphasis on system cost
c) Complete set of requirements
d) Not relying on vendor demos
Q13 - The stakeholders within the enterprise must

a) Be involved in the project initiation phase where the decision making process is agreed
and attend Vendor demonstrations
b) Not assist in the gathering of requirements
c) Not be involved in vendor demonstration
d) Involve only in vendor demonstration
Q14 - The ________ should be a replica of the organisation’s ________ processes.

a) MIS, Business
b) ERP, Financial
c) MIS, Financial
d) ERP, Business
Q15 - The package should be _________ and should have installations in countries where the
_________ has offices.
a) Domestic, Vendor
b) International, Company
c) International, System developer
d) International, Vendor
Q16 - When ERP system is introduced in a company, many employees find the transformation
difficult to accept because of which of the two reasons:
1. The employees are not given proper training.
2. Employees who were earlier doing the work of recording information are transformed
into decision-makers.
3. Of fear of unemployment.
4. They fear that ERP systems will revolutionalise the way they live and work.
CODES :
a) 1&2
b) 3&4
c) 2&4
d) 1&3
Q17 - Identify the correct statement.

a) The only problem with the package vendors is that they are very expensive.
b) The only problem with the business consultants is that they are very expensive.
c) The only problem with the employee training is that it is very expensive.
d) The only problem with the planning of implementation is that it is very expensive.
Q18 - The vendor should have a _______, who must constantly interact with the
implementation team.
a) Liaison officer
b) Project Supervisor
c) Project Manager
d) Implementation co-ordinator
Q19 - ETO means

a) Engineer-to-Order
b) Engineer-to-Offer
c) Enterprise-to-Order
d) Enterprise-to-Offer
Q20 - As processes become more automated and efficient,

a) It is best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
b) It is not best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
c) It is best to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
d) It is best to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure
Q21 - _________ system maintains employees information in graphical format.

a) Employee master data
b) Personnel administration
c) Payroll accounting
d) Benefits administration
Q22 - ________ module keeps track of liquidation process.

a) Market management module
b) Liquidation module
c) Treasury module
d) Enterprise management module
Q23 - ________is the most common operating system for running CRM software
a) UNIX
b) Windows NT
c) Windows Vista
d) Windows XP
Q24- In recent years, CRM has become a primary component of:

a) ERP vendors
b) ERP software solutions.
c) CRM software
d) CRM solutions
Q25 - Installing ERP Inventory systems is ____________ .

a) Simple
b) Trouble free
c) Complex
d) Cost effective
Q26 - RFP stands for ____________________ .

a) Request For Productivity
b) Request For Profits
c) Request For Processing
d) Request For Proposal
Q27 - Web ERP is suitable for ____________ .

a) Both small and big organisations
b) Only big organisations
c) Medium scale organisations
d) Only small organisations
Q28 - __________ maintains reports of warehouse supplies.

a) ERP financial module
b) ERP Inventory software module
c) ERP Resource module
d) ERP verification module
Q29 - _______evaluates whether or not customer contract agreement are being met.
a) Purchase order management
b) Sales order management
c) Master data management
d) Warehouse management
Q30 - Which of the following describes an ERP system?

a) ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments
b) ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate
c) ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organisations to store critical
knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organisation's performance
d) All of the above
Q31 - What is at the heart of any ERP system?

a) Information
b) Employees
c) Customers
d) Database
Q32 - What must a system do to qualify as a true ERP solution?

a) Be flexible
b) Be modular and closed
c) Extend within the company
d) All of the above
Q33 - Which of the following is a reason for ERPs explosive growth?
a) ERP is a logical solution to the mess of incompatible applications
b) ERP addresses the need for global information sharing and reporting
c) ERP is used to avoid the pain and expense of fixing legacy system
d) All of the above
Q34 - What are several different types of software, which sit in the middle of and provide
connectivity between two or more software applications?
a) Middleware
b) Enterprise application integration middleware
c) Automated business process
d) e-business infrastructure
Q35 - What represents a new approach to middleware by packaging together commonly used
functionality, such as providing prebuilt links to popular enterprise applications, which reduces
the time necessary to develop solutions that integrate applications from multiple vendors?
a) Middleware
b) Enterprise application integration middleware
c) Automated business process
d) e-business infrastructure
Q36 - Who are the primary users of SCM systems?

a) Sales, marketing, customer service
b) Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
c) Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors
d) All of the above
Q37 - What are the primary business benefits of an ERP system?

a) Sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns
b) Market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling
c) Forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and
distribution
d) All of the above
Q38 - Who are the primary users of ERP systems?

a) Sales, marketing, customer service
b) Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
c) Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors
d) All of the above
Q39 - ________ handling and sharing has become a vital process for efficient and effective
working of any organisation.
a) Material
b) Resource
c) Information
d) Database
Q40 - _____ became the fundamental concept of production management and control.
a) BOM
b) MRP
c) ERP
d) MRP II
Q41 - In the _________, ERP packages were targeted at the manufacturing industry.
a) 1970’s
b) 1990's
c) 1980’s
d) 1960’s
Q42 - The _________ should plan well and execute perfectly the implementation of ERP.
a) Organisation
b) System developers
c) Vendors
d) Top Management
Q43 - Which is one of the most critical steps in the ERP implementation?
a) Creation of Organisational Model
b) Creation of Integrated Data Model
c) Creation of Business Model
d) Creation of Data Model
Q44 - What is one of the key resources of every organisation, in today’s competitive business
environment?
a) Employee
b) Information
c) ERP
d) Database
Q45 - When a customer needs to check the performance of the company before he places an
order, which department has to be in a position to provide the necessary information?
a) Production
b) Quality
c) Marketing
d) Finance
Q46 - In an integrated data model, what gives a snapshot of the organisation at any given time?
a) ERP
b) Database
c) Management
d) MIS
Q47 - . ERP system is built on a ____________ utilising a common computing platform

a) Centralised database
b) Individual databases
c) Modular databases
d) Centralised layout
Q48 - Which of the following is an example for commercial ERP

a) ERP5
b) Microsoft Dynamics AX
c) Compiere
d) Fisterra
Q49 - NPV is the abbreviation of

a) Net Present Variation method
b) Net Present Value method
c) Neutral Present Value method
d) Net Preventive Value method
Q50 - ERP vendors usually design their systems around standard business processes, based
upon ____________________
a) Business standards
b) Global standards
c) Best business practices.
d) Best profitable standards
Q51 - The _______ module's internal functions do not directly interact with the data or
processes of other modules.
a) Finance
b) Quality Management
c) Sales and Distribution
d) Plant Maintenance
Q52 - Which among the following systems can be assigned to a cost centre directly which
illustrates the interface to the cost accounting system?
a) FAPA
b) Purchasing
c) Sales and Distribution
d) CASO
Q53 - ERP is restricted to being a _________operations system in the country.

a) Finance
b) Budgeting modules
c) Manufacturing
d) Transaction-oriented
Q54 - ______________ allow companies to enter requirements for various types of items.
a) Purchase order
b) Purchase requisitions
c) Invoice
d) General ledger
Q55 - What is EDI?

a) Electronic Data Interface
b) Exchange Data Interchange
c) Exchange Data Interface
d) Electronic Data Interchange
Q56 - _______ module supports the entire sales and purchase processes from start to finish.
a) Order management
b) Sales management
c) Purchase management
d) Master Data Management
Q57 - OLAP stands for:

a) On-Line Analytical Processing
b) On-Line Account Processing
c) On-Line Arithmetic Processing
d) On-Line Application Processing
Q58 - Data mining is the process of identifying valid, new, potentially useful, and ultimately
clear ______________ from databases.
a) Decision
b) Strategies
c) Information
d) Account
Q59 - EIS stands for:

a) Executive Interaction System
b) Executive Interconnecting Systems
c) Executive Information Systems
d) Executive Instrumental Systems
Q60 - DSS is quite _______________ and is available on request.

a) Structured
b) Non-structured
c) Semi-structured
d) Unstructured
Q61 - Which of the following is not an advantage of ERP systems?

a) Today’s ERP systems can cover a wide range of functions and integrate them into one
unified database.
b) Ability to customize an organization’s requirements
c) Ability to integrate business operations with accounting and financial modules.
d) Ability to generate more sales.
Q62 - Which of the following is not a feature of ERP system?

a) An Ideal ERP System satisfies all types of needs of an organization.
b) An ideal ERP does not integrate business operations with accounting and financial
modules.
c) An ideal ERP provides right data at right point of time to right users for their purpose.
d) An ideal ERP system is that system where a single database is used and stores all data
for various modules.
Q63 - Which of the following is a main characteristic of Integrated ERP System?

a) Separate data maintenance by each department
b) Centralised Database
c) No direct inter department communication
d) None of the above
MODULE 02 - E- COMMERCE
Q1 - Which of the following describe e-commerce ?

a) Doing business electronically
b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods
d) All of the above
Q2 -Which one of the following is not one of major types of e-commerce

a) C2B
b) B2C
c) B2B
d) C2C
Q3 - World Wide Web (WWW) was introduced in the year ……………………

a) 1994
b) 1996
c) 1992
d) 1990
Q4 - ………….is an early form of E-commerce

a) SCM
b) EDI
c) Both of these
d) None of these
Q5 - ………..is concerned with the buying and selling information, products and services over
computer communication networks
a) Commerce
b) E-Commerce
c) E-Business
d) None of these
Q6 - …………..is a set of standards developed in the 1960s to exchange business information and
to do electronic transactions
a) EDI
b) Protocols
c) TCP/IP
d) None of these
Q7 - Which among the following product is suitable for E-Commerce ?

a) Books
b) Vegetables
c) All of these
d) None of these
Q8 - ………allows a business application on the computer of one organization to communicate

directly with the business application on the computer of another company.
a) EDI
b) Protocols
c) Standards
d) Business applications
Q9 - lectronic Exchange of business documents in a standard format is known as ………………

a) E-commerce
b) E-Business
c) EDI
d) None of these
Q10 - …………. is essentially a business process that connects manufacturers, retailers,

customers and suppliers in the form of a chain to develop and deliver products.
a) E-commerce
b) EDI
c) Networking
d) SCM
Q11 - Which of the following is not a party of SCM ?

a) Suppliers
b) Manufacturers
c) Distributors
d) Customers
Q12 - ……………is any transaction, involving the transfer or rights to use goods and services,
which is initiated and or completed by using mobile access to computer mediated networks
with the help of an electronic device.
a) Mobile Commerce
b) e-commerce
c) both of these
d) none of these
Q13 - ………….in the e-commerce may be a holder of a payment card such as credit card or debit
card from an issuer
a) customer
b) issuer
c) Merchant
d) Acquirer
Q14 - Among the alternate models of B2B e-commerce,……is the best means to obtain a
competitive advantage in the Market place.
a) Process based
b) strategic relationship based
c) transaction based
d) any of these
Q15 - ……………is basically a concept of online marketing and distributing of products and
services over the internet
a) B2G
b) B2E
c) B2C
d) B2B
Q16 - ………………..e-commerce consists of the sale of products or services from a business to

the general public
a) B2G
b) B2E
c) B2B
d) B2C
Q17 -Which of the following is not suitable for a B2C transaction ?

a) clothes
b) flowers
c) airline reservation
d) none
Q18 - ………..e-commerce transaction has the advantage of eliminating middlemen.

a) B2G
b) B2C
c) B2B
d) B2E
Q19 - ……………….e-commerce involves the electronic facilitation of transaction between

customers through some third party.
a) C2C
b) B2E
c) B2B
d) B2G
Q20 - Which among the following is an example of C2C ?

a) e-Bay
b) Amazon.com
c) Rentalic.com
d) all of these
Q21 - Companies use………………………networks to automate employee related corporate

processes.
a) B2G
b) B2E
c) B2B
d) P2P
Q22 - Which among the following is not a B2E application

a) Online Insurance policy management
b) Online supply requests
c) Special employee offers
d) Locate application and tax forms
Q23 - ………………..streamlines the flow of information and self service capabilities through
automation
a) SCC
b) CRM
c) CRP
d) SCM
Q24 - …………is a global web in which millions of users are communicating with each other with
the help of computers.
a) Internet
b) WWW
c) both of these
d) None of these
Q25 -……………is an application layer protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia

information systems.
a) html
b) HTTP
c) Bothe of these
d) None of these
Q26 - English physicist Tim Berner’s Lee was famous for the establishment of …………………..in
1990.
a) internet
b) WWW
c) Intranet
d) none of these
Q27 - A company that manufacturers bicycles may use the internet to purchase tyres from their
suppliers. This is an example of-----------transaction.
a) B2G
b) B2E
c) B2B
d) P2P
Q28 - ………..sites act as an intermediary between someone wanting a product or service and
potential providers
a) brokering sites
b) Information sites
c) industry portals
d) none of these
Q29 - URL stands for:

a) Uniform Resource Locator
b) Universal Resource Locator
c) Universal Random Locator
d) Uniform Random Locator
Q30 -SET protocol on internet stands for:

a) Secure Electronic Transaction
b) Secure Internet Transaction
c) Secure Establish Transaction
d) Secure Electronic Transmission
Q31- Which of the following is an industry strategic factor that relates to whether new entrants
face a disadvantage when attempting to enter an industry?
a) barriers to entry
b) power of suppliers.
c) power of consumers.
d) industry value chain.
Q32 - Companies that have a network of physical stores as their primary retail channel, but also
have introduced online offerings are called ______.
a) Virtual merchants.
b) Bricks and clicks.
c) Catalog merchants.
d) Manufacturer-direct.
Q33 - Products are made to prior to orders received based on estimated demand under a
______.
a) supply-push model.
b) demand-push model.
c) supply-pull model.
d) demand-pull model.
Q34 - The major impact of Internet real estate sites is in ______.

a) completing property transactions online.
b) influencing offline decisions
c) reducing commissions.
d) e-mail marketing to consumers.
Q35 - Which of the following is the largest online travel service?

a) Travelocity.
b) Orbitz.
c) Priceline.
d) Expedia.
Q36 - Which of the following is not one of the top three online career service providers?
a) CareerBuilder.
b) Monster.
c) HotJobs.
d) USAJobs.
Q37 - The largest segment in the recruitment business is_____.
a) General job recruitment.
b) Executive search.
c) Specialized job placement services.
d) Managerial recruitment
Q38 - The top U.S online video site is ______.

a) MySpace.
b) YouTube.
c) AOL.
d) Google Video.
Q39 - Which of the following is an advantage of e-books?

a) reduced transaction costs for the user.
b) requirement of expensive devices to use.
c) portability compared to print books.
d) copyright management.
Q40 -Social networking sites primarily earn their revenue through ______.
a) advertising.
b) subscriptions.
c) donations.
d) service fees.
Q41 - Auction sites like eBay tend to use _______ pricing.

a) dynamic.
b) fixed.
c) trigger.
d) utilization.
Q42 - The marketplace for auction sites is best described as _____.

a) many sites attaining similar levels of profitability.
b) easy to enter due to minimal barriers.
c) populated mostly with small, thriving specialty sites.
d) dominated by a handful of sites with established networks.
Q43 - The most popular type of auction on eBay is the ______.
a) Dutch Internet auction.
b) Name Your Own Price auction.
c) English auction.
d) Professional service auction.
Q44 - Which of the following best describes predicted growth in C2C and B2C auction spending?
a) B2C spending will overtake C2C spending.
b) Both types of spending will increase
c) C2C spending will decrease while B2C increases.
d) Both types of spending will decline at similar rates.
Q45 - A security plan begins with a(n) is ______.

a) security policy.
b) risk assessment.
c) implementation plan.
d) security organization.
Q46 -The most prevalent online payment method is ______.

a) PayPal.
b) checks.
c) credit cards.
d) debit.
Q47 - After sending e-mail, which of the following activities is most common among Internet
users?
a) sending instant messages.
b) reading someone else's blog.
c) using a search engine to find information.
d) getting news.
Q48 - _______ influence the behavior of others through their personality, skills, or other
factors.
a) Opinion leaders.
b) Direct reference groups.
c) Indirect reference groups.
d) Lifestyle groups.
Q49 - All of the following are reasons more people don't shop online except ________.
a) lack of trust in online merchants.
b) lack of convenience.
c) inability to touch and feel the product.
d) fear of misuse of personal information.
Q50 - E-business can be defined as_______.

a) the uninhibited flow of information and goods on the Web.
b) the use of the Internet and the Web to transact business.
c) digitally enabled transactions and processes within an organization.
d) commercial transactions involving electronic goods.
Q51 - The fastest growing form of online advertising is _________.

a) banner ads.
b) pop-up ads
c) rich media/video ads.
d) pop-under ads.
Q52 - All of the following are types of social marketing except ______.
a) affiliate marketing.
b) blog advertising
c) social network advertising.
d) game advertising.
Q53 - . All of the following are metrics for e-mail campaigns except ______.
a) open rate.
b) delivery rate.
c) bounce-back rate.
d) cart conversion rate.
Q54 - As consumers become more accustomed to new online advertising formats, click-
through rates tend to_______.
a) remain constant.
b) decrease.
c) increase.
d) rapidly increase.
Q55 -The dimension of e-commerce that enables commerce across national boundaries is
called _______.
a) interactivity.
b) global reach.
c) richness.
d) ubiquity.
Q56 - E-commerce technologies have improved upon traditional commerce technologies

in______.
a) richness.
b) reach.
c) both richness and reach.
d) neither richness nor reach.
Q57 - Which one of the following is not one of the major types of e-commerce?
a) C2B.
b) B2C.
c) B2B.
d) C2C.
Q58 - Compared to B2C e-commerce, B2B e-commerce is ______.

a) of equal size.
b) slightly smaller.
c) slightly larger.
d) much larger.
Q59 - Which of the following is not considered to be one of the three phases of e-commerce?
a) Innovation.
b) Consolidation.
c) Preservation.
d) Reinvention.
Q60 - The idealistic market envisioned at the outset of the development of e-commerce is
called a ______.
a) Bailey market.
b) Baxter market.
c) Bergman market.
d) Bertrand market.
Q61 - The primary source of financing during the early years of e-commerce was _______.
a) bank loans.
b) large retail firms
c) venture capital funds.
d) initial public offerings.
Q62 - The type of firms that benefited the most during the consolidation period of e-commerce
were _______.
a) large, traditional firms.
b) first movers.
c) pure online companies.
d) ISPs
Q63 - A _________ is the set of planned activities designed to result in a profit in a marketplace.
a) business model.
b) profit model.
c) business plan.
d) revenue model.
Q64 - Which of the following is not a key element of a business model?

a) value proposition.
b) competitive advantage.
c) market strategy.
d) universal standards.
Q65 - The source of revenue in a subscription revenue model is _____.

a) Fees from advertisers in exchange for advertisements.
b) Fees for business referrals
c) Fees from subscribers in exchange for access to content or services.
d) Fees for enabling or execution a transaction.
Q66 - Which of the following is an example of a portal?

a) Amazon.
b) eBay.
c) Yahoo.
d) Face book
Q67 - All of the following are major B2C business models except ______.
a) content provider.
b) industry consortium.
c) transaction broker.
d) service provider.
Q68 - The _________ business model involves an independently owned vertical digital
marketplace for direct inputs.
a) e-distributor.
b) exchange.
c) e-procurement.
d) private industrial network.
Q69 - Compared to Internet users, the number of cell phone subscribers is _________.
a) about the same.
b) slightly fewer.
c) much fewer.
d) much larger.
Q70 - Industry structure is defined as _____.

a) the nature of the players in an industry and their relative bargaining power.
b) a set of plans for achieving long term returns on the capital invested in a business firm.
c) set of planned activities designed to result in a profit in a marketplace.
d) how a company's product or service fulfills the needs of customers.
Q71 - The area of actual or potential commercial value in which a company intends to operate
is a _______.
a) market space.
b) marketplace.
c) perfect market.
d) Bertrand market.
Q72 - Which of the following is not a horizontal portal?

a) AOL.
b) Yahoo.
c) Sailnet.
d) MSN/Windows Live.
Q73 - A perfect market is one in which _____.
a) One firm develops an advantage based on a factor of production that other firms cannot
purchase.
b) One participant in the market has more resources than the others.
c) there are no competitive advantages or asymmetries because all firms have equal
access to all the factors to production.
d) competition is at a minimum, as each niche market within an industry is served by the
company with the greatest competitive advantage.
Q74 - A strategy designed to compete in all markets around the globe is called a _____ strategy.
a) scope.
b) differentiation.
c) cost.
d) focus.
Q75 - Which protocol permits users to transfer files from the server to their client computer,
and vice versa?
a) HTTP.
b) SMTP.
c) IMAP.
d) FTP.
Q76 - Broadband is generally considered to be any communication technology allowing

streaming audio and video at or above _____.
a) 100 Kbps.
b) 56.6 Kbps.
c) 30 Kbps.
d) 10 Kbps
Q77 - Internet users account for about ________ of the world's population.
a) 7%
b) 17%
c) 27%
d) 47%
Q78 - Which of the following was the first commercial Web browser?
a) Mosaic.
b) Mozilla.
c) Netscape Navigator.
d) Internet Explorer
Q79 - A _________ describes the flow of information at your e-commerce site and the
infrastructure that will be used in the system.
a) system design.
b) logical design.
c) tactical design
d) physical design.
Q80 - The largest component of a Web site budget is_____.

a) system maintenance.
b) system development.
c) content design and development.
d) telecommunications.
Q81 - The dominant Web server software is ______.

a) Zeus.
b) Apache.
c) Microsoft IIS.
d) Google.
Q82 - E-commerce merchant server software includes all of the following except_______.
a) online e-mail.
b) online catalog.
c) online shopping cart.
d) online credit card processing.
Q83 - Which of the following is not a widely used midrange or high-end e-commerce suite?
a) Microsoft Commerce Server.
b) WebTrends Marketing Lab2.
c) IBM WebSphere Commerce.
d) Broadvision Commerce.
Q84 - The ability to change the product to better fit the needs of the customer is called
________.
a) customization.
b) personalization.
c) privacy.
d) accessibility.
Q85 - The most common type of Internet crime according to the IC3 is ______.
a) Credit card fraud.
b) Check fraud.
c) Non-delivery.
d) Auction fraud.
Q86 - Which of the following is not a dimension of e-commerce security provided by

encryption?
a) availability.
b) message integrity.
c) nonrepudiation.
d) confidentiality.
Q87 - The most widely used encryption standard is ______.

a) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
b) Data Encryption Standard (DES).
c) Universal Encryption Standard (UES).
d) Optimal Encryption Standard (OES).
Q88 - The most common form of securing channels is through ______.

a) S-HTTP.
b) VPNs.
c) SSL.
d) PPTP.
Q89 - The two main types of Internet-based B2B commerce are______.

a) Net marketplaces and private industrial networks.
b) EDI and collaborative commerce.
c) Net marketplaces and collaborative commerce.
d) EDI and private industrial networks.
Q90 - The type of Net marketplace characterized by indirect inputs and spot purchasing is called
an_______.
a) industry consortium.
b) independent exchange.
c) e-distributor.
d) e-procurement marketplace.
Q91 - The most common and easily understood type of Net marketplace is ______.
a) e-procurement marketplace.
b) e-distributors
c) industry consortia.
d) independent exchanges.
Q92 - _____________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms -
intranets, extranets and the Internet - to conduct a company's business.
a) E-marketing.
b) E-business
c) E-procurement
d) E-commerce.
Q93 - The E-commerce domain that involves business activity initiated by the consumer and
targeted to businesses is known as ______.
a) Business to Business (B2B)
b) Consumer to Consumer (C2C).
c) Consumer to Business (C2B).
d) Business to Consumer (B2C).
Q94 - A _________ is a B2B trading network that links a particular seller with its own trading
partners.
a) bitstream.
b) virtual network.
c) web community.
d) private trading network.
Q95 - ____________ marketing is the Internet version of word-of-mouth marketing.

a) Visceral.
b) Virile.
c) Viral.
d) Virtual.
MCQ
DIGITAL BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
Topic : Introduction Of DBM
MODULE 01 - DIGITAL BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
Q1 - ______ allows us to control electronic components

a) RETful API
b) RESTful API
c) HTTP
d) MQTT
Q2 - MQTT stands for _____________

a) MQ Telemetry Things
b) MQ Transport Telemetry
c) MQ Transport Things
d) MQ Telemetry Transport
Q3 - MQTT is _________ protocol.

a) Machine to Machine
b) Internet of Things
c) Machine to Machine and Internet of Things
d) Machine Things
Q4 - _________ specifies the function that will be called on an error event.

a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect
Q5 - ________ specifies the function that will be called when a successful re-connection is
completed.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect
Q6 - What is the java extension file in IoT?

a) .jar
b) .c
c) .exe
d) .py
Q7 - The message is sent to the input queue of a message flow that contains a _________
a) Subscriber
b) Server
c) Publication node
d) Client
Q8 -________ layer is the communication layer that connects the IoT devices with WAN.
a) Internet layer
b) Application layer
c) Sensor layer
d) Network layer
Q9 - Which category is used for business to consumer process?

a) Personal IoT
b) Group IoT
c) Community IoT
d) Industrial IoT
Q10 - Which category could be used by citizens to contribute to a smart city?

a) Personal IoT
b) Group IoT
c) Community IoT
d) Industrial IoT
Q11 - Which category is used in the context of connected cars?

a) Personal IoT
b) Group IoT
c) Community IoT
d) Industrial IoT
Q12 - Which category finds an increase in applications targeting health and fitness?
a) Personal IoT
b) Group IoT
c) Community IoT
d) Industrial IoT
Q13 - Ban gives ________
a) communication
b) storage
c) network connectivity
d) communication & storage
Q14 - BAN stands for ________

a) Body Area Network
b) Brain Area Network
c) Body Android Network
d) Brain Android Network
Q15 - Smart phones can be used in IoT setup with _________ application categories.
a) 2 Applications
b) 3 Applications
c) 4 Applications
d) 5 Applications
Q16 - _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed
network using virtualized resources.
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel
Q17 - ______ as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry
itself.
a) Model
b) Computing
c) Software
d) All of the mentioned
Q18 - Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?

a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
Q19 - Point out the wrong statement.
a) All applications the benefit from deployment in cloud
b) With cloud computing, you can start very small and become big very fast
c) Cloud computing is revolutionary, even if the technology it is built on is evolutionary
d) None of the mentioned
Q20 - Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?
a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
c) Virtualization
Q21 - ________ has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud computing.
a) Internet
b) Softwares
c) Web Service
Q22 - Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and
presenting them as a ________ resource.
a) real
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned
Q23 - Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?

a) Azure
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
Q24 - ________ refers to the location and management of the cloud’s infrastructure.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
Q25 - _____ model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four dimensional factors.
a) Cloud Square
b) Cloud Service
c) Cloud Cube
Q26 - How many types of dimensions exists in Cloud Cube Model?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Q27 - Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for the GSM
system in mobile computing?
a) Sim
b) HLR
c) ELR
d) VLR
Q28- Digital marketing is often referred to as___________.

a) online marketing
b) internet marketing
c) web marketing
d) All of the above
Q29 - What is not true about digital marketing?

a) Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that involves electronic
devices.
b) Digital marketing can be done online
c) Digital marketing cannot be done online
d) Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet marketing or web
marketing.
Q30 - How many main pillars of digital marketing?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
Q31 - This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated through the application of
electronic devices, appliances, tools, techniques, technologies and or systems:
a) Direct Marketing
b) interactive marketing
c) Electronic marketing
d) internet marketing
MODULE 05 : E-BUSINESS STRATEGY
Q1 - Much of the organizational value created by e-business is due to more effective use of
information. An analytical tool developed by Marchand and others can be used to illustrate
different ways in which information can create value for organisations. There are four methods
or axes used to analyse information but which does not fit in with Marchand's model?
a) Adding value
b) Accept costs
c) Manage risks
d) Create new reality
Q2 - Effective strategies link objectives and performance together, while prioritising objectives
can facilitate and communicate an e-business vision. As such, e-business objectives should be
SMART but within this acronym, what does R stand for?
a) Reliable
b) Responsible
c) Relevant
d) Representative
Q3 - As the definition of strategy is driven by the objectives and vision or mission, these will
need reviewed and significant key e-business decisions taken. One decision will include
examining market strategy, specifically a target marketing strategy of customers. Which of the
following would represent the evaluation and selection of customer segments?
a) Market share growth
b) Customer value improvement
c) Customer loyalty improvement
d) Customers who are brand loyal
Q4 - Once segments have been identified, organisations need to define how best to position
their online services relative to competitors according to four main variables: product quality,
service quality, and fulfillment time. Which variable is missing?
a) After sales service
b) Brand perception
c) Customer value
d) Price
Q5 - Another aspect of Internet strategy formulation closely related to product development

is the review of opportunities from new business and revenue models. Constantly reviewing
innovation in services to improve the quality of experience offered is also important to e-
businesses. So while there is a view that 'only the paranoid will survive', which of the following
options should managers avoid?
a) Wait-and-see option
b) Do-nothing option
c) Fast-follower option
d) None of the above
Q6 - Much can be learned from e-business failures as well as successes and Miller's (2003)
analysis of Internet company failures pointed the major overall mistake was to:
a) Corporate greed
b) Massively overestimate the speed at which the marketplace would adopt dot com
innovations
c) Offering free services
d) Over-ambition
Q7 - An assessment of MSE success factors was produced by Jeffcoate and others in 2002 and
they suggested critical success factors applicable to larger organisations. Which of the following
could be usefully applied?
a) Content, convenience, control, community, and commitment
b) Brand, price sensitivity, partnerships, and process improvement
c) Interaction and integration
d) All of the above are applicable
Q8 - When considering the alignment and impact of e-business strategies, an essential element
is to consider how the information system strategy supports change. It has been observed in a
study of major leading corporations that they distinguished between information and
technology and the contributions both made. Essentially, competitive advantage came from
how information is:
a) All of the below
b) Applied
c) Analysed
d) Stored
Q9 - What could be an implication for an organisation if an e-business strategy is not clearly

defined?
a) Clear direction of e-business strategy
b) Greater opportunities from evaluation of opportunities
c) Effective integration of e-business at a technical level
d) None of the above are applicable
Q10 - Before developing any type of strategy, a management team needs to agree the process
they will follow for generating and then implementing the strategy. A framework that gives a
logical sequence to follow to ensure inclusion of all key activities of an e-business strategic
development is generally known as:
a) A strategy process model
b) Multi-channel e-business strategy
c) An E-channel strategy
d) E- business stratification process
Q11 - Regarding resource analysis, this is primarily concerned with examining e-business
capability and includes examining the degree to which a company has the appropriate
technological and applications infrastructure in place. What more is required so that these
resources can work together to provide efficient business processes?
a) Strategic situation scanning and monitoring
b) Human and financial resources
c) Organisational analysis at micro level
d) Application portfolio analysis
Q12 - SWOT analysis can be used in many different areas of business and can help organisations
analyse their internal resources in terms of strengths and weaknesses then match them against
the external environment in terms of opportunities and threats. However, it may be of greatest
value when it is used to:
a) Minimise threats and maximize opportunities
b) Promote strengths and reduce weaknesses
c) Formulate future strategies in addition to analysing the current situation
d) None of the above - it is too vague to be of any real use
Q13 - External factors need to be assessed as an integral part of strategic analysis and this could
examine many areas including competitor (as against competitive) threats. A competitor
analysis can be conducted which involves a review of e-business services offered by existing
and new competitors and the adoption of these by their customers. Resource-advantage
mapping is one suggestion but why would this be useful?
a) To assess customer value provided relative to competitor
b) To identify where competitors are weak and exploit this
c) So that internal resource strengths can be assessed against external threats
d) Actually, all of the above have a part to play
Q14 - Defining a specific company vision for e-business helps to contextualise e-business in
relation to a company's strategic initiatives and its marketplace. In 2008, Jelassi and Enders
suggested that an e-business mission statement should include three of the following points
but which one is FALSE?
a) Values
b) Unique competencies
c) Cost
d) Business scope
Q15 - A business strategy is taken to define the future direction and actions of an organisation
or part of an organisation. What would the definition of the approach by which applications of
internal and external electronic communications can support and influence corporate strategy
be referred to as?
a) None of the below
b) E-business strategy
c) E-mission statement
d) Corporate strategy
MODULE 06 : MATERIALISING E-BUSINESS
Q1 - The ______________ section of the business plan should be written last.

a) financial statements
b) executive summary
c) appendices
Q2 -A________ is a document that thoroughly explains a business idea and how it will be
carried out.
a) marketing plan
b) financial analysis
c) business plan
Q3 -A business plan should be _______________ to convey critical information to potential

investors.
a) long and detailed
b) crisp and concise
c) complex and technical
Q4 - The _________ analysis addresses the roles of the community, region, nation, and world
in a business.
a) environmental
b) industry
c) business
Q5 - The cover page of a business plan should contain

a) key financial highlights.
b) contact information.
c) the funding request
Q6 - The quick verbal summary of a business plan is called a(n)

a) elevator pitch.
b) concept pitch.
c) business pitch.
Q7 - Dividing fixed costs by gross profit per unit yields

a) cost ratio.
b) breakeven units
c) profitability ratio.
Q8 - Writing a business plan can ensure that an entrepreneur

a) figures out how to make her business work.
b) meets his target revenue goals.
c) achieves her expense projections.
Q9 - Publicity is ______ promotion through media outlets.

a) free
b) paid
c) discounted
Q10 - Making the beliefs, values, and behavioral norms explicit and intentional builds the
__________ of an organization.
a) mission
b) culture
c) vision
Q11 - Which two of the following are drawbacks of business planning? Select two answers:
a) Reduces risk by providing a guide for the business
b) The plan will need to be constantly updated
c) Forecasts included in the process may be over optimistic
d) Allows the business to review its progress
Q12 - Which two of the following are advantages to a new business start-up of producing a
business plan? Select two answers: It will:
a) Guarantee business survival
b) Help test financial viability
c) Ensure sales targets are met
d) Not need to be referred to again by the business owner
e) Encourage the entrepreneur to think carefully about the business idea
Q13 -A prediction of the amount of money coming in from sales, how much those sales will
cost to make and the difference between the two figures would be found in which of the
following sections of the business plan?
a) Sources of finance
b) Marketing mix
c) Forecast revenue, costs and profit
d) Target market
Q14 - In which section of the business plan would you expect to find details about the price
the business intends to charge its customers?
a) Business aims and objectives
b) Target market
c) Marketing mix
d) Sources of finance
Q15 - Where the money to set up and run a business will come from is known as:
a) Predicted costs
b) A cash-flow forecast
c) Forecast revenue
Q16 - Which of the following sections of a business plan would provide an initial description
of the goods or services a new business will offer for sale to its customers?
a) Target market
b) The business idea
c) Business aims and objectives
d) Marketing mix
Q17 - An existing business may use a business plan to:

a) Focus on the business idea before start-up
b) Present to the suppliers of a private limited company
c) Secure finance from the bank for business expansion in the UK
d) Share with employees in the business
Q18 - A business plan is more likely to secure external funding if it is:

a) Very lengthy and vague
b) Has limited financial forecast information
c) Specific and concise
d) Has little evidence of market research being carried out
Q19 - In which section of the business plan would you expect to find detail about the capital
needed to start-up the business?
a) The business idea
b) Business aims and objectives
c) Forecast revenue, costs and profit
Q20 - The goals of a business are known as the business:
a) Idea
b) Plan
c) Aims and objectives
d) Location

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DIGITAL BUISNESS MANAGEMENT

MODULE 03 - DIGITAL BUSINESS SUPPORT SERVICES

Q1 - What does ERP stand for?

Q3 - The ____________________ and ____________________ manage the supplier relations,

Q4 - As processes become more automated and efficient,

Q5 - Identify the right answer.

Q6 - CRM yields employees with ______________ and improves personal___________

Q13 - The stakeholders within the enterprise must

Q14 - The ________ should be a replica of the organisation’s ________ processes.

Q17 - Identify the correct statement.

Q19 - ETO means

Q20 - As processes become more automated and efficient,

Q21 - _________ system maintains employees information in graphical format.

Q22 - ________ module keeps track of liquidation process.

Q24- In recent years, CRM has become a primary component of:

Q25 - Installing ERP Inventory systems is ____________ .

Q26 - RFP stands for ____________________ .

Q27 - Web ERP is suitable for ____________ .

Q28 - __________ maintains reports of warehouse supplies.

Q30 - Which of the following describes an ERP system?

Q31 - What is at the heart of any ERP system?

Q32 - What must a system do to qualify as a true ERP solution?

Q33 - Which of the following is a reason for ERPs explosive growth?

Q36 - Who are the primary users of SCM systems?

Q37 - What are the primary business benefits of an ERP system?

Q38 - Who are the primary users of ERP systems?

Q47 - . ERP system is built on a ____________ utilising a common computing platform

Q48 - Which of the following is an example for commercial ERP

Q49 - NPV is the abbreviation of

Q53 - ERP is restricted to being a _________operations system in the country.

Q55 - What is EDI?

Q57 - OLAP stands for:

Q59 - EIS stands for:

Q60 - DSS is quite _______________ and is available on request.

Q61 - Which of the following is not an advantage of ERP systems?

Q62 - Which of the following is not a feature of ERP system?

Q63 - Which of the following is a main characteristic of Integrated ERP System?

Q1 - Which of the following describe e-commerce ?

Q2 -Which one of the following is not one of major types of e-commerce

Q3 - World Wide Web (WWW) was introduced in the year ……………………

Q4 - ………….is an early form of E-commerce

Q7 - Which among the following product is suitable for E-Commerce ?

Q8 - ………allows a business application on the computer of one organization to communicate

Q9 - lectronic Exchange of business documents in a standard format is known as ………………

Q10 - …………. is essentially a business process that connects manufacturers, retailers,

Q11 - Which of the following is not a party of SCM ?

Q16 - ………………..e-commerce consists of the sale of products or services from a business to

Q17 -Which of the following is not suitable for a B2C transaction ?

Q18 - ………..e-commerce transaction has the advantage of eliminating middlemen.

Q19 - ……………….e-commerce involves the electronic facilitation of transaction between

Q20 - Which among the following is an example of C2C ?

Q21 - Companies use………………………networks to automate employee related corporate

Q22 - Which among the following is not a B2E application

Q25 -……………is an application layer protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia

Q29 - URL stands for:

Q30 -SET protocol on internet stands for:

Q34 - The major impact of Internet real estate sites is in ______.

Q35 - Which of the following is the largest online travel service?

Q38 - The top U.S online video site is ______.

Q39 - Which of the following is an advantage of e-books?

Q41 - Auction sites like eBay tend to use _______ pricing.

Q42 - The marketplace for auction sites is best described as _____.

Q45 - A security plan begins with a(n) is ______.

Q3 - The and manage the supplier relations,

Q6 - CRM yields employees with ____ and improves personal_

Q14 - The should be a replica of the organisation’s processes.