\.. ... ' .

Unit 1: 2011
UNI\ I - 201 I
-2-

I. Which of the following BEST describes 3. Tri.glycerides are excellent sources of en-
ergy for the body because of their
the properties of water?

Latent Heat Specific Surface I. large size

Heat Tension I!. ability to insulate
of
Ill. large number ofC-C bonds
Vaporization Capacity
IV. insolubility in water
(A) x x ..J
(A) I and III only
(B} ..J ..J x (B) I and IV only
(C) x ..J x (C) II and III only
(D) II and IV only
(D) ..J ..J ..J

CJ high ~low Item 4 refers to the following information.

Samples of a solution containing carbohy-

Item 2 refers to the diagram below which drates are treated as follows.
shows a ring structure of glucose.
Sample Treatment Result
CH 1 0H
I. Benedict's Reagent No colour
change

H H 2. HCI acid (warm); Brick~red

Na, co,. precipitate
Benedict's Reagent

3. Amylase added, Brick-red

then Benedict's precipitate
H OH solution

2. Which of the following indicates the form

of glucose and the molecule in which it is
present? 4. Which of the following carbohydrates are
MOST likely present in the solution?
Form of Where
glucose present (A) Sucrose and starch
(A) a Cellulose (B) Maltose and starch
(C) Glucose, sucrose, glycogen
(B) a Starch (D) Glucose, maltose, glycogen

(C) /3 Cellulose

(D) /3 Starch

' .
~.........
 -3-

~ refers to the following diagram of a protein stucture.

Amino

N
H
end H"'- I+
I C
H
C
O
II
N I C
R
11
C
I
H
II H II
N
H
I c
o
II
c
R..
Carboxyl
end
H 0
t
H/ "'-c/ "'-N/J"'-c/ "'-c/ "'-N/j"'-c/ "'-c/ "'-N/J"'-c-~
I IHll I IHll I IHll
R1 H 0 R3 H O R, H O

5. During breakdown (hydrolysis) of the protein structure shown above, which of the following
types of bonds is broken?

(A) Double
(B) Peptide
(C) Hydrogen
(0) Hydrophobic

Item 6 refers to the structures below which show two isomers of glucose.

I II

CH 2 0H H

©
0
H
OH H
OH OH
H OH

6. Which of the following statements is NOT true about both isomers?

(A) Both are hexose sugars with the same chemical formula.
(B) Both are soluble in water and can exist in an open chain form.
(C) Both form polysaccharides which differ in their properties.
(D) Both have side groups attached to the first carbon in identical positions.
 -4-

Items 7 - 8 refer to the diagram below rep- 10. Which of the following are characteristics
resenting the structure of an animal cell as of prokaryotic cells?
seen under an electron microscope.
x I. DNA is not associated with histone
protein.

..... -. ......• . .. IL
III.
Ribosomes are small (70 S type).
Cellulose cell wall is present.
•
•••
•• IV. Cells are typically 5 - 10 µmin size.
0

• (A) I and II only

•
..• •• • .. • (B) III and IV only
0 (C) I, II and IV only
•• •• (D) I, II, III and IV

~·o
@t:!JJJ }j) 11. Which of the following correctly describes
the importance ofcholesterol in a cell mem-
7. The structure labelled X is an important brane?
site for the
(A) It interacts with fatty acid tails to
exclude water.
(A) synthesis of lipids (B) It forms channels in the membrane
(B) synthesis of proteins facilitatingentryandexitofpolar
(C) packaging and secretion of protein molecules.
hormones (C) It has branching carbohydrate
(D) breakdown of ingested food parti- chains which act as identity
cles markers.
(D) It enhances the flexibility and
8. Which ofthe followingstructures,present in mechanical stability of the
this cell, would NOT be seen in a bacterial membrane.
cell?

(A) Ribosomes 12. Which of the following events does NOT

(B) Cytoplasm involve the movement of ions/chemicals
(C) Cell membrane across cell membranes?
(D) Nuclear membrane
(A) Cell - cell recognition
9. In microscopy, the term 'resolution' is used (B) Antigen-antibody interaction
to describe the (C) Chemical stimulation at a synapse
(D) Active transport by enzyrnic pumps
(A) magnification by the eye-piece lens
(B) magnification by the objective lens
(C) degree to which the specimen under
observation is magnified
(D) ability of the microscope to clearly
clistinauish between points on

I-
the specimen
 -5-

Item 13 refers to the graph below which shows the effect of temperature on the.process of photo-
synthesis.

Rate of
photosynthesis

R
/

Temperature (°C)

13. What can be deduced from the infonnation in the graph above?

(A) At Q, peptide bonds begin to break.

(B) At R, the substrate is completely denatured.
(C) At Q, the kinetic energy of the enzyme and substrate is at its highest.
(D) At P, no bonds are fonned between the enzyme and substrate.

Item 14 refers to the diagram below which shows a plasma membrane.

••••••••
High concentration
•••••• •
••••• •

AAA~Jlf\A AA Concentration gradient

~ ~ ~~ ()~ ~ ~ Low concentration

14. The diagram above BEST demonstrates

(A) diffusion
(B) exocytosis
(C) active transport
(D) " facilitated diffusion
 -6-

Item 15 refers to the diagram below which 17. Which of the following gives the correct
shows the effect of increasing substrate sequence of events in the r.eplication of
concentration on the rate of an enzyme- DNA?
catalysed reaction.
I. Bonds between complementary
bases break.
Reaction 11. Bonds between complementary
rate
bases form.
lll. Opposite strands separate.
IV. Free nucleotides pair with comple-
mentary nucleotides on each
strand.

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) I, IV, III, II
Substrate concentration (C) III, I, IV, II
(D) IV, I, III, II
15. Which of.the labelled curves BEST repre-
sents the presel\Ce of a competitive inhibi-
tor?
Item 18 refers to the diagram below show-
(A) I ing part of a DNA molecule.
(B) II S' 3'
(C) III c G
(D) rv A T
A T

16. Which of the following statements are true T A

for chromatin but NOT for chromosomes? T A

G c
I. Contain DNA A T
II. Contain protein
A T
III. Compact, tightly coiled structures
IV. Loosely coiled, long threads c G
c
(A) I and II only c
(B) I, II, and III only
c G
S'
(C) I, II and IV only 3'
(D) II, III and IV only

18. Which of the following correctly identifies

the sequence of bases of the mRNA strand
produced during transcription?

(A) GTT AAC TTG GGG

(B) GUU AAC UUG GGG
(C) CAA UUG AAC CCC
(0) CAA TrG AAC CCC
 -7-

19. One role of transfer RNA in protein syn- Item 22 refers to the diagram below showing
thesis is to
a pair of homologous chromosomes during
Prophase I of meiosis.
(A) deliver amino acids to ribosomes
(8) carry protein-building instructions
a
from DNAinto the cytoplasm
A
(C) act as a supporting framework for
polypeptide chains
(D) terminate the elongation of the
polypeptide chain

c
20. Which two of the following features are
evident during mitosis? 22. Which of the following is the genotype of
one of the recombinams?
I. Two daughter nuclei containing
identical sets of chromosomes.
II. Homologous chromosomes come (A) ABC
together and crossing over occurs. (8) aBc
III. Four daughter nuclei containing (C) ABc
half the number of chromosomes. (D) AbC
IV. Homologous chromosomes do not
associate.
23. When a cross was made between 11 pure-
(A) I and III breeding pea plant with green, round seeds
(B) I and JV and a purebreeding plant with yellow,
(C) II and III wrinkled seeds, all of the F, progeny had
(D) yellow round seeds.
Jll and IV

Which of the following ratios shows the

result of a test cross of the F, generation?
21. Which of the following is NOT character-
istic of meiosis?
Yellow Yellow Green Green
(A) Two daughter nuclei containing Round Wrinkled Round Wrinkled
identical sets of chromosomes. (A) I I 1 I
(B) Homologous chromosomes come
together and crossing over occurs. (8) 3 I 3 I
(C) ·. Four daughter nuclei containing (C) 3 3 I I !
half the number of chromosomes. i I'
(D) Homologous chromosomes move (0) 9 j 3 I
apart during anaphase. I
 -8-

24. A null hypothesis is BEST described as a 27. Meiosis contributes to heritable variation
hypothesis which as a result of

(AJ is not testable I. random fusion of gametes during

(B) can be tested only by observations fertilisation
(C) states that the difference between II. independent assortment
the items under investigation is Ill. crossing over
due to chance JV. homologous pairing of chromo-
(DJ states that there is no differ- somes
ence between the observed and
expected data (A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
Item 25 refers to the following stages used (D) II, III and IV only
in the process of genetic engineering.

28. The phenotype of an organism is BEST

Potential difference applied.
explained as those visible characteristics
2 Cut by restriction enzymes. that
3 DNA extracted from cell.
4 Fragments travel to anode. (A) provide a description of the overall
5 32P probe added. appearance of the organism
6 Fragments placed in well at end of (B) are due to the impact of the envi-
gel. ronment in which the organism
7 Autoradiograph. lives
(C) reflect the genetic make-up of the
25. Which of the following identifies the cor- organism
rect sequence of the process? (D) reflect the interaction of the genetic
make-up and the environment of
(AJ 2 3 5 4 6 7 the organism
(BJ 3 2 5 6 1 4 7
(CJ 4 3 6 7 2 1 5
(D) 5 6 1 3 4 7 2 29. Both Pinus radiata and Pinus attenuata
occupy the same habitat. However, Pinus
radiata flowers in February while Pinus
26. The function of DNA ligase in genetic attenuata flowers in April. What type of
engineering is to isolating mechanism does this exemplify?

(A) catalyse the formation of cDNA (A) Seasonal

frommRNA (B) Ecological
(BJ join plasmid DNA and inserted (CJ Mechanical
DNA (D) Behavioural
(CJ ..fragment the DNA extracted
from the cells
(D) cause the cloning of recombinant
DNA

.·
 -9-

Item 30 refers to the following diagram 32. The following are advantages of two types
showing one stage of mitotic cell division. of pollination.

l. No need for another plant

II. Increases vigour
Ill. Widens gene pool
IV. Does not lose advantageous pheno-
types

Which of the above are specific to cross pol-

lination?

(A) land II only

30. From the position and shape of the chro- (B) I and IV only
mo~omes, what stage of mitosis has been (C) II and lII only
reached? (D) !, II, III and IV

(A) Early telophase

(B) Mid-metaphase
(C) Mid-prophase 33. Which of the following options correctly
(D) Early anaphase describes the chromosome number in the
named plant structures?

Item 31 refers to the following diagram Polar Pollen A Cell in A Cell in the
which shows the stages ofsperrnatogenesis Nucleus Tube the Testa Pericarp
in a mammal. Nucleus
spermatogonium ---@ (A) n n n 2n
.f---E
(B) n n 2n 2n
(C) 2n n 2n n
(D) 2n 2n 2n 2n

31. Which of the following accurately lists the

type of cell division occuring at E, F and G?

E F G

(A) Mitosis Mitosis Meiosis I

(8) Mitosis Meiosis I Meiosis ll
(C) Meiosis I Mitosis Meiosis JI
(0) Meiosis I Meiosis II Mitosis
 - I0 -

Item 34 refers to the diagram below show- 36. When a pollen grain alights on the stigma
ing the transverse section of an anther. and starts to grow, the first action is that

(A) a double fertilisation takes place

(B) the zygote divides to form a row of
0 0
cells

0
0
. (C) a male nucleus fuses with the
endosperm nucleus
•
••
y (D) the generative nucleus divides to
form two male gametes

37. In plants the ovary is BEST described as

the

\ (A) tip of a carpel

(B) basic unit of the gynoecium
34. The structure labelled Y is the
(C) swollen base of a single carpel
(D) female reproductive part of the
(A) tapetum. flower
(B) stomium
(C) epidermis
(D) pollen mother cell
38. Which of the following measurements is
closest to the diameter of a mature human
ovum?
35. In some plants the androecium matures before
the gynoecium. Such plants are described as
(A) 10 nm
(A) dioecious (B) 10 µm
(B) monoecious (C) 10 mm
(C) protandrous (D) 10 cm
(D) protogynous
 - 11 -
Item 39 refers to the diagtarnbelowshowing the stages-in the devefopment of a follicle_it1_ a human
ovary.

@)0-®-©-~
~ Secondary
r.r~ oocyte

One large fluid-filled . Ruptured

space containing ~ Graafian follicle
growth factors Secondary oocyte
Zona pellucid• released (ovulation)
(jelly-like layer Follicle cells
not made of cells)

39. Which of the following is the correct description of events occuring at X?

State of Development Ovarian Hormones Corpus Luteum I

of the Egg
I

(A) At first meiotic division Progesterone low, oestrogen high Undeveloped

(B) At first meiotic division Progesterone high, oestrogen low Developing
(C) At second meiotic division Progesterone low, oestrogen high Undeveloped
(D) At second meiotic division Progesterone high, oestrogen low Developing

Item 40 refers to the following diagram which sho'ws the structure of the secondary oocyte.

---P

40. Which of the following correctly identifies the structures labelled P and Q?

p Q

(A) Lipid droplet Corona radiata

(B) First polar body Corona radiata
(C) Lipid droplet Zona pellucida
(D) First polar body Zona pell ucida
 - 12 -

41. How does a secondary oocyte differ from Item 43 refers to the diagram below which
the ovum? shows the stages of spermatogenesis that
are visible in the transverse section of a
(A) The nucleus is haploid in the seminiferous tubule.
secondary oocyte and diploid in I
the ovum.
(B) The nucleus is diploid in the
secondary oocyte and haploid in
the ovum.
(C) There is one more polar body in the
secondary oocyte.
(D) There is one more polar body in the
ovum.

42. During the development of a foetus in the

womb, the wall of the uterus consists of a
layer of muscle and the
N

(A) chorionic villi 43. Follicle-stimulating hormone acts directly

(B) endometrium on the cells labelled
(C) chorion
(D) placenta (A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV

Item 44 refers to the following diagram which shows the staa;es in the development of one follicle in
a human ovary.

(!)
44. In which of the following are the stages in the correct order?

(A) Primary follicle Graafian follicle Secondary oocyte

(B) Primary oocyte Secondary oocyte Corpua lutoum
(C) Primary oocyte Corpus luteum Secondary oocyte
(D) Primary follicle Corpus luteum Graafian follicle
 - 13 -
Item 45 refers to the diagram b~};;,-;hi.ch shows a longit;dinal sectl~~ through ;n·ovule of~;, an~1~~-.
sperm.

45. The role of Y is to

(A) fuse with a male nucleus to form the endosperm

(B) fuse with a male nucleus to form the cotyledon
(C) fuse with a male nucleus to form the embryo
(D) support the position of the ovum and disintegrate after fertilisation

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

02107010/CAPE 201 I