9/5/2020 PG MOCK TEST(CEE Pattern) 5 Sep 2020

PG MOCK TEST(CEE Pattern) 5 Sep 2020

Welcome to the Mock Test for PG-entrance exam in dentistry organized by the team of "Target MDS
series" in association with instagram page "Target Discussion", Ecosathi Nepal, Samikshya
Publication and Travel dentistry Nepal.

Please read the instructions carefully

1. Choose the best option.

2. Please read the questions and go through all the options before choosing the answer.
3. All the questions have been taken from standard references by concerned faculties.
4. There are total 200 questions and you will get 3 hours to submit your answers.
5. Since you have already clicked the link, your time has already started and you cannot pause the
time.
6. There is no automatic submission. you have to submit it before the three hour mark.
7. This test is the evaluation of yourself. Please do not use any other source of information.
8. Please make sure that the internet connection will be uninterrupted for the next 180 minutes.

We wish you All the Best.

TEAM TARGET MCQS FOR DENTAL SCIENCE

1 point
1. Which of the following tissue can undergo both hyperplasia and hypertrophy ?

Skeletal Muscle

Cardiac muscle

Prostate

Uterus

1 point
2. HHV – 8 is associated with

Burkitt Lymphoma

Kaposi Sarcoma

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma of cervix

1 point
3. Which of the following fungal infection is most common with patients with AIDS ?
Time remaining: 02:59
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Cryptococcus neoformans

Toxoplasma gondii

Candida albicans

Histoplasma Capsulatum

1 point
4. The translocation of 9 to 22 chromosome causes CML whereas translocation
from chromosome 8 to 14 causes

Burkitt lymphoma

AML

Ewing sarcoma

Prostatic adenocarcinoma

1 point
5. Portal for the entry of polio virus is mainly

Gastrointestinal tract

Lungs

Nasal mucosa

Skin

1 point
6. Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs:

Is more painful

Produces faster response

Is unsuitable for depot preparations

Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

1 point
7. Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation produces the following effects
except:

Sweating

Rise in blood pressure

Time remaining: 02:59
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Bradycardia

Urination

1 point
8. A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness,
fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation,
watering from nose and eyes. His pulse is 120/min, low volume, BP 90/60 mm Hg,
respiration shallow, pupil constricted, muscles flabby with occasional fasciculations.
Which is the most likely type of poisoning:

Belladonna

Barbiturate

Anticholinesterase

Dicophane (DDT)

1 point
9. Select the fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator:

Ipratropium bromide

Formoterol

Salbutamol

Salmeterol

1 point
10. The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is:

Omeprazole

Cimetidine

Pirenzepine

Misoprostol

1 point
11. Most common type of cementoenamel junction in deciduous teeth is

Enamel overlapping cementum

Cementum overlapping enamel

Time remaining: 02:59
Edge to edge
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Edge to edge
Gap junction

1 point
12. The major type of collagen fiber found in periodontal ligament is

Type I

Type III

Type IV

Type VII

1 point
13. Which of the papilla found in tongue is largest of all ?

Filliform

Fungiform

Foliate

Circumvallate

1 point
14. All of the following premolars have buccal and lingual cusp equal in size EXCEPT
?

Maxillary First Premolar

Maxillary Second Premolar

Mandibular First Premolar

Mandibular Second Premolar

1 point
15. Identify the following structure.

Time remaining: 02:59

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A – Dentinal caries, B – Secondary dentin

A – Dentinal Caries, B – Tertiary Dentin

A – Dead tracts, B – Sclerotic dentin

A – Dead tracts, B – Tertiary dentin

1 point
16. The rough surface of implants is:

Due to fabrication errors

Not desirable for osseointegration

Important to remove at the neck so that gingival plaque does not attach

Desirable for improved osseointegration

1 point
17. Implant survival

Is synonymous with implant success

Means that an implant is still present in the mouth after a period of time

Means that an implant is present and clinically satisfactory after a period of time

Means that the implant required some form of treatment to avoid failure
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1 point
18. Distal cantilevers on implant prostheses are

Always possible, with no limitations

To be avoided whenever possible and limited to short spans

Always detrimental and impossible to implement with implant restorations

Possible when a removable full denture opposes the implant prosthesis

1 point
19. True about osseodensification is all of the following EXCEPT ?

Compaction of the artificial bone graft material in the implant site

Other name is Compaction Autografting

Healing time of implant is significantly reduced

Enhancement of the primary stability

1 point
20. Not a difference between implant and the natural teeth

Periodontal ligament

Passive teeth eruption

Gingival sulcus

Tendency to migrate mesially

1 point
21. As amalgam wears, which of the following area is usually the first area to show
the sign of failure ?

Occlusal Surface

Marginal ridge

Restored cusp tip

Amalgam restorative margin

1 point
22. Smart GIC was introduced by

Walia

Zahnfabrik Time remaining: 02:59

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Davidson

Ariston

1 point
23. Crater like depression formed in the cast of which impression?

Polysulfide

Condensation silicones

Polyvinyl siloxanes

Polyether

1 point
24. Which of the following is the function of boric oxide flux in soldering process ?

It prevents the formation of copper oxide

It prevents the formation of chromium oxide or dissolves chromic oxide

It prevents the flow of material in undesirable area

Increases the strength of solder

1 point
25. Which of the following laser system releases single wavelength of energy ?

Quartz Tungsten

Plasma Arc

LED

Argon laser

1 point
26. The lower denture is unstable in mouth due to

Low denture bearing area

Muscle attachments

Tongue movements

Lack of proper extension of denture flange

Time remaining:
A complete denture wearing patient complains02:59
that he has pain in his throat while 1 point

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27.
swallowing. This indicates

Overextended PPS

Overextended lingual flange

Overextended lingual flange in retromylohyoid region

Thick PPSA

1 point
28. Immediate dentures are scheduled for reline at

1 months and 3 months

4 months and 6 months

5 months and 10 months

1 year and 2 year

1 point
29. Best treatment option for completely edentulous patient with vesiculoerosive/
vesiculobullar disease is:

Conventional Complete denture

Fixed osseointegrated prosthesis/ Implant retained complete denture

CD cannot be delivered

Flexible complete denture

1 point
30. The biggest disadvantage of silicon material as a maxillofacial prosthesis is

It loses its original color

It loses its elasticity over the time

They corrode fast

The processing of the material is difficult

1 point
31. The tip of retentive arm of direct retainer should end

Gradually

Abruptly Time remaining: 02:59

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Always contact the gingival surface

Should always be made of cast metal

1 point
32. Most common failure of rest in RPD is:

Improper rest seat preparation

Contaminated metal

Distorted occlusal surface

Excessive occlusal forces

1 point
33. 3 weeks after insertion of distal extension partial denture, the patient reports to
the dental clinic with complaint of the sensitivity to chewing pressure. The most
probable reason would be

Improper occlusion

Abrasion of tooth by clasp

Wearing of the cement base

Passive retentive arm

1 point
34. The anterior border of palatal major connector should follow

The valleys between the rugae

The crest of prominent rugae

Both the crest and valleys

None of the above

1 point
35. All of the following statements are true about connector in FPD EXCEPT?

Connectors must be sufficiently large to prevent distortion.

The tissue surface of connectors is curved mesiodistally.

In a buccolingual cross section, most connectors are somewhat elliptical.

The connectors should occupy the normal anatomic interproximal contact areas.
Time remaining: 02:59
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1 point
36. How long prior to impression making should the retraction cord be left in the
place ( gingival sulcus )

1 minutes

2 minutes

5 minutes

8 minutes

1 point
37. The success of removable die system depends upon

Abrasion resistance of the die material

Length of the dowel pin protruding out of the master cast

Time involved in the die construction

Precise relocation of the die material in the cast

1 point
38. The absolute maximum number of posterior teeth, which can be safely replaced
with a fixed bridge is:

One

Two

Three

Four

1 point
39. For the metal-ceramic restoration, the minimum thickness of metal in the metal
framework that is sufficiently thick to prevent distortion during firing is

0.2mm

0.3mm

0.4mm

0.5mm

Time
The sprue should be attached to theremaining: 02:59
wax pattern at an angle of 1 point

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40.
30 degree

45 degree

60 degree

90 degree

1 point
41. Speed at which electrons travel in gas tube once released from cathode filament
is dependent on:

Potential difference between electrodes

Angle between filament and anodic target

Amount of kilovoltage applied to the circuit

Intensity of current applied to target

1 point
42. The purpose of aluminium filters in the path of X-ray beam is to:

Increase contrast

Reduce patient exposure

Reduce film density

Reduce film details

1 point
43. The residual biologic damage that remains following an exposure to radiation is
called.

Direct effect

Indirect effect

Cumulative effect

Tolerance

1 point
44. Least radio-sensitive cells

Bone cells, muscle, nerve

Nerve, muscle, RBC

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WBC, fibroblast, osteoblast

Nerve, muscle, cartilage

1 point
45. Bisecting angle technique is based upon:

ALARA principle

ALARA principle

Rule of Isometry

Convergence

1 point
46. Cleft lip and Palate can be detected at first using Ultrasound technology during??

10 th week of gestation

16 th week of gestation

24 th week of gestation

5 th week of gestation

1 point
47. Premaxilla is derived from:

Maxillary protuberances

Palatine bones

Frontonasal process

Medial process

1 point
48. Eruption of permanent maxillary second molar before maxillary second premolar:

Unusual and undesirable

Unusual and desirable

Unusual but desirable

Unusual but undesirable

Time
Orthodontic problem associated remaining:
with proximal02:59
caries: 1 point

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49.
Loss of arch length

Loss of tooth

Gaining of arch length

Loss of transverse arch width

1 point
50. Acromegaly is associated with:

Class I malocclusion

Class I crossbite

Class II malocclusion

Class III malocclusion

1 point
51. The major aetiological factor for Class II malocclusion

Sleeping habits

Thumb sucking

Growth discrepancy

Tooth-jaw size discrepancy

1 point
52. Hyperactive mentalis muscle is a prominent feature of :

Clss I

Class II Div 1

Class II Div 2

Class III

1 point
53. The effect of enlarged adenoids on the maxillary growth is by (or) Mouth
breathing habit usually causes:

Narrowing of maxilla

Widening of maxilla

Palatal plane tipped upwards at PNSremaining: 02:59

Time
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Palate descends down

1 point
54. Study models are used:

As references in orthodontics

To show shape, size and position of teeth.

As an aid in treatment planning

All of the above.

1 point
55. Which of the following analysis helps in determining the disproportion in the size
between maxillary and mandibular teeth?

Pont’s analysis

Bolton’s analysis

Peck and peck analysis

Carey’s analysis

1 point
56. Difference between the size of the cranium and the cephalogram is :

No difference

5% reduction

5% enlargement

10% enlargement

1 point
57. Which of the following cephalometric analyses reveal the severity of antero-
posterior jaw dysplasia?

Down’s analysis

Steiner analysis

Wits analysis

All of the above

Time remaining: 02:59

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58. 1 point
Tooth movement easily accomplished by removable appliance is:

Tipping

Bodily

Torquing

Expansion

1 point
59. If during an application of an orthodontic force, the level slowly declines to zero
between activations, then the force is classified as:

Continuous force

Interrupted force

Intermittent force

Differential force

1 point
60. A 7 year old child has normal occlusion except for lingually erupting maxillary
central incisor. He should be treated with:

Cross bite elastic

Tongue blade therapy

Maxillary acrylic inclined plane

Myofunctional therapy

1 point
61. Toluidine blue stain is used to distinguish between:

Pemphigus and Lichen planus

Leukoplakia and Lichen planus

Erythroplakia and Candidiasis

Candidiasis and Leukoplakia

1 point
62. A patient is diagnosed of oral cancer of stage T3N2MO , treatment is:

Surgery Time remaining: 02:59

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Surgery + radiotherapy

Chemotherapy alone

Surgery + chemotherapy

1 point
63. Of the following salivary gland lesions, which is usually associated with the sicca
syndrome?

Mixed tumor

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Benign lymphoepithelial lesion

1 point
64. Saliva is increased by:

Cholinergic drugs

Anticholinergic drugs

Adrenergic drugs

None of the above

1 point
65. Coxsackie virus causes

Infectious mononucleosis and herpes labialis

Infectious mononucleosis and Hand, foot and mouth disease

Herpangina and Hand, foot and mouth disease

Herpes labialis and Herpes zoster

1 point
66. Gingival involvement is an unusual finding in patients with which of the following
conditions.:

Pemphigoid

Primary herpes

Recurrent aphthae
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Pyogenic granuloma

1 point
67. Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal
neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated?

Clinical observation only

Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent
intervals during therapy.

No monitoring

Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise.

1 point
68. Facial paralysis resulting in drooping of a corner of the mouth and excess
lacrimation is characteristic of which of the following condition.

Bell's palsy

Tic douloureux

Menier's disease

Steven-Johnson's syndrome

1 point
69. The Drug of choice in facial nerve palsy is:

Vitamin B12

Vitamin A

Corticosteroids

Anti-inflammatory drugs

1 point
70. If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:

Red

Yellow

White

Blue
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1 point
71. Edinger-Westphal nucleus is a:

Parasympathetic preganglionic nucleus

Parasympathetic postganglionic nucleus

Sympathetic preganglionic nucleus

Sympathetic postganglionic nucleus

1 point
72. Which passageway is accessed through the inferior meatus ?

Ostium of maxillary sinus

Frontonasal duct

Opening of ethmoid sinus

Nasolacrimal duct

1 point
73. Which bone doesnot contribute to the outer margin of the orbital rim ?

Maxilla

Sphenoid

Zygomatic

Frontal

1 point
74. The arterial supply of trachea is by:

Bronchial artery

Tracheal artery

Inferior thyroid artery

Superior thyroid artery

1 point
75. Which of the following is not involved in formation of thoracic diaphragm ?

Pericardioperitoneal fluid

Body wall

Somatic pleuriperitoneum Time remaining: 02:59

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Central tendon

1 point
76. Which of the following group of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins ?

Proteases

Proteosomes

Templates

Chaperons

1 point
77. The most important plasma buffer is:

Bicarbonate carbonic acid

Hemoglobinate hemoglobin

Phosphate buffer

Protein buffer

1 point
78. The most common pathway for absorption of glucose by plasma membrane is:

Diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Primary active transport

Secondary active transport

1 point
79. Most of the dietary non-haem iron is present in:

Ferric form

Ferrous form

Haemosiderin

Apoferritin

1 point
80. A nerve is absolutely refractory during:
Time remaining: 02:59
Depolarization
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epo a at o
After depolarization

Hyperpolarization

Firing level only

1 point
81. Collagen fibres are degraded by

Osteoclasts

cementoclasts

fibroclasts

Fibroblasts

1 point
82. The main function of gingiva is:

Attaching the tooth to alveolar bone

Protection of underlying tissues

Providing blood supply to teeth

Taking the brunt of mastication

1 point
83. Standard probing force used during periodontal examination should be?

7.5 N

2.5 N

75 g

25 g

1 point
84. The period of exacerbation of periodontal pocket starts with the build-up of

Attached plaque

Unattached plaque

Calculus formation

The formation of the zone of semi destroyed connective tissue

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85. Excessive occlusal forces within the adaptive capacity of the healthy periodontal 1 point

ligament causes

Primary TFO

Secondary TFO

Acute TFO

Widening of PDL space

1 point
86. A potent interleukin that plays a pivotal role in bone and tissue destruction is

IL-1

IL-4

IL-6

IL-8

1 point
87. Which of the following has an irritating effect on the gingiva?

Food debris

Materia alba

Dental stains

All of the above

1 point
88. Systemic disorder associated with the typical fishy odor of breath is

Kidney failure

Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Liver disese

H. pylori infection

1 point
89. Which of the following is not an advantage of the Florida probe system?

Constant probing force

Timepocket
High accuracy in measuring deep remaining:
depth02:59
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Precise electronic measurement

Computer storage of data

1 point
90. Preferred sequence of periodontal therapy

Preliminary phase; Phase I; Phase II; Phase III/ IV

Preliminary phase; Phase I; Phase III; Phase II/IV

Preliminary phase; Phase IV; Phase I; Phase II/III

Preliminary phase; Phase I; Phase IV; Phase II/III

1 point
91. The instrument of choice for removing deep sub-gingival calculus is

Sickle scaler

Jaquette scaler

Hoe scaler

Curette

1 point
92. The PerioTemp probe (Abiodent) has a sensitivity of

0.02 0 C

0.01 0 C

0.2 0 C

0.1 0 C

1 point
93. Greater than what dose of cyclosporine per day induces drug induced gingival
overgrowth?

500 mg/day

1000 mg/day

1500 mg/day

400 mg/ day

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94. Bone-blend is: 1 point

Bone dust & blood

Bone & saline

Cancellous bone

Iliac crest graft

1 point
95. Growth of Porphyromonas gingivalis is enhanced by metabolic byproduct:

Protoheme from Capnocytophaga

Succinate from Campylobacter rectus

Succinate from Veillonella

Protoheme from Campylobacter rectus

1 point
96. Which of the following method of caries detection is obsolete?

Visual examination

Caries Activity tests

Radiograph

Catch on explorer

1 point
97. Cusp capping is considered if

extension from a primary groove toward the cusp tip is no more than half the distance

extension is one half to two thirds of the distance

extension is more than two thirds of the distance

extension is 1/4 th of the intercuspal distance

1 point
98. Individual diamond particles in diamond abrasives have

Radial or zero rake angle

Slight negative rake angle

Large negative rake angle Time remaining: 02:59

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Positive rake angle

1 point
99. When two unequal proximal carious lesions are present on the adjacent side of
two anteriors,

Larger lesion is prepared and restored first

Smaller lesion is prepared and restored first

Larger lesion is prepared first but restored last

Smaller lesion is prepared first but restored last

1 point
100. Discolored areas seen through the enamel in the teeth that have amalgam in the
teeth that have amalgam restorations are known as

Amalgam tattoos

Amalgam overhangs

Amalgam blues

Amalgam ditchings

1 point
101. Cohesion of gold foil is an example of

Atomic attraction and welding

Annealing

Wedging

Adaptation

1 point
102. The cement which is least soluble in oral cavity

Glass ionomer

Resin cement

Polycarboxylate cement

Silico-phosphate cement

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103. 1 point
Which is the most consistent landmark for locating the position of the pulp
chamber?

Cusp tips

Marginal ridges

Crest of alveolar ridge

Cemento-enamel junction

1 point
104. The most common pre-eruptive staining is

Endemic fluorosis

Tetracycline staining

Amelogenesis imperfecta

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

1 point
105. In cracked tooth syndrome,

Pain elicits on biting

Pain elicits on release of biting force

Pain elicits on both biting and release of biting

Pain occurs spontaneously.

1 point
106. The risk of vertical root fracture resulting from undue force is highest in

Cold lateral compaction technique

Warm lateral compaction technique

Warm vertical compaction technique

Continuous wave compaction technique

1 point
107. Secondary access cavity preparation refers to preparation of:

Access cavity for second time

Pulp Chamber Time remaining: 02:59

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Root canal orifices

Apical third

1 point
108. Who introduced the first root canal instrument?

Edwin Truman

Ingle and Levine

Edwin Maynard

McSpadden

1 point
109. Obtura III is a

Continuous wave compaction technique

Thermoplasticized injection technique

Therma-fill thermoplasticized technique

McSpadden thermomechanical compaction technique

1 point
110. The flap design of choice for endodontic microsurgery?

Submarginal flap

Semilunar flap

Luebke-Ochsenbein flap

Sulcular full thickness flap

1 point
111. The type of sugar in DNA are

Hexose

Pentose

Tetrose

Triose

Vitamine K coenzyme functionsTime remaining:

through which02:59
process ? 1 point

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112.
Phosphorylation

Carboxylation

Oxidaton

Deoxygenation

1 point
113. The end product of TCA cycle is:

Citric acid

Pyruvic acid

Lactric acid

CO2 and water

1 point
114. Insulin secretion is inhibited by:

Leucine

Gastrin

Tolbutamide

Alpha adrenergic Drug

1 point
115. PTH action is:

Decreased calcium reabsorption from gut

Increased renal excretion of calcium

Increased renal excretion of phosphate

Increased phosphate absorption from gut

1 point
116. Which of the following is the most common dysarrythmia?

Sinus tachycardia

Sinus bradycardia

Atrial flutter

Time remaining: 02:59

Paroximal supraventricular tachycardia
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1 point
117. Platysma muscle is supplied by which of the following nerve?

Posterior auricular nerve

Hypoglossal nerve

Cervical branch of facial nerve.

Cervical branch of mandibular nerve

1 point
118. Panda facies and raccoon eyes are commonly seen in –

Le Fort I fracture

Le Fort II fracture

Le Fort III fracture

ZMC fractures

1 point
119. The gross appearance of which of the following cyst resemble a bunch of
grapes?

Botryoid odotogenic cyst

Lateral periodontal cyst

Glandular odontogenic cyst

Inflammatory periodontal cyst

1 point
120. Most commonly used bur to remove bone during extraction of impacted teeth is:

No. 8 round bur

No. 557 fissure bur

No. 245 bur

No. 330 bur

1 point
121. Which of the blade is generally used to incise mucoperiosteal flap?

No. 10 Time remaining: 02:59

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No. 11

No. 12

No. 15

1 point
122. Which of the following is not generally employed for dentigerous cyst?

Partsch surgery

Marsupilization

Enucleation

Hemisection

1 point
123. The minimum appropriate period for healing of fractured mandible is :

2-4 weeks

4-6 weeks

7-8 weeks

8-10 weeks

1 point
124. Elephant foot deformity of fractured segment indicates:

malunion

delayed union

non – union

Sterile granuloma formation at the site of frature.

1 point
125. Which of the following structures does not pass through parotid gland?

facial nerve

greater auricular nerve

posterior auricular nerve

external carotid artery

Time remaining: 02:59

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126. The blood of choice for treatment of hemophilics is : 1 point

platelet rich plasma

fresh frozen plasma

fresh frozen plasma

cryoprecipitate

1 point
127. Cavernous sinus thrombosis following infection of anterior maxillary teeth most
often spread from:

Facial artery

Angular artery

Ophthalmic vein

Pterygoid plexus

1 point
128. Gut suturing material is absorbed by :

oxidation

hydrolysis

fibrinolysis

proteolysis

1 point
129. Burning sensation on injection of anesthetic solution may be the result of:

Overheated cartridge

Overcooled cartridge

Air bubble in cartridge

Methyl paraben

1 point
130. If patient is allergic to both amide and ester anesthetic derivatives , then local
anesthesia of choice is –

Phenylephrine Time remaining: 02:59

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Nitrous oxide

Diphenhydramine

Bupivacaine

1 point
131. Target area for Gow-Gates mandibular nerve block is:

Head of the condyle

Neck of condyle

Lateral side of condyle, just below the insertion of lateral pterygoid muscle

Lateral side of condyle, just above the insertion of lateral pterygoid muscle

1 point
132. Which of the following is agent of choice for induction in hepatic patient?

Enflurane

Sevflurane

Ketamine

Propofol

1 point
133. The most important receptors for the action of opoids are:

Mu receptors

Kappa receptors

Delta receptors

Aalfa receptors

1 point
134. Best time to stop fluid resuscitation is after restoration of normal:

Blood pressure

Pulse

Urine output

Venous oxygen saturation

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135. Central splitting of the mandible in buccolingual dimension and the superior 1 point

positioning of the lingual section of the mandible, is done in:

Onlay grafting

Ridge split technique

Visor osteotomy

Horizontal osteotomy

1 point
136. TMJ dislocation can be treated by forcing the mandible:

Upward and backward

Upward and forward

Downward and forward

Downward and backward

1 point
137. Which of the following is the main cause of shock?

Fear

Hypoglycemia

Hypoperfusion

Hypoventilation

1 point
138. These forceps are non-toothed, and so are ideal for holding delicate tissues such
as bowel. Identify the forceps shown in figure.

Gillies forceps

Adson forceps

Allis forceps Time remaining: 02:59

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Spensor Wells forceps

1 point
139. Which of the following is not a complication of rapid infusion of blood?

Transfusion reaction

Right sided heart failure

Air lock within pulmonary artery

Venous embolism

1 point
140. Which of the following is the most common complaint of patients referred to
hospital?

Aching in the veins at the end of the day, after prolonged standing

Ankle swelling

Bleeding and superficial thrombophlebitis

Eczema, and ulceration.

1 point
141. premature closure of sutures of skull is seen in which of the following
developmental anomaly?

Carpenter syndromes

Crouzan syndrome

Apert syndrome

Deformational (or positional) plagiocephaly

1 point
142. which of the following clefts of lip is more common in occurrence ?

unilateral complete

unilateral incomplete

bilateral complete

bilateral incomplete

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143. 1 point
Brittle bone disease is another name for:

Osteogenesis imperfect

Osteopetrosis

Cherubism

Paget’s disease

1 point
144. Pink disease is associated with:

Arsenic

Lead

Iodine

Mercury

1 point
145. Clinical picture characterized by mucosal erosions with raised atypical target
lesion is seen in:

Cicatrical pemphigoid

Keratosis follicularis

Erytheme multiforme

Keratoacanthoma

1 point
146. Which of the hemidesmosomal antigens is/are targeted by immunoglobulin G
(IgG) autoantibodies in Bullous pemphigoid?

BP130 and BP180

BP230 and BP180

BP230 and BP280

BP130 and BP280

1 point
147. Markedly depressed nasal bridge, short and wide with a bulbous tip, giving
parrot- beaked appearance with choanal stenosis or atresia is seen in:
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Down syndrome

Gorlin goltz syndrome

Crouzan’s syndrome

Apert syndrome

1 point
148. Value of Human Development Index ranges from

-1 to +1

0 to 1

0 to 3

1 to 3

1 point
149. Which of the following shows peau d’orange’ appearance in radiograph?

Cherubism

Paget’s disease

Fibrous dysplasia

OsteosarcoMcCune-Albright syndrome

1 point
150. Shingles is a:

Herpes zoster

Varicella zoster

Small pox

Measles

1 point
151. Primary prevention includes

Early diagnosis and treatment

Pap smear

Immunization

Self breast examination Time remaining: 02:59

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1 point
152. Carlson-Crittendon collectors are used to collect saliva from:

Parotid gland

Submandibular gland

Sublingual gland

Von Ebner glsnds

1 point
153. Diagnostic power of a test is reflected by

Sensitivity

Specificity

Predictive value

Attributable risk

1 point
154. Prevalence of disease at one-point of time can be determined by

Longitudinal study

Cross -Sectional study

Surveillance

Cohort study

1 point
155. In slow sand filter which of these is responsible for yielding bacteria free water?

Valve

Vital layer

Supernatant water

Under-drainage system

1 point
156. Nalgonda technique of Defluoridation is in what sequence

Lime+ Alum

Soda+Alum Time remaining: 02:59

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Alum+soda

alum+ lime

1 point
157. A method of selecting sample giving representation to all group of society or
population is known as

Simple random sampling

Sytematic sampling

Stratified sampling

Multiphase sampling

1 point
158. Most satisfactory method of refuse disposal is

Dumping

Controlled tipping

Incineration

Manure pits

1 point
159. Snyder Test measures the

Number of new carious lesions

Buffering action of saliva

Antibiotic activity of saliva

Amount of acid produced

1 point
160. The SCAN Index is generally used as a

Malocclusion index

Treatment Need Index

Treatment Change Index

Treatment priority Index

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161. A child can sit without support by the age of 1 point

4 months

6 months

12 months

15months

1 point
162. Retention of stainless-steel crown is achieved primarily by

Chamfer

Cement

Parallel mesial and distal wall

Crimping

1 point
163. In patient with surgically corrected cleft lip and palate what is the most common
anomaly seen?

Anterior open bite

rotated maxillary central incisor

Anterior deep bite

unilateral/bilateral posterior cross-bite

1 point
164. The “Lollipop Radiographic Technique ” is an example of

Desensitization

Bribery

Reward

punishment

1 point
165. The best time for the appointment for the young patient is

Holidays

Morning Time remaining: 02:59

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Mid-day

after school

1 point
166. What is the thickness of MTA in primary molar pulpotomy?

0.5 to 1mm

1 to 1.5mm

2-3 mm

5-6mm

1 point
167. Serial extraction is contraindicated in patients with

Class I with severe crowding

Corrected open bite

Cleft lip and palate

bilateral class I molar relationship

1 point
168. According to the intelligent quotient classification a score of 120-139 is

Very superior

Superior

High average

Average

1 point
169. Two half of the mandible fuses into a single bone at

By birth

6 months

1 year

6 years

Time
Learning disability is otherwise remaining:
known as 02:59 1 point

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170.
Infantile psychosis

Minimal Brain Dysfunction

Childhood schizophrenia

Attention deficit Disorder

1 point
171. A permanent tooth bud got accidently removed during the extraction of a
deciduous tooth. It has

to be

Discarded

endodontic treatment of the tooth bud and placed into socket

Tooth bud replanted with the extracted tooth

Tooth bud replaced and sutured

1 point
172. Compared to permanent dentition, in primary dentition

enamel and dentin is more mineralized

dentin is uniformely calcified

Pulp horns are located farther from the DEJ

enamel and dentin thickness is more

1 point
173. Direct pulp capping is not recommended in primary teeth because of

Increased odontoblastic activity in the pulp

Increased blood supply through the wide apex

Increased volume of pulp in primary teeth

lesser amount of collagen fibers in young

1 point
174. Peer group identity is strongest in

Adult

late schooler Time remaining: 02:59

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Adolescent

prepuberty

1 point
175. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on the
radiograph by

Visible light

Ultrasonic light

Fiberoptic transillumination

Digital Imaging Fiberoptic Transillumination

1 point
176. The degree of accuracy in determination of sex from long bones alone is

98%

95%

90%

80%

1 point
177. Condyloid process in the infants

Projects at the level of coronoid process

projects at a lower level than the coronoid process

Elongated and projects above the coronoid

Blunt and projects above the coronoid

1 point
178. Fingerprint ridges are not altered but the distance between the ridges can be
changed in all except

Infantile paralysis

Rickets

Acromegaly

Leprosy
Time remaining: 02:59
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1 point
179. A child that comes for check-up has total of 24 teeth present. The age of the child
is within

Above 6 months and below 24months

Above 2 years and below 6 years

Above 6 years and below 15 years

Above 7 years and below 12years

1 point
180. A mandible found at the mass disaster site had following features

a.Angle of mandible 90 Degrees

b. Angle of mandible everted

c.Full complement of teeth including third molars present

The mandible most probably belongs to

Middle aged female

Old age female

Middle aged male

Male below 18 years

1 point
181. All of the bacteria fulfil Koch’s postulates except

Treponema pallidum

Yersinia pestis

Bacillus anthracis

H. pylori

1 point
182. There has been an outbreak of food borne Salmonella gastroenteritis and stool
samples have been received in the laboratory. Which of these is the enrichment media
of choice?
Time remaining: 02:59
Cary Blair medium
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y
Venkataraman Ramakrishnan medium

Thioglycolate medium

Selenite ‘F’ Broth

1 point
183. Which of the following organism uses antigenic variation as a means of evading
host?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

M. tuberculi

Borrelia recurrentis

Leptospira

1 point
184. ELISA in comparison to Western Blot is

Less sensitive, more specific

More sensitive, less specific

More sensitive, more specific

Less sensitive, Less specific

1 point
185. According to WHO, In adult of age 15 years or more anemia is defined as as a
hemoglobin level of ?

< 14 g/dL in men & < 13 g/dL in women

< 13 g/dL in men & < 12 g/dL in women

< 12 g/dL in men & < 11 g/dL in women

< 11 g/dL in men & < 10 g/dL in women

1 point
186. False about Clostridium tetani

Gram positive, obligate anaerobe

Is non-motile

Bear terminal spores

Time remaining: 02:59
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produce tetanospasmin and tetanolysisn

1 point
187. Allergic reactions are related to which of the following components of transfused
blood ?

RBCs

Platelets

Plasma proteins

Leukocytes

1 point
188. In chronic bronchitis, which of the following is the predominant sensory
experience ?

Inability to take in a sufficiently deep breath

Difficulty in exhaling

Difficulty in inhaling and exhaling

Wheezing

1 point
189. Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a decrease in systolic arterial pressure of ?

> 10 mm Hg with inspiration

> 20 mm Hg with inspiration

> 30 mm Hg with inspiration

> 40 mm Hg with inspiration

1 point
190. Renal blood flow constitutes what percentage of cardiac output

10%

15%

20%

25%

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191. 1 point
According to American Society of Anesthesiologists ( ASA) classification, the
patient with significant health risk factor belongs to:

ASA I

ASA II

ASA III

ASA IV

1 point
192. Which of the following is the most commonly used sedative and anxiolytic
medications in oral surgery?

Diazepam

Propofol

Ketamine

Pentobarbitol

1 point
193. Which of the following is contraindicated in muscular dystrophy?

Fentanyl

Prpofol

Ketamine

Succnylcholine

1 point
194. Which of the following is contraindicated in patient with automatic implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD)?

USG

MRI

Choice 3

CT-scan

1 point
195. Decerebrate is seen in:
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M5 of GCS

M4 of GCS

M3 of GCS

M2 of GCS

1 point
196. When a person dies of medical negligence, the licensed officer is subjected to

3 years jail and Rs 30,000 fine

5 years jail and Rs. 50,000 fine

10 years jail and Rs. 1,00,000 fine

15 years jail and Rs. 1,50,000 fine

1 point
197. Patients with ulcer persisting for more than 3 weeks are considered

High priority

Medium priority

Intermediate priority

Low priority

1 point
198. According to the Nuremberg Code, which of the following is not the
characteristics of consent?

Voluntary

Legally competent

Informed

Non-comprehending

1 point
199. According to Nepal Medical Council code of ethics and professional conduct, All
medical practitioners are expected to comply with following fundamental principles of
medical ethics in course of their professional practice except

Autonomy
Time remaining: 02:59
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Non-maleficence

Justice

Truthfulness

1 point
200. Tetracyclines are not recommended for use during pregnancy or in children
below age

1 years

6 years

8 years

14 years

Time remaining: 02:59

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