1)  

Which is more prone to oxygen deprivation?

a. Anemia
b. Laryngeal cancer
c. Rib fracture
d. GERD

2) An unconscious patient is admitted because of head injury secondary from vehicular accident, he is known
as alcoholic, what is the nursing priority during emergent phase of admission?
a. Perform jaw thrust maneuver
b. Assess location
c. Check alcohol level
d. Determine the type of alcohol ingested

3) The first priory after insertion of tracheostomy tube is? 

a. Maintaining strict asepsis
b. Prevention of bleeding
c. Preventing any obstruction to tracheostomy tube

4)  Which is true in HIV/AIDS? 

A. It takes 1 yr to develop aids after HIV infection
B. Anyone can have HIV /aids
C. Men have the most increasing population to have HIV /aids
D. Elderly people cannot have HIV /aids

5) Right side brain stroke, left side paralysis, aphasia, dysphagia, which will promote exercises?
a. Changing positions, lying and sitting down every 2 hours 
b. Encouraging patient to take a bath independently
c. Make client comb his hair and brush his teeth
d. Placing the bed pan/commode away from the bed so that the patient will ambulate/walk

6) Medications decreasing cardiac work load and promoting increased blood flow is done to:
a. Avoid increase BP
b. Decrease respirations
c. Avoid increase heart rate

7) Temperature of Enema for child 

a. 95 F
b. 100 F
c. 105 F
d. 110 F

8) How would you know if child who swallowed marble has complete obstruction of airway? 
a. Inability to talk
b. Gagging
c. Coughing
d. Tachypnea

9) To eliminate potassium in the body 

a. Kayexelate – tx for hyperK+
b. Diuretics
c. Increase fluid intake
10) Which topic will be the most important for a competent nurse to discuss in education?
a. Infection control
b. Leadership
c. Conflict management
d. Ethical issues

11) When caring for a patient who is on a mechanical ventilator, the nurse should monitor 
the patient for which of the ff complications?
A. Flail chest
B. Pleural effusion
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolus

12) Which organism causes acute diarrhea in children?

a. Salmonella -bacteria
b. Shigella
c. E.coli
d. Rotavirus -virus

13) What type of anemia requires frequent checking of feet?

a. Sickle cell
b. Polycytemia vera
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Thalasemia

14) A 7 yrs old child has a varicella zoster. A community health nurse teaches the child’s 
parent about over the counter medications that can be used to comfort the child. 
Which of the ff medications, if selected by the parents, would require further
instruction?
A. Grape-flavored diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixir to reduce itching
B. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) tablets to reduce fever
C. Orange-flavored Ibuprofen (Pediaprofen) elixir to minimize discomfort 
D. A topical paste of baking soda and water to relieve itching

15)  Eipsten barr virus is associated with what Cancer?

a. cervical
b colon
c lung
d bladder

16) Protrusion of the meninges, CSF, nerve roots, and a portion of spinal cord.
a. Meningocele
b. Myelomeningocele
c. Spina bifida occulta
d. Spina bifida cystic

17) for burn patient in er, who is the priority 

a. chemical burn flush on the body. 
b. electrical burn 
c. 15 % degree burn in turso
18) Which of the ff manifestations would a nurse expect to identify when assessing a 
patient who has atrial fibrillation?
A. Pounding headache
B. Visual disturbances
C. Irregular radial pulse
D. Elevated blood pressure

19) A geriatric patient asked you about what his optha meant that his “lenses have lost elasticity”.He currently
has blurry vision and is unable to focus a certain object. 
a.Astigmatism
b.Myopia
c. Presbyopia
d. Strabismus

20) Symptoms of Gardiasis – traveler’s diarrhea

a. bloody diarrhea abdominal cramping
B. Watery diarrhea and flatulence
c. Restlessness and dyspnea

21) What would be the side effect of patient using Aminophylline?

I.Constipation
II.Dry Mouth
III. Tachycardia

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I,II,III

22) Oxygen is dangerous because? 

a. It’s explosive 
b. It’s poisonous
c. It supports burning
d. It’s a chemical

23) A postpartum patient delivered 2 hrs ago. During round the nurse finds that the patient 
has soaked a number of pads and is lying in a pool of blood. The nurse’s first action 
should be to.
A. Go to the door and call for help
B. Place the patient in reverse trendelenberg position
C. Increase the patient’s intravenous fluid rate
D. Massage the patient’s fundus

24) A nurse teaches self-care management to a teenaged patient who is being treated for 
scoliosis using a Milwaukee brace. Which of the ff statements, if made by the patient, 
indicates a correct understanding of the instructions?
A. “I can swim for 1 hr without brace.”
B. “I must wear the brace over my jacket.”
C. “I can remove the brace for sleeping.”
D. “I must give up driving my car.
25) Drugs to be administered to prevent postpartum bleeding? SATA
a. Methergin
b. Prostaglandin
c. Oxytocin

26) When is best time to administer anti-viral drug for HIV+ patients?
a. CD4 >1500
b. CD4 <500 
c. CD4 >800
d. CD4 >1000

27) Patient is neutropnic……, best nursing action?

a. Monitor WBC daily
b. Monitor temperature every 4 hours
c. Monitor intake and output

28) Cholecystitis………, what is the color of the urine and stool?

a. Dark Amber Urine, Light colored stool 
b. Yellow Urine, dark colored stool 
c. Clear Urine, bright red stool

29) Normal color of stoma after colostomy?

a. dark red 
b. black 
c. gray 
d. pink to red

30)  sign of hyperglycemia?

a. fruity breath - DKA
b. pruritus 
c. wt gain 
d. anuria

31) Deep Vein Thrombosis what should not be done?

a. elevate leg 30-45 degree / antiembolic stocking applied b4 getting up on bed
b. ambulate
c. massage affected leg

32) Pt had heat stroke, what hemodynamic results may result:

Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis

33) Sinemet (cavidopa levodopa) is used to treat which of following condition 

a. Addison disease
b. Epilepsy
c. Parkinson
34) When is d best time Health teaching be given to d post op pts? Bsta ganito ang thought guys
A. Before surgery to relieve anxiety
B. Immediately aftr d surgery
C. Aftr 2 hours of delivery

35) A DM pt. scheduled for CT scan, a dye will be used in the procedure, the nurse instructs the pt. to?
a. Bring light snack with him to
consume it after the procedure
b. Withhold his antiDM meds the day of the test
c. Increase his Metformin dose prior to the test she will remain NPO for 6 hrs before the test
d. State any allergy to the contrast medium

36) A nurse would assess a patient who has adrenal insufficiency for signs of Addison’s 
disease, which include
A. Striae on the abdomen
B. Acne lesions on the face
C. Bronzed appearance of the skin
D. Buffalo bump or the shoulders

37) A Hospital Administrator was announcing the plan of embracing a collaborative care plan to meet their
client’s needs. The nurse understands that?
a. It is only applied on regular clients with expected health outcomes
b. it replaces the standard of care and practice
c. It requires a change and update in the plan of care
d. it is made by nurses for nurses

38) Which of the following symptoms are common in male clients with prolactin secreting tumors?
1. Severe lethargy and fatigue.
2. Decreased libido and impotence.
3. Bony proliferation of the hands, jaw and feet.
4. Deepening or coarsening of the voice.

39) Codeine Phosphate has been prescribed for patient with headache which route 
- Oral - IV - IM – Rectal

40) A 24 yr. old patient diagnosed with leukaemia, the nurse is giving proper health education to the patient to
reduce bleeding when he states, SATA?
a. Not to use dental floss
b. Use contraceptive to induce amenorrhea
c. Avoid brushing the teeth with hard toothbrush

41) Which of the ff. patients with burn should you give the highest priority?
A. pt with chemical burns
B. Electrical burns from a high voltage
C. Partial thickness burns 
D. Major burns including the thorax with 15% TBSA
42) A pregnant patient had undergone alpha fetoprotein test. The patient asks the nurse what the results may
indicate.
a. High or low result may indicate chromosomal abnormalities.
b. Diagnosis impending polyhydramnio
c. High result indicates CHD

43) A primigravida client at about 35 weeks gestation in active labor has had no prenatal care and admits to
cocaine use during the pregnancy. Which of the following persons must the nurse notify? 
a. Nursing unit manager so appropriate agencies can be notified 
b. Head of the hospital’s security department
c. Chaplain in case the fetus dies in utero 
d. Physician who will attend the delivery of the infant

44)  Mother who is O-, she should receive rhogam if she delivers, SATA:
a. A+ baby 
b. A- baby
c. O+ baby 
d. O- baby

45) How will you measure contraction?

a. beginning of one contracti0n to the end of second contraction (duration)
b. end of one contraction to the beginning of an0ther contracti0n (frequency)
c. beginning of one contraction up to the beginning of the next contraction

46) A pregnant patient in 3rd trimester should gain how much weight per week?
a. 2
b. 1.5
c. 0.5
d. 1

47) Overweight patient complain of abdominal pain on RUQ. Positive murphy sign (Turners/Cullen sign
pancreatitis) what advice?
a. increase carbohydrate intake and fluid intake
b. decrease fat intake and exercise regularly
c. decrease fat intake and avoid analgesia codeine

48) Drugs to be administered to prevent postpartum bleeding? SATA

a. Methergin
b. Prostaglandin
c. Oxytocin

49) Indication ng + Coomb's Test

a. - mother + baby
b. + mother - baby
c. -mother - baby
d. +mother +baby

50) A 30 year old pregnant patient states to the nurse that she experiences gum bleeding whenever she
brushes her teeth, the nurse understands that this is due to the effect of which hormone?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone 
c. Prolactin
d. Oxytocin

51) The client's wife asks the nurse whether the intravenous infusion is meeting her husband's nutritional
needs because he has vomited several times. The nurse's response should be based on the knowledge that 1 L
of 5% dextrose in normal saline delivers 
1. 170 calories (Each liter of 5% dextrose in normal saline solution contains 170 calories.
The nurse should consult with the physician and dietitian when a client 
is on intravenous therapy or is NPO for any extended period, because 
further electrolyte supplementation or alimentation therapy may be needed.)
2. 250 calories
3. 340 calories
4. 500 calories

52) Which of the following statements about nasoenteric tubes is correct?

1. The tube cannot be attached to suction.
2. The tube contains a soft rubber bag filled with mercury. (nasoenteric tube does have a small balloon at its
tip that is weighted with mercury. The weight of the mercury helps advance the tube by  gravity through the intestine. A
nasoenteric tube is not taped in position until it has reached the obstruction. Nasoenteric tubes are attached to suction.
Because the tube has a radiopaque strip, its progress through the intestinal tract can be followed by fluoroscopy.)
3. The tube is taped securely to the client's cheek after insertion.
4. The tube can have its placement determined only by auscultation.

53) . Diagnostic marker for breast cancer is? TRU-QUANT and CA 27.29: may mean that breast cancer is present

A. B2M gene
2. CD markers and T cells
3. ERP test
4. CA 19-9

54) Which cases we use to shock with defibrillator? SATA

I) VT with pulse 
II) VT without pulse 
II) Supraventricular fibrillation 
I, II, III
I, II
I ONLY
II ONLY

55) Which change in laboratory data would the nurse expect for a client with
Addison’s disease?
1. Increased potassium, decreased sodium and glucose
2. Decreased potassium, increased sodium and glucose
3. Increased potassium, sodium and hematocrit
4. Decreased potassium, sodium and haematocrit

56) Adequate fluid replacement and vasopressin replacement are objectives of therapy for which of
the following disease processes?
a. Diabetes mellitus.
b. Diabetes insipidus.
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
d. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). - manitol

57) A mother of 6 months old baby comes to the nurse and asks for MMR to her child. The nurse's response
will be 
a. give the MMR  (MMR given at 12-16mos, 2nd dose at 4-6yrs)
b. tell the mother that the child has not achieved the age for this vaccination 
c. call the doctor

58) Which vaccine if given within 4 wks with tuberculin test, will affect (false results/ weaken effectiveness)
tuberculin test:
a.MMR (Measles vaccination might suppress tuberculin reactivity temporarily. Measles-containing vaccine can be
administered on the same day as tuberculin skin testing. If testing cannot be performed until after the day of MMR
vaccination, the test should be postponed for at least 4 weeks after the vaccination. If an urgent need exists to skin test, do
so with the understanding that reactivity might be reduced by the vaccine.)
b.DPTA
c.OPI
d.HBV

59) Diet for patients with diverticulitis?

a.high fiber (diverticulosis) out pouching
b. low fiber

60) What is the definitive diagnostic test for a patient with diverticulitis?
A. Barium enema
B. Barium swallow
C. Computed tomography with dye
D. Colonoscopy (diverticulosis)

61) the most dangerous arrhythmia?

A.V-tach (Ventricular tachycardia.
B.VF (Ventricular fibrillation)
C. SVT(Supraventricular Tachycardia)
D. Torsade de pointes – tx Mg

62) RhoGam is administered to

a. mother w/ spontaneous abortion
b. ABO incompatibility 
c. negative indirect coombs

63) The nurse on duty knows that RHOGAM is given to a mother after delivery if she has the ff. type of blood?
SATA Rhogam is given to a mother who is RH negative 72 hours after delivery to a RH positive blood fetus to prevent
development of antibodies in the maternal blood stream which will be fatal to the succeeding pregnancies 
I. B positive
II. B negative
III. O positive
IV. O negative

64) 3. What would be the manifestation in a patient with severe anemia?

A. Tachycardia, Palpitation, Hypertension
B. Bradycardia, Hypotension, muscle weakness
C. Restlessness, agitation, Hyperthermia
D. Hypothermia, widened pulse pressure, fatigue

65) diet plan for a patient with episode of pancreatitis?

1. low calorie, low carb diet
2. high calorie low fat diet
3. high protein, high fat diet
4. low protein high carb die

66) a patient with pancreatitis clinical investigation markers are all except:
A-Amylase
B- Lipase
C- low serum Ca level
D- high serum glucose level
E- hypernatremia (it should be hyponatremia)

67)  Mother who is O-, she should receive rhogam if she delivers, SATA:
a. A+ baby 
b. A- baby
c. O+ baby 
d. O- baby

66) 11) High in saturated fats

I-beef
II-nuts
III-olive oil
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, III
d. I, II, III
ANSWER A : Nuts is a monounsaturated fats and it classify as Unsaturated fats that will help promote HDL and
lower LDL and triglycerides. 

67) When feeding a patient with gastrostomy tube, which of the following intervention should be the nurse’s
priority?
A.Elevate HOB at least 30ᵒ
B.Initially flush the ostomy with 30ml water
C.Check patency by auscultation
D.heat formula in room temperature

68) Which of the ff discharge teachings to include in pt with cataract to prevent increase of IOP?
a. Avoid ambulation, with comfort room previliges
b. Work with lifting up to 7 kg
c. Daily exercise
d. Drug instructions

69) 5.What is cataract?

a. Crystallization of lens that may occur during birth, eye trauma and aging
b. Blurring of visual fields and presence of floaters (retinal detachment)
c. Sudden episode of eye pain (glaucoma)
70) What is the primary goal of nursing care during
the emergent phase after a burn injury?
■ 1. Replace lost fluids.
■ 2. Prevent infection.
■ 3. Control pain.
■ 4. Promote wound healing.

71) • A patient with blunt trauma to the thorax and abdomen. which nursing observation provides the best
evidence that the client is bleeding internally?
A. Prolong partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
B. Recent history of warfarin use
C. Deminshed breath sounds
D. Hypotension

72) Diagnosis markers of thalassemia? 

a. HB, Electrolytes
b. CBC 
c. PTT,PT

73) Digoxin toxicity what is the ECG?

a.inverted T (hypokalemia)
b.prolonged QRS
c.chaotic P

74) Common sign of meningitis in newborn:

A)nuchal rigidity
B)brudzinski sign
C)restlessness and vigorous crying

75) The nurse teaches a client who is taking Lithium to watch for symptoms of
A: hypothyroidism
B: bleeding
C: black stool
D: swelling of the face

76) Why pregnant woman gets heart burn during pregnancy?

A. Hormanl changes (due to progesterone)
B. Growing uterus pushes up
C. effect on diet

77) A patient rush to ER with 45% burns. what will be the priority management after 24 hours?
A.Prevention of infection
B. Provide proper nutrition
C. Adequate tissue perfusion (In emergent phase, primary goal of treatment is to prevent hypovolemic shock and
preserve vital organ functioning... Focus on infection control is already in the acute phase and that usually begins 48-72hrs
aftr time of injury where the patient is hemodynamically stable, capillary permeability is restored and diuretics has begun.. )
D. Pain management

78) Patient experiencing emotional stress, appropriate therapy except:

a.guided imagery
b.Biofeedback
c.cognitive reframing
d. Yoga
79) A nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old child hospitalized with a diagnosis of croup and notes
that the respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. Based on this finding, which nursing action is appropriate?
1 Administer oxygen.
2 Notify the physician.
3 Document the findings.
4 Reassess the respiratory rate in 15 minutes

80) Which of the following interventions is NOT a part of barrier protection in the transmission-based
precautions that are included in airborne, droplet and contact precautions?
1.A mask or personal respiratory protection device should be used with airborne diseases.
2.A private room is necessary for droplet precautions with diseases spread by droplet transmission.
3.Masks are necessary for client's who are on contact precautions.
4. With clients who have contact diseases, use of gloves and gown are needed by the nurse providing care.

81) Patient with colostomy…Upon discharge the nurse instructs him to eat which kind of food?
a. Cabbage, lettuce, banana
b. Tea, milk, fish
c. Bread, Toast, Yogurt
d. Dried beans, asparagus, raddish

82) Normal color of stoma after colostomy?

a. dark red 
b. black 
c. gray 
d. pink to red

83) Colostomy irrigation fluid range?

a-500-1000ml
b-200-300ml
c-2000ml

81) Which kind of food you will avoid with renal failure patient? Preservative Moo Salty food
82) Which blood lead level shows potential poisoning in child should the nurse notice and act?