Webs

For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s.
value is
A. 0.5 Imax
B. 0.707
C. 0.9
D. 1.414 Imax
Answer: Option B
A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is __________ radian/second.
A. 100 n
B. 50 jt
C. 25 JT
D. 5 n
Answer: Option A
In a R-L-C circuit
A. Power is consumed in resistance and is equal to IR
B. Exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line

C. Exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
D. All above are correct
Answer: Option D
INTERGRATED CIRCUITS
Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?
A. Diode
B. Transistor
C. FET
D. Capacitor
Answer: Option D
___________ cannot be fabricated on an IC
A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
D. Large inductors and transformers

Answer: Option D
The most popular types of ICs are ___________
A. Thin-film
B. Hybrid
C. Thick-film
D. Monolithic
Answer: Option D
ICs are generally made of ___________
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Digital ICs process ___________
A. Linear signals only

B. Digital signals only
C. Both digital and linear signals
Answer: Option C
An audio amplifier is an example of ___________.
A. Digital IC
B. Linear IC
C. Both digital and linear IC
Answer: Option B
We use ___________ ICs in computers
A. Digital
B. Linear
C. Both digital and linear

Answer: Option A
ICs are used in ___________
A. Linear devices only
B. Digital devices only
C. Both linear and digital devices
Answer: Option C
The most popular form of IC package is ___________.
A. DIL
B. Flatpack
C. TO-5
Answer: Option B
___________ ICs are the most commonly used
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
Answer: Option B
An IC has ___________ size
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small
Answer: Option C
An IC has ___________ size
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small

Answer: Option C
The active components in an IC are ___________.
A. Resistors
B. Capacitors
C. Transistors and diodes
Answer: Option C
A transistor takes ___________ inductor on a silicon IC chip
A. Less space than
B. More space than
C. Same space as
Answer: Option A
Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature coefficient of resistance?
A. Manganin
B. Porcelain
C. Carbon
D. Copper
Answer: Option A
Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
Answer: Option B
Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains same

Answer: Option B
Which of the following statement is true?
A. A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
B. A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
C. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
D. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
Answer: Option C
A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
A. Semiconductor
B. Super-conductor
C. Compound
D. Insulator
Answer: Option C
If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
A. Increases in the branch of the lowest resistance

B. Increases in each branch
C. Is zero in all branches
D. Is zero in the highest resistive branch
Answer: Option C
Out of the following which is an insulating material?
A. Copper
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Paper
Answer: Option D
When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
A. Collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
B. The release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
C. Mutual collisions between metal atoms
D. Mutual collisions between conducting electrons

Answer: Option A
Current velocity through a copper conductor is
A. the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
B. independent of current strength
C. of the order of a few ^.s/m
D. nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Answer: Option C
Nichrome wire is an alloy of
A. Lead and zinc
B. Chromium and vanadium
C. Nickel and chromium
D. Copper and silver
Answer: Option C
For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
A. Very low
B. Low
C. High
D. Any value
Answer: Option C
While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
A. water is poured into acid
B. acid is poured into water
C. anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
D. none of the above
Answer: Option B
Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
A. NaOH
B. only H₂SO₄
C. only water
D. dilute H₂SO₄
Answer: Option D
Shelf life of a small dry cell is
A. equal to that of large dry cell
B. less than that of large dry cell
C. more than that of large dry cell
Answer: Option B
Each cell has a vent cap
A. to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
B. to add water to the cell if needed
C. to check the level of electrolyte
D. to do all above functions
Answer: Option D
Battery charging equipment is generally installed
A. In well ventilated location

B. In clean and dry place
C. As near as practical to the battery being charged
D. In location having all above features
Answer: Option D
Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
A. Dilute H₂SO₄
B. Concentrated H₂SO₄
C. Water
D. Any of the above
Answer: Option C
During the charging of a lead-acid cell
A. its voltage increases
B. it gives out energy
C. its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
D. specific gravity of H₂SO₄ decreases

Answer: Option A
Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat.
A. no
B. very little
C. less
D. more
Answer: Option D
The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
Answer: Option A
The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of the lead-acid cell.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Answer: Option D
Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates
A. below
B. equal to
C. above
Answer: Option C
Which of the following battery is used for aircraft ?
A. Lead-acid battery
B. Nickel-iron battery
C. Dry cell battery
D. Silver oxide battery

Answer: Option B
Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
A. maintain proper electrolyte level
B. increase its reserve capacity
C. prevent sulphation
D. keep it fresh and fully charged
Answer: Option D
The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
A. 1 V
B. 1.2 V
C. 1.7 V
D. 2.1 V
Answer: Option C
Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
A. 500
B. 700
C. 1000
D. 1250
Answer: Option D
Which among the following constitutes the major load for an automobile battery ?
A. Brake light
B. Self starter
C. Parking lights
D. Spark plugs
Answer: Option B
The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
A. 1.8 V
B. 1.9 V
C. 2 V
D. 2.1 V
Answer: Option A
Capacity of dry cells is
A. more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
B. more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
C. unaffected by the type of discharge
Answer: Option A
48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
A. 48 amperes for 1 hour
B. 24 amperes for 2 hours
C. 8 amperes for 6 hours
D. 6 amperes for 8 hours
Answer: Option D
In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
A. lowered
B. raised
C. undisturbed
D. displaced sideways
Answer: Option A
The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are
A. lead and lead peroxide
B. lead sulphate and lead
C. lead peroxide and lead
Answer: Option C
On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
Answer: Option D
The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
A. silver oxide
B. lead oxide
C. lead
D. zinc powder
Answer: Option A
In order to get maximum power transfer from a capacitive source, the load must
A. Have a capacitive reactance equal to circuit resistance
B. Have an impedance that is the complex conjugate of the source impedance
C. Be as capacitive as it is inductive
Answer: Option B
The Norton equivalent current is
A. The current through the load

B. The open-current from the source
C. The short circuit current
Answer: Option C
If two currents are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit, the net
current at that instant
A. Is zero
B. Is the sum of the two currents
C. Is the difference between the two currents
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option B
Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
A. Mica
B. Paper
C. Ceramic
D. Electrolytic
Answer: Option D
A gang condenser is a
A. polarised capacitor
B. variable capacitor
C. ceramic capacitor
Answer: Option B
Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
A. ± 5%
B. ± 10%
C. ± 15%
D. ± 20%
Answer: Option B
Electric displacement is a______quantity.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. both of the above
Answer: Option B
If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit because
A. varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
B. of high peak value
C. charging current can flow
D. discharge current can flow
Answer: Option A
For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
A. Paper capacitor
B. Mica capacitor
C. Ceramic disc capacitor

Answer: Option B
In a capacitive circuit
A. a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
B. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
C. decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
Answer: Option B
Air capacitors are generally available in the range
A. 10 to 400 pF
B. 1 to 20 pF
C. 100 to 900 pF
D. 20 to 100 pF
Answer: Option A
The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually
A. 20 to 60 volts
B. 200 to 1600 volts
C. 2000 to 3000 volts
D. more than 10000 volts
Answer: Option B
Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
A. Air capacitor
B. Ceramic capacitor
C. Paper capacitor
Answer: Option B
A condenser suitable for D.C. only is
A. Metallic plate variable gang condenser
B. Metallic paper capacitor
C. Oil impregnated paper condenser
D. Poled aluminium electrolytic condenser

Answer: Option D
Dielectric strength of medium
A. increases with rise in temperature
B. increases with moisture content
C. is same for all insulating materials
Answer: Option D
capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
A. Air
B. Mica
C. Plastic film
D. Ceramic
Answer: Option B
Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
A. Glass
B. Vacuum
C. Ceramics
D. Oil
Answer: Option C
at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
A. Electric intensity
B. Electric flux
C. Magnetic flux
D. Magnetic flux density
Answer: Option A
capacitors can be used only for D.C.
A. Air
B. Paper
C. Mica
D. Electrolytic
Answer: Option D
Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are separated
apart by means of insulated handles, then the
A. Voltage across the plates increases
B. Voltage across the plates decreases
C. Charge on the capacitor decreases
D. Charge on the capacitor increases
Answer: Option B
The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging voltage
actually rises to ______ percent of its value.
A. 37, initial
B. 62, initial
C. 62, final
D. 37, final
Answer: Option C
The lines of force due to charged particles are
A. always straight
B. always curved
C. sometimes curved
Answer: Option B
The divergence of a vector is a scalar, while the curl of a vector is another
A. Scalar
B. Vector
C. Unit vector
Answer: Option B
Which antenna is a wideband antenna?
A. Hertz antenna
B. Marconi antenna
C. Folded dipole
Answer: Option C
The potential that appears at a point in space due to the current which caused it is called potential
A. Accelerating
B. Retardation
C. Oscillating
D. Lagging the current
Answer: Option B
The minimum height of outer atmosphere is
A. 100 km
B. 150 km
C. 200 km
D. 400 km
Answer: Option D
The virtual height of an ionospheric layer is __________ true height
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Higher than
D. No relation
Answer: Option C
The transmitting antennas for lower frequencies (below 500 kHz) are generally
A. Vertical grounded wire type
B. Horizontal suspended wire type
C. Parabolic reflector type
D. Any of the above
Answer: Option A
Which of the following will increase the antenna radiation efficiency?
A. Use of larger section of conductor
B. Providing insulation on conductor
C. Top loading of antenna

D. Any of the above
Answer: Option C
According to maximum power transfer theorem, the maximum power is absorbed by one network from
another network when
A. The impedance of one of the networks is half that of the other
B. The impedance of one is the complex conjugate of the other
C. The impedance of one is equal to that of the other
Answer: Option B
In an impedance smith chart, a clockwise movement along a constant resistance circle gives rise to
A. Decrease in the value of reactance
B. An increase in the value of reactance
C. No change in the reactance value
D. No change in the impedance value
Answer: Option B
In case of surface waves the field strength at a point is directly proportional to

A. Antenna height
B. Wave frequency
C. Current of the antenna
D. Distance of the point from the antenna
Answer: Option D
In H-plane metal plate lens the travelling wave front is
A. Totally retarded
B. Retarded
C. Accelerated
D. Neither accelerated nor retarded
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is multiband HF receiving antenna?
A. Square loop
B. Log-periodic
C. Conical horn
D. Folded dipole
Answer: Option B
Which of the following statement regarding waveguides is incorrect?
A. At waveguide can be coupled to a coaxial cable
B. At frequencies below the cut off value the wave progresses across the waveguide after total
reflections
C. Waveguides are usually air filled hollow conducting metallic tubes for transmitting UHF and
microwaves
D. Waveguides can handle large power at UHF and microwaves
Answer: Option A
A rectangular waveguide is a
A. Rectangular conducting wire to propagate electromagnetic waves
B. Hollow rectangular walled room carrying electromagnetic wave
C. Hollow rectangular conducting tube through which electromagnetic waves can be propagat-ed
D. Tube antenna to transmit and receive electromagnetic waves
Answer: Option C
he frequency range for satellite communication is
A. 3 to 30 kHz
B. 300 to 3000 kHz
C. 3000 to 30000 MHz
D. 30000 to 300000 MHz
Answer: Option C
The static electric field in a conductor is
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Infinity
Answer: Option A
MUF is depend upon
A. Electron density of the ionospheric layer
B. 11 year sun spot cycle

C. Received frequency by receiver
D. Height of ionospheric layer
Answer: Option C
When a current carrying conductor is brought into magnetic field, the force that moves the conductor
depends upon
A. The value of current
B. The weight of the conductor
C. The direction of the conductor
Answer: Option A
If a and b are the dimensions of waveguide then
A. a = 3b
B. a = 2b
C. a = b
D. a = b/4
Answer: Option B
Due to which of the following reasons a lightning conductor on top of a building is made into a pointed
spike?
A. Dust particles may not accumulate
B. Charge per unit area becomes very high for lightening to discharge
C. Rain drops may not collect
Answer: Option B
When the phase velocity of an EM wave depends on frequency in any medium the phenomenon is called
A. Scattering
B. Polarisation
C. Absorption
D. Dispersion
Answer: Option B
A satellite that simply reflect back the signals from one region of the earth to the other region is known
as
A. Orbiting satellite
B. Geostationary satellite
C. Active satellite
D. Passive satellite
Answer: Option D
In microwave communication links, when fading due to rain attenuation occurs then technique adopted
for solving the problem would include
A. Antenna replacement and feed correction
B. Amplitude timing and phase correction
C. Polarization shifting and code diversity
D. Path diversity and frequency diversity
Answer: Option D
The power gain of a half-wave dipole with respect to an isotropic radiator is
A. 2.15 db
B. 3 db
C. 4.15 db
D. 6 db
Answer: Option A
A waveguide operated below cut off frequency can be used as
A. Phase shifter
B. An attenuator
C. An isolator
D. None
Answer: Option B
The wave in wave guide has
A. Group velocity inversely proportional to wavelength
B. Larger frequency than in the free space
C. Diminishing wavelength than in the free space
D. Larger wavelength than in the free space
Answer: Option D
Radiation intensity in a given direction is the
A. Energy radiated per square metre
B. Power radiated per square metre

C. Power radiated per unit solid angle in that direction
Answer: Option C
If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases, the drain current ___________
A. is increased
B. is decreased
C. remains the same
Answer: Option A
A JFET is also called ___________ transistor
A. unipolar
B. bipolar
C. unijunction

Answer: Option A
The hfe parameter is called ___________ in CE arrangement with output shorted
A. Voltage gain
B. Current gain
C. Input impedance
Answer: Option B
The values of h parameter of a transistor in CE arrangement are ___________ arrangement
A. The same as for CB
B. The same as for CC
C. Different from that in CB
Answer: Option C
In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a transistor, ___________ is an a.c. short-circuited
A. Input
B. Output
C. Input as well as output
Answer: Option B
If the operating point changes, the h parameters of transistor ___________
A. Also change
B. Do not change
C. May or may not change
Answer: Option A
If temperature changes, h parameters of a transistor ___________
A. May or may not change
B. Do not change
C. Also change

Answer: Option C
The parameter hie stands for input impedance in ___________
A. CB arrangement with output shorted
B. CC arrangement with output shorted
C. CE arrangement with output shorted
Answer: Option C
The dimensions of hie parameter are ___________
A. Mho
B. Ohm
C. Farad
Answer: Option B
Hybrid means ___________
A. Mixed
B. Single
C. Unique
Answer: Option A
There are ___________ h parameters of a transistor
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
Answer: Option B
The h parameter approach gives correct results for ___________
A. Large signals only
B. Small signals only
C. Both small and large signals

Answer: Option B
A transistor behaves as a linear device for ___________
A. Small signals only
B. Large signals only
C. Both small and large signals
Answer: Option A
In a superhetrodyne receiver, the difference frequency is chosen as the IF rather than the sum
frequency because ___________
A. The difference frequency is closer to oscillator frequency
B. Lower frequencies are easier to amplify
C. Only the difference frequency can be modulated
Answer: Option B
Demodulation is done in ___________
A. Receiving antenna
B. Transmitter
C. Radio receiver
D. Transmitting antenna
Answer: Option C
Superhertodyne principle refers to
A. Using a large number of amplifier stages
B. Using a push-pull circuit
C. Obtaining lower fixed intermediate frequency
Answer: Option C
At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ___________ of that of carrier
A. 50%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 25%
Answer: Option D
In a transmitter ___________ oscillator is used
A. Hartley
B. RC phase-shift
C. Wien-bridge
D. Crystal
Answer: Option D
If level of modulation is increased ___________ power is increased
A. Carrier
B. Sideband
C. Carrier as well as sideband
Answer: Option B
Overmodulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ___________ carrier amplitude
A. Equal to
B. Greater than
C. Less than
Answer: Option B
Man made noise are ___________ variations.
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase
D. Both phase and frequency
Answer: Option A
Most of the amplification in a superhetrodyne receiver occurs at ___________ stage
A. IF
B. RF amplifier
C. Audio amplifier
D. Detector
Answer: Option A
The superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity at ___________ stage
A. RF
B. IF
C. audio
D. Before RF
Answer: Option B
If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally well, it is said to have high ___________
A. Sensitivity
B. Selectivity
C. Distortion
D. Fidelity
Answer: Option D
In amplitude modulation, bandwidth is ___________ the audio signal frequency
A. Thrice
B. Four times
C. Twice
Answer: Option C
A 100 V carrier is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by the signal. What is the modulation factor?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 5
Answer: Option B
The major advantage of FM over AM is ___________
A. Reception is less noisy
B. Higher carrier frequency
C. Smaller bandwidth
D. Small frequency deviation

Answer: Option A
In an AM wave, the majority of the power is in ___________
A. Lower sideband
B. Upper sideband
C. Carrier
Answer: Option C
Modulation refers to a low-frequency signal controlling the ___________
A. Amplitude of the carrier
B. Frequency of the carrier
C. Phase of the carrier
D. May be any of the above
Answer: Option D
In a radio receiver, noise is generally developed at ___________
A. IF stage
B. Receiving antenna
C. Audio stage
D. RF stage
Answer: Option D
The diode detector in an AM radio receiver is usually found ___________
A. Before the first RF stage
B. After the first RF stage
C. After several stages of amplification
Answer: Option C
The function of ferrite antenna is to ___________
A. Reduce stray capacitance
B. Stabilise d.c. bias
C. Increase the Q of tuned circuit
D. Reduce noise
Answer: Option C
If Amin = 40 and Amax = 60, what is the percentage of modulation?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 10%
Answer: Option A
The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio receiver is of the order of ___________
A. mV
B. µV
C. V
Answer: Option B
In a radio receiver, we generally use ___________ oscillator as a local oscillator
A. Crystal
B. Wien-bridge
C. Phase-shift
D. Hartley
Answer: Option D
In radio transmission, the medium of transmission is ___________
A. Space
B. An antenna
C. Cable
Answer: Option A
In superhetrodyne receiver, the input at mixer stage is ___________
A. IF and RF
B. RF and AF
C. IF and AF
D. RF and local oscillator signal

Answer: Option D
In a TRF radio receiver, the RF and detection stages are tuned to ___________
A. Radio frequency
B. IF
C. Audio frequency
Answer: Option A
The resistance LM will be
A. 6.66 Q
B. 12 Q
C. 18 Q
D. 20 Q
Answer: Option A
Kirchhoff’s voltage law applies to circuits with
A. Nonlinear elements only

B. Linear elements only
C. Linear, nonlinear, active and passive elements
D. Linear, nonlinear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-invariant elements
Answer: Option D
Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only
A. Junction in a network
B. Closed loops in a network
C. Electric circuits
D. Electronic circuits
Answer: Option A
For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
A. Equal to the load resistance
B. Less than the load resistance
C. More than the load resistance

Answer: Option B
For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
A. Equal to load resistance
B. Less than the load resistance
C. Greater than the load resistance
Answer: Option A
A sudden increase in the total current into a parallel circuit may indicate
A. A drop in source voltage
B. An open resistor
C. An increase in source voltage
D. Either a drop in source voltage or an open resistor
Answer: Option C
The currents into a junction flow along two paths. One current is 4 A and the other is 3 A. The total
current out of the junction is
A. 1 A
B. 7 A
C. Unknown
D. The larger of the two
Answer: Option B
When an additional resistor is connected across an existing parallel circuit, the total resistance
A. Remains the same
B. Decreases by the value of the added resistor
C. Increases by the value of the added resistor
D. Decreases
Answer: Option D
On which of the following voltage range settings will a voltmeter present the minimum load on a
circuit?
A. 1 V
B. 50 V
C. 500 V
D. 1,000 V
Answer: Option D
TIME RESPONSE OF REACTIVE ELEMENTS
An RC differentiator acts as a
A. Low-pass filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Band-pass filter
D. Band-stop filter
Answer: Option B
In an RC differentiator, responding to repetitive pulses, the average value of the output.
A. Is zero
B. Is equal to the input voltage
C. Is 63 percent of the input voltage
Answer: Option A
In an RC differentiator, responding to repetitive pulses, the average value of the output.

A. Is zero
B. Is equal to the input voltage
C. Is 63 percent of the input voltage
Answer: Option A
With an RL integrator, at the instant of the rising pulse edge,
A. All the input voltage is across the resistor
B. All the input voltage is across the inductor
C. 63 percent of the input voltage is across the resistor
D. 63 percent of the input voltage is across the inductor
Answer: Option B
In an RC differentiator, the capacitor.
A. Charges exponentially at a rate depending on the RC time constant
B. Charges exponentially at a rate depending on the input voltage
C. Charges when the input voltage is decreasing

D. Charges to approximately one time constant
Answer: Option A
In an RL differentiator, when the input pulse goes from its low level to its high level,
A. The inductor prevents a sudden change in voltage
B. T In an RL differentiator, when the input pulse goes from its low level to its high level,
he inductor prevents a sudden change in current
C. Voltage across the inductor instantly reaches 63% of input voltage
D. Voltage across the inductor is zero
Answer: Option B
In an RC differentiator, the sum of the capacitor voltage and the resistor voltage at any instant.
A. Must be zero
B. Must be equal to the applied voltage
C. Is less than the applied voltage but greater than zero
Answer: Option B
f the RC time constant of an integrator is increased, as the time constant is increased.
A. The capacitor charges more during a pulse and discharges less between pulses
B. The capacitor charges less during a pulse and discharges more between pulses
C. The capacitor charges more during a pulse and discharges more between pulses
D. The capacitor charges less during a pulse and discharges less between pulses
Answer: Option D
In electronic systems, repetitive-pulse waveforms are encountered.
A. More often than single pulses
B. Less often than single pulses
C. About as often as single pulses
D. Twice as often as single pulses
Answer: Option A
To understand how the output voltage is shaped by a differentiator, you must consider
A. The response to the rising pulse edge
B. The response between the rising and falling edges

C. The response to the falling pulse edge
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
If the capacitor in an integrator becomes leaky.
A. The time constant will be effectively reduced
B. The wave-shape of the output voltage across C is altered
C. The amplitude of the output is reduced
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
A steady-state condition is reached when
A. The output voltage reaches the average value of the input voltage
B. The output voltage reaches the input voltage
C. The output voltage reaches approximately 63% of the input voltage
D. The output voltage reaches the effective value of the input voltage
Answer: Option A
In a Y-connected source feeding a ∆-connected load,
A. Each phase of the load has one-third of the full line voltage across it
B. Each phase of the load has two-thirds of the full line voltage across it
C. Each phase of the load has the full line voltage across it
D. Each phase of the load has a voltage across it equal to √3
Answer: Option C
In a Y-connected circuit, between each line voltage and the nearest phase voltage, there is a phase angle
of
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 120°
Answer: Option B
In a ∆-connected source driving a ∆-connected load, the
A. Load voltage and line voltage are one-third the source voltage for a given phase
B. Load voltage and line voltage are two-thirds the source voltage for a given phase
C. Load voltage and line voltage cancel for a given phase
D. Load voltage, line voltage, and source phase voltage are all equal for a given phase
Answer: Option D
In a Y-Y source/load configuration, the
A. Phase current, the line current, and the load current are all equal in each phase
B. Phase current, the line current, and the load current are 120° Ωut of phase
C. Phase current and the line current are in phase, and both are 120° Ωut of phase with the load current
D. Line current and the load current are in phase, and both are out of phase with the phase current
Answer: Option A
he most common type of ac motor is the
A. Single-phase induction motor
B. Two-phase induction motor
C. Three-phase induction motor
D. Two-phase squirrel-cage motor
Answer: Option C
In a ∆-connected generator, all of the phase voltages are
A. Zero
B. Equal in magnitude
C. One-third of total
D. One-sixth of total
Answer: Option B
In a ∆-connected source feeding a Y-connected load
A. Each phase voltage equals the difference of the corresponding load voltages
B. Each phase voltage equals the corresponding load voltage
C. Each phase voltage is one-third the corresponding load voltage
D. Each phase voltage is 60° Ωut of phase with the corresponding load voltage
Answer: Option A
In a ∆-connected source feeding a Y-connected load
A. Each phase voltage equals the difference of the corresponding load voltages
B. Each phase voltage equals the corresponding load voltage

C. Each phase voltage is one-third the corresponding load voltage
D. Each phase voltage is 60° Ωut of phase with the corresponding load voltage
Answer: Option A
In a balanced three-phase load, each phase has
A. An equal amount of power
B. One-third of total power
C. Two-thirds of total power
D. A power consumption equal to (√3VL) IL
Answer: Option A
A constant load power means a uniform conversion of
A. Mechanical to electrical energy
B. Electrical to mechanical energy
C. Current to voltage
D. Voltage to current
Answer: Option B
In a series RC circuit, when the frequency and the resistance are halved, the impedance
A. Doubles
B. Is halved
C. Is reduced to one-fourth
D. Cannot be determined without values
Answer: Option D
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series RC circuit is decreased, the impedance
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. Doubles
Answer: Option A
When the frequency of the source voltage decreases, the impedance of a parallel RC circuit
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Does not change
D. Decreases to zero
Answer: Option A
In a series RC circuit, 12 V(rms) is measured across the resistor and 15 V(rms) is measured across the
capacitor. The rms source voltage is
A. 3 V
B. 27 V
C. 19.2 V
D. 1.9 V
Answer: Option C
An ac circuit consists of a resistor and a capacitor. To increase the phase angle above 45°, the following
condition must exist:
A. R = XC
B. R > XC
C. R < XC
D. R = 5XC
Answer: Option C
A 6 kHz sinusoidal voltage is applied to a series RC circuit. The frequency of the voltage across the
resistor is
A. 0 Hz
B. 12 kHz
C. 6 kHz
D. 18 kHz
Answer: Option C
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series RC circuit is increased, the phase angle
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. Becomes erratic
Answer: Option B
In a parallel RC circuit, there is 100 mA through the resistive branch and 100 mA through the capacitive
branch. The total rms current is
A. 200 mA
B. 100 mA
C. 282 mA
D. 141 mA
Answer: Option D
A Zener voltage regulator will cease to act as a voltage regulator if Zener current becomes ___________
A. Less than load current
B. Zero
C. More than load current
Answer: Option B
A Zener voltage regulator is used for ___________ load currents
A. High
B. Very high
C. Moderate
D. Small
Answer: Option D
The rupture of covalent bonds will occur when the electric field is ___________
A. 100 V/cm
B. 0.6 V/cm
C. 1000 V/cm
D. More than 10⁵ V/cm
Answer: Option D
Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by
A. heating
B. hammering
C. by inductive action of another magnet
D. by all above methods
Answer: Option D
Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by
A. increasing the cross-sectional area

B. increasing the number of turns
C. increasing current supply
D. all above methods
Answer: Option D
When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic field
A. the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to go away from the piece
B. the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to pass through the piece
C. the magnetic field will not be affected
D. the iron piece will break
Answer: Option B
Temporary magnets are used in
A. loud-speakers
B. generators
C. motors
D. all of the above

Answer: Option D
The materials having low retentivity are suitable for making
A. weak magnets
B. temporary magnets
C. permanent magnets
Answer: Option B
If the steel disk in a crankshaft position sensor has stopped with the tab in the magnet's air gap, the
induced voltage
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Is zero
D. Will remain constant
Answer: Option C
The unit of flux is the same as that of
A. reluctance
B. resistance
C. permeance
D. pole strength
Answer: Option D
Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more in shape as compared to magnetically soft
materials.
A. circular
B. triangular
C. rectangular
Answer: Option C
The relative permeability of materials is not constant.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. insulating
Answer: Option C
A permeable substance is one
A. which is a good conductor
B. which is a bad conductor
C. which is a strong magnet
D. through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily
Answer: Option D
The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as
A. a line vertical to the flux lines
B. the mean length of a ring shaped coil
C. a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field
D. a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
Answer: Option D
When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of a battery, the field at the center
of the circle
A. will be zero
B. will be infinite
C. will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied
D. will depend on the radius of the circle
Answer: Option D
The magnetic reluctance of a material
A. decreases with increasing cross sectional area of material
B. increases with increasing cross-sec-tional area of material
C. does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
D. any of the above
Answer: Option A
In a simple magnetic field the strength of magnet flux
A. is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field
B. increases continuously from initial value to final value
C. decreases continuously from initial value to final value
D. first increases and then decreases till it becomes zero

Answer: Option D
For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero?
A. Diamagnetic materials
B. Ferrimagnetic materials
C. Antiferromagnetic materials
D. Antiferrimagnetic materials
Answer: Option C
The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetisation because of
A. orbital motion of electrons
B. spin of electrons
C. spin of nucleus
D. either of these
Answer: Option C
Main causes of noisy solenoid are
A. strong tendency of fan out of laminations at the end caused by repulsion among magnetic lines of
force
B. uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between moving and stationary parts
C. both of above
Answer: Option C
A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic field is known as
A. ferromagnetic material
B. diamagnetic material
C. paramagnetic material
D. conducting material
Answer: Option B
Which of the following materials are diamagnetic?
A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Silver and copper
D. Iron
Answer: Option C
Magnetising steel is normals difficult because
A. it corrodes easily
B. it has high permeability
C. it has high specific gravity
D. it has low permeability
Answer: Option D
For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest?
A. Ferromagnetic materials
B. Paramagnetic materials
C. Diamagnetic materials
D. Ferrites
Answer: Option D
The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between
A. KT3 and 1CT6

B. 1CT3 and 1CT7
C. KT4 and KT8
D. 10"2 and KT5
Answer: Option A
The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air.
A. ferromagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. diamagnetic
D. dielectric
Answer: Option C
Air gap has_______eluctance as compared to iron or steel path
A. little
B. lower
C. higher
D. zero
Answer: Option B
When the resistor voltage in a series RL circuit becomes less than the inductor voltage, the phase angle
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Is not affected
Answer: Option A
When the frequency is decreased, the impedance of a parallel RL circuit
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Is not a factor
Answer: Option B
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series RL circuit is decreased, the impedance
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Does not change
Answer: Option A
If a load is purely inductive and the reactive power is 12 VAR, the apparent power is
A. 0 VA
B. 12 VA
C. 6 VA
D. 24 VA
Answer: Option B
In a series RL circuit, 12 V rms is measured across the resistor, and 14 V rms is measured across the
inductor. The peak value of the source voltage is
A. 18.4 V
B. 26.0 V
C. 2 V
D. 20 V
Answer: Option B
To increase the current in a series RL circuit, the frequency
A. Should be increased
B. Should be decreased
C. Should be constant
Answer: Option B
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series RL circuit is increased, the phase angle
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Does not change
Answer: Option B
Which of the following power factors results in less energy loss in an RL circuit?
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.4
D. 0.2
Answer: Option D
A certain series resonant circuit has a bandwidth of 2 kHz. If the existing coil is replaced with one having
a higher value of Q, the bandwidth will
A. Increase
B. Remain the same
C. Decrease
D. Be less selective
Answer: Option C
To tune a parallel resonant circuit to a higher frequency, the capacitance should be
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Left alone
D. Replaced with inductance

Answer: Option B
If the resistance in parallel with a parallel resonant circuit is reduced, the bandwidth
A. Disappears
B. Becomes sharper
C. Increases
D. Decreases
Answer: Option D
If the value of C in a series RLC circuit is decreased, the resonant frequency
A. Is not affected
B. Increases
C. Is reduced to zero
D. Decreases
Answer: Option B
In a series RLC circuit that is operating above the resonant frequency, the current
A. Lags the applied voltage

B. Leads the applied voltage
C. Is in phase with the applied voltage
D. Is zero
Answer: Option A
Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have ________ retentivity and
________ coercivity.
A. Low, high
B. High, high
C. High, low
D. Low, low
Answer: Option B
In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to
A. Rapid reversals of its magnetization
B. Flux density lagging behind magnetizing force
C. Molecular friction
D. It high retentivity
Answer: Option D
The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum
A. At 63.2% of its maximum steady value
B. At the start of the current flow
C. After one time constant
D. Near the final maximum value of current
Answer: Option B
To measure the current out of the second resistor in a circuit consisting of four resistors, an ammeter can
be placed
A. Between the second and third resistors
B. At the negative terminal of the source
C. Between the third and fourth resistors
D. At any point in the circuit
Answer: Option D
When one of three series resistors is removed from a circuit and the circuit is reconnected, the current
A. Increases
B. Increases by one-third
C. Decreases by one-third
D. Decreases by the amount of current through the removed resistor
Answer: Option A
Which of the following series combinations dissipates the most power when connected across a 120 V
source?
A. One 220 Ω resistor
B. Two 220 Ω resistors
C. Three 220 Ω resistors
D. Four 220 Ω resistors
Answer: Option A
If the input to an integrating circuit is a succession of alternating positive and negative pulses of very
short duration, the output will be
A. Rectangular
B. Triangular
C. Sine
D. Square
Answer: Option D
An integrating circuit is a simple RC series circuit with output taken across
A. Both R and C
B. R
C. C
Answer: Option C
If the input to a differentiating circuit is a saw-tooth wave, then output will be ___________.
A. Square
B. Triangular
C. Sine
D. Rectangular
Answer: Option D
If a square wave is fed to a differentiating circuit, the output will be ___________.
A. Sine wave
B. Sharp narrow pulses
C. Rectangular wave
D. Triangular wave
Answer: Option B
The multivibrator which generates square wave of its own is the
A. Monostable
B. Bistable
C. Astable
Answer: Option C
In a multivibrator, we have
A. Negative
B. 100 % positive
C. Both positive and negative

Answer: Option B
An astable multivibrator has ___________.
A. One stable state
B. Two stable states
C. No stable state
Answer: Option C
A monostable vibrator has ___________.
A. No stable state
B. One stable state
C. Two stable states
Answer: Option B
A bistable multivibrator has ___________.
A. Two stable states

B. One stable state
C. No stable state
Answer: Option A
A relay is superior to a mechanical switch because it ___________.
A. Is relatively inexpensive
B. Does not require moving contacts
C. Combines control with power amplification
Answer: Option C
When a rectangular voltage waveform is applied to a capacitor, then the current waveform is
___________.
A. Rectangular
B. Sinusoidal
C. Sawtooth
D. Square
Answer: Option A
If d.c. supply of 10 V is fed to a differentiating circuit, then output will be .
A. 20 V
B. 10 V
C. 0 V
Answer: Option C
A switch has ___________.
A. One state
B. Two states
C. Three states
Answer: Option B
A differentiating circuit is a simple RC circuit with output taken across ___________.
A. R
B. C
C. Both R and C
Answer: Option A
For an integrating circuit to be effective , the RC product should be ___________ the time period of the
input wave.
A. 5 times greater than
B. 5 times smaller than
C. Equal to
D. At least 10 times greater than
Answer: Option D
For a differentiating circuit to be effective, the RC product should be ___________ the time period of the
input wave.
A. Equal to
B. 5 times greater than
C. 5 times smaller than

D. At least 10 times greater than
Answer: Option D
The maximum speed of electronic switch can be ___________ operations per second.
A. 104
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 109
Answer: Option D
A. Receiving antenna
B. Radio transmitter
C. Radio receiver
D. Television receiver
Answer: Option D
When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the cut off region, the collector current is ___________.
A. ICBO
B. ICEO
C. (ß + 1) ICEO
D. IC(sat)
Answer: Option B
A relay is ___________ switch.
A. A mechanical
B. An electronic
C. An electromechanical
Answer: Option C
The most inexpensive switch is ___________ switch.
A. Electronic
B. Mechanical
C. Electromechanical
Answer: Option A
The switch that has the fastest speed of operation is ___________ switch.
A. Electronic
B. Mechanical
C. Electromechanical
Answer: Option A
The main disadvantage of a mechanical switch is that it___________.
A. Is operated mechanically
B. Is costly
C. Has high inertia
Answer: Option C
___________ multivibrator is a square wave oscillator.
A. Monostable
B. Astable
C. Bistable
Answer: Option B
The gain of an amplifier is expressed in db because ___________
A. It is a simple unit
B. Calculations become easy
C. Human ear response is logarithmic
Answer: Option C
RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequencies because
A. There is considerable power loss
B. There is hum in the output
C. Electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very large

Answer: Option C
The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because
A. Changes in temperature cause thermal instability
B. Circuit becomes heavy and costly
C. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit
Answer: Option A
In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, we use ___________
A. RC coupling
B. Transformer coupling
C. Direct coupling
Answer: Option A
RC coupling is used for ___________ amplification
A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Power
Answer: Option A
The upper or lower cut off frequency is also called ___________ frequency
A. Resonant
B. Sideband
C. 3 db
Answer: Option C
The best frequency response is of ___________ coupling
A. RC
B. Transformer
C. Direct
Answer: Option C
1 db corresponds to ___________ change in voltage or current level
A. 40%
B. 80%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: Option A
In an RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over mid-frequency range ___________
A. Changes abruptly with frequency
B. Is constant
C. Changes uniformly with frequency
Answer: Option B
An advantage of RC coupling scheme is the ___________
A. Good impedance matching

B. Economy
C. High efficiency
Answer: Option B
A gain of 1000 times in voltage is expressed by ___________
A. 60 db
B. 30 db
C. 120 db
D. 600 db
Answer: Option A
A gain of 1,000,000 times in power is expressed by ___________
A. 30 db
B. 60 db
C. 120 db
D. 600 db
Answer: Option B
1 db corresponds to ___________ change in power level
A. 50%
B. 35%
C. 26%
D. 22%
Answer: Option C
In obtaining the frequency response curve of an amplifier, the ___________
A. Amplifier level output is kept constant
B. Amplifier frequency is held constant
C. Generator frequency is held constant
D. Generator output level is held constant
Answer: Option D
If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 10 db, 5 db and 12 db, then total gain in db is
___________
A. 600 db
B. 24 db
C. 14 db
D. 27 db
Answer: Option D
In RC coupling, the value of coupling capacitor is about ___________
A. 100 pF
B. 0.1 µF
C. 0.01 µF
D. 10 µF
Answer: Option D
RC coupling is generally confined to low power applications because of
A. Large value of coupling capacitor
B. Low efficiency
C. Large number of components

Answer: Option B
Transformer coupling is generally employed when load resistance is
A. Large
B. Very large
C. Small
Answer: Option C
The purpose of RC or transformer coupling is to ___________
A. Block a.c.
B. Separate bias of one stage from another
C. Increase thermal stability
Answer: Option B
The frequency response of transformer coupling is ___________
A. Good
B. Very good
C. Excellent
D. Poor
Answer: Option D
The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than the product of the gains of individual stages due to
___________
A. Power loss in the coupling device
B. Loading effect of the next stage
C. The use of many transistors
D. The use of many capacitors
Answer: Option B
Emitter follower is a ___________ circuit
A. Voltage feedback
B. Current feedback
C. Both voltage and current feedback

Answer: Option A
The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ___________
A. Much less than 1
B. Approximately equal to 1
C. Greater than 1
Answer: Option B
When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance ___________
A. Is decreased
B. Is increased
C. Remains the same
Answer: Option B
When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance ___________
A. Is decreased
B. Is increased
C. Remains the same
Answer: Option A
When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance ___________
A. Is decreased
B. Is increased
C. Remains the same
Answer: Option A
In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the feedback circuit must be ___________
A. 1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 2
Answer: Option D
In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is ___________
A. LC tank circuit
B. Biasing circuit
C. Transistor
Answer: Option C
The application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator is ___________
A. Radio receiver
B. Radio transmitter
C. AF sweep generator
Answer: Option B
An important limitation of a crystal oscillator is ___________
A. Its low output

B. Its high Q
C. Less availability of quartz crystal
D. Its high output
Answer: Option A
For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be
A. 1
B. Greater than 1
C. Less than 1
D. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
Answer: Option B
For a NPN bipolar transistor, what is the main stream of current in the base region?
A. Drift of holes
B. Diffusion of holes
C. Drift of electrons
D. Diffusion of electrons
Answer: Option B
A thermistor is a
A. Thermocouple
B. Thermometer
C. Miniature resistance
D. Heat sensitive explosive
Answer: Option C
In an ideal diode there is no breakdown, no __________ current, and no forward __________ drop.
A. Reverse, voltage
B. Forward, current
C. Forward, voltage
D. Reverse, current
Answer: Option A
The dynamic resistance of a forward biased p-n diode
A. Varies inversely with current

B. Varies directly with current
C. Is constant
D. Is either constant or varies directly with current
Answer: Option A
Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is
A. An indirect band gap semiconductor
B. Direct band gap semiconductor
C. Wideband gap semiconductor
D. Narrowband gap semiconductor
Answer: Option A
Which variety of copper has the best conductivity?
A. Pure annealed copper
B. Hard drawn copper
C. Induction hardened copper

D. Copper containing traces of silicon
Answer: Option A
How many free electrons does a p type semiconductor has?
A. Only those produced by thermal energy
B. Only those produced by doping
C. Those produced by doping as well as thermal energy
D. Any of the above
Answer: Option A
Light dependent resistors are
A. Highly doped semiconductor
B. Intrinsic semiconductor
C. Lightly doped semiconductor
D. Either A or B
Answer: Option C
An intrinsic silicon sample has 1 million free electrons at room temperature. As the temperature is
increased
A. The number of free electrons increases

B. The number of free electrons increases but the number of holes decreases
C. The number of free electrons and holes increase by the same amount
D. The number of free electrons and holes increase but not by the same amount
Answer: Option C
Which of the following has highest resistivity?
A. Mica
B. Paraffin wax
C. Air
D. Mineral oil
Answer: Option C
he output, V-I characteristics of an Enhancement type MOSFET has
A. Only an ohmic region
B. Only a saturation region
C. An ohmic region at low voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
D. An ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
Answer: Option C
The amount of photoelectric emission current depends on
A. Frequency of incident radiation
B. Intensity of incident radiation
C. Both frequency and intensity of incident radiation
Answer: Option C
The sensitivity of human eyes is maximum at
A. White portion of spectrum
B. Green portion of spectrum
C. Red portion of spectrum
D. Violet portion of spectrum
Answer: Option B
Piezoelectric quartz crystal resonators find application where
A. Signal amplification is required

B. Rectification of the signal is required
C. Signal frequency control is required
D. Modulation of signal is required
Answer: Option B
In the sale of diamonds the unit of weight is carat. One carat is equal to
A. 100 mg
B. 150 mg
C. 200 mg
D. 500 mg
Answer: Option C
Permalloy is
A. A variety of stainless steel
B. A polymer
C. A conon-ferrous alloy used in aircraft industry

D. A nickel an iron alloy having high permeability
Answer: Option D
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a ferroelectric material?
A. High dielectric constant
B. No hysteresis
C. Ferroelectric characteristic only above the curie point
D. Electric dipole moment
Answer: Option C
In which of these is reverse recovery time nearly zero?
A. Zener diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Schottky diode
D. PIN diode
Answer: Option C
Fermi level is the amount of energy in which
A. A hole can have at room temperature

B. An electron can have at room temperature
C. Must be given to an electron move to conduction band
Answer: Option C
In monolithic ICs, all the components are fabricated by
A. Diffusion process
B. Oxidation
C. Evaporation
D. None
Answer: Option A
When diodes are connected in series to increase voltage rating the peak inverse voltage per junction
A. should not exceed half the breakdown voltage
B. should not exceed the breakdown voltage
C. should not exceed one third the breakdown voltage

D. may be equal to or less than breakdown voltage
Answer: Option C
The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of

A. CC-CB
B. CE-CB
C. CB-CC
D. CE-CC
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction

A. Junction capacitance
B. Charge storage capacitance
C. Depletion capacitance
D. Channel length modulation
Answer: Option D
The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold circuits is

A. A unity gain non-inverting amplifier
B. A unity gain inverting amplifier
C. An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10
D. An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100
B
In a common emitter, unbypassed resister provides
A. voltage shunt feedback
B. current series feedback
C. negative voltage feedback
D. positive current feedback
Answer: Option C
The current gain of a BJT is

A. gm r0
B. gm / r0
C. gm rπ
D. gm /rπ
Answer: Option C
The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high

frequencies because of
A. Transistor capacitances
B. High current effects in the base
C. Parasitic inductive elements
D. The early effect
Answer: Option A
Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high

frequencies due to the
A. Internal Capacitance of the device
B. Coupling capacitor at the input
C. Skin effect
D. Coupling capacitor at the output
Answer: Option A
A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re in a

differential amplifier
A. Affects the difference mode gain Ad
B. Affects the common mode gain Ac
C. Affects both Ad and Ac
D. Does not affect either Ad and Ac
Answer: Option B
The bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is dependent on

A. Q –factor of the tuned o/p circuit
B. Q –factor of the tuned i/p circuit
C. Quiescent operating point
D. Q-factor of the o/p and i/p circuits as well as quiescent operating point
Answer: Option A
Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common amplifier

stabilizes the dc operating point against variations in
A. Only the temperature
B. only the β of the transistor
C. Both Temperature & β
Answer: Option C
Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor

differential amplifier because of its
A. Input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic
B. High voltage gain
C. High input resistance
D. High CMRR
Answer: Option D
A source follower using an FET usually has a voltage gain

which is
A. Greater than +100
B. Slightly less than unity but positive
C. Exactly unity but negative
D. About -10
Answer: Option A
In an OP-amp differentiator
A. The amplitude of output is proportional to rate of change of input
B. The amplitude of output is proportional to input
C. Output occurs when input is finite and constant
D. Polarity of input and output is the same
Answer: Option A
In all base driver amplifiers

A. ac collector voltage is 180° out of phase with ac base voltage
B. ac emitter voltage is 180° out of phase with ac base voltage
C. ac collector voltage is in phase with ac base voltage
Answer: Option A
class AB operation is often used in power large signal)

amplifiers in order to
A. Get maximum efficiency
B. Remove even harmonics
C. Overcome a crossover distortion
D. Reducing collector dissipation
Answer: Option C
The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation

decreases with increase in
A. Gate voltage
B. Drain voltage
C. Source voltage
D. Body voltage
Answer: Option B
BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of ___________
A. germanium
B. silicon
C. carbon
Answer: Option B
A tuned amplifier is generally operated in ___________ operation
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class B
Answer: Option B
If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then double-tuned circuit should have coupling
A. Loose
B. Tight
C. Critical
Answer: Option A
At series or parallel resonance, the circuit power factor is ___________
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 8%
Answer: Option C
In the double tuned circuit, if the mutual inductance between the two tuned circuits is decreased, the
level of resonance curve ___________
A. Remains the same
B. Is lowered
C. Is raised
Answer: Option C
The Q of a tuned amplifier is generally ___________
A. Less than 5
B. Less than 10
C. More than 10
Answer: Option C
ICEO = () ICBO
A. ß
B. 1 + a
C. 1 + ß
Answer: Option C
A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because ___________
A. Emitter is heavily doped
B. Collector has reverse bias
C. Collector is wider than emitter or base
Answer: Option B
An amplifier has a power gain of 100. Its db gain is ___________
A. 10 db
B. 20 db
C. 40 db
Answer: Option B
A single stage transistor amplifier with collector load RC and emitter resistance RE has a d.c. load of
___________
A. RC
B. RC || RE
C. RC - RE
D. RC + RE
Answer: Option D
In a single stage transistor amplifier, RC and RL represent collector resistance and load resistance
respectively. The transistor sees a d.c. load of ___________
A. RC + RL
B. RC || RL
C. RL
D. RC
Answer: Option D
The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is generally ___________ that of a a.c. load
A. The same as
B. Less than
C. More than
Answer: Option C
If RC and RL represent the collector resistance and load resistance respectively in a single stage transistor
amplifier, then a.c. load is
A. RL + RC
B. RC || RL
C. RL - RC
D. RC
Answer: Option B
In a CE amplifier, voltage gain = ___________ x RAC/Rin
A. α
B. (1 + α)
C. (1+ β)
D. β
Answer: Option D
The value of collector load RC in a transistor amplifier is ___________ the output impedance of the
transistor.
A. The same as
B. Less than
C. More than
Answer: Option B
A single stage transistor amplifier with no load sees an a.c. load of
A. RC + RE
B. RC
C. RC || RE
D. RC/RE
Answer: Option B
If the input capacitor of a transistor amplifier is short-circuited, then

A. Transistor will be destroyed
B. Biasing conditions will change
C. Signal will not reach the base
Answer: Option B
The ratio of output impedance of a CE amplifier is ___________
A. About 1
B. Low
C. High
D. Moderate
Answer: Option D
CE amplifier, the phase difference between voltage across collector load RC and signal voltage is
___________
A. 180°
B. 270°
C. 90°
D. 0°
Answer: Option D
The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power because the additional power is
supplied by ___________
A. Transistor
B. Biasing circuit
C. Collector supply VCC
Answer: Option C
The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power because the additional power is
supplied by ___________
A. Transistor
B. Biasing circuit
C. Collector supply VCC
Answer: Option C
If the collector supply is 10V, then collector cut off voltage under d.c. conditions is ___________
A. 20 V
B. 5 V
C. 2 V
D. 10 V
Answer: Option D
n order to get more voltage gain from a transistor amplifier, the transistor used should have
___________
A. Thin base
B. Thin collector
C. Wide emitter
Answer: Option A
The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it ___________
A. Gives distorted output
B. Gives low power output

C. Requires a transformer
Answer: Option A
Transformer coupling can be used in ___________ amplifiers
A. Either power or voltage
B. Only power
C. Only voltage
Answer: Option A
If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 60° of the input signal, then it is
___________ operation
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
Answer: Option C
The most costly coupling is ___________ coupling
A. RC
B. Direct
C. Impedance
D. Transformer
Answer: Option D
When no signal is applied, the approximate collector efficiency of class A power amplifier is
A. 10%
B. 0%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Answer: Option B
The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled class A power amplifier is ___________
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 45%
Answer: Option B
The most important consideration in power amplifier is ___________
A. Biasing the circuit
B. Collector efficiency
C. To keep the transformer cool
Answer: Option B
A power amplifier has comparatively ___________ ß
A. Small
B. Large
C. Very large
Answer: Option A
The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property.
A. Should be nonmagnetic
B. Most be of low temperature coefficient
C. Should have low specific resistance
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Why is a MISC meter not recommended for DC measurement?
A. The meter is calibrated for AC and it’s error for DC would be high
B. The meter does not respond to DC signals
C. The error is high due to hysteresis effect
D. The error is high due to eddy current effect
Answer: Option C
A moving iron ammeter may be compensated for frequency errors by
A. A shunt resistance
B. A series inductance
C. Shunt capacitance
D. Series resistance
Answer: Option C
For handling greater currents induction watt-meters are used in conjunction with
A. Potential transformers
B. Current transformers
C. Power transformers
D. Either of the above
Answer: Option B
When using ohmmeter, applied voltage is to be disconnected from the circuit because
A. Voltage source will increase resistance
B. Current will decrease resistance
C. The ohmmeter has its own internal battery
Answer: Option C
A 10MHz CRO has
A. 5MHz sweep
B. 10MHz vertical oscillator
C. 10MHz horizontal oscillator
D. 10MHz supply frequency
Answer: Option C
A CRO can display
A. AC signals
B. DC signals
C. Both AC and DC signals
D. Time invariant signals
Answer: Option C
A galvanometer has
A. Air friction damping
B. Fluid friction damping

C. Spring coil damping
D. Eddy current damping
Answer: Option D
A megger is usually
A. Moving iron type instrument
B. Electro-static type instrument
C. Hot-wire type instrument
D. Moving coil type instrument
Answer: Option D
Ampere is one of the
A. Supplementary units
B. Derived units
C. Base units
D. Units used to measure charge
Answer: Option C
The internal resistance of an ammeter should be
A. Very small
B. Medium
C. High
D. Infinity
Answer: Option A
A rectifier type instrument is connected to 100VDC and is operated in the DC measuring module reads
A. 111V
B. 90V
C. 50V
D. 100V
Answer: Option A
An oscilloscope indicates
A. Peak to peak value of voltage
B. DC value of voltage
C. RMS value
D. Average value
Answer: Option A
Direct method is used to measure
A. Length
B. Temperature
C. Pressure
D. Voltage
Answer: Option A
The resistance can be measured most accurately by
A. Voltmeter-ammeter method
B. Bridge method
C. Multimeter
D. Megger
Answer: Option B
In a ballistic galvanometer, the deflecting torque is proportional to
A. The current through coil
B. Square of current through coil
C. Square-root of current through coil
D. Sine of measured
Answer: Option A
The current coil of a wattmeter is connected to the CT of R-phase. The potential coil is connected across
Y and B phases. The wattmeter measures
A. Active power in R phase
B. Active power of Y phase
C. Reactive power of R phase
D. Power proportional to 3 phase power if the load is balanced
Answer: Option C
he two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
A. The same dimensions and the same number of turns
B. The same dimension but different number of turns

C. The same number of turns but different dimensions
Answer: Option A
No eddy current and hysteresis losses occur in
A. Electrostatic instruments
B. PMMC instruments
C. Moving iron instruments
D. Electrodynamo meter instruments
Answer: Option A
The chemical effect of current is used in
A. D.C. ammeter hour meter
B. D.C. ammeter
C. D.C. energy meter

Answer: Option A
Some wire- wound resistors have bifilar winding. This type of winding is used to
A. Increase the thermal stability
B. Reduce the tolerance
C. Reduce the inductance of winding
D. Double the power rating of the resistor
Answer: Option C
The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil when
A. Load impedance is high
B. Load impedance is low
C. Supply voltage is low
Answer: Option A
Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
A. Electrostatic coupling
B. Electromagnetic coupling
C. Both A and B
Answer: Option A
The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
A. Series
B. Parallel
C. Series-parallel
Answer: Option A
The error of an instrument is normally given as a percentage of
A. Measured value
B. Full-scale value
C. Mean value
D. Rms value
Answer: Option B
The repeat accuracy of an instrument can be judged from its
A. Static error
B. Linearity error
C. Dynamic error
D. Standard deviation of error
Answer: Option D
In a gravity controlled instrument, the deflection angle is proportional
A. Measurand
B. Square of the measurand
C. Sine inverse of measurand
D. Sine of the measurand
Answer: Option C
The problem of Electrostatic coupling in a transformer is acute at
A. Low frequencies
B. Power frequencies
C. High frequencies
D. High load on the transformer
Answer: Option C
Which meter is suitable for the measurement of 10mV at 50MHz?
A. Moving iron voltmeter
B. VTVM
C. Moving coil voltmeter
D. CRO
Answer: Option D
Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage?
A. Small range moving coil voltmeter
B. D.C. potentiometer
C. Small range thermocouple voltmeter

Answer: Option B
An instrument to be used for measurement and control should preferably have
A. Dead zone and dead time
B. Linear output and fast response
C. Non-linear output
D. A highly damped response
Answer: Option B
Electrostatic instruments are normally used for
A. Low current measurements
B. High current measurements
C. Low voltage measurements
D. High voltage measurements
Answer: Option D
If the instrument is to have a wide range, the instrument should have
A. Linear scale
B. Square-law scale
C. Exponential scale
D. Logarithmic scale
Answer: Option D
It can be stated that
A. CT operates at almost the same flux density as a PT
B. CT operates with a higher flux density than PT
C. CT operates with considerably lower flux density than a PT
D. No generalisation can be made with regard to the flux densities in CT and PT
Answer: Option C
To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for the
potentiometer in taken
A. From a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
B. From a battery
C. From the same source as the unknown voltage
D. Any of the above

Answer: Option C
With a sweep time 10ms across the screen the approx. horizontal sawtooth frequency will be
A. 50Hz
B. 100Hz
C. 1kHz
D. 500Hz
Answer: Option B
The thermocouple instruments do not have
A. High sensitivity
B. Absence of frequency error
C. Independence of ambient temperature
D. High degree of measuring accuracy
Answer: Option D
Wien bridge is useful for measuring
A. Very high frequency

B. Low frequency
C. Medium frequency
D. High frequency
Answer: Option D
Double tuned circuits are used in ___________ stages of a radio receiver
A. IF
B. Audio
C. Output
Answer: Option A
A tuned amplifier is used in ___________ applications
A. Radio frequency
B. Low frequency
C. Audio frequency
Answer: Option A
A buffer amplifier is
A. A double-tuned amplifier
B. A high gain D.C. amplifier
C. A cathode follower stage
Answer: Option B
What is the purpose of peak clipper circuits in radio transmitters?
A. To prevent overmodulation
B. To reduce bandwidth
C. To increase bandwidth
D. To regulate oscillator I/P voltage
Answer: Option A
The direction of rotation of a CD is

A. Clockwise
B. Anticlockwise
C. Clockwise or anticlockwise depending on frequency of data stored
D. Mostly anticlockwise but some times clockwise
Answer: Option B
The frequency range of 300 kHz to 3000 kHz is known as
A. Low frequency
B. Medium frequency
C. High frequency
D. Very high frequency
Answer: Option B
A telephone channel requires a bandwidth of about
A. 1 kHz
B. 3 kHz
C. 10 kHz
D. 50 kHz
Answer: Option B
Fourier analysis indicate that a square wave can be represented as
A. A fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics
B. A fundamental sine wave and even harmonics
C. A fundamental sine wave and harmonics
D. Fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
Answer: Option A
If sampling is done at the rate of 10 kHz. The bandwidth required is
A. 35 kHz
B. 70 kHz
C. 10 kHz
D. 1280 kHz
Answer: Option A
n practical commercial FM system, channel bandwidth is

A. 150 kHz
B. 100 kHz
C. 88 MHz
D. 108 MHz
Answer: Option A
FM transmitting and receiving equipment as compared to AM equipment is
A. Costly
B. Cheaper
C. Almost equally costly
Answer: Option A
A modem is classified as low speed if data rate handled is
A. Upto 100 bps
B. Upto 250 bps
C. Upto 400 bps

D. Upto 600 bps
Answer: Option D
DVD uses
A. Laser beam for both recording and playback
B. Laser beam for recording and video head for playback
C. Video head for recording and laser beam for playback
Answer: Option A
For attenuation of high frequencies we should use
A. Shunt capacitance
B. Series capacitance
C. Inductance
D. Resistance
Answer: Option A
VSB modulation is preferred in TV because

A. It reduces the bandwidth requirement to half
B. It avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
C. It results in better reception
Answer: Option A
As per Shannon-Hartley theorem, a noise less Gaussian channel has
A. Zero capacity
B. Infinite capacity
C. Small capacity
Answer: Option B
In a TV receiver antenna the length of reflector rod
A. Is the same as that of dipole
B. Is less than that of dipole
C. Is more than that of dipole

D. May be equal, more or less than that of dipole
Answer: Option C
To eliminate ghosts in the picture
A. Use a longer transmission line
B. Connect a booster
C. Change the antenna orientation of location
D. Twist the transmission line
Answer: Option C
Circular polarization
A. Is useful in reducing depolarization effect on received wave
B. Involves critical alignment of transmitting and receiving antenna
C. Is useful in discrimination between reception of adjacent beams
Answer: Option A
In Modulation, “carrier” is
A. Resultant wave
B. Speech voltage to be transmitted
C. Voltage with constant frequency, phase or amplitude
D. Voltage for which frequency, phase or amplitude is varied
Answer: Option D
For a plate-modulated class C amplifier the plate supply voltage is E. The maximum plate cathode voltage
could be almost high as
A. 2E
B. 3E
C. 4E
D. 6E
Answer: Option C
A cordless telephone using separate frequencies for transmission in base and portable units is known as
A. Duplex arrangement
B. Half duplex arrangement
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
In TV systems, equalising pulses are sent during
A. Horizontal blanking
B. Vertical blanking
C. Serrations
D. Horizontal retrace
Answer: Option A
In case of frequency modulation, modulating voltage remains constant if the modulating frequency is
lowered, then
A. Amplitude of distant sidebands decreases
B. Amplitude of distant sidebands increases
C. Amplitude of distant sidebands remains constant
D. Amplitude of distant sidebands first increases, then decreases
Answer: Option B
The colour of an object is decided by

A. The reflected colour
B. The wavelength transmitted through it
C. Reflected colour for opaque object and wavelength transmitted through it for transparent objects
Answer: Option C
Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables?
A. Stepped index operation
B. Impurities
C. Microbending
D. Attenuation in glass
Answer: Option A
In a FM receiver, amplitude limiter
A. Amplifiers low frequency signals
B. Reduces the amplitude of signals
C. Eliminates any change in amplitude of received FM signals

Answer: Option C
When the length of antenna is a whole wavelength
A. The radiation at right angles is zero
B. The radiation at right angles is maximum
C. The radiation is zero in all directions
D. The radiation is maximum in all directions
Answer: Option A
Under ordinary circumstances, impulse noise can be reduced in
A. FM only
B. AM only
C. Both AM and FM
Answer: Option A
Commercial Frequency deviation of FM is

A. 70 kHz
B. 75 kHz
C. 80 kHz
D. 65 kHz
Answer: Option B
RADIORECIEVER
A low ratio of the ac to the dc load impedance of a diode detector results in
A. Diagonal clipping
B. Poor AGC operation
C. Negative-peak clipping
D. Poor AF response
Answer: Option C
If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate false statement)
A. Image frequency rejection is very good
B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable

C. The selectivity will be poor
D. Tracking will be improved
Answer: Option D
Indicate which of the following statements about the advantages of the phase discriminator over the
slope detector is false:
A. Much easier alignment
B. Better linearity
C. Greater limiting
D. Fewer tuned circuits
Answer: Option C
The controlled oscillator synthesizer is sometimes preferred over the direct one because
A. It is a simpler piece of equipment
B. Its frequency stability is better
C. It does not require crystal oscillator
D. It is relatively free of spurious frequency
Answer: Option D
The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming frequency
A. To help the image frequency rejection
B. To permit easier tracking
C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced
D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
Answer: Option D
Show which of the following statements about the amplitude limiter is untrue:
A. The circuit is always biased in class C, by virtue of the leak-type bias.
B. When the input increases past the threshold of the limiting, the gain decreases to keep the output
constant.
C. The output must be tuned
D. Leak-type bias must be used
Answer: Option A
An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it satisfactorily to receive
A. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier
B. Single-sideband, reduced-carrier
C. ISB
D. Single-sideband, full-carrier
Answer: Option D
Three-point tracking is achieved with
A. Variable selectivity
B. The padder capacitor
C. Double spotting
D. Double conversion
Answer: Option B
Indicate the false statement. Noting that no carrier is transmitter with J3E, we see that
A. The receiver cannot use a phase comparator for AFC
B. Adjacent-channel rejection is more difficult
C. Production of AGC is a rather complicated process
D. The transmission is not compatible with A3E
Answer: Option B
In a radio receiver with simple AGC
A. An increase in signal strength produces more AGC
B. The audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC
C. The faster the AGC time constant the more accurate the output
D. The highest AGC voltage is produced
Answer: Option A
To prevent overloading of the IF amplifier in a receiver, one should use
A. Squelch
B. Variable sensitivity
C. Variable selectivity
D. Double conversion
Answer: Option B
If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor receiver, this will have the effect of
A. Improving the effectiveness of the AGC
B. Reducing the effect of negative-peak clipping

C. Reducing the effect of noise at low modulation depths
D. Improving the selectivity of the receiver
Answer: Option B
Indicate the false statement. The superheterodyne receiver replaced the TRF receiver because the latter
suffered from
A. Gain variation over the frequency coverage range
B. Insufficient gain and sensitivity
C. Inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
D. Instability
Answer: Option B
The typical squelch circuit cuts off
A. an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent
B. RF interference when the signal is weak
C. An IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
D. An IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum
Answer: Option A
When a receiver has good blocking performance, this means that
A. It does not suffer from double-spotting
B. Its image frequency rejection is poor
C. It is unaffected by AGC derived from nearby transmissions
D. Its detector suffers from burnout
Answer: Option B
One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to
A. Provide improved tracking
B. Permit better adjacent-channel rejection
C. Increase the tuning range of the receiver
D. Improve the rejection of the image frequency
Answer: Option D
Indicate the false statement in connection with communications receivers.
A. The noise limiter cuts off the receiver’s output during a noise pulse.
B. A product demodulator could be used for the reception of Morse code.

C. Double conversion is used to improve image rejection
D. Variable sensitivity is used to eliminate selective fading
Answer: Option D
The frequency generated by each decade in a direct frequency synthesizer is much higher than the
frequency shown; this is done to
A. Reduce the spurious frequency problem
B. Increase the frequency stability of the synthesizer
C. Reduce the number of decades
D. Reduce the number of crystals required
Answer: Option A
The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver
A. Is created within the receiver itself
B. Is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
C. Is not rejected be the IF tuned circuits
D. Is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned
Answer: Option C
In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the
A. Local oscillator operates below the signal frequency
B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency
C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF
D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 kHz above the carrier frequency
In root locus analysis the breakaway and break in points

A. lie on the real axis
B. Either lie on the real axis or occur in complex conjugate pairs
C. Always occur in complex conjugate pairs
Answer: Option B
Which of the following features is not associated with Nichols

chart?
A. (0 dB, -180°) point on Nichols chart represent critical Point (-1, 0)
B. It is symmetric about -180°
C. M loci are centred about (0 dB, -180°) point
D. The frequency at intersection of G(j?) locus and M = +3 dB locus gives
bandwidth of closed loop system
Answer: Option D
A lag compensator
A. Speeds up the transient response of the system
B. Improves steady state behavior of the system
C. Improves steady state behavior and speeds up the transient response of the
system
D. Improves steady state behavior and preserves the transient response of the
system
Answer: Option D
A lead compensator
A. Speeds up the transient response
B. Increases the stability margin
C. Increases the stability margin and speeds up the transient-response.
Answer: Option C
Transport lag usually exists in

A. Thermal systems
B. Hydraulic systems and thermal systems
C. Pneumatic systems
D. Thermal, hydraulic and pneumatic systems
Answer: Option D
Robotic manipulator arms mostly use

A. Hydraulic actuator
B. Pneumatic actuator
C. Electric motor actuator
Answer: Option C
In the field controlled motor the entire damping comes from

A. Armature resistance
B. Back emf
C. Motor friction and load
D. Field resistance
Answer: Option C
Integral control action

A. Removes offset
B. May lead to oscillatory response
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C
Which of the following can be used as a rotating amplifier in a
control system?
1. Amplidyne
2. Separately excited dc generator
3. Synchro
4. Self excited dc generator
A. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. All
Answer: Option B
In control systems the output of sensor usually, is

A. Analog electrical signal
B. Digital electrical signal
C. Mechanical signal
D. Analog or digital electrical signal
Answer: Option D
M circles are symmetrical with respect to

A. Real and imaginary axis
B. M = 1 straight line and real axis
C. M = 1 straight line and imaginary axis
D. M = 1 straight line
Answer: Option B
A system is highly oscillatory if

A. Gain margin is high
B. Gain margin is close to 1
C. Gain margin is close to 1 or phase margin is zero
D. Gain margin is high and phase margin is 180°
Answer: Option C
In a two phasor servomotor, the direction of rotation of the

rotating field depends on
A. Magnitudes of voltages applied to the two stator windings
B. Phase relation of voltages applied to the two stator windings
C. Both magnitude and phase relationship of voltages applied to the two stator
windings
Answer: Option B
The sensor generally used in incremental optical encoder is

A. LED
B. LCD
C. Photodiode
D. Either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option C
n force current analogue, mechanical mobility is analogous to

A. Impedance Z
B. Admittance Y
C. Reactance X
D. Conductance G
Answer: Option A
Nichols chart consists of

A. Constant magnitude loci
B. Constant phase angle loci
C. Magnitude and phase angle loci in log-magnitude versus phase diagram
Answer: Option C
Magnetic amplifier is used for

A. Voltage amplification
B. Power amplification
C. Current amplification
D. Frequency amplification
Answer: Option B
Which control action can never be used alone?

A. Proportional
B. Derivative
C. Integral
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option B
In force current analogy, displacement x is analogous to

A. Charge
B. Magnetic flux linkage
C. Electrostatic energy
D. Voltage
Answer: Option B
If the poles lie in first and second quadrant, damping ratio is

A. 1
B. less than 1
C. zero
D. more than 1
In a simple on-off controller with differential gap, the

magnitude of differential gap determines
A. The level of accuracy
B. The life of controller
C. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
The distance of poles from origin depends on
A. Uqndamped natural frequency
B. Damping ratio
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
The permanent magnet field system of brushless dc servo-
motor is generally on
A. Stator
B. Rotor
C. Partly on stator and partly on rotor
D. Either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option B
For any transfer function, the constant phase angle loci are
A. A family of circles
B. A family of straight lines
C. Either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option A
The addition of a pole to the open loop transfer function pulls

the root locus
A. To the right
B. To the left and making the system more stable
C. Towards right or left depending on the position of new pole
Answer: Option A
DC tachogenerator can be used in
A. Speed control system
B. Position control system
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
A conditionally stable system is stable for the value of gain

between two critical values. It is unstable if
A. The gain is increased beyond upper critical value
B. The gain is decreased below lower critical value
C. Both A and B
Answer: Option C
Which dc servomotor requires strongest permanent magnet?

A. Slotted armature
B. Surface wound armature
C. Surface wound with stationary rotor
D. Either A or B
Answer: Option C
Temperature is analogous to
A. Voltage
B. Flux
C. Charge
Answer: Option A
The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are
A. constant, constant
B. constant, infinity
C. zero, constant
D. zero, zero
Answer: Option C
Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
A. The gain of the system should be decreased
B. The gain of the system should be increased
C. The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
D. The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased

Answer: Option B
The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
A. Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
B. Laplace Transform
C. Fourier Integral
D. Either (B) or (C)
Answer: Option A
An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?
A. Constant current
B. Constant voltage
C. Constant current as well as constant voltage
D. Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
E. None of the above
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?
A. The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
B. The range of measured variables from set value
C. The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from maximum to minimum
D. Any of the above
Answer: Option C
Is not a final control element.
A. Control valve
B. Potentiometer
C. Electropneumatic converter
D. Servomotor
Answer: Option B
For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?
A. Less expensive
B. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
C. Construction is simple and maintenance easy
D. Errors are caused by disturbances
Answer: Option B
An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
A. open
B. closed
C. partially closed
D. any of the above
Answer: Option A
The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
A. Transient response
B. Error response
C. Dynamic response
D. Either of the above
Answer: Option A
The transient response, with feedback system,
A. rises slowly
B. rises quickly
C. decays slowly
D. decays quickly
Answer: Option D
The transient response, with feedback system,
A. rises slowly
B. rises quickly
C. decays slowly
D. decays quickly
Answer: Option D
Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tachogenerator ?
A. Acceleration
B. Speed
C. Speed and acceleration
D. Displacement
Answer: Option B
In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
A. Error detector
B. Final control element
C. Sensor
D. Oscillator
Answer: Option D
Increases the steady state accuracy.
A. Integrator
B. Differentiator
C. Phase lead compensator
D. Phase lag compensator

Answer: Option A
Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
A. feedback
B. stimulus
C. signal
D. gain control
Answer: Option B
Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
A. feedback
B. stimulus
C. signal
D. gain control
Answer: Option B
In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
A. current
B. charge
C. inductance
D. capacitance
Answer: Option A
The fan put of a 7400 NAND gate is
A. 2TTL
B. 5TTL
C. 8TTL
D. 10TTL
Answer: Option D
In which of the following base systems is 123 not a valid number?
A. Base 10
B. Base 16
C. Base 8
ELECTRO MAGNETIC INDUCTION
In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the coefficient of coupling will be
A. 2.0
B. 1.0
C. 0.5
D. Zero
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is not a unit of inductance?
A. Henry
B. Coulomb/volt ampere
C. Volt second per ampere
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
An open coil has
A. Zero resistance and inductance
B. Infinite resistance and zero inductance
C. Infinite resistance and normal inductance

D. Zero resistance and high inductance
Answer: Option B
Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
A. Air core
B. Laminated iron core
C. Iron core
D. Powdered iron core
Answer: Option A
Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled. Its self-inductance will be
A. Unaffected
B. Doubled
C. Halved
D. Quadrupled
Answer: Option B
If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
A. Aid the increasing current
B. Tend to decrease the amount of current
C. Produce current opposite to the increasing current
D. Aid the applied voltage
Answer: Option C
A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is not affected by
A. Variation in coil current
B. Variation in voltage to the coil
C. Change of number of turns of coil
D. The resistance of magnetic path
Answer: Option B
he direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by
A. Laplace's law
B. Lenz's law
C. Fleming's right hand rule

D. Kirchhoff s voltage law
Answer: Option B
In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The inductance
of the coil will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Initially increase and then decrease
Answer: Option B
Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
A. Lesser its weber-turns
B. Lower the e.m.f. induced
C. Greater the flux produced by it
D. Longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Answer: Option D
Air-core coils are practically free from

A. Hysteresis losses
B. Eddy current losses
C. Both A and B
Answer: Option C
A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
A. More wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
B. The laminations are insulated from each other
C. The magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
D. The laminations are stacked vertically
Answer: Option B
MICROPROCESSOR
In one’s complement 8 bit representation 11111111 represents
A. +0
B. -0
C. +1
D. -1
Answer: Option B
Circuit A is a 1-bit adder; circuit B is a 1 bit multiplier.
[Hint: Construct the truth table for the adder and the multiplier]
A. Circuit A has more gates than circuit B
B. Circuit B has more gates than circuit A
C. Circuit A has the same number of gates as circuit B
Answer: Option A
The five flags in 8085 are designated as
A. Z, CY, S, P and AC
B. D, Z, S, P, AC
C. Z, C, S, P, AC
D. Z, CY, S, D, AC
Answer: Option A
A 37 bit mantissa has an accuracy of
A. 6 decimal places
B. 8 decimal places
C. 10 decimal places
D. 11 decimal places
Answer: Option D
DS directive in 8085
A. Forces the assembler to reserve one byte of memory
B. Forces the assembler to reserve a specified number of bytes in the memory
C. Forces the assembler to reserve a specified number of consecutive bytes in the memory
Answer: Option C
Because we wish to allow each ASCII code to occupy one location in memory, most memories are
__________ addressable.
A. BYTE
B. NIBBLE
C. WORD (16 bits)
D. DOUBLEWORD (32 bits)
Answer: Option A
We say that a set of gates is logically complete if we can build any circuit without using any other kind of
gates. Which of the following sets are logically complete
A. Set of {AND,OR}
B. Set of {EXOR, NOT}
C. Set of {AND,OR,NOT}
Answer: Option C
In a C expression using assignment operators, relational operators and arithmetic operators, the
hierarchy of operations (in the absence of parenthesis) is
A. Assignment, relational, arithmetic
B. Relational, assignment, arithmetic
C. Arithmetic, assignment, relational
D. Arithmetic, relational, assignment

Answer: Option D
In 8086 the number of bytes which can be addressed directly is about
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. one million
Answer: Option D
Which of the following pair of gates can form a latch?
A. A pair of cross coupled OR
B. A pair of cross copled AND
C. A pair of cross coupled NAND
D. A cross coupled NAND/OR
Answer: Option C
When the write enable input is not asserted, the gated D latch _________ its output.
A. Can not change

B. Clears
C. Sets
D. Complements
Answer: Option A
For a memory with a 16-bit address space, the addressability is
A. 16 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 2^16 bits
Answer: Option D
In 8085
A. P flag is set when the result has even parity
B. P flag is set when the result has odd parity
C. P flag is reset when the result has odd parity
D. P flag is reset when the result has even parity

Answer: Option A
In 8085 which addressing mode is also called inherent addressing?
A. Direct
B. Register
C. Implicit
D. Immediate
Answer: Option C
In 8085 which addressing mode is also called inherent addressing?
A. Direct
B. Register
C. Implicit
D. Immediate
Answer: Option C
In C the keywords are also called
A. Special words
B. Reserved words
C. Class words
D. Character words
Answer: Option B
A real number consists of
A. Integer part
B. Integer part and fraction part
C. Integer part, fraction part along with positive or negative sign
Answer: Option C
Using DeMorgan’s Theorem we can convert any AND-OR structure into
A. NAND-NAND
B. OR-NAND
C. NAND-NOR
D. NOR-NAND
Answer: Option A
If the sign bit of mantissa is 0 and the exponent is increased from a positive to a more negative number
the result is
A. A larger floating point number
B. A smaller floating point number
C. Either A or B depending on the actual number
D. A negative floating point number
Answer: Option A
The forms of IF statements in FORTRAN 77 are called
A. Logical IF and Block IF
B. Logical IF, block IF and arithmetic IF
C. Logic IF, block IF, arithmetic IF and negate IF
D. Logical IF and arithmetic IF
Answer: Option B
Which of the following conditions is not allowed in an RS latch?
A. R is asserted, S is asserted
B. R is asserted, S is negated
C. R is negated, S is asserted
D. R is negated, S is negated
Answer: Option A
If m is a power of 2, the number of select lines required for an m-input mux is:
A. m
B. 2^m
C. log2 (m)
D. 2*m
Answer: Option C
The timing difference between a slow memory and fast processor can be resolved if
A. Processor is capable of waiting
B. External buffer is used
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
Which memory has read operation, byte erase, byte write and chip erase?
A. RAM
B. UVEPROM
C. EEPROM
D. Both B and C
Answer: Option C
D. Base 3
Answer: Option D
The number of Boolean functions that can be generated by n variables is equal to
A. 2n
B. 22n
C. 2n-1
D. 2n
6. An electrical circuit with 8 independent nodes will have
a) 10 node equations
b) 4 node equations
c) 3 node equations
d) 7 node equations
Ans: (d)
12. Which of the following statement is true?
a) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter

b) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
c) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
d) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
Ans: (a)
14. Which of the following equation is Poisson’s equation?
a) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 + d2V/dz2 = 0

b) d2V/dx2 = - p/ε0
c) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 = 0
d) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 = p/ε0
Ans: (b)
16. A passive network
a) Has no current source

b) Has no e.m.f. source
c) Has neither of the above
d) Has either of the above
Ans: (b)
22. Mass in the MKS unit system is analogous to
a) Resistance
b) Voltage
c) Inductance
d) Capacitance
(d)
27. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The flow of current in the electric circuit involves discontinuous expenditure of

energy.
b) The flow of current in the electric circuit requires energy for creating the current but
not to maintain it.
c) In the magnetic circuit energy is needed continuously to maintain the flux.
d) In the magnetic circuit energy is needed for creating the flux initially but not to
maintain it.
Ans: (c)
32. The amplitude factor of sinusoidal voltage is
a) 1.11
b) 1.57
c) 1.414
d) 0.637
e) 0.707
Ans: (c)
34. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
a) Very high
b) Practically zero
c) A few thousand ohm
d) Close to 10,000 ohms
Ans: (b)
36. If a parallel circuit is open in the main line, the current
a) Increases in each branch

b) Is zero in all branches
c) Is zero in the highest resistive branch
d) Increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
Ans: (b)
37. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in
a) Parallel with each other

b) Parallel with the voltage source
c) Series with the voltage source
d) Series with each other
Ans: (d)
38. In a series parallel circuit with 6 resistances if there are three in one parallel bank, these three
resistances must have
a) The same current as in the voltage source

b) The same current
c) The same IR drop
d) An IR drop equal to the applied voltage
Ans: (c)
42. The hot resistance of the bulbs’s filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature coefficient of the filament is
a) Negative
b) Zero
c) Positive
d) About 5 ohms per degree
Ans: (c)
48. A closed switch has a resistance of
a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) About 500 ohms
d) About 50 ohms at room temperature
Ans: (b)
52. A 2.2 lead acid cell
a) Is a primary cell
b) Is a secondary cell
c) Has unlimited shelf life
d) Has a maximum current rating of about 150 mA
Ans: (b)
53. The formation of the hydrogen bubbles around the carbon electrode in a dry cell is
a) Local action caused by chemical impurities

b) Polarization caused by electrolysis
c) Depolarization caused by manganese dioxide
d) An advantage because it increases the voltage output
Ans: (b)
54. When a lead acid battery is charged
a) The battery voltage must be more than charging voltage

b) Connect the positive battery terminal to the negative on the charging current
c) The charging current must flow in same direction as the discharging current
d) Connect negative to negative and positive to positive
Ans: (d)
55. The Edison cell
a) Is a primary cell
b) Uses sulphuric acid electrolyte
c) Has 2.5 volts output
d) Has nickel and iron electrolyte
Ans: (d)
58. A magnet can pick up nail because of
a) Excess charge on the nail

b) Magnetic induction
c) Declination of magnetic field
d) Molecular magnets in the air around the nail
Ans: (b)
59. A magnetic compass point to the
a) Geographical poles
b) True north pole
c) Magnetic north pole
d) Agonic line of the earth filed
Ans: (c)
60. If the wire which is vertical to this page has electron flow downward the conductor will have
a) No magnetic field
b) A counter-clockwise field in the plane of the power
c) A clockwise field in the plane of the paper
d) A counter-clockwise field in the plane perpendicular to the paper
Ans: (b)
61. Which lines of forces produced by two magnetic fields, the field
a) Is stronger where the lines of force are in the same direction

b) Is stronger where the lines are in opposite direction
c) Has the same strength as for one magnet
d) Is weakest where the lines are in the same direction
Ans: (a)
3. The force tending to make a loop of wire rotate is called
a) Energy
b) Power
c) Voltage
d) Torque
Ans: (d)
64. Motor action in a wire conducting current can be produced
a) Without any additional magnetic field

b) Move the conductor from weaker field toward stronger field
c) Move the conductor from stronger field toward a weaker field
d) Produce the motion of the conductor but not rotation
Ans: (c)
67. Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?
a) 1-amp. D.c. current

b) 50-amp. D.c. current
c) 1-amp. 60 cycles a.c. current
d) 1-amp. 490 cycles a.c. current
Ans: (d)
68. When the alternating voltage reverses in polarity, the current its produces
a) Reverses its direction

b) Has the same direction
c) Has phase angle of 180 degree
d) Alternates at 1.4 time the frequency of the applied voltage
Ans: (a)
70. If the length, number of turns, and area of a coil are doubled, the inductance of the coil is
a) The same
b) Double
c) Quadrupled
d) One-quarter
Ans: (c)
71. The d.c. resistance of a coil made with 100ft of gauge No. 30 copper wire is approximately
a) Less than one ohm

b) 10.5 ohms
c) 104 ohms
d) More than 1 M Ω
Ans: (b)
72. An open coil has
a) Zero resistance and high inductance

b) Infinite resistance and zero inductance
c) Infinity resistance and normal inductance
d) Zero resistance and inductance
Ans: (b)
73. Inductive resistance is measured in ohms because it
a) Reduces the amplitude of alternating current

b) Increases the amplitude of alternating current
c) Increases the amplitude of direct current
d) Has a back e.m.f. opposing the voltage output of a battery
Ans: (a)
74.Inductive reactance applied to sine wave only because it
a) Increases with lower frequency

b) Increases with lower inductance
c) Depends on the factor 2π
d) Decreases with the higher frequencies
Ans: (c)
76. An arc across the switch opening an R-L circuit is a result is a result of the
a) Long time constant

b) Large self-induced voltage across the inductance
c) Source of the voltage caused by IR drop across the resistance
d) Low resistance of the open switch
Ans: (b)
77. In a sine wave a.c. circuit with a resistive branch and inductive branch in parallel, the
a) Voltage across the inductor leads the voltage across the reactance by 90°
b) Resistance branch current is 90° out of phase with the inductive branch current
c) Resistive and inductive branch current are 180° out of phase
d) Inductive and resistive branch currents are in phase
Ans: (b)
78. A.d.c. voltage of 12 volts applied across an inductance in series with a switch
a) Can produce the induced voltage as the current decreases when the switch is opened
b) Cannot produce the induced voltage as the voltage applied has the one polarity
c) Produces more induced voltage when the switch is closed than the switch is opened
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
79. Alternating current in the inductance will produce maximum induced voltage when the
current has its
a) Maximum value
b) Maximum change in magnetic field
c) Minimum change in magnetic field
d) 0.707 × Peak
Ans: (b)
81. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Iron core has maximum eddy-current losses

b) Laminated iron core has minimum eddy-current losses
c) Power-iron core has the maximum eddy-current losses
d) Air core has the minimum eddy-current
Ans: (d)
85. If an a.c. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit
because
a) Of high peak value

b) Charging current can flow
c) Discharge current can flow
d) Varying voltage produces the charging and discharging currents
Ans: (d)
87. A steady d.c. voltage is applied to capacitor, after changes to battery voltage, the current in
the circuit
a) Depends on the current rating of the battery

b) Is greater for larger values of capacitances
c) Is smaller for larger values of capacitances
d) Is zero for any value of capacitance
Ans: (d)
88. In sine wave a.c. circuit with Xc and R in series, the
a) Voltages across R and Xc are in phase

b) Voltages across R and Xc are 180° out of phase
c) Voltages across R leads the voltages across Xc by 90°
d) Voltage across R lags the voltage across Xc by 90°
Ans: (c)
104. The magnetic flux density B is analogous to
a) Electromotive force V
b) Displacement current D
c) Electric intensity
d) Electric displacement
Ans: (c)
upto 7 page
Answer: Option B
Which mechanism allocates the binary value to the states in order to reduce the cost of the
combinational circuits?
A. State Reduction
B. State Minimization
C. State Assignment
D. State Evaluation
Answer: Option C
Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ___________
A. OR gates
B. NOT gates
C. NAND gates
Answer: Option C
A debouncing circuit is
A. An astable MV
B. A bistable MV
C. A latch
D. A monostable MV
Answer: Option C
Most of the digital computers do not have floating point hardware because
A. Floating point hardware is costly
B. It is slower than software
C. It is not possible to perform floating point addition by hardware
D. Of no specific reason
Answer: Option A
Assuming 8 bits for data, 1 bit for parity, I start bit and 2 stop bits, the number of characters that 1200
BPS communication line can transmit is.
A. 10 CPS
B. 120 CPS
C. 12 CPS
Answer: Option C
An AND gate will function as OR if
A. All the inputs to the gates are “1”
B. All the inputs are ‘0’
C. Either of the inputs is “1”
D. All the inputs and outputs are complemente'
Answer: Option D
Which type of CPLD packaging can provide maximum number of pins on the package due to small size of
the pins?
A. PLCC
B. QFP
C. PGA
D. BGA
Answer: Option D
Among the logic families, the family which can be used at very high frequency greater than 100 MHz in a
4 bit synchronous counter is
A. TTLAS
B. CMOS
C. ECL
D. TTLLS
Answer: Option C
In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ___________.
A. OR operation
B. AND operation
C. NOT operation
Answer: Option C
A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52 F. The next reading will be
A. F52E
B. G52F
C. F53F
D. F53O
Answer: Option D
NAND. gates are preferred over others because these
A. have lower fabrication area
B. can be used to make any gate
C. consume least electronic power
D. provide maximum density in a chip.
Answer: Option B
NAND. gates are preferred over others because these
A. have lower fabrication area
B. can be used to make any gate
C. consume least electronic power
D. provide maximum density in a chip.
Answer: Option B
The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is ___________.
A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NOT gate
Answer: Option C
Digital computers are more widely used as compared to analog computers, because they are
A. Less expensive
B. Always more accurate and faster
C. Useful over wider ranges of problem types
D. Easier to maintain
Answer: Option C
Excess-3 code is known as
A. Weighted code
B. Cyclic redundancy code

C. Self-complementing code
D. Algebraic code
Answer: Option C
The number 10000 would appear just immediately after
A. FFFF (hex)
B. 1111 (binary)
C. 7777 (octal)
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Which of the following gate is a two-level logic gate
A. OR gate
B. NAND gate
C. EXCLUSIVE OR gate
D. NOT gate
Answer: Option C
Consider the representation of six-bit numbers by two’s complement, one’s complement, or by sign and
magnitude: In which representation is there overflow from the addition of the integers 011000 and
011000?
A. Two’s complement only
B. Sign and magnitude and one’s complement only
C. Two’s complement and one’s complement only
D. All three representations
Answer: Option D
2. Effect of feedback on the plant is to
a) Control system transient response

b) Reduce the sensitivity to plant parameter variations
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
4. In an open loop system
a) Output control the input signal

b) Output has no control over input signal
c) Some other variable control the input signal
d) Neither output nor any other variable has any effect on input
Ans: (d)
7. Automatic control system in which output is a variable is called
a) Closed loop system
b) Servomechanism
c) Automatic regulating system
d) Process control system
Ans: (d)
8. Output of the feedback control system should be a function of
a) Input
b) Reference and output
c) Feedback signal
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
9. Steady state error is always zero in response to the displacement input for
a) Type 0 system
b) Type 1 system
c) Type 2 system
d) Type (N > 1) system for N= 0, 1, 2….N
Ans: (d)
11. At resonance peak, ratio of output to input is
a) Zero
b) Lowest
c) Highest
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
0 type system has
a) Zero steady state error

b) Small steady state error
c) High gain constant
d) Higher error with high K
Ans: (b)
13. If gain of the system is zero, then the roots
a) Coincide with the poles

b) Move away from the zeros
c) Move away from the poles
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
14. Settling time is inversely proportional to product of the damping ratio and
a) Time constant
b) Maximum overshoot
c) Peak time
d) Undamped natural frequency of the roots
Ans: (b)
16. If gain of the system is increased, then
a) Roots move away from the zeros

b) Roots move towards the origin of the S-plot
c) Roots move away from the poles
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
17. A low value of friction coefficient
a) Minimize the velocity lag error
b) Maximize the velocity lag error
c) Minimize the time constant of the system
d) Maximize the time constant of the system
Ans: (a)
19. If overshoot is excessive, then damping ratio is
a) Equal to 0.4
b) Less than 0.4
c) More than 0.4
d) Infinity
Ans: (b)
20. For a desirable transient response of a second order system damping ratio must be between
a) 0.4 and 0.8

b) 0.8 and 1.0
c) 1.0 and 1.2
d) 1.2 and 1.4
Ans: (a)
21. For second order linear system, setting time is
a) 1/4 of the time constant

b) 1/2 of the time constant
c) 4 times the time constant
d) 2 times the time constant
Ans: (c)
24. Second-derivative input signal adjust
a) Time constant of the system

b) Time constant and supress the oscillations
c) Damping of the system
d) Gail of the system
Ans: (b)
25. In the derivative error compensation
a) Damping decreases and setting time increases

b) Damping increases and settling time increases
c) Damping decreases and setting time decrease
d) Damping increases and setting time decreases
Ans: (d)
27. With feedback system sensitivity to parameter
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Becomes zero
d) Becomes infinite
Ans: (a)
28. In a closed loop system, source power is modulated with
a) Error signal
b) Reference signal
c) Actuating signal
d) Feed back signal
Ans: (a)
29. With feedback system, transient response
a) Decays constantly
b) Decays slowly
c) Decays quickly
d) Rises fast
Ans: (c)
33. Differential is used in synchro differential unit for generators only
a) Indicating difference of rotation angle of two synchro generators only

b) Indicating sum of rotation angle of two synchro generators only
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
35. Laplace transformer is not applicable to non-linear system because
a) Non-linear systems are time-varying
b) Time domain analysis is easier than frequency domain analysis
c) Initial conditions are not zero in non-linear systems
d) Superposition law is not applicable to non-linear system
Ans: (d)
39. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a modern control system?
a) No oscillation
b) Accuracy
c) Quick response
d) Correct power level
Ans: (a)
43. Most common use of the synchros is as
a) Error detector
b) Transmission of angular
c) Transmission of arithmetic data
d) For synchronization
Ans: (d)
44. To decrease time of the servomechanism
a) Decreases inertia of the system

b) Increases inertia of the system
c) Increases damping of the system
d) Decreases torque of the servomotor
Ans: (a)
46. Servomechanism is called a proportional error device when output of the system is function
of
a) Error
b) Error and its first derivative
c) First derivative of error
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
47. For type 2 system, position error arises at steady state when input is
a) Ramp
b) Step displacement
c) Constant acceleration
d) None of these
(c)
Ans: 6. Electrical resistance is analogous to
a) Intertia
b) Dampers
c) Spring
d) Fluid capacity
Ans: (b)
49. To decrease the number of system
a) First integrator and then differentiator is inserted

b) First differentiator and then integrator is inserted
c) Only differentiator is inserted in the forward path
d) Only integrator is inserted in the forward path
Ans: (c)
51. If feedback is introduced in the system the transient response
a) Does not very

b) Decays very fast
c) Decays slowly
d) Dies off
Ans: (b)
52. Main difference between servomotor and standard motor is that
a) Servomotor has low inertia and higher starting torque

b) Servomotor has inertia low starting torque
c) Servomotor has high inertia and high starting torque
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
53. The frequency range over which response of the system is within acceptable units is called
the system
a) Band width
b) Modulation frequency
c) Demodulation frequency
d) Carrier frequency
Ans: (a)
54. Self balancing instrument uses
a) D.C. servomotor
b) A.C. servomotor
c) Tachometer
d) Magnetic amplifier
Ans: (b)
57. Lead lag compensation improve
a) Transient response of the system

b) Steady state response of the system
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
61. A system is called absolutely stable is any oscillations set up in the system are
a) Damped out
b) Self-sustaining and tend to last indefinitely
c) Negative peaked only
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
62. To increase damping of pair of complex roots compensator used is
a) Phase lag
b) Phase lead
c) Phase lag lead
d) One with 60° lead circuit
Ans: (b)
63. Best method to determine stability and transient response of the system is
a) Bode plot
b) Signal flow graph
c) Nyquist plot
d) Root locus
Ans: (c)
67. The number of pure integrations in the system transfer function determine
a) Degree of stability
b) Stability of the system
c) Transient performance of the system
d) Steady state performance
Ans: (d)
68. For steady state transient improvement, compensator used is
a) Lead compensator
b) Lag compensator
c) Lead lag compensator
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
70. Which gives the information between number of poles and zero of the closed loop transfer
function?
a) Routh Hurwitz criterion

b) Bode diagram
c) Root locus method
d) Nyquist plot
Ans: (d)
71. Factor which cannot be can cancelled from numerator and denominator of G(s) E(s)
in
a) Bode plot
b) Nyquist plot
c) Higher frequencies
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
72. To study time delay of the system which of the following is used?
a) Nyquist plot
b) Bode plot
c) Routh Hurwitz method
d) Nicholas chart
Ans: (a)
73. Intersection of root locus branches with the imaginary axis can be determined by the use of
a) Polar plot
b) Routh’s criterion
c) Nyquist criterion
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
76. Maximum over shoot is the function of
a) Damping ratio
b) Natural frequency of oscillation
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Damped frequency of oscillation
Ans: (b)
77. If value of gain is increased, then roots of the system will move to
a) Origin
b) Lower frequencies
c) Higher frequencies
d) None of these
78. Feed back control system are basically
a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) Band stop filter
Ans: (a)
79. In root if 𝓴 is greater than critical value, then increasing 𝓴 will
a) Increase value of the real part of closed loop

b) Decrease value of the real part of closed loop
c) Not change value of the real part of closed loop
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
81. Plot of the constant gain loci of the system is
a) Asymptote
b) Circle with centre at the origin
c) Parabola
d) Ellipse
Ans: (b)
84. For G(S) F(S) = (k(S+z))/(S+p), (z < p) the plot is
a) One pole on the imaginary axis

b) One zero on the right-hand side of the plane
c) One pole and one zero on the left-hand side of plane
d) 2 poles and 2 zeros on the left-hand side of plane
Ans: (c)
85. Frequency response mean
a) Transient response of a system to a sinusoidal input

b) Steady state response of a system to a sinusoidal input
c) Oscillatory response of a system to a sinusoidal input
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
89. The type of transfer function used in Bode plot is
a) G(s)
b) G(j)
c) G(jw)
d) G(js)
Ans: (a)
91. Bode analysis method can be applied
a) If transfer function has no poles and zeros on R.H. of s-plane

b) If transfer function has no poles on R.H. of s-plane
c) If transfer function has no zero on R.H. of s-plane
d) To all transfer functions
Ans: (a)
92. In a root locus plot, increase in 𝓴 will
a) Result in decrease in the damped and undamped natural frequencies

b) Result in increase in the damped and undamped natural frequencies
c) Not change the damped and undamped natural frequencies
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
93. Cut off is the slope of log-magnitude curve
a) At the start of curve

b) At the end of curve
c) Near the cut off frequency
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
94. Gain margin expressed in decibels is
a) Positive if Kg greater than 1 and negative for Kg less than 1

b) Negative if Kg greater than 1 and negative for Kg less than 1
c) Always zero
d) Infinity for Kg equal to 1
Ans: (a)
95. Bandwidth gives an indication of
a) Characteristic equation of the system

b) Speed of response of a control system
c) Transfer function of the control system
d) Transients in the system
Ans: (b)
96. Nyquist stability criterion requires polar plot of
a) Characteristic equation
b) Closed loop transfer function
c) Open loop transfer function
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
97. Cut off frequency is the frequency at which magnitude of closed loop frequency
response is
a) 1 db below its zero frequency

b) 2 db below its zero frequency
c) 3 db below its zero frequency
d) 4 db below its zero frequency
Ans: (c)
98. In Nyquist criterion roots of the characteristic equation are given by
a) Zeros of open loop transfer function

b) Zeros of closed loop transfer function
c) Poles of closed loop transfer function
d) Poles of open loop transfer function
Ans: (c)
99. For all frequencies, a unit circle in the Nyquist plot transformer into
a) Db line of amplitude plot in Bode diagram

b) 1 db line of amplitude plot in Bode diagram
c) Either (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
100. Transfer founction, when the bode diagram is plotted should be of the form
a) (1+T)
b) (1+S)
c) (Ts)
d) (1+Ts)
Ans: (d)
101. For relative stability of the system which of the following is sufficient?
a) Gain margin
b) Phase margin
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
102. Slope in Bode plot is expressed as
a) – 6 db/decade
b) – 6 db/octave
c) – 7 db/octave
d) – 8 db/octave
Ans: (b)
104. Gain margin of a first or second order system is
a) Zero
b) 100
c) 1
d) Infinity
Ans: (d)
107. A complex-conjugate pair of poles near the jw axis will produce a
a) High oscillatory mode of transient response

b) Steady state mode of response
c) Sinusoidal mode of response
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
The field-effect transistor can be used as
a) A variable capacitance
b) A variable reactance
c) A variable inductance
d) A variable resistance
e) None of the above
Ans: (d)
49. The RC coupled amplifier is used in radio receiver
a) To minimize the noise
b) To increase the bandwidth
c) To isolates a.c. signal from d.c. signal
ans c
51. If the gain of the RC coupled amplifier decrease
a) The phase shift will increase

b) The phase shift will decrease
c) The phase shift will not vary
d) The phase shift has no relation with gain
Ans: (a
52. If three amplifiers having same bandwidth are cascaded, the bandwidth of resulting amplifier
will be
a) Better than that of each stage
b) Worse than that of each stage
c) Same as that of each stage
Ans: 54. The transformer coupling of the amplifiers provides a more efficient signal transfer than RC
coupling because
a) The problem of impedance matching is solved
b) There is a little power loss in the transformer winding
c) The use of transformer is cheaper than the RC coupled network
d) Of easy control of voltage output
Ans: (b)
58. Sometimes the power required for the load is more than can be handled by convenient
amplification elements. Which of the following amplifiers is called for?
a) RC coupled amplifier
b) Transformer coupled amplifier
c) Push-pull amplifier
d) Audio power amplifier
Ans: (c
59. The two input signals applied to push-pull amplifier are
a) 60° out of phase
b) 180° out of phase
c) In phase
d) 90° out of phase
60. The amplifier which provides the push-pull output stage with equal but opposite signals is
called
a) Phase-converter amplifier
b) Phase-inverter amplifier
c) Phase-diverter amplifier
Ans: (b)
62. If the diode is reversed biased, the sudden increase of the current in the diode is attributed to
a) Zener breakdown only
b) Avalanche breakdown only
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) (a) or (b) both
Ans: (d)
64. The chopper amplify d.c. signal
a) Without converting it to alternation current
b) First converting to alternating current and amplify it, then reconverts to direct current
Ans: (b)
65. Which of the following amplifier has the largest bandwidth?
b) Transformer coupled amplifier
c) Direct-coupled amplifier
d) Difference amplifier
Ans: (c)
66. If one which to amplify the potential difference between two points in a circuit when neither
of these points is grounded.
Which of the following amplifiers will be used?
b) Transformer coupled
c) Difference amplifier
d) Audio power amplifier
Ans: (c)
68. If a mechanical movement is converted into an electrical signal in an instrument and acts as a
noise to the system, this effect has been given the name
a) Stereophonic
b) Microphonic
c) Electro-chemical conversion
d) Vibrational echo
Ans: (b)
69. The thermal noise in the electronic tubes is completely eliminated at a temperature of
a) 0° C
b) Absolute zero
c) 0 °F
d) 273° K
Ans: (b)
71. The upper cutoff frequency of the RC coupled amplifier is mainly due to
a) Coupled capacity
b) Cathode bypass capacity
c) Output capacitance of the signal source
d) Inter-electrode capacitance and stray capacitance
Ans: (d)
73.The temperature coefficient for forward voltage drop across a p-n junction is
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Unity
Ans: (b)
74. The noise factor of an amplifier which contributes no noise will be
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
d) Less than zero
Ans: (b)
75. The tuned amplifier can be used for
a) The ratio range of frequency only
b) The audio range of frequency only
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Video range of frequency only
Ans: (c)
76. The negative feedback is applied in many oscillator circuits to
a) Increase its output impedance

b) Decrease its output impedance
c) Stabilize the frequency of the oscillators
d) Stabilize the output amplitude
Ans: (d)
79. When the same amount of current can be controlled from the low impedance source to high
impedance source then this is called
a) Power amplification
b) Current amplification
c) Voltage amplification
d) Gain amplification
80. When the signal feedback to the amplifier circuit is proportional to the output current rather
than output voltage, an amplifier is said to have
a) Power feedback
b) Voltage feedback
c) Current feedback
d) Signal feedback
Ans: (c
82. The feedback oscillator would oscillate at all frequencies for which
a) Aβ = 0
b) Aβ ≤ 1
c) Aβ ≥ 1
d) A β= 1
Ans: (c)
84. When R and C are same for all three high pass filters in series the frequency of oscillation of
oscillator will be
a) fo+4 = 1/2π √RC
b) f0+4 = 1/2π √3RC
c) f0+4 = 1/2π √6RC
d) f0+4 = 1/√RC
Ans: (c)
85. The turned circuit in the oscillator may be connected to
a) The grid circuit only
b) The plate circuit only
c) (a) or (b)
d) N Ans: (c)one of the above
90. A grounded shield used in choppers ( to convert the d.c. balance signal in potentiometer to
a.c. signal ) helps
a) To reduce the vibrational noise
b) To reduce the noise component from pick-up and leakage
c) To avoid the electrical shocks
d) To avoid the need of earth wire
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
91. How many thyratron tubs will be used to have directional rotation of d.c. motor when speed of the motor
is being controlled?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: (b
96. When it is necessary to sum signals at any amplifier input operational feedback is used and
with operational feedback
a) The signal potentials are being added
b) The signal current are being added
d) (a) and (b) simultaneously
Ans: (b)
102. The term “fly back” is associated with
a) CRT
b) Transistor
c) Operational amplifier
d) Rectifier
e) Electronic tube
Ans: (a)
103. Which of the following waveform is referred as “sweep”
a) Square waveform
b) Sinusoidal waveform
c) Triangular waveform
d) Sawtooth waveform
Ans: (d)
105. The diode-resistor circuit can be used as a limiter by connecting the load
a) In series with the diode only
b) In shunt with the diode only
c) (a) or (b)
Ans: (c)
182. Which of the following can be used as an adjustable temperature coefficient device?
a) Zener diode
b) Gas filled tubes
c) JFET
d) P-n-p transistor
Ans: (c)
183. The “pinch off” voltage of a JFET can range from
a) 4 to 8 V
b) -4 to -8 V
c) 0.4 to -0.8 V
d) -0.4 to -8 V
e) 0.4 to 8 V
Ans: (d)
190. The disease “sleeping sickness” is observed in
a) Junction transistors
b) Coated cathodes valves
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Integrated circuits
Ans: (c)
192. Which of the following diodes has almost zero minority carrier storage time?
a) Rectifier
b) Schottky
c) PIN
d) Zener
e) Tunnel
Ans: (b)
193. Schottky diode essentially consists of
a) P-n junction
b) Metal-to-semiconductor junction
c) P and n regions separated by an intrinsic region
d) P-n junction with every heavy dropping
Ans: (b)
196. In which of the following device the base resistors are not added in the package but added externally?
a) UJT
b) CUJT
c) PUT
Ans: (c)
197. Diodes are somewhat analogous to
a) Toggle switches
b) Relays
c) Circuit breakers
d) Fuses
Ans: (a)
198. Transistors are analogous to
a) Toggle switches
b) Relays
c) Circuit breakers
d) Fuses
Ans: (b)
199. The oscillator circuits with only d.c. power source can produce
a) A.C. wave only
b) Square wave only
c) Sawtooth wave only
d) Any of the above
Ans: (d)
201. The Thermionic Integrated Micro-Module (TIMM) is the trade name for
a) Vacuum diodes
b) Vacuum tubes
c) Vacuum diodes and tubes with no heaters
d) Triodes
e) Pentodes
Ans: (c)
202. The forward resistance of Thermionic Diodes is
a) Zero
b) Very small
c) In range of 100 to 1000 ohms
d) Very large
Ans: (c)
226. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Inner electrons are always present in the semiconductor.

b) Bound electrons are always present in the semiconductor.
c) Free electrons are always present in the semiconductor.
d) Inner and bound electrons are always present in the semiconductor.
Ans: (d)
228. Why the valence electrons are specifically important in semiconductors?
a) Because they are negatively charged
b) Because they can contribute to current flow in certain situations
c) Because they can produce bonds with other atoms
d) Because they make covalent bonds
b
229. Which electrons are important in holding atoms in crystal together?
a) The inner electrons of the atoms

b) The valence electrons that are in outer shells of atoms
c) (a) and (b) both
d) All the electrons irrespective of location
Ans: (b)
230. The reciprocal of slope of a line joining the operating the operating point to the origin in the
volt-ampere characteristics curve of diode is defined as
a) Dynamic resistance of diode
b) Static resistance of diode
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Reverse resistance
Ans: (b)
231. Which of the following resistance is important in case of diode?
a) Dynamic resistance
b) Static resistance
c) Reverse resistance
Ans: (a)
237. Which of the following assumption is taken into consideration if the transistor alpha is
defined as the product of the transport factor and emitter efficiency?
a) Collector multiplication ratio is zero
b) Collector multiplication ratio is positive
c) Collector multiplication ratio is negative
d) Collector multiplication ratio is unity
Ans: (d)
241. Which of the following statement is true?
a) The saturation voltage VCF of silicon transistor is more than germanium transistor.
b) The saturation voltage VCE for germanium transistor is more than silicon transistor.
c) The saturation voltage VCE for silicon transistor is same as that for germanium.
d) The saturation voltage VCE for silicon transistor is lower than germanium transistor.
Ans: (a)
244. The stability factor of transistor in action region is
a) Very small
b) Very high
c) Usually less than unity
d) Always greater than one
Ans: (d)
245. The germanium transistors are seldom used above
a) 60°C temperature
b) 75°C temperature
c) 175°C temperature
d) 125°C temperature
Ans: (b)
248. In which of the following amplifier the output signal is zero for less than half a cycle if
input signal voltage is sinusoidal?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class AB
d) Class C
Ans: (c253. The Johnson noise in amplifiers is
a) Electrical noise
b) Thermal noise
c) Vibrational noise
d) Frequency noise

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For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s.

A. Power is consumed in resistance and is equal to IR

B. Exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line

D. All above are correct

Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?

___________ cannot be fabricated on an IC

D. Large inductors and transformers

The most popular types of ICs are ___________

ICs are generally made of ___________

D. None of the above

Digital ICs process ___________

A. Linear signals only

C. Both digital and linear signals

D. None of the above

An audio amplifier is an example of ___________.

C. Both digital and linear IC

D. None of the above

We use ___________ ICs in computers

C. Both digital and linear

D. None of the above

ICs are used in ___________

A. Linear devices only

B. Digital devices only

C. Both linear and digital devices

D. None of the above

The most popular form of IC package is ___________.

D. None of the above

___________ ICs are the most commonly used

D. None of the above

An IC has ___________ size

D. None of the above

An IC has ___________ size

D. None of the above

The active components in an IC are ___________.

C. Transistors and diodes

D. None of the above

A transistor takes ___________ inductor on a silicon IC chip

A. Less space than

B. More space than

D. None of the above

Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.

D. None of the above

Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases

D. None of the above

Which of the following statement is true?

A. A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

B. A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

C. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter

D. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter

A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called

If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

A. Increases in the branch of the lowest resistance

C. Is zero in all branches

D. Is zero in the highest resistive branch

Out of the following which is an insulating material?

A. Collisions between conduction electrons and atoms

B. The release of conduction electrons from parent atoms

C. Mutual collisions between metal atoms

D. Mutual collisions between conducting electrons

Current velocity through a copper conductor is

A. the same as propagation velocity of electric energy

B. independent of current strength

C. of the order of a few ^.s/m

D. nearly 3 x 108 m/s