CONSTITUION OF INDIA, PREFESSIONAL ETHICS & CYBER LAW MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION AND ANSWERS 18CPC39/49 Choose the right answer Qu Thefirstmeeting of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on (A) 26" January 1948 ®) 16% August 1947 < LFF" December 1946 (©) 26" November 1947 2 Which one ofthe following acted as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly? (A) [Link] €-@F Dr. Sachhidanand Sinha (©) Dr-Rajendra Prasad (©) Jawaharlal Nehru { Q3 OnDecember 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected —— as its permanent Chairman (A) Jawaharlal Nehru -@F Dr. Rajendra Prasad a (© [Link]. Ambedkar ©) K.M. Munshi t Q4 The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission Plan had astrength of ' AAP 389 members —(B) SOL members. (C) 268 members ©) 492members Q5 The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up WAT Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 i ®) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 © Under a resolution of the Provisional Government (©) By the Indian National Congress Q6 — Themembers of the Constituent Assembly are (A) ‘Directly elected by the people B) Nominated by various political parties (© Nominated by the rulers of the Indian states Elected by the provincial assemblies Q7 — Theidea of a Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India was first mooted by WE) The Swaraj Party in 1935 (B) The Indian National Congress in 1936 (© The Muslim League in 1942 (D) The All Parties Conference in 1946 Q8 — Thestrength ofthe Constituent Assembly, after the withdrawal ofthe Muslim League, was reduced to AS 299 members (B) 329members _(C) 331 members (D) 359membersMultiple Choice Questions 181 Qo Qu0 Qu Qua Qu3 Qua Qus Qué Qu7z Qus Quy Q.20 ‘The Objective Resolution, which outlined the philosophy ofthe Indian Constitution, was moved in the Constituent Assembly by (A) Dr.S, Radhakrishnan (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad © Jawahartal Nehru ©) BR. Ambedkar ‘The Drafting Committee ofthe Constitution, Including the chairman, comprised of UAE T members @®) Smembers _(C) members (D) 3members ‘The Constitution of India was adopted on (A) 26" January 1950 (B) 26" January 1949 \®) 26" November 1949 @) 31*December 1949 ‘Who of the following is ‘regarded as the architect of the Indian Constitution? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru 487 BR. Ambedkar © [Link] (D) Rajendra Prasad ‘Who of the following acted as the Constitutional. Advisor to the Constituent. Assembly? (A) BR. Amebdkar. * (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad VOB. Raw (D) Dr. Sachhidanand Sinha ‘The Constitution of India came into force on Ae 26" January 1950 (B); 26" January 1952 (©) 16 August 1948 (Df, 26" November 1949 ‘Which one of the following provisions ofthe Constitution came into force soon after its adoption on 26" November 1949? Provisions relating to ‘citizenship (8) Elections © Provisional Parliament ©) Allthe above ‘The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions ‘by . (A) Simple majority CF Two-thirds majority- Two-thirds majority © Consensus (D) All the above methods January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution because (A) It was considered to be an auspicious day (B) On that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942 (©, The Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930 None often above Which one of ve: following is not treated as part of the Constitution? (A) Preamble (B) Fundamental Rights ©) Directive Principles of State Policy 48’ None of the above ‘The Constitution of India, at present, contains (A) 295 Articles vo ‘Over 440 Articles . © 259 Articles (D) 301 Articles How many schedules the Constitution of India: contains (A) 9 ®) 0 ou we 2iz Constitution ot india & Protessional Ethics Q21 — Howmany parts has Indian Constitution been divided into a) ® 2 oa VO) 2 Q.22 Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian Constitution? AA The Government of India Act, 1935 (B) The U.S, Constitution © British Constitutton (©) The UN Charter Q.23 Which one of the following feature was borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the British Constitution? Parliamentary system of government (8) Ruleof Law (© Law-making procedure , @) Allthe above Q.24 India adopted a federal system with a strong centre from neAF USA. (B) Canada © Australia (D) NewZealand Q.25 Which one of the following features was borrowed by the framers of the Constitution from U.S, Constitution? (A) -Judicial Review (B) Fundamental Rights (©) Removal of judges of the Supreme Court AB) All the above Q26 Theemergency provisions of the Constitution of India were greatly influenced by (A) The Govemnmentof India Act 1939 8’ The Weimar Constitution of Germany (©) The Constitution of the United States (D) The Constitution of Canada Q.27 Which one of the following features of the Indian Constitution was, greatly influenced by the Government of India Act, 1935? (A) Federal scheme (B) Powers of the federal judiciary (© Office of the governor OF All the above Q28 India borrowed the idea of Directive Principles of State Policy from Constitution of (A) The Weimar Republic of Germany VAP The Republic of Ireland (© The South Africa (D) None of the above * Q29 The Constitution of India . (A), Rigid (8) Flexible Partly rigid and partly flexible ©) Veryrigid Q30 The parliamentary system of India is based on the parliamentary government (A) France ®) Canada Britain ©) Alllthe above countries Q31 The Constitution of India declares XA®) A union of states (B) Quasi-federal © A federation of states territories (D) Partly unitary and partly ft Q.32 The Constitution declares India ‘state’, which means (A) Religious worship isnot all (B) Religions are patronizedMultiple Choice Questions 183 Q.33 Q.34 Q.35 O36 Q37 Q38 Q39 Q40 Qat (© The state regards religions as affair of the citizen and discriminates on this basis < () None of the above ‘The Preamble to the Constitution declares India (A) A Sovereign, Democratic Republic (B) A Socialist, Democratic Republic WE A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic (D) None of these ‘The Preamble tothe Indian Constitution reads (A) We, the people of India adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution B) We, the members of the Constituent Assembly adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution. VF We, the citizens of India adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution. (D) We, the people of India in our Constituent Assembly adopt, enact and give to ourselves this ‘What was the exact constitutional status of the Indian Republic on January 26, 1950,when the Constitution was inaugurated? (A) A Democratic Republic APA Sovereign Democratic Republic : (© A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic _ + (Dy A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic ‘The Preamble was proposed before the Drafting Committee by (A) [Link] ®) BR Ambedkar OF Tawaharlal Nehru (D) Sardar Patel ‘The words ‘socialist secular’ and ‘the unity and integrity ofthe nation’ were added to the Constitution bythe_ Amendment ey 4 @) 4 © su (D) None of the above. How many times has the Preamble of the Indian Constitution been amended sofar? VAT Once (B) Twice (© Thrive (D) Never The Preamble was for the first time amended by the (A) 24° Amendment (OF 42" Amendment (© 44% Amendment (D) None of the above ‘The words ‘socialist and secular’ used in the Preamble were (A) Partof the original Preamble (B) Added by the 29% Amendment WRF Added by the 42 Amendment (D) Added by the 44 Amendment ‘The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were adopted under inspiration from UAT The French Revolution (B) The Russian Revolution184 Constitution of india & Professional Ethics (© The American Declaration of Independence (D) The UN Charter Q42 __Inwhich case did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble was not.a part of the Constitution? (A) Berubari case ®) Golak Nath case © Keshavanandafliarati case ©) None of the above Q43 __Inwhich case did theSupreme Court give a ruling that the Preamble wasa part of the Constitution? (A) Golak Nath case @) Berubari case 4 KeshavanandaBharati case (D) All the above cases Q.44 Which one of the following has been described as the sou! of the Indian Constitution? (LMF The chapter on Fundamental Rights ) The chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy © The Preamble (D) The provisions regarding Judicial Review Q.45 Whats the chief source of political power in India? AT The people (B) The Constitution (©) The Parliament ©) The Parliament and State Legislature Q.46 ‘The Constitution describes the Indian Union as, ®) India, ie., Bharatvarsha (D) None ofthe above, Q.47 How many types of political units existed in India atthe time of independence? VAT Two 8) Three , © Four (D) Only one Q.48 Thetwo persons who played a vital role in the integration of princely states were (A) Sardar Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru «48 Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon (© Sardar Patel and Rajendra Prasad (D) Sardar Patel and K M Munshi Q49 The power to form new states or change the boundaries of existing states rests with + (AY The President ®) The Parliament © The Blection Commission ©) None of the above Q.50 The states were reorganized on linguistic basis in (A) 1947 ®) 1951 Or'1956 ©) 196 Q51 The famous JVP Committee consisting of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and PattabhiSitaramayya was appointed in December 1948 1 (A) Examine the case of establishment of secular polity in the country (B) Examine the issue of reorganization of states on linguistic basis © Determine the compensation to be given to the rulers of Indian states consequent to the merger of their states, {AO None of the above7” Multiple Choice Questions 185 Q.52_. Which state enjoys the distinction of being the first linguistic state of India? (A) West Bengal (Ar Andhra Pradesh (© TamilNadu (D) Punjab Q53 The States Reorganization Commission, setup in 1953 to consider the demand of linguistic states, was headed by ; ‘ (A) Fadl Ali (B) KMPannikker AS HIN Kunzr (0) MC Mahajan Q.54 The States Reorganisation Act, divided the entire country into (A) 2 states and 9 union territories @) 14sstates and 6 union teritories (©) 17 states and7 union territories ‘VAP Four categories of states : Q.55 The Punjab Reorganisation Act, which created the states of Punjab and Haryana in 1966, was enacted on the basis of the recommendations of the \AF Dhar Commission (8) Dass Commission (©) Shah Commission (D) Mahajan Commission Q.56 Thecorrect chronological order in which the states of India were created is (A) Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Nagaland, Punjab \V2F Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Punjab, Nagaland (© Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Nagaland, Punjab (D) Nagaland, Punjab, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh Q57 Which of the following states were initially given the status of autonomous state and subsequently made full-fledged states? 1) Meghalaya and Sikkim (B) Assam and Bihar (© Meghalaya andJammuand Kashmir (D) Nagaland and Assam Q.58- Theday-to-day administration of a union territory istooked after by (A) The Union Home Minister LF The Lt, Governor (© The President (D) A state minister of home affairs Q.59 ‘The structure of administration in various union territories J Has been prescribed in the Constitution (8) Is determined by the Union Home Minister” (© Isdetermined by the Parliament (D) Is determined by the President Q.60 The administrators of Union Territories are designated as W495 Licutenant Governor (B) Chief Commissioners © Administrators (D) All these Q.61 The following states were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of thejr formation. f! Haryana 2 Sikkim 3, Nagaland 4, Meghalaya (A) 123.4 (B) 234.1 © 24,13 (D) 3,142186 Constitution of india & Professional Ethics Q02 Q.63 Q.64 Q65 Q.66 Q67 Q.68 Q.69 Q70 Qn For the Union Territories without legislative councils of thelr own, laws are passed by the (A) The Union Home Ministry ®) TheParliament (© The President \-®) The Administrator Which one ofthe followingiis the 28th State of the Union of India, (A) Uttaranchal AF ark (© Chhattisgarh (D) None df'the above ‘Which one of the following was a Union Territory before it was accorded the status of «full-fledged state? (A) Himachal Pradesh (8) Tripura © Manipur . (D) All the above Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a Union Territory? (A) Chandigarh (B) Pondicherry . WAS Tripura (D) None of the these ‘The Constitution of India A Provides single citizenship ®) Provides double citizenship (© Contains no provision regagding citizenship (©) Provides multiple citizenship ‘Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India? (A) Citizenship by birth ®) Citizenship by descent 6) Citizenship through acquisition of property (©) Citizenship by naturalization : ‘Who is competent to preseribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? (A) Election Comission AB Parliament (© President . ©) Parliament and state legislatures jointly ‘Whatis the minimum duration of stay essential hefore a person can apply for Indian citizenship? (A) 3 years VE) 5 years © Tyears ©). 10 years ‘The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens are contained in VS Part It of the Constitution ®) Part IV of the Constitution (©) The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution (D) None of the above ‘The original Constitution classified the ‘Fundamental Rights’ into seven categories but now thereare only “4 (A) Three categories (B) Four categories (C) Five categories WH Six categoriesMultiple Choice Questions we Q.72 Which one ofthe following has been added tothe list of original Fundamental Rights? (A) Right to property () Right to Constitutional Remedies (© Right to Freedom of Religion (D) None of the above Q.73 Which one ofthe following has been wrongly listed as a Fundamental Right? mod Right to property 4 B) Right to constitutional remedies(B) Right to constitutional remedies (© Right to move freely throughout the country (D) Right to assemble peacefully Q.74 Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right? WAS Right to strike (B) Right against exploitation (C) Right to equality (WD) Right to freedom of religion Q.75 Which one of the following hassince ceased to bea Fundamental Right? (A) Right to constitutional remedies qC8Y Right to property (C) Right to freedom of speech (D) All the above Q.76 Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has een subject of maximum Itigation since the inauguration of the Constitution? (A) Rightto freedom of speech WAP Right to constitutional remedies (© Right to property (D) Rightagainst exploitation Q.77 __Rightto private property was dropped from the list of Fundamental Rights by the (A) 42° Amendment BF 44" Amendment (© 52% Amendment ©) None of the above ‘ Q.78 The Fundamental Rights of citizens were ‘¥5 Incorporated in the original Constitution (B) Outlined in an Act of Parliament in 1952 © Incorporated by the 42" Amendment (D) Incorporated by the 44" Amendment Q.79 Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by [Link] as ‘the heart and soul of Constitution’. (A) Right to equality ®) Righttoreligion NO) Right to constitutional remedies (D) All the above Q.80 Therighttoequality (A) Prevents the state from making provisions for women, children and backward classes (B) Permits the state in discriminating on the ground of residence V6) Permits the state to make provisions for women, children and backward classes (D) Permits the state to nationatize the means of production and distribution Q81 Right to freedom can be restricted. (A) In the interest of security of the states {B) Inthe interest of friendly relations between foreign states (© Inthe interest of public order 46) 0 all the above noted grounds188 Constitution of India & Professional Ethics Q82 Which one of the following freedom, enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution hassince been abolished? (A) Freedom to assemble peacefully with arms ' WABI Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property (©) Freedom to réside and settle in any part of the country f a fy (D) Freedom to éarry on any profession, occupation, trade or business (Q.83 ‘The right against exploitation prohibits (A) Traffic in human beings a Traffic in human beings (8) Beggar (©) Employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines etc. WEF All the above Q.84 The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens AAT Can be suspended by the President during national emergency ®) Can be suspended by the President during all types of emergencies (© Can be suspended by the President with the prior approval of the Supreme Court at any time ©) Cannot be suspended under any condition Q85 The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens have been criticized on the ground that oth) They are hemmed in by too many restrictions (B) They are couched in language beyond the comprehension of ordinary citizens (©) They are absolute . (©) Both (a) and (b) ’ Q86 Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is restrained by the Preventive Detention Act? (A) Right to religion ®) Right to constitutional remedies 47 Right to freedom (©) Right o equality Q.87 The power to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens rests with (A) The Supreme Court B) The Parliament © The President ©) None of thé above Q.88 Who hasbeen vested with the power to decide whether the restrictions imposed on the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizen are reasonable or not? e (A) The Parliament @) The President WS The courts (D) None of the above Q89 The Government of India introduced Bharat Ratna and Padma Shri awards under (A) Article 14 of the Constitution @®) Article 18 of the Constitution (© Article 25 of the Constitution 4) None of the above Articles Q.90 Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution is also available tonon citizens? (A) Freedom of speech, assembly and association A) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of IndiaMultiple Choice Questions 189 Qasr Q92 Q.93 Q.94 Q95 Q.96 (© Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business (©) Right to constitutional remedies ‘Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a special feature of Fundamental Rights in India? (A) Fundamental Rights are more sacrosanct than rights granted by ordinary laws y (B) Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable restrictions (© Fundamental Rights are justifiable and can be enforced through the Supreme Court WH None of these Consider the following statements with regard to compulsory singing of national anthem 1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression. 2. Itwill be violative of the freedom of conscience and practice and propagation of religion. 3. There is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the national anthem. Of these statements. (A) Land 2 are correct (B) 2and 3 are correct © 1,2,and3 are correct @) None of the above is correct Under the provisions of which Article of the Constitution the government abolished the practice of untouchability? . (A) Article 16 VS Article 17 © Article 18. D) Article20 In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of civilian awards, but recommended that the total awards to be given each year in all categories should be restricted to “0 ®) 0 0 Os ‘The Sikhs in India are permitted to carry Kirpan. Under which one of the following Fundamental Rights are they permitted todoso? (A) Right to freedom LOH Right to freedom of religion (©) Right to lite and liberty (D) None ofthe above. Freedom of speech under the Indlan Constitution fs subject to reasonable restrictions on the grounds of protection of AA) Sovereignty and integrity of the country Q97 Q.98 (8) The dignity of the office of the Prime Minister (© The dignity of the council of ministers ©) All the above Atpresent,right to property isa OS Legal Right (8) Human Right (© Fundamental Right (©) Natural Right ‘The main objective of the cultural and educational rights granted tothe citizens is (A) To preserve the rich cultural heritage of India ®) Toevolve a single integrated India culture = (© Tohelp the minorities to conserve their culture VAP All the above190 Constitution of India & Professional Ethics 299 Under the Indian Constitution, the responsibility for the enforcement ‘of Fundamental Rights rests with (A) The High Courts @) All the courts (© The Supreme Court AB Both (a) and(c) 0.100 A person can move the Supreme Court directly in the event of violation of Fundamental Rights under & (A) Article 19 VAY Article 32 © Article 34 ©) None of the above Q101 TheFundamental Rights ofa citizen ean be suspended (A) By the Parliament through a law enacted by two-thirds majority 1 Dr By the President during a national emergency (© By the Supreme Court ©) None of the above. Q.102 For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the courts can issue (A) A decree @®) An ordinance AS Await ) A notification Q.103 ‘Which Fundamental Right granted by the Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings? (A) Right to equality 4) Right against exploitation-Right against exploitation (© Rightto freedom ©) None of the above, Q.104 Legal equality under the Indian Constitution implies that (A) The state cannot enact different laws for different groups of people 1B) Everybody is equal before law (©) To an inferior court to stop proceedings in a particular case ©) To the lower court to transfer a case pending before it to the superior court for tril Qu0s” Right to property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of WH IndiraGandhi——(B) CharanSingh —(C) Rajiv Gandhi ©) Morarji Desai 0.106 Which authority can a citizen approach for securing right of personal freedom? (A) The Parliament @) The President (©) Supreme Court alone ‘OF Both Supreme Court and High Courts Q.107 Writs can be isued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by (A) The Parliament ®) The President WE The Supreme Court @) All the above Q.108 Which one of the following i a bulwark of personal freedom? (A) Mandamus 55 Habeas Corpus © Quo Warranto ©) CettiorariMultiple Choice Questions 191 Q.109 Who of the following can amend the Fundamental Rights granted by the Constitution? (A) The President @®) The Supreme Court WEF The Parliament (©) None of the above Q.110 Themain objective of the Fundamental Rightsis to (A) Ensure independence of judiciary * (B) Promote a socialist pattem of society (©) Ensure individual liberty (PF Ensure all the above Q.111 Under the Indian Constitution, a citizen ‘4 Cannot be deprived of his life and liberty under any condition 8) Can be deprived of life and liberty by the President during emergency (© Can be deprived of life and liberty only in accordance with the procedure established-by law (D) None of the above Q.12 The writ of Habeas Corpusis issued (A) Bya superior court to the lower court directing it to transfer the record of proceedings ina case forits review 1455 In the form ofan order calling upon a person who has detained another person to bing that person before court and show authority for such detention (© By a superior court to do something in the nature of his allotted duty (D) In the form of an order to stop proceedings in a certain case Q.113 The writof Quo Warrantois an order from a superior court AA) Whereby it can call upon a person to show under what authority he is holding the office B) To produce a person detained by an official before the nearest court within 24 hours © Toan inferior court to stop proceedings in a particular case (©) To the lower court to transfer a case pending before it to the superior court for trial Q.t14 The writof Mandamus is issued by a superior court 1) Te command a person or public authority to do something in the nature of public duty (8) To produce an illegally detained person before a court within 24 hours (© To command a person or public authority to stop proceedings in a case in national interest (D) Inall the above cases Q.5 The writ of Certiorariisiseued by a superior court 4445 To an inferior court to stop further proceedings in u particular case 8) Toan inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review (©) Toan officer to show his right to hold a particular office (©) Toa public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours QU6 Which of the following writs literally means ‘you may have the body"? WAT Habeas Corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Quo Warranto ©) Centorari Q.17 A writof Prohibition isissued by a superior court ‘To prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice192 : Constitution of India & Professional Ethics. 8) Toan inferior court of body exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions to transfer the record ‘of proceedings in a case for its review (© Whereby it can call upon a person to show under what authority he is holding the office (D) To an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court (Q.1186.~ Which one of the following writs literally means ‘what is your authority’? Fs-(A) Habeaus Corpus B) Certiorari WF Quo Warranto ) Prohibition Q.119 Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizen, were (A) Enshrined in the original Constitution VB), Added to the Constitution by the 42 amendment © Added to the Constitution by the 44 Amendment (©) Added to the Constitution in the wake the Supreme Court judgment KeshavanandaBharati case, with consent of all the political partes Q.120 The Fundamental Duties of citizens (A) Lie scattered throughout the Constitution V4 Are contained in Part 1V-A of Constitution (© Ate contained in Schedule 1X of Constitution (D) Are contained inthe Presidential Order issued in 1979 Q.121 Which one of the following was wrongly listed asa duty of Indian citizens (A) To uphold and protect the sovereign unity and integrity ofthe country ®) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among the people of India BF To practice family planning and control population (©) To protect and preserve the natural eavironment Q.122 The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizen were incorporated in the Constitution in (A) 1952 vy 1976 © 199 ©) 1981 Q.123 Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution to (A) Prevent misuse of Fundamental Rights - ®) Curb subversive and unconstitutional actvities- Curb subversive and unconstitutional activities ‘© Curb the growing power of the executive 5) Make the Fundamental Rights more ‘meaningful Q.124 . Whats the main sanction behind the Fundamental Duties? (A) Legal (B) Social Ve Moral () All the above Q.25 The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in (A) Part II of the Constitution WF Part LV of the Constitution © Schedule Vil of the Constitution ©) Inall the above parts Q.126 The Directive Principles uim at (A) Ensuring individual liberty @) Ensuring strengthening of the country’s independence otMultiple Choice Questions 193 (© Providing a social and economic base fora genuine democracy in the country 4&4) Achieving all the above objectives Q.127 The Directive Principles are 1 Jr Positive instructions to the government to work forthe attainment of the set objectives (B) Negative injunctions to the government to refrain from encroaching. on the freedom of the people (©) Directives to the state to enhance the international prestige of the country (©) Directives to the goverment to pursue a policy of non-alignment Q.128 Which one of the following amendments accorded precedence to the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights? (A) 24" Amendment B) 39° Amendment VAT 424 Amendment ©) 44* Amendment Q.129 _Inwhich part ofthe Constitution does the concept of welfare state find elaboration? (A) Preamble ~ @ Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy ©) Allthe above 'Q.130 ” The Directive Principles of State Policy are (A) Justiciable AF Non-justiciable (© Only some Directive Principles are justiciable ©) None ofthe above Q.131 Who said in the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles of State Policy are like a ‘cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank"? se), Jawaharlal Nehru ®) KTShah (© BRAmbedkar ©) KM Munshi Q.132 Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, the state is expected to provide freeand compulsory education to all children up to the age of st) years @®) 18 years © ISyears ©) 16years Q:133 Which ope ofthe following is a Directive Principle of State Policy? (A) The state shall not deny to any person equality before law (B) The state shall not discriminate against any person on grounds of religion, race, case, ex or place of birth. (© Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form shall be punishable by law. ‘V7 The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment. Q.134 The42* Amendment made ndditions to the Directive Principles with regard to the following three matters: 1. Participation of workers in the management of industry. 2. Minimising inequality in income and status. 3. Protection of the environment. 4, Free legal aid tothe poor. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (A) 13,and4 @)‘1.2.and3) L4EF1.2, and () 23,and4194 Constitution of India & Professional Ethics Q.135 Article 40 of the: ‘Constitution of India states that “The State shall take steps to organise X and dow them with suchpowers and authority, as may be necessary to enable them ofunctnes units of self government,” In this statement ‘X’ stands for A) Village Panchayats ®) ZillaParishads © Inter-State Council ee () None of the above Q.136 "The Directive Principles of State Polity seek (A) To establish the ‘Supremacy of the Constitution ®) Tocurb the authoritarian rule © To strengthen judiciary W®) To make the Constitution an instrument of social change. Q.137 ‘The enforcement of the Directive Principles of State: Policy depends on (A) The resources available with the government 8) The will ofthe government in power © Thejudiclary APF All the above Qu38 hich one ofthe following wanted the Directive Principles of State Policy tobe thcbasi tall future legislation? (A) BRAmbedkar —- ) Jawaharlal Nehru 0) KMMunShi ©) BNRau Qu39 Une event of a-enforcement of the Directive Priacpls of State Policy by the government the citizen can approach (A) The High Court BI The Supreme Court © Any court of his choice Vai None of these * Qado Pechamendiment of the Constitution acorded precedence tothe Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights? 4) 39% Amendment ®) 42" Amendment © 44° Amendment ~ ©) None of the above. Q.141 _Inwhich case di the Supreme Court strike down the provisions ofthe ‘Constitution that accorded Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights? tH SaijanSingh case 8) Golak Nath case © KeshavanandaBharati case ©) Minerva Mills case Q.142 Jreichone of the folowing courts canacizen move forthe enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy? ) The Supreme Court @) The High Court (© Both (a) and (by ©) None of the above Q.143 Which one of the following factors has been responsible for the slow implementation of the «Directive Principles? . (A) Lack of resources with the government ) Lack of political willMultiple Choice Questions 195 (2) Vasiness of the country (D) All the above factors Which one of the following Directive Principles are based on Gandhian principles? 1. Organization of village panchayats , 2 Compulsory education foal children upto the age of 14 years 3. Prohibition on use of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes. 4, To work for the development of weaker or backward section of the society (A) Land2 ®) 23and4 VF and4 D) 1,2,3.and4 Q.145 Which one of the following Directive Principles reflects socialist ideology? (A) To provide adequate means of livelihood to all (B) Toprevent concentration of wealth and means of production and to ensure equitable distribution of wealth and material resources \AF'To ensure a decent standard of living and leisure for all workers Quad ©) All the above Which one ofthe following has been wrongly listed sa Directive Principle based on ‘liberal principles’? (A) Separation of judiciary and executive 8) Provision of a uniform civil code for the country (©) Protection of monuments and places of artistic or historical importance -®) None of the above has been wrongly listed Which one of the following Directive Principles did not form part ofthe original Constitution and ‘was added subsequently through constitutional amendments? (A) To minimize inequality in income, status, facilites and opportunities amongst individuals and Q.146 Qu4a7 groups ®) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests und wildlife (© Right of the workers o purticipate in the management of industries nA) All the above Q.148 ” Which one of the following distinctions between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy has been wrongly listed? (A) Directive Principles are positive instructions to government, while Fundamental Rights are negative injunctions to the government to refrain from doing certain things ) Directive Principles are non-justfiable, while Fundamental Rights are justifiable © Incase of conilict between Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights, the latter get precedence {PF None of the above Q.149 In which case did the Supreme Court take the view that the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary to each other and there was no need tosacrifice one for the other? (B) KeshavanandaBharati case (A) Golak Nath case D) All the above cases © Minerva Mills case196 Constitution of Indla & Professional Ethics Q.150 ‘The Constitution has vested the executive power of the Union government in WAT The President (B) The Prime Minister (© The Council of Ministers (D) All the above three QUSL_ The President of Indiais AT The head of the state (B) The head 6f the government © The head of the state as well as government ©) None of the above QuUS2 The President of India is (A) Directly elected by the people B) Elected by the two houses of Parliament ata joint sitting UG Elected through an electoral college consisting of the elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies (©) Elected by the elected members of Lok Sabha Q.153 Which one of the following does not take part in the election of the President? (A), Elected members of Lok Sabha (®) Elected members of Rajya Sabha ‘Members of the legislative councils (D) None of the above Q.154 — Theelection to the office ofthe President is conducted by (A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) The Prime Minister's Office 4 The Election Commissionofindia (©) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs QUSS Tobe eligiblefor election as President, A candidate must be Over 35 years of age ®) Over 60 years of age (©) Over 55 years of age ©) There is no age limit prescribed by the Constitution Q.156 The President holds office for a term: offive years (A)_ From the date on which he is elected From the date on which he enters office © From the date determined by the Parliament (©) From the date notified by the Election Commission Q.17 Which one of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms? VAS Dr. Rajendra Prasad ®) Dr. S Radhakrishnan © [Link] ©) Both (a) and) Q.158__ Whowas the second President ofthe Indian Republic? (A) Dr. Zakir Hussain UBS Dr. S Radhakrishnan © DrVVGiti ©) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Q159 Who decides the disputes regarding election of the President? ‘The Supreme Court . @®) The Election Commission © The Parliament (D) Both Supreme Court and High CourtsMultiple Choice Questions 197 Q.160 Ifthe President wishes to tender his resignation before the expiry of his normal term, hehas to address the same to a0 The Vice-President of India (B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (© The Chief Justice of India (D) The Election Commission Q.161 Whoaiitong the following got the Bharat Ratna Award | before becoming the President ofindia? (A) Dr. ZakirHussain (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad VVGini (D) S Radhakrishnan Q.162 Whats the maximum age for election to the office of the President? (A) & 8)” OB OT Nolimit Q.163 Impeachment proceedings against the President of India can be initiated (A) By the Supreme Court ®) Only in the Lok Sabha {4B Incither House of Parliament (D) Only in a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament Q.164 Inthe event of the death or resignation of the President, the Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President (A) For the rest of the term (B) Foramaximum period of one year ASF Fora maximum period ofsix months __(D) Fora maximum period of four months Q.165 Which one of the following official discharges the duties of the office of the president, if both the President and Vice - President are not available? (A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha {468} The Chief Justice of India (©) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (D) The Prime Minister Q.166 Ifthe office of the President falls vacant, the same must be filled within A) Six months ®) Three months (©) One year ©) 18 months Q.167 Whats the age of retirement of the President? “7D ® % on ¥-€F There is no age limit for retirement Q.168 Which one of the following Chief Justice of India enjoys the distinction of having acted as President of India’? (A) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan (ABT Justice M Hidyatullah (© Justice PN Bhagwati (©) None of the above Q.169 Whois legally competent to declare war or conclude peace? HF The President (B) The Parliament (© The Council of Ministers (D) Prime Minister198 Constitution ot india & Professional étnics Q.170 The final authority tomakea proclamation of emergency rests with (A) The Parliament yh The President (©) Council of Ministers (D) The Prime Minister Qu71_Howmany members ofthe Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President to the # Parliament? * v2 : ®) RB © 0 (D) Unspecified number, which is decided by the Council of Ministers Q.172 Howmany members ofthe Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President from amongst persons who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, ete, (a) 2 ®) 19 Ne 12 @) None Q.173_ The President can makelaws through ordinances af) During the recess of the Parliament ) On certain subjects even when Parliament isin session (© Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list ) Under no circumstances Q.174 ThePresident can grant pardonin (A) All cases of punishment by Court Martial ®) All offences against laws in the union and concurrent list (© All cases involving death sentence VAS All the above cases Q.175 Which one ofthe following financial powers is enjoyed by the President? | (A) Money bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President (B) The President can advance money out of the Contingency Fund of India WG) The President appoints a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of taxes between the Union and the State governments (D) All the above Q.176 Which one of the following emergencies can be declared by the President on his own? (A) ‘Emergency due to extemal aggression or intemal disturbances 8) Emergency due to failure of the constitutional machinery in a state (© Emergency duc to threat to the financial stability or credit of India 05, None of the above Q.177 _Intheappointment of which one ofthe following officials has the President no say? (A) Judges of the Supreme Court B) Judges of High Courts UCT Judges of District and Session Courts (D) Attomey General of India Q.178 How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Constitution? (A) Only one ©) Two WO) Three ©) FourMultiple Choice Questions 199 Q.179 National emergeney can be declared by the President (A) Onhis own B) On the recommendation of the Council of Ministers (© Onthe recommendation ofthe Prime Minister 4B} Onthe recommendation of the Parliament Q.180 The President can declare national emergency (A) Only in the event of foreign invasion _(B) Only in the event of armed rebellion WAT In both (a) and (b) (D) In none of the above cases Q.181 How many times has the President declared national emergency so far? (A) Only once ®) Twice WS Thrice (D) Never Q.182 The Proclamation of National Emergency ceases to operate unless approved by the Parliament within (A) One month B) Twomonths (©) Three months «_-A®) Six months Q.183Ifstatefails to comply with the directives of the Central Government, the President car) . Declare break-down of constitutional machinery inthe state and assume responsibilty for its governance ) Send reserve police force to secure compliance with directions © Dissolve the state legislature and order fresh elections (D) Can do either (a) or (b) Q.184 The President can declare constitutional emergency in state (A) Only on the recommendation of the Union Council of Ministers 8) Only on the recommendation of the governor © Only on the recommendation of the council of ministers of the state (D) If he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the governance of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution Q.185 Which one of the following three types of emergencies has been declared by the President maximum number of times? (A) National emergency J Constitutional emergency (© Financial emergency (D) All the three emergencies have been declared equal number of times Q.186 _Anational emergency remains in operation, with the approval of the Parliament, for (A). A maximum period of three years {AYA maximum period of one year (© Amaximum period of six months (©) Anindefinite period Q.187 The President can declare financial emergency AAT If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India (B) To meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting a war (©) Onthe recommendation of the Comptroller and Auditor General () Ifthe majority of the state legislatures so recommend200 Constitution of india & Professional Ethics Q.188 During financial emergency, the President can (A) Order the reduction of salaries of Supreme Court and High Court Judges @®) Order the reduction of salaries and allowances of all central and state civil servants (©) Ask states to reserve the money or financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration ' Do all these things Q:189 How many times has the President of India declared financial emergency so far? (A) Only once (B) Only twice (© Only thrice (A) Never Q.190 Which of the following ordinances did the President refuse to sign in early 1996 despite the recommendation of the Council of Ministers? (A) Ordinance relating o reservation for Christian Dalits @) Ordinance relating to reduction of electioneering period from 21 days to 14 days (© Ordinance for reservation of seats in civil services forthe OBCs. A) Both (and (b) Q.191 Before entering upon his office, the President has to take an oath or an affirmation, which is administered by hh) ‘The Chief Justice of India (B) The Chief Election Commissioner © The Vice-President (©) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Q.192, ~ The President, who is the head of the state under the parliamentary system prevailingin India, (A). Enjoys absolute powers 8) Enjoys limited but real powers Enjoys only nominal powers (D) Enjoys no powers Q.193 Under which article of the Indian Constitution can the President be impeached? (A) Article 356 OP Article75 © Article 76 (D) Article 61 Q.194. Amember of a Parliament or a state legislature can be elected as President but (A) He has to resign his seat before contesting the election (45 He has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected (© He has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election (©) A member of Parliament can contest but a member of state legislature cannot contest Q.19S The President of India made use of his veto power only once in ‘The Hindu Code Bill (8) The PEPSU Appropriation Bill (©) The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill (©) The Dowry Prohibition Bill Q.196 _Anordinance promulgated by the President usually remains in force for ‘Six months from the date of issue + @) Six weeks from the date of issue (©) Six weeks after the commencement of the next session of Parliament ©) Six months after the commencement of the next session of ParliamentMuntipie Choice Quesiivns 201 Q.197 The President can promulgate an ordinance only when “There is disagreement between the two houses ofthe Parliament (B) The bill has been pending in the Parliament for over a year (©) The Parliament is not in session (©), The bill was sponsored by the President but the Parliament refused to pass the same Q.198 Proclamation of President’s rule ina state can be made : (A) When a bill introduced by the state government is defeated in the state legislature If the President, on receipt of report from the governor of the state, is satisfied that asituation {is likely to arise in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions © Ifthe President, on receipt of a report from the governor ofthe state or otherwise issatisfieg that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with (D) When the governor and the Chief Minister of a state differ on a vital issue Q.199 Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as judicial power of the President of India? (A) He appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court (B) He can grant pardon, reprieve and respite to a person awarded punishment (© ‘He can consult the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact 4 He can remove the judge of a Supreme Court on grounds of misconduct *Q.200 The President ean dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers (A) Athis discretion (B) With the consent of the Speaker 4 42F"On the recommendation of the Prime Minister (D) None of the above Q.201 The Presidential address is prepared by 45 The Special Secretary of the President (B) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs (© A Cabinet Minister ofthe President's choice (D) The Prime Minister and his Cabinet Q.202 The President of India is elected on the basis of (A) Proportional representation \ABF Proportional represeitation by a single transferable vote © Single member teritorial representation (D) None of the above methous Q.203 Which one of the following was elected President of India unopposed? (A) DrRajendra Prasad @®) DrS Radhakrishnan (© DrNeclamSanjiva Reddy OF KRNarayananMODULE-2 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES 1, How many Committees in Lokasaba? ‘And: Approximately 33 committees are in Lokasaba 2. Write the kinds parliamentary committees? (1) Standing Committees, and (2) Ad-hoc Committees 3. Who will elect the members of parliament committees ? Ans: Some of the committees are elected by the Members on the basis of proportional Representation or Single transferable Votes. And some of the committees are nominated by Rajyasaba / Speaker. 4, What is the maximum Members in Public accounts committee? ‘Ans : Maximum 22 members, ( 15 from Lokasaba -single tranferable vot/ proportional tepresentation and 7 members nominated by Rajyasba 5. How many members may be in Estimate Committee? Ans; Not more than 30 members 6. What is the term of the members of Estimate committee? Ans: 01 year 7. How many maximum Members in Public under takings committee? Ans : Maximum 22 members, ( 15 from Lokasaba ~single transferable vote/ proportional representation and 7 members nominated by Rajyasba. 8, Write the names of Public Undertakings. Ans: industrial Finance Corporation, Industrial Develop Bank of. India, Indian Airlines, LIC, Food Corporation of India, Air India etc. 9. What is the term of the members of Public under takings committee? Ans: 01 year 10, How many Members are in SC/ST Welfare committee? Ans : Not more than 30 members, (20 from Lokasaba —single transferable vote proportional representation and 10 members nominated by Rajyasba. 11, What is the term of the members SC/ST Welfare committee? Ans: 01 year 12. How many exclusive committees in Rajyasabha? Ans: 06 Q.1965MODULE-2 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ARTICLE 370, 371 & 3713 1, Which article gives the autonomous states to Jammu & Kashmir? Ans: Article 370 2. Which part of the constitution drafted /define the Article 370 Ans Part XT 3. Which Article provide the special status to Jammu & Kashmir Ans: Article 370 4, Which article provide the special provision to the states of Maharastra & Gujarath Ans: Article 371 5. Which article made to establish separate development board for Vidarba, Marathwada in Maharastra ? Ans Article 371 6. Article 371 made to establish separate development board for. Ans: Saurastra and Kuch in Gujarath 7, Which amendment added the Article 371 J to the Constitution? Ans: 98" Amendment act-2012 8. Which article made to establish separate development board for Hyderabad karnataka ? Ans: Article 371 J 9. Which article empowered to provide the Governor of Karnataka to have special responsibility on Iyderabad Karnataka? Ans Article 371 J 10. How many backward districts includes in Northern Karnataka range in Article 371 Ans: Six back ward districts covered in northern Kamataka for Article 371 J 11. What are district includes in Article 371 J from north Kamataka Range Ans: Gulbarga, Bidar, Raichur, Koppal, Yadagiri and BellaryMODULE-3 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IMPORATANT CONSTITUITONAL AMENDMENTS 1. What is 7™ CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT-1956 1 2 3. 4. 5. This constitutional amendment act was brought to give effect to recommendations of state reorganisation commission Provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states. Abolished the existing classification of states into four categories i.e, Part A, Part B, Part C and Part D states, and reorganized them into 14 states and 6 union territories Extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories, Provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court What is 9™ AMENDMENT ACT, 1960 Facilitated the cession of Indian Territory of Berubari Union (located in West Bengal) to Pakistan as provided in the Indo-Pakistan Agreement (1958). 3. Expalain 10™ CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT-1961 Incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Indian Union What is 12™ CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT-1962 Incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu in the Indian Union. 5. What is 42" AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 Itis also known as Mini-Constitution. It was enacted to give effect to the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.) Added three new words (Le, socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble. Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A). Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, participation of workers in the management of industries Shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list, viz, education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and organisation ofall courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts Empowered the Centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and order. 6. What is 447! AMENDMENT ACT, 1978 Empowered the president to send back once the advice of cabinet for reconsideration, But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ in respect of national emergency. Made the President to declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet. Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right, 7. What is 615" AMENDMENT ACT, 1989 Reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections.MODULE-3 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. Expalain 7389 AMENDMENT ACT, 1992 * Granted constitutional status and protection to the panchayat raj institutions, * For this purpose, the Amendment has added a new Part-IX entitled as ‘the panchayats’ and anew Eleventh Schedule containing 29 functional items of the panchayats 9. Describe 747 AMENDMENT ACT, 1992 * Granted constitutional status and protection to the urban local bodies, * For this purpose, the Amendment has added a new Part IX-A entitled as ‘the municipalities’ and a new ‘Twelth Schedule containing 18 functional items of the municipalities 10. What is 75™! AMENDMENT ACT, 1994. * Provided for the establishment of rent tribunals for the adjudication of disputes with respect to rent, its regulation and control and tenancy issues including the rights, title and interest of landlords and tenants 11. Explain the 86™ AMENDMENT ACT, 2002 * Made elementary education a fundamental right. The newly-added Article 21-A declares that “the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may determine”. * Changed the subject matter of Article 45 in Directive Principles. It now reads—"The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”. * Added anew fundamental duty under Article 51-A which reads—"It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years”, 12. What is 9157 AMENDMENT ACT, 2003 * The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75(1A)). * Tho total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the legislative Assembly of that state, But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 (Article 164(1A)). * The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection Jaw) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted. It means that the defectors. have no more protection on grounds of splits. 13. What is 947 AMENDMENT ACT, 2006 * Freed Bihar from the obligation of having a tribal welfare minister and extended the same provision to Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, This provision will now be applicable to the two newly formed states and Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, where it has already been in force (Article 164(1)). 14, What is 95™ AMENDMENT ACT, 2009 * Extended the reservation of seats for the SCs and STs and special representation for the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for a further period of ten years ie., upto 2020 (Article 334), 15. 100™ AMENDMENT ACT 2015: * This amendment is Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh 16, What is 101th CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2016 Goods and Services Tax (GST) has commenced with the enactment of the 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 on 8th September, 2016 and the subsequent notifications.202 Constitution of India & Professional Ethics Q.204 The procedure for the election of the President of India can be modified through an amendment in the Constitution which must be passed by (A) ‘Two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha \B) Two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha (© ‘Wo-thirds majority by the Rajya Sabha (©) Two-thirds majority by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha ad be ratified by legislatures of at least half of the states, Q.205 The President can proctaim national emergency only on the written advice of, (A) The Prime Minister BF The Union Cabinet © The Chief Justice of India (©) The Speaker of Lok Sabha Q206 The President can impose his rule in a state on account of fallure of constitutional machinery under A) Article 356 @®) Article361. (©) Article371 (©) Artie 379 Q.207 Whois the Supreme Commander of the armed forees of India? WT The President (8). ‘The Prime Minister © The Union Defence Minister ©) None of the above Q.208 The President can nominate two members ofthe Lok Sabha to give representation to 45 The Angio-Indians ©) Indian Christians * © Buddhists e (D) Parsis Q.209 To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanétion without sendinglt back for reconsideration? os Money Bills @) Ordinary Bills © Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution (©) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament Q.210 For the first time, the President madea Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 in (A) 1952 B) 1962 VS 1965 ©) Im Q.211 The President made a Proclamation of Emergency on grounds of internal disturbances for the first time in ; (A) 1962 + VB 1965 © 195 (©) None of the above Q.212 Whoamong the following is not appointed by the President of India? Vice-President (B) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court © Govemors of States ©) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court Q.213 Impeachment proceedings can be initiated against the President in either house of Parliament only ifa resolution signed by members of the House is moved. (A) 10 percent of total \AS 25 per cent of total (© 20per cent of total (©) 15 per cent of totaload ne eRe ACN AR eR Multiple Choice Questions 203 Q.214 Thevalueofa vote ofa member of Parliament for election ofthe President of Indias determined by dividing the (A) Total population of the country as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members (B) Total population of the country ‘ (© The total value of votes of members of all the state legislative assemblies by the elected members ofthe two houses of Parliament ~F None of the above Q.215 After a bill is passed by the Parliament t s sent to the President for his assent, who can return it for reconsideration to theLok Sabha, But if the bill is repassed by the! Parliament and sent to the President for his assent he AP Has to sign it (B) Can send the bill to the Parliament for reconsidération for the second time (© Can submit the same to the people for referendum (D) Can get itnullified through the Supreme Court Q.216 * Which one of the following emergencies can be declared by the President only on receipt in writing of the decision of the Union Cabinet? AS Emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion (8) Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state (© Emergency due to threat to financial stability or credit of India or any part Of the territory thereof . (D) Allthe above emergencies Q.217 Thethree types of Proclamations of Emergency made by the President have to be placed before ‘each house of Parliament for its approval (A) Within one month (B) Within two months 5 Within six months (D) Withinone month in case of national emergency and within two months in case of emergency due to break down of constitutional machinery and financial emergency Q.218 The Vice-President of India is (A) Directly elected by the people {(B) Elected by the same electoral college which elects the President ACF Elected by the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at a joint siting (©) Elected by members of Rajya Sabha alone Q.219 The tenure of the Vice-President is (A) Co-terminus with that of the President BY Five years © Dependent on the will of the President © Dependent on the will of the President ©) Six years204 Constitution of india & Professional Ethics 0.220 ‘The Viee'Presidentis the ex-officio Chairman of AAS The Rajya Sabha ®) The National Development Council (© The Planning Commission (D) None of the above (Q.221 Disputes regarding the election ofthe Vice-President are decided by (A) The Speaker @) The President © The Parliament WA The Supreme Court . 0.222, Among the four pairs given below, which one consist of correct combination of digntaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic positions? (A) Dr Radhakrishnan and GS Pathak BY Dr $ Radhakrishnan and DrZakir Hussain (© DrSRadhaksishnan and VV Giri (D) BD Jattiand KR Narayanan i Q.223 Identify the correct order in which tbe following acted as Vice-Presidents of India. i (A) Dr. Zakir Hussain, R Venkataraman, BD Jati and GS Pathak 6) Dr. Zakir Hussain, GS Pathak, BD JatiandR Venkataraman i © BD Jatti,Dr. Zakir Hussain, GS Pathak and R Venkataraman 1 ©) GS Pathak, BD Jatt, Dr. Zakir Hussain and R Venkataraman 0.224 Which one ofthe following functions ofthe Prime Minister has been wrongly listed? (A) He presides over the meeting of the Cabinet (®) He prepares the agenda for the meeting of the Cabinet (© He coordinates the working of various department ABS He chairs the meetings of the various standing and ad hoc committees of Parliament Q.225 Who ofthe following was a member of Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime Minister? (A) Charan Singh ®) Indira Gandhi (© LalBahadurShastri VAP Narasimha Rao Q.226 Thedefeatof government in Rajya Sabha leads to i (A) Its dismissal by the President (B) Resigriation of the Prime Minister ‘ (©) Advice by the President to the Prime Minister to relinquish office V5) None of the above Q.227 A motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabbaifitis supported by atleast (A) SOmembers B) 55 members © 100members A), One-third ofthe total members of Lok Sabha Q.228 The size of the Council of Ministers EF Has been specified inthe Constitution (B)Isdeterminedby the Prime Minister (©) Is determined by the President (D) Isdetermined by the ParliamentQ.229 Which one of the following statements about the Union Counell of Ministers is not correct? (A) Itacts as chief advisor to the President ) Itis responsible for the administration of foreign relations VES Itplays a key role in the impeachment of the President (©) Itis responsible for the implementation of the central laws Q.230 Which of the following were not members of Parliamént atthe time of their appointment as Prime Minister? (A) Indira Gandhi : (B) PVNarasimha Rao 40) HD Deve Gowda (D) Moorarji Desai Q.231 Theminimum age at which a person can be appointed as Prime Minister of India ks (A) 21 years 5 25 years © 30years (©) 35 years Q.232 ThePrime Minister is the Chairman of AA) The Planning Commission ®) The Minorities Commission (© The Finance Commission (D) None of the above . Q.233 Consider the following statements regarding a no-confidence motion in the Parliament l. There isnomention of anoconfidencemotion in the Constitution. 2. A period of six months must elapse between the introduetion of one no~confidencemotion and another 3. Atleast 100 members must support a motion of no-confidence before its introduced in the House 4, Amotion of no-confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only ofthe abovestatements (A) 2and4 are correct B) 1,2,3,and4 are correct (© 1,2and 3 are correct AD) Land 4 are correct Q.234 Themembers of the Council of Ministers (A) Receive a fixed salary as stipulated in the Second Schedule of the Constitution (B) Receive such salarics as arc fixed hy the President in consultation with the Speaket of Lok Sabha and the Prime Minister \V2F Receive the sume salaries and allowances which are paid tothe members of Parliament plus certain sumptuary allowances (©) Receive a monthly salary of Rs 15,000 and free accommodations. Q.235 Which one of the following did not occupy the office of the Prime Minister? (JAS Jagjiwan Ram (B) Charan Singh (© Morarji Desai (©) Both (a) and (0) Q.236 Thesalariesendallowances of the members of the Council of Ministers : (A) Have been stipulated in the Constitution (B) Are determined by the President in consultation with the Prime Minister AAO) Are determined by the Parliament from time to time (©) Are fixed by the President in consultation with the Speaker Q.237 _ThePrime Minister of India occupies a superior position than the British Prime Minister because (A) His office has been created by the Constitution (®) The procedure for his removal is much tougher than that of the British Prime Minkster206 Constitution of India & Professional Ethics © His office cannot be abolished \V@) He heads the largest democracy of the world Q.238 Inthe event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister (A) The Council of Ministers stands automatically dissolved Pe ©) Thesenior most member ofthe Counci of Ministers autoriatically beconjgs the Prime Minister AB) The Lok Sabha stands automatically dissolved and fresh elections must be held within six months (©) The President can take any of the above actions Q.239 The Partiament of India consists of \AA) The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (B) The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (©) The Lok Sabha, Prime Minister and Speaker (D) None of the ‘above Q.240 What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha qm? (a) 500 ®) 545 verse (6a) © 325 Q241 Themembers of Lok Sabha are ! VA) Directly elected by the people (8) Are indirectly elected through state legislatures, (© Partly nominated and partly elected indirectly (@) Partly elected directly and partly elected indirectly Q.242 How many seats have been reserved for the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha? M8) 0 @% On ©) None Q.243 Seats are allotted to various states in the Lok Sabha on the: ‘basis of. (A) Their size and resources\-Their population . (©) Their size, resources and population _ (D) None of the above . Q.244 Which one of the following states sends maximum representative to the Lok: Sabha? (A) Himachal Pradesh (8) Madhya Pradesh © West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh Q245 The 42+ Amendment increased the term of the Lok Sabha from five years to VAS Six years (B) Seven years © Nine years (D) None of the above Q.246 ‘The term of Lok Sabha can be extended beyond its normal term of five years (A) By the President at his discretion ®) By the President on the recommendations ‘of the Election Commission © By the President during all types of emergencies \) By the President duting national emergencyChoice Questions 207 Q247 The President can extend thetlife of the Lok Sabha during the National Emergency inthe first instance for a period of (A) One month (®) Three months NA Six months ) One year Q243 ‘The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is (A) Appointed by the President z B) Appointed by the President on the recommendations of the Prime Minister (© lected by the members ofthe two houses ata joint sitting 40) Elected by members of the LokSabha Q249 Themaximum duration of the zerohour in Lok Sabha can be (A) 30 minutes (B) Onehour 4€C} Unspecified () Two hours Q.250 Who cat dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of ts normal term of five years? (A) The Prime Minister \-®) The President (©) The President on the recommendation ofthe Prime Minister (D) The President on the recommendation of the Speaker Q.251 The President can calla joint session of the two houses of Parliament (A) If bill passed by one house is rejected by the other @) If the amendment proposed to the bill by one house is not acceptable to the other house © Ifthe house does not take any action for six months on a bill remitted by the other house 4) Under all the above conditions Q.252 Who presides over the joint sessions of Parliament? (A) The Vice-President OS The Speaker © The President (D) The Speaker and Vice-President by rotation a Q.253 The Speaker of the Lok Sabha makes use of bis easting vote only (A) To save the existing government 4) Incase ofa te, viz, when the votes are equally divided © Incase of constitutional amendments () Incase of emergency Q.254 Lok Sabha passes vote on account to \ AAT Meet the expenditure during the period between the introduction of Budget and its passage. ) To meet expenditure on secret services (© To enable the government to spend on unexpected demands | ©) Assert its supremacy over finances \ Q.255 TheLok Sabha secretariat works under the direct supervision of AA) The Speaker ®) The Minister for Parliamentary AMfairs208 ~__ Constitution of india & Prote: © The President of India (D) None of the above Q.286 A half-an-hour discussion can be raised in the house after giving notice to AA) The presiding officer (B) The Secretary General of the House (© The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs &. (©) ‘The concerned minister Q.257. The Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper House of Parliament, has a maximum strength of A) 250members (B) 225members —_ (C) 330 members ) 350members Q.258 Themembers of the Rajya Sabha, except the nominated ones, are (A) Directly elected by the people (B) Elected by local self-governing bodies \AS Elected by the legislative assemblies of the states (D) Elected partially by legislative assemblies and partially by the local self-governing bodies Q.259 Inthe Rajya Sabha, the states have been provided (A) Equal representation \-B) Representation on the basis of population © Representation on the basis of population as well as size (©) Representation on the basis of size 260 Which on ofthe felling states sends the maximum number of epresentatvestothe Rajya Sabha? (A) AndhraPradesh (B) West Bengal \4€f’Machya Pradesh (D) Untar Pradesh Y Q.261 - Themembers of the Rajya Sabha are elected (A) Forlife 4B) Fora term of six years © Foratermof five years (D) Fora term of four years Q.262 ° The Rajya Sabha isa permanent house but swt) One-third of its members retire every two years ®) One-half ofits members retire every three years © One-fifth ofits members retire every year (©) One-half ofits member retire every two years Q.263 The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, who is the chief of the Lok Sabha Secretariat, is appointed by (A) The President 4B) The Speaker (© The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs in Consultation with the Speaker ©) Acommittee of the House, especially constituted for this purpose Q.264 What can be the maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament? (A) Three months ) Four months VO Six months (©) Nine months a ener‘Multiple Choice Questions 209 Q.265 The Chairman ofthe Rajya Sabha (A) [selected by the members of Rajya Sabha ®) [selected by the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha jointly (© Isnoiminated by the President . 4B) None of the above“ Q.266 Which of the following Statements is correct? - {AX The Vice-President of India is the ex? officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (B) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President in Consultation with the Prime Minister (©) The Attomey General of India acts as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, in addition to performing the duties of his office (D) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha from amongst themselves Q.267 The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has (A) A vote only in case of a tie (B) A vote like any other member of the Rajya Sabha 46) No vote because he is an ex-officio Chairman of the House (©) Two votes-an ordinary vote and casting vote. 0.268 Who convenes the joint sessions ofthe Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha? {SAD The Speaker B) The Chairman of the RajyaSabha (©) The President (D) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Q.269 A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha foramaximum period of A) 14 days (B) Onemonth (©) Two months (D) Three months Q.270 The power to control the expenditure of the Government of India rests exclusively with A) The Parliament (B) The President (© TheComptrollerand AuditorGeneral (D) The Union Finance Minister Q.271 A Moiiéy Bill can originate -(A) Ineither house of Parliament » ABS Only in the Lok Sabha (©) Only inthe Rajya Sabha (D) Only in a joint sitting of the two houses Q.272 Which one of the following sets of Bills is presented to the Parliament along with the budget? (A) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill ) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill ‘85 Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill (D) Direct Faxes and Indirect Taxes Bill Q.273 ‘The Council of Ministers has to tender its resignation if vote of no-confidence is passed against it yt) By the Lok Sabha B) By the Rajya Sabha(© By the wo houses at a joint sitting (©) By the two houses of Parliament by two/ thirds majority Q.274 Which of the following powers is exclusively vested in the Rajya Sabha? (A) To initiate impeachment proceedings against the President ®) Torecommend the creation of new Alll India Services \ 4B Toremave the Vice-President ©) Allthe above powers Q275 ‘The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved hefore the expiry of is term by (A) The President @®) The Vice-President, who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha (© The President on the recommendations of the Union Council of Ministers \©) None of the above Q.276 , Notaxes ean he levied or expenditure incurred without the approval of AA) The President B) The Parliament © The Council of Ministers () All the above Q.277 - Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of members of Parliament? (A) The President (B) The concerned house A) The Blection Commission (D) The President in Consultation with the Election Commission Q.278 —Amember of Parliament enjoys immunity fram preseeution for having said anything {JAD uring the session ofthe Parliament anywhere (B) In the Parliament and its committees © Ata Press Conference ©) At any of the abave places Q.279 Who decides whether a bill isa Money Bill or not? JA) Speaker of Lok Sabha ®) Prime Minister © President + ©) Select Parliamentary Committee Q.280 select Parliamentary Committee A Rajya Sabha ®) Lok Sabha (C) State legislative assembly ©) All the above Q.281 The Parliament of India cannot be considered a sovereign body bécause \A) Its authority is confined to jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution B) Laws passed by the Parliament can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court © Ofthe presence of certain Fundamental Rights of citizens in the Constitution (©) Of al the above factorsMultiple Choice Questions manaatl Q.282 ‘The final decision whether a member of the Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification under the Defection Law rests with (A) The Speaker {B) The Election Commission \ ©) The Supreme Court (D) The President Q.283 ‘The maximum strength f th nominated menbsin both the houses ofthe Prllamentcan be (A) 10 yer SO OD Q.284 Incase of differences between the two houses of Parliament over a bill, a jolnt session of the two housesis held wheredecision is taken by majority vote. In case there isa tie (votes in favour and against a bill are equal) how is the same resolved? (A) The bill is again submitted to vote ofthe two houses ata joint sitting after a gap of four weeks (B) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can make use of his casting vote \4F The Speaker can make use of his casting vote (D) The bill is shelved for the session and taken up for consideration at the next session afresh 285 ‘The Parliament ora state legislature can declare a seat vacant Ifa member absent himself without permission from the sessions for (A) 30 days B60 days (© 90 days (@). 120 days Q.286 Who presides over the Lok Sabha ifneither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available? (A) Amembér nominated by the President ) A member chosen by the Council of Ministers (©) Amember of the pane! of Chairmen announced by the Speaker _\BF The seitior-most member of the Lok Sabha Q.287 The function of the Speaker is to Ve 44) Conduct the proceedings of the house in the absence of the Speaker (B) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected (©) Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected (@) Check ifthe election certificates of the members are in order Q.288 Which one of the following are the financial committees of Parliament in India? 1. Public Accounts Committee [Link] Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings (A) Lonly OF | and 2 © tand3 ©) 1,.2,and3 Q.289 The Public Accounts Coinmittee submits its report to (A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha {BI The Comptrolierand Auditor General (© ‘The President of India (D) The Minister for ParliamenA tary Affairs 0.290 Which of the following LokSabhas enjoyed a term of tiore than five years? (A) Fourth Lok Sabha ®) Fifth Lok Sabha AD Sixth Lok Sabha () Eighth Lok Sabha Q.291 The differences between the two houses of Parliament are resolved through (A) A joint session of the two houses (B) Mediatory efforts of the officers of the two houses2a Constitution of india & Professional Ethice ‘A joint commitee ofthe two houses, specially constituted for this purpose (©) The mediation of Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Q.292 Thequorum: ‘or minimum number of members required to hold the ‘meeting of elther house of Parliament is—— (A) Onesfourth (B) One-third © One-fifth VA) One-tenth,, Q.293 Pate flowingbiscanbeltroueeinthePalamet only withthe prior aproral the President? \4A) Money Bills ©) Bill pertaining to impeachment of President © Bill pertaining to powers of the ‘Supreme Court @) All the above Q.294 ‘Members of the Rajya Sabha are not, associated with 1, Public Accounts: Committee. Estimates lertakings Connmnittee 3,Committee on Public Und A) Land 2 ® 3 ©2 ©) 1 and3 0295 Who ofthe following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (A) Hukum Singh ®) GSDhillon 0) GV Mavalankar ©) AnanthaswayanamAyenger Q.296 Foci bet fsa allocated toa stat nthe Lok Sabha is 2, then then of seas reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be * (A) 21 VS 4 ©7 ©) 6 Q.297 hichof the flowing committees comprises of members ofLok Sabha as wells Rajya Sabha? (A) The Public Accounts Committee ®) The Comimittee on Publid Undertakings © TheEstimates Committee AF (a) and (6) . Q:298 ‘The Comptroller and. Auditor General acts as friend, philosopher and guide of (A) The Public Accounts Commitiee \B) TheEstimatesCommittes et , © The Committee on. Public Undertakings ©) All the above Q.299 The ‘Power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with (A) The Prime Minister VAS The President © The Speaker ©) The Rules Committee. of Parliament Q.300 Which. of the following states: sends the largest ‘number of members to Lok Sabha. after Hee Pradesh : (A) Bihar (B) Madhya Pradesh 7 24) Maharashtra ©) None of the above 301 Which ofthe following statements is not correct? VAS In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses, ) Inthe even of dissolution ofthe Lok Sabha, any bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.— Multiple Choice Questions 213 (© In the event of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha any bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but passed by the Lok Sabha, does not lapse (©) Inthe event of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, any bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but not passed by the Lok Sabha, lapses 302 TheSpeaker ofthe Lok Sabha has toaddresshisletter of resignation x (A) The Prime Minister 4B) The Deputy: Speai of the Lok Sabha (© The President (D) The Vice-President Q.303 Which of the following statements correctly describes ‘a hung Parliament’ (A) A Parliament in which no party has a clear majority VB ‘The Prime Minister has resigned but the Parliament is not dissolved (© The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct business (D) A lame duck Parliament 0.304 Who of the following is considered the custodian of Lok Sabha? AS The Speaker (B) The Prime Minister (©) The leader of the Opposition (©) The Chief Whip ofthe ruling party Q.305 Which of the following statements is correct? (A) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the elected members of the Rajya Sabha (B) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the joint session of both houses of Parliament (© The Electoral College for the election of the Vice-President is the same as that for the election of the President \F Thenominated members of both houses of Parliament have voting tight in the election of the Vice-President but notin the election of the President Q.306 Under thenew Committee system launched in April 1993, out of the 17 sandag toes (A) Six are constituted by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and I by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha B) Five are constituted by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and 12 by the Speaker of the Lok ; Sabha i © Eight are constituted by the Chairman ofthe Rajya Sabha and ine by the Speaker oft h€ i Lok Sabha \JPF All the committees are constituted jointly by the Chairman ofthe Rajya Sabha and Speaker of the Lok Sabha i Q.307 The term ‘closure’ in Parliamentary terminology implies (A) The end of session of Parliament ®) Stoppage of debate on a motion { (© End of the day's proceedings ‘AF None of the above Q.308 Which ofthe following committecs of Purliament is concerned with the regularity and economy of expenditure? (A) Public Accounts Committee AB Estimates Committee | (©) Committee on Public Undertakings ©) All the above Q.309 Which of the following committees has associate members from the Rajya Sabha? (A) Public Accounts Committee @) Estimates Committee ©) Committee on Privileges (D) All the above214 Constitution of india:&ProfessionalEthics Q.310: ‘Which‘one of the followings the correct definition of the term ‘whip’? (A) A situation in which all the members ofa politcal party attend the session of Parliament but need inot participate in the voting ©) A document published by the government, containing full information on an issue of national importance, presented fo the Peliament VE Statein which all the memberstbéthe. political party are required to be present in the Parliament and vote [Link] the instructions of the party (D) None of the above Q311 _Atpresent, various states have been allocated seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of (A) 1951 Census (B) 1961Census sf 1971 Census @) 1981 Census Q312 ‘Which of the following parliamentary committee scutinies the report ofthe Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (A) The Estimates Committee (8) The Public Accounts Committee WEF The Committee on Public Undertakings (D) Allthe above (0313 Whoamong the folowingmay belong tote Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha VAS. Ministers who are member ofthe Rajya Sabha (8) Nominated members ofthe Rajya Sabha who are experts of a particular field (© The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ©) The leader of the house in the Rajya Sabha. 2314 Which ofthe folowing statements regarding the ofite of the Speaker iscorrect? (A) He holds office during the pleasure ofthe President (®). He need not be a member ofthe house at the time of election as Speaker, bub become a member of the house within six months of the date: ‘of his election. (©) He luses his office ifthe house II dissolved before the end of the normal tenure 1 If he intends to resign, the letter of resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker 2315 Whichof the following enjoys the distinction of being thefts recognized leader of the ‘Opposition inithe Lok Sabha? (A) AKGopalan @) YBChavan \ AO Shyama Prasad Mukerjee (D) Indira Gandhi: Q.316 Whiena billis considered by the two houses of Parliamentata joint sitting; the decision is taken, by, (A) Simple majority (B) Twosthirds majority (© Majority of each house separately 8 Absolutemajorty of total membership 2317 Which ofthe folowing isthe Indian contribution to Parliamentary Procedures? VA) Zero Hour (8) Cut Motion (© Adjournment Motion ©) Guillotine —l-Muttipie Choice Guestions 215 Q318. Howmany seats are reserved forthemembers of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha? ) @ x ow 9 Q319. "The LokSabha can be dissolved before the expiry ofits term by (A) The President at his discretion AB), The President on the advice of the Prime Minister 4G) The Prime Minister in consultation with the Speaker ) None of the above 320. LokSabhaissuperior tothe Rajya Sabha because (A) Ibis directly elected {@) Malone controls the purse (© It can oust the Council of Ministers through a vote of no-confidence \B) Of allthe above reasons Q.321 ” ASelector Joint Cominittee ofthe twahouses of Parliamentis formed by (A) The Speaker ofthe Lok Sabha (B) The Speaker ofthe Lok Sabha and Chairman ofthe Rajya Sabha jointly 44) The Speaker in consultation with the President ; (D) The Speakerin consultation with the Prime Minister Q.322 Which of the following has been wrongly listed asa Standing Joirit Committee of thé Two houses ofParliament . (A) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes @) Committee on Offices of Profit (© Committee on Government Assurances AS Committee on Salaries and Allowances of members of Parliament Q.323 A new committee system was introduced in the Indian Panliament in April.1993 on the recommendations of — (A) The Rules Committee of the House 45 The Joint Parliamentary Committee set up in 1990 (© The leaders ofall the political parties represented in the Parliament (D) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs 324 Thenew cominittee system envisages (A) standing Committees B) 13standing Committees \2F 17 standing Committees (D) 2 standing Committees + Q.325 Under the new committee system, each standing committee shall comprise of (A720 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of Rajya Sabha (B) 30members of Lok Sabha and 15 members of Rajya Sabha (©) 25members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of Rajya Sabha (©) 10 members of Lok Sabha and 5 members of Rajya Sabha. Ee216 Constitution of india & Professional Ethics 0-326 Under thenew committee system, the standing committes, apart from examining the grants ofall ministries anddepartments, are able to examine (A) Bills of technical nature B) Annual reports of ministries and departments (© Long-term policies we VF All the above Bei 327 Which ofthe following committees of Parliament has the largest membership? (A) Public Accounts Committee BF Estimates Committee (© Business Advisory Committee (©) Committee on Public Undertakings 0328 Of the following, who ensures that no money s spent out ofthe Consolidated Fund of India without the authority of thePartiament? (A) The Finance Commission» 48) The Comptroller and Auditor General (© The Attomey General @) None of the above Q.329 A member, after being elected as Speaker of Lok Sabha, generally (A) Becomes the Chief Spokesman of his party ‘®) Continues to be a member of the party and seeks to promote its interests AS Cuts off his connections with his party. (©) Joins the ruling party Q.330 The Supreme Court of India was set up VA) By the Constitution (B) Under the Indian Independertce Act 1947 © Through an Actof Parliament in 1950 (D) Under the Government of India Act 1935 Q.331 The Supreme Court consists ofa Chief Justice and (A) 7 judges B) 9 judges © 11 judges P25 judges Q.332 ‘The judges of the Supreme Courtare (A) Elected by the Parliament NN 8) Appointed by the President on the advice of the Parliament (© Appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister \®) Appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of India, Q.333 The judges of the Supreme Court hold office til they attain the age of (A) 62years VB) 65 years © years (©) [Link] limit Q.334 The Supreme Court holds its meetings at New Delhi, but it ean meet elsewhere (A) fa majority of judges of Supreme Court so decide 8) With the approval of the Parliament ES With the approval of the President (©) On the request of the state legislature 335 The Constitution has tried to ensure the independence of judges ofthe Supreme Court by (A) Charging their salaries and allowances on the Consolidated Fund of India 5) Making removal of judges quite difficultn a Multiple Choice Questions (© Debarring judges from carrying'on practice before any court in India after retirement (D) All these provisions 0.336 Thesalariesof the judges ofthe Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund oflndia to ensure that (A) They dispense justice impartially (B) They get their salaries regularly é \WO The Pariament does not reduce their salaries due to potitial considerations (D) None of the above Q.337 ‘The judges of the Supreme Court, after retirement, are not permitted to carry on practice before (A) The Supreme Court (8) The High Courts (© The district and session courts VAP Any of the above 338 Which ofthe following jurisdictions ofthe Supreme Court of India has been wrongly sted? (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction (©) Advisory Jurisdiction 4) None of the above 339 Thejudges of the Supreme Court (A) Cannot be removed from office during their tenure {B) Can be removed from office by the President at his discretion 48 Can be removed by the President onthe recommendation of the Parliament (D) Can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers Q.340‘TheSupreme Court of India isa court of record, which implies that (A) Ithas to keep a record of al its decisions (®) All the decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned in any court (©) thas the power to punish for Its I contempt AB) Both (b) and (c) Q.341 “The Supreme Court tenders advice tothe President ona matter of aw or fact. (A) Onits own 4&3) Only ifhe seeks such advice (©) Only ifthe matter relates to Fundamental Rights of citizens (D) Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country Q.342 Theadvice of the Supreme Courtis (A) Binding on the President \ BF Not binding on the President (© Binding on the President if its tendered unanimously (©) Binding in certain cases and not binding in other cases. Q.343Thecases involving an interpretation of the Constitution fall within the wr Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (B) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (© Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (D) None of these jurisdiction218 Constitution ot india.& Professional Ethics Q344 TheSupreme Court of India enjoys the power-of judicial review which implies that Itean (A) Review the working of the subordinate courts By Reviewits ownjudgements (© Initiate cases at its own discretion (VB Dectarethe ws passed by the legislature and orders issued bythe executive as unconstitutional « & if they contrayene any provision of the Constitution & Q.345 The framers ofthe Constitution borrowed the dea of judicial review from the Constitution of (A) France VAS USA (© United Kingdom @) Allof these Q346 ‘The framers ofthe Constitution adopted the doctrine of judiciat review Toensure proper working of the parliamentary system of government (8) ‘To ensure proper working ofthe federal system of government © Toovercome the limitations ofa rigid Constitution () On account of all these factors Q.347 While imparting justice, the Supreme Court relies on the principle of WA RuleofLaw ®) Due Process of Law (© Procedure established by Law, ©) All the above 2348 TheconceptofPublic Interest Litigation, which hs beconie quite popular in India in recent years, originatedin (A) The United Kingdom OP The United States (© Australia ©) Canada Q.349 ‘Which ofthe following amendment curtailed the Supreme Court’s power of Judicial Review? (A) 42nd Amendment ®) 44th Amendment © 29th Amendment None of the above Q.350 Theconeept of ‘judicial activism’ gained [Link] India in (A) The 1960s (8) ‘The 1970s (©) The 1980s \\oo eo Q.351 Judicial activism has led to increase in the powers of (A) The executive ®) The legislature ©) The judiciary ©) All the above organs Q.352 Judicial activism has enhanced the powers and prestige of WA The Supreme Court (B) The political parties ~ © The President ©) The Parliament Q.353 Which of the following defects of judictat activism has been wrongly listed? (4) Ithas added to the arrears of the courts because the courts have tended to entertain public interest litigations even on trivial matters ) Thecourts have tended to assume a positive policy-making role which was actually assigned by the Constitution to the representatives of the people (© Ithas greatly undermined the position of the judiciary S) None of the aboveMultiple Choice Questions: 219 Q.354 Adhoc judges can be appointed inthe Supreme Court, (A). By the President on the advice of the Union Law Minister. (B) By the Chief Justice of India nt ith advice of Chief Justice of India a, si Q355 How many judges ofthe Supreme Court have been removed from their office before the expiry of their normal erm through impeachment? 7 (A) Only one ®). Two © Three NF Nore Q.356 Which ofthe following statements regarditig the Supreme Court of India isnot correct? 465 tacts asthe guardian ofthe liberties of the people of India, (B) Itacts as the guardian of the Constitution. (© Itacts as the protector ofthe Directive Principles of State Policy. (D) Ithas final power to investigate disputes regarding election of the President and the Vice- President. Q.357 _ Itbecameimperative for the framers of the Indian Constitution to: adopt the doctrine of judicial review because of (A) Its Republican character PP Adoption of parliamentary system of government (© Adoption of federal system of government ©) Avaitten Constitution Q.358 Which of the following judges of the Supreme Court was unsuocessfully sought to be impeached (A) Justice HR Khanna VAST Justice Ramaswamy © Justice Wanchoo (©) Justice Hidayatullah 2.359 Whichiof the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts [Link] Supreme | ‘Court? (A) Disputes between the Centre and the States.» | (B) Disputes between the states inter se \ | \ AB Protection of the Fundamental Rights (D) Protection against violation of the Constitution. | Q.360 _ Which:of the following has been wrongly listéd as criteria for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court (A) Must have been a judge of a High Court for atleast five years d 8) Must have been an advocate-of'a High Court for not less than 10 years Must have attained the age of 55 years (D) Mast, in the opinion of the President, be distinguished jurist Q.361 Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to reviewits own judgement or order? MA Anticle 130 (B) Article 137 © Article 138 (D) Article 139220 Constitution of India & ProfessionalEthics Q.362 The theory of tbasicstructure of the Constitution’ implies (A) That certain features of the Constitution are so basic to the Constitution that they cannot be abrogated. B) That certain features of the Constitution can be changed by the Parliament with the prior approval of the majority of the state legislatures (©), That certain features of the Gélistitution can be changed only after seeking prior approval of the majority of the judges of the Supreme Court AB) None of the above Q.363 The judges ofthe Supreme Court have to take an oath or affirmation before entering their office, which is conducted by A& The President (B) The Cheif Justice of India (© The Vice-President (©) The Attomey General of India Q.364 A judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office before the completion of his tenure addressing his resignation to AS The President (B) The Chief Justice of India (© The Union Law Minister () None of the above Q.365 Who of the followingis the executivehead of astate? (A) The Chief Minister \ BY The governor (© The President (D) None of the above Q.366 The governor ofastate ls oe (A) Elected by the state legislature 8) Nominated by the Prime Minister AE Appointed by the President , : ©) Appointed by a Special Committee constituted for this purpose Q.367 Generally, the governor belongs to (A) The state where he is posted NAF Some other state (©) The Indian Administrative Service (©) None of the above / Q.368 The governor of a state holds office’ During the pleasute of the President @) As long as he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister (© As long as he enjoys the confidence of the state council of ministers (D) As fong as he enjoys the confidence of the state legislature, 2.369 _ Asamatter of convention, while appointing the governor ofa state, the President consults (A) The Chief Minister of the state (8) The Chief Justice of India © The State Council of Ministers V5) None of the above 2.370. Ifthe governor of a state wishes to relinquish his office before the expiry of his term, he has to address his resignation to - AB) The President (B) The Prime Minister (© The Union Home Minister () Chief Justice of indiaMultiple Choice Questions 221 Q.371 Thesalary and allowances of the governor are charged to (A) The Consolidated Fund of India \48J The Consolidated Fund of the State (©) The Contingency Fund of India (D) None of the above Q.372 Can aperson actas governor of more than one state? ) Yes é B) No (©) Only fora period of six mins (D) Only fora period of one year Q.373 Whena person acts as governor of more than one state his salary is (A) Paid by the Union Government (B) Shared by the concerned states (C) Charged to the Consolidated Fund of India \@P Paid by the state named by the President Q.374 Which of the following legistative powers is enjoyed by the governor of a state? (A) He can summon or prorogue the state legislature : B) He can appoint one-sixth of the members of the legislative council (©) Hecan nominate certain members of the Anglo-Indian community tothe legislative assembly A) All the above powers Q.375 _Intheevent of the death or resignation of the governor, the duties of his office are discharged by AS The Chief Justice of the High Court B) The Chief Minister (©) Speaker of Legislative Assembly \ @) None of the above Q.376 The governor of astate can issue ordinances (A) Only in the event of breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state (B) Only when the Chief Minister asks him to do so . \S2F Only during the recess of the State legislature (©) Only after taking formal approval of the President | Q.377 The Ordinances issued by the governor are subject to approval by L | (A) The President () The state council of mishsters | VAS The state legislature (D) None of the above | Q.378 the Contingency Fund of the stateis operated by WAT The Governor (B) The State Finance Minister | (© The Chief Minister (©) Allthe above jointly | | Q.379 ‘The governor ofa state has to account for all his actions to i (A) The state legislature (B) The state council of ministers i | (© The Chief Minister of the state A The President | Q.380 One of the characteristics of profession is | | (A) Monopoly 4B) hard work | i (©) Competition. (D) None of these a L222 Constitution ot india & Protessional Ethics Q.381 Engineers first obligation is towards (A) Hisemployer AF Public safety © Government ©) Clients Q.382 Which oneis not a tradesecret? 2» JAS Theorem 8) Equipment €& © Formulae + @) Pattern * Q.383' The code of ethics can be taken as guidelines by the engineers to VA) Resolve the conflicts (B) Formulate problems © Overcome the work pressure ©) Escape from the responsibilty Q.384 Engineers will solve society better, if they are informed about Morality ®) Technical standards © Standards of science ©) Litigation process Q.385 _Anauthor retains copy right for (A) 100 years ®) 150 years AS S0yeats () 25 years Q.386 “Plagiarism’means (A) Trespassing upon immovable property @) Trespassing against movable property 45 Using intellectual property of others without their; permissjon (©) Misusing the truth by deception. Q.387 To overcomean impediment, ‘uncritical acceptance’, what step an engineer has to take? (A) Accept and analyse \AB Analyse and accept © Always say ‘yes Boss’ ©) none of these Q.388 Which one isnot the way of misusing truth? (A) With holding information ©) Failing to adequately promote be nin tia © Deliberate deception 3B Patenting 2.389 Risk ofharm equal o probability of producing benefit is (A) Inevitable risk APF acceptable risk © Risk which cannot be avoided ©) None of these. Q.390 Professional ethics is (A) Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals ) Traditional rules observed since a long time VAS Set of rules passed by professional bodies ©) Set of standards adopted by professionals. Q.391 Is fear’ impediment or hindricane to responsibility? (A) No B) Yesto some extent (© Yes and No AB) YesMultiple Choice Questions 223 Q.392 ASMEstandsfor M5. American Society for Mechanical Engineers. (8) Asian Society for Model Engineers, (© Atlantic Society for Model Engineers. (©) African Society for Model Engineers. fe Q.393 Which ofthe following isnot an intellectual property? (A) Copy right (B) Trade secrets (C) patent $y) land property Q.394 Engineers shall hold paramount the safety health and welfare of........ain the performance of their professional duties (A) Women and children 4B) the public © the ministers ©) themselves Q.395._ Intentionally causing harm is related to AF Legal responsibility ®) Moral responsibility (© Both (a) and (b) (D) none of these Q.396 Retaining only those results that ft the theary and discarding others is Cooking ®) Trimming (©) Forging (©) Plagiarism Q.397 The diagram of the possible ways in which, an accident occurs is represented by (A) Blue print VAS Fault tree (©) Flow chart (D) none of these Q.398NSPEstands for (A), National Scheme for Professional Ethics «JF National Society for Professional Engincers (©) National Sector wise Programme Efficiency (D) National Scheme for Professional Engineers, Q.399 Engineers shall undertake to perform engineering assignments only when \AK) Qualified by education and experience in the technical field (B) They have 10 years of experience in the technical field (© They are adequately paid for their jobs ©) None of these . Q.400 Professional ethles takes into account : \af The personal character of engineers b) The temparment of engineers © The religious bent of mind of engineers —_d)_ The social background of engineersMODULE -5 CYBER LAW & INTERNET LAW 1. Gaining of unauthorized access to the data OR information stored in a Computer system is called ‘Ans: Hacking: Malware: Viruses: Phishing: 2. A Technique of extracting sensitive information such as User names, Passwords and Credit/Debit card details of People by masquerading is, Ans: Phishing: Vishing: Pharming Phreaking: Spoofing: 3. Telephonic calls to the victims using fake identity fooling latter into Conserving the call to be from a trusted source is called Ans: Vishing : Pharming Phreaking Spoofing: 4. A Cyber attack intended to redirect a website’s traffic to Another (Fake) site. Ans: Phishing: Vishing: Pharming Phreaking 5. Cracking the phone networks to make free long distance call is Ans: Vishing : Pharming Phreaking Spoofing 6. An explicit attempt by attackers to prevent genuine and Intended users from accessing a specific computer resource such as a website is called... Ans: Vishing : Pharming Phreaking Denial of Service attacks 7. A situation in which one person successfully masquerades as another by Falsifying data, thereby gaining an Illegitimate advantage is... Ans: Pharming Phreaking: Spoofing Data diddling: 8. Specifically malicious software built to attack mobile phone or smart phone system, by causing the collapse of the system and loss or leakage of confidential Information is called.. Ans: Vishing : Pharming Phreaking Mobile Malware: 9. Sending huge volumes of email by an abuser to a target address resulting in victim’s email account is.. Ans: Pharming Phreaking Spoofing Email bombing and spamming 10. A new form internet crime in which an attacker harasses a victim online using Electronic communication, Ex: e-mail or instant massages is called... Ans: Cyber Stalking Pharming Phreaking Spoofing 11. Unauthorized changing of data before OR during their input to a computer system. Ans: Pharming Phreaking Spoofing Data diddling 12. IMlegal copying, distribution or use of software Ans: Pharming Phreaking Spoofing Software piracy 13. This is one of the primary ways of Cyber Stalking Ans: a) Intemet Stalking b) Pharming c) Phreaking _d) Spoofing 14. This is one of the basic measures to be taken for Cyber Security ‘Ans: a) installing anti-virus software _b). Application blacklisting ©). Application white listing 4) All of the aboveMODULE -5 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 15. This is one of the common techniques will be used by the hackers Ans: a) SQL Injection: (Structured Query Language) _b) Theft of FTP password: (File Transfer Protocol ¢) Cross-site scripting: (XSS) d) All of the above 16. This is not a Net Neutrality? Ans: a) Affects the regulation of the infrastructure of the internet. ») This is tuming, into one of the most critical aspects of cyber Law and has immediate Jurisdictional implications. ¢). Application white listing 17 Secure system’ refers to computer hardware, software and procedure that.. Ans: a) is reasonably secure from unauthorized access and misuse and adhere to generally accepted security procedure b) Provides a reasonable level of reliability and correct operation ©) is reasonably suited performing the intended functions d) Complies with all of the above 18. ‘Subscriber” refers to Ans: a) A person in whose name the digital signature certificate is issued ») any person who, on behalf of another person, receivs, stores or transmits that message or provides any service with respect to that message ©) aperson who has been granted a license to issue a Digital Signature Certificate under section-24 4) None of the above 19. Who, among the following is empowered to suspend or revoke the “license to issue Digital Signature Certificate granted to a Certifying Authority? © Controller * Adjudicating Officer © Cyber appellate Tribunal © Central Government 20, If the Certifying Authority fails to furnish any document, return, or report to the Controller under section 44, it shall be liable to a penalty of Ans; a) not exceeding Rs.1,50000/- b) not exceeding Rs.25000/- ©) not exceeding Rs.5000 for every day during which such failure continues 4) not exceeding Rs. 10000/- for every day during which such failure continues3 MODULE -5 CYBER CRIMES AND THE INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY ACT-2000, 1, When IT Act 2000 came into effect? A. October 17, 2000 B. October 17, 2001 C. November 11, 2000 D. November 11, 2001 2. How many schedules are there in IT Act 2000? A3 B4 C6 D.2 3. Which is the Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in India A. IT (amendment) Act 2008 B, Indian Penal Code C. IT Act 2000 D. None of the above 4. Which section of IT Act deals with the legal recognition of electronic records? E, Section 2 F. ‘Section 5 G. Section 6 H. Section 4 4, What is/are component of IT Act 2000 ? A. Legal Recognition to Digital Signatures B. Regulation of Certification Authorities. C. Digital Certificates D, All the above 5. The section deals with legal recognition of digital signature A. Section3 B. Section S C. Section 6 D. Section 4 6. The section deals with the use of electronic records and digital signature in Government and its agencies A. Section 3 B. Section 5 C. Section 6 D. Section 7 7. Major amendments to IT Act 2000 was introduced in the form of IT (amendiment) Act 2008) whitch came into effect on A. 01 June 2008 B. 27 October 2009 C. 27 October 2008 1 AR Pt 20N0MODULE -5 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. IT Act 2000 amended various sections of which of the following Acts? A. Indian Penal Code 1860 B, Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 C. Indian Evidence Act 1872 & Bankers Book Evidence Act 1891 D. All of the above 9. Which among following Act is not ammended in Information Technology Act 2000 ? A. The Bankers Books Evidence Act, 1891 B, BSNLIT Policy C. RBI Act 1934. D. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 10. Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) work under ? A. Prime Minister office B. Reserve Bank of India C. Ministry of Communi D, autonomous body 11. Which Act in India focuses on data privacy and information technology? A. Banking Regulation Act 1949 B. IT Act 2000 C. Indian Penal Code D. IT (amendment) Act 2008 12. Which section of IT Act deals with the appointment of Controller of certifying authorities A. Section 17 B, Section 15 C. Section 10 D. Section 5 13, Which scetion of IT Act 2000 deals with the punishment for cheating by impersonation by using computer resources? A, Seetion 66D B. Section 66C C. Section 66B D. Section 66F 14. Which section of IT Act deals with Hacking of computer systems and its penalties? A. Section 65 B. Section 66 C. Section 62 D. Section 67 15. What is the punishment for hacking of computers? A. Three year imprisonment or 10 lakh rupees penalty or both B. Life Imprisonment C. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both D. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both ition & ITMODULE -5 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Which section of IT Act deals with Cyber terrorism? E, Section 66C F. Section 66B G. Section 66F H. Section 664 16. Which section of IT Act was invalidated by Supreme Court of India A. Section 66F B. Section 66B C. Section 66D D. Scetion 664 17, The date on which Supreme Court of India invalidated Section 66A of IT Act 2000: A. 24.03.2015 B. 31.03.2015 €. 01.01.2015 D. 01.06.2015 18, What is the penalty for publishing images of a person's private parts without consent, as per IT Act 20007 A. 5 years imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both B. Life imprisonment C. 3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both D. None of the above 22.A What is the punishment for identity theft in IT Act? A. Two year imprisonment or I lakh rupees penalty or both B. Three year imprisonment or 1 lakh rupees penalty or both C. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both D. None of the above 19. What is the penalty for destroying computer source code? A. Three year imprisonment or 3 lakh rupees penalty or both B. Two year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both C. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both D. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both 20. Which are the sections of IT Act applicable for Cyber pornography? A. 66, 66A, 66B B. 67, 67A, 67B C. 67, 67C, 67D D. None of the above 21. Which section of IT Act deals with Child pormography? A. Section 67F B. Section 67D C. Section 67CMODULE -5 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS What is the maximum penalty for damage to Computer, Computer systems, unauthorized access, download of data, infecting with virus, denial of access etc as per Section 43 E. Rs. 50 lakh F. Rs. crore G. Rs. 5 crore H. Rs.75 lakh 22. Which section of IT Act 2000 propose a punishment of life imprisonment? A. Section 66F B. Section 66C C. Section 6B D. Section 664 23. Which are the section of the IT Act deals with Credit card fraud? A. 42, 67, 67A, 67B B. 66, 66C, 66D C. 43, 66, 66C, 66D D. None of the above 24, Which of the following is an example of Intellectual property ? A. Patent B. Trade Marks C, Copyright D. Allof above 25. What is the time limit for filing appeal against the order of Cyber appellate tribunal? A. 30-days B. 90-days C. 60 days Dz 45 days 26. Which is the appeal court on the orders issued by Cyber appellate tribunal? A. Munsiff Court B. District Court C. High Court D. Supreme Court 27. What is the term of the office of the presiding officer of Cyber appellate tribunal? A. 3years B. 4 years C. 6 years D. Syears 28, What is the proposed purtishment for Cyber Terrorism in IT Act? A. 1 Crore rupees penalty B, Life Imprisonment C. 10 year imprisonment D. 6 year imprisonment