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Hull OFOD10e MultipleChoice Questions and Answers Ch09
Hull OFOD10e MultipleChoice Questions and Answers Ch09
Chapter 9: XVAs
Multiple Choice Test Bank: Questions with Answers
Answer: C
CVA is credit valuation adjustments; MVA is margin valuation adjustment; KVA is capital
valuation adjustment. ZVA is not a valuation adjustment.
Answer: B
Answer: A
4. When a bank’s borrowing rate goes up, which of the following is true
A. DVA increases so that the bank’s profit goes down
B. DVA increases so that the bank’s profit goes up
C. DVA declines so that the bank’s profit goes down
D. DVA declines so that the bank’s profit goes up
Answer: B
The bank is considered more likely to default and its DVA therefore increases. This increases its
profit because it is then considered more likely that it will default and not have to meet
derivatives obligations.
Answer: B
Because of netting, all derivatives in a portfolio are considered to be a single derivative in the
event of a default. CVA which measures the cost of a counterparty default and DVA which
measures the benefit of the bank defaulting must therefore be calculated on a portfolio basis.
6. It is assumed that a company can default after one year or after two years. The probability of
default at each time is 1.5%. The present value of the expected loss to a bank on a derivatives
portfolio if the company defaults after one year is estimated to be $1 million. The present value
of the expected loss if it defaults after two years is estimated to be $2 million. Which of the
following is the bank’s CVA ?
A. $3,000,000
B. $300,000
C. $45,000
D. $150,000
Answer: C
7. A bank has three uncollateralized transactions with a counterparty worth +$10 million, −$20
million and +$25 million. A netting agreement is in place. What is the maximum loss if the
counterparty defaults today.
A. $15 million
B. $35 million
C. $20 million
D. Zero
Answer: A
The netting agreement means that the three transactions are considered to be a single
transaction. The net value of the transactions to the bank is 10−20+25 or $15 million. This is
the maximum amount that could be lost if the counterparty defaults today.
8. Which of the following involves most credit risk
A. Exchange trading
B. OTC trading with a central clearing party being used
C. OTC trading with bilateral clearing and collateral being posted
D. OTC trading with bilateral clearing and no collateral being posted
Answer: D
In the case of both exchange trading and trading using a CCP initial margin and variation margin
have to be posted so that the risk of a loss because of a default is low. Bilateral clearing usually
involves more credit risk than exchange/CCP trading and credit risk is greater when there is no
collateral agreement.
Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: C
Answer: D
Answer: C
The return required on an investment should in theory reflect its risk not how it is financed
14. Financial economics argues that as the percentage of equity in the capital structure increases
A. The required return on both equity and debt decrease
B. The required return on equity decreases and the required return on debt increases
C. The required return on equity increases and the required return on debt decreases
D. The required return on both equity and debt increase
Answer: A
As equity increases both the debt and equity become less risky to the investor
Answer: A
DVA is the cost to the counterparty (benefit to the bank) arising from the possibility of a default
by the bank. It is the bank’s default probabilities that are relevant
FVA can be positive or negative. For example the incremental FVA from the uncollateralized sale
of an option is negative whereas that from the purchase of an option is positive.
17. Prior to the credit crisis that started in 2007 which of the following was used by derivatives
traders for the discount rate when derivatives were valued
A. The Treasury rate
B. The LIBOR rate
C. The repo rate
D. The overnight indexed swap rate
Answer: B
18. Since the credit crisis that started in 2007 which of the following have derivatives traders used
as the risk-free discount rate for collateralized transactions
A. The Treasury rate
B. The LIBOR rate
C. The repo rate
D. The overnight indexed swap rate
Answer: D
Derivatives markets have used the OIS rate as the discount rate for collateralized transactions
since the crisis.
Answer: A
OIS rates are less than LIBOR /swap rates when both have the same maturity.
Answer: B
The (positive or negative) funding arising from variation margin is additive across
transactions.