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Lateral Entry Test - 2010 (Let (Let (Let (Let (LET-2010) - 2010) - 2010) - 2010) - 2010)
Lateral Entry Test - 2010 (Let (Let (Let (Let (LET-2010) - 2010) - 2010) - 2010) - 2010)
(LET-2010)
conducted by
.
LATERAL ENTRY TEST 2010
Scheme approved by Government as per G.O.(Rt)No.480/10/H.Edn. dated 08/03/2010
1. Introduction
to the condition that they will produce the marklist
1.1 Lateral Entry Scheme is intended to admit
at the time of admission.
meritorious Diploma holders to the Second year/
4.3 Maximum age as on the last date of submission
Third Semester of the B.Tech Courses to acquire a
of application will be 28 years.
Degree in Engineering. Lateral Entry Scheme is
approved by Government of Kerala as per 4.4 Non-Keralites are also eligible to apply but
G.O.(MS)No.156/2002/H.Edn. dated 13.11.2002 for their admission will be restricted to the Private Self-
10% of the sanctioned seats in addition to total seats. financing Institutions and non-Government seats in
In order to maintain uniformity among various the Government controlled Self financing institutions.
schemes of Diploma holders, AICTE has suggested 4.5 Candidates will be admitted only to the branch
a state level Entrance Examination for the selection. of Engineering as per the equivalency given in
1.2 The admission will be subject to regulations of Annexure A.
the Universities concerned.
5. Reservation of seats
5.1 Government seats are available in all
2. Institutions, Courses and Intake
Government and Aided Engineering Colleges.
The list of various Engineering Institutions, the
5.2 The availability of Government seats in
courses/branches offered and the number of seats
Government controlled and other Private Self
available in each branch will be published in the
Financing Engineering Colleges will be announced
website “www.dtekerala.gov.in” before the ensuing
before the ensuing online admission.
online allotment.
5.3 15% of seats under Lateral Entry are reserved
3. Fee Structure
as Management seats in Aided Engineering Colleges
Fee structure of the courses will be announced before
and remaining 85 % will be allotted as Government
the allotment in the website.
seats.
4. Eligibility for admission
5.4 Communal reservation for candidate belonging
4.1 Candidates who have passed Diploma in
to Socially and Economically Backward Classes
Engineering awarded by the State Board of Technical
(SEBC) and SC/ST category will be followed as per
Education or Equivalent after undergoing regular
usual norms.(Ezhava-9%, Muslim-8%, Latin Catholic
course of three years in an approved institution and
other than Anglo Indian-2%, B.H- 5%, Backward
having a minimum of 60% marks in the final year
Christian-1%, Kudumbi-1%, Scheduled Caste- 8%
are eligible for admission. Relaxation of 5% marks
and Scheduled Tribe-2%)
will be allowed to SEBC candidates whose annual
5.5 3% seats are reserved for physically disabled
family income does not exceed Rs.4.5 Lakhs. For
candidates. Candidates claiming reservation under
candidates belonging to SC/ST community, a pass
physically disabled quota shall have a minimum of
in the qualifying examination will be sufficient.
40% disability. A disability Certificate from the
4.2 Those who are appearing for the final year
District Medical Board has to be attached along with
diploma examination are also eligible to apply subject
the application. Such candidates are also required
1
to produce a certificate obtained from a Medical submission of application should also submit the
officer not below the rank of Assistant Surgeon to income certificate from the concerned authorities at
ensure the fitness of candidates to undergo the the time of submission of application itself.
Rs. 4.5 lakhs are eligible for reservation under this the Director, LBS Centre for Science & Technology,
Thiruvananthapuram SD/-
08/03/2010
DIRECTOR OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
3
DESCRIPTION OF DIPLOMA AND CODE
01 Applied Electronics
02 Architecture
03 Automobile
04 Bio-Medical Engg.
05 Chemical Engineering
06 Civil Engineering
07 Computer Application and Business Management
08 Computer Engineering
09 Computer Hardware Maintenance
10 Electrical
11 Electronics
12 Electronics and Aviation
13 Electronics and Communication
14 Electronics and Instrumentation
15 Electronics Production Technology
16 Information Technology
17 Instrument Technology
18 Mechanical
19 Medical Electronics
20 Medical Instrumentation
21 Plastic Moulding Technology from CIPMT
22 Polymer Technology
23 Printing Technology
24 Quantity Survey and Construction Management
25 Telecommunication Technology
26 Tool and Die
27 Wood and Paper Technology
28 Diploma in any other Branches
4
LBS Centre for Science and Technology SIDE A
(A Govt. of Kerala Undertaking)
(BASIC DATA) OMR ANSWER SHEET (ANSWERS)
NOTE IF A NOTE
Please read the general instructions given overleaf for CANDIDATE Please read the Instructions for marking answers
filling up each item given below. TAMPERS WITH given overleaf.
Any error in filling the required items may upset your Start answering only when you are asked to do so
THE BARCODE, by the Invigilator.
performance.
HE/SHE WILL BE
DISQUALIFIED 1. "#$% 61. "#$%
1. Roll No. 2. Qn Boklet No. * 2. "#$% 62. "#$%
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8. Certified that the above entries are checked 49. "#$% 109. "#$%
and found to be correct
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50. "#$% 110. "#$%
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………………………………. | 53. "#$% 113. "#$%
Signature of the Candidate 54. "#$% 114. "#$%
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Signature of the Invigilator | 59. "#$% 119. "#$%
| 60. "#$% 120. "#$%
Entries regarding the Question Booklet No. should be filled up only after Marking should be dark and the bubbles should be filled
receiving the Question Booklet. completely.
At the end of the Examination, the Candidate will hand over the OMR Please darken only one bubble for each question.
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator,
Once darkened, the bubble should not be erased.
x In the case of Improper bubbling/erasing/whitening etc, the Here are some wrong methods of
reading of the OMR Machine will be taken as final and any
arguments to defend such actions will not be entertained. marking answers
General Instructions
1. The candidate should bring a black/blue ink ball-point pen and a card board or clip board, for
the Examination.
2. The candidate shall be present at the Examination Hall 30 Minutes before the prescribed time
for the commencement of the Examination.
3. The Question paper will be given in the form of a Question booklet bearing Booklet Number
on the front page which the candidate is required to mark in the OMR sheet.
4. Rough work/calculations can be made in the blank sheet provided with the Question booklet.
5. Calculator, Logarithm table, Mobile phone and other Electronic equipments will not be
allowed in the examination hall.
6. Separate OMR Answer Sheet will be given to mark answers.
7. Each Answer sheet will be having a unique pre-printed BAR CODE that will be used as a
secret code against which the evaluation takes place. If a candidate tampers, mutilates or
damages the bar code, he/she will be disqualified and his/her candidature will be cancelled.
8. Extra care is needed while handling the OMR Answer sheet.
Special Instructions
7
12. ANSWERS : (Right side of the sheet)
Do not write your Roll number or name or make any stray mark on this part of the sheet. Do
the marking for answering only in the spaces provided.
13. Each question will have four suggested answers given as choices (A), (B), (C) & (D). The
most appropriate answer will have to be selected. Thereafter, using black/blue ink ball point
pen darken the bubble corresponding to the most appropriate answer. For example, if the
answer to question No. 2 is C, bubble C has to be darkened as shown below.
1 A B C D
2 A B C D
3 A B C D
14. Darken only one bubble for each question. The bubble should be filled as completely as
possible and let dark enough. Once darkened the bubbles should not be erased. Erasing of
an answer and darkening it again may adversely affect the OMR valuation.
15. Special attention:
In the OMR answer sheet, provision has been given to mark answers for a total number of
120 questions.
16. Candidates are warned that they should enter only the necessary information as required in
the OMR answer sheet on the left part. Any additional information which is not required and
which may help to identify the candidate, that is made on any part of the OMR sheet, will
disqualify the candidate and his/her candidature will be cancelled without any further
intimation in this regard.
Warning: Any mistake in filling up the data required in the OMR answer sheet will affect
the valuation adversely.
8
ANNEXURE A
EQUIVALENCY OF BRANCHES
Sl. No. Specialization in Diploma Course Branch Equated to BTech Course
Electronics and Communication/Applied
1 Applied Electronics
Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering
2 Architecture
3 Civil Civil Engineering
4 Quantity Survey & Construction Mangmt.
Biomedical Engineering/
5 Biomedical Engineering
Medical Electronics
6 Chemical Chemical Engineering
7 Computer Appln. & Business Mangmt.
8 Computer Engineering Computer Science and Engineering
9 Computer Hardware Maintenance
10 Electrical Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Electronics and Communication/Electronics
11 Electronics and Instrumentation
and Instrumentation Engineering
12 Electronics
13 Electronics and Aviation
14 Electronics and Communication
15 Electronics Production Technology Electronics and Communication Engineering
16 Medical Electronics/Bio Medical Engg.
17 Medical Instrumentation
18 Telecommunication Technology
Mechanical Engineering/Automobile
19 Automobile
Engg./Mechanical (Automobile)
20 Tool and Die
21 Wood and Paper Technology Mechanical Engineering/Industrial
Engineering/ Production
22 Plastic Moulding Technology from CIPMT Engineering/Mechanical (Production)
23 Mechanical
Instrumentation and Control Engg/Applied
24 Instrument Technology Electronics&Instrumentation Engg /
Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering
25 Information Technology Information Technology
26 Polymer Technology Polymer Technology
27 Printing Technology Printing Technology
28 Mechanical Automobile Engineering
29 Diploma in any Branch Information Technology
9
ANNEXURE B
LET-2010-TIME SCHEDULE
ACTIVITY DATE
10
ANNEXURE C
The Examination is Objective type with 120 Questions to be attempted in 2 Hrs. The subjects
include English, Mathematics, Engineering Mechanics, IT and Computer Science, Civil
Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Electrical Engineering and Electronics & Communication
Engineering.
ENGLISH
SYLLABUS
For English, out of the 10 marks to be awarded, 5 marks will be for questions based on a given
passage and the remaining 5 marks for Basic Grammar and General English of +2 Standard.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
About four hundred years ago, many people believed that they lived on stationary earth, which itself
is situated at the centre of the universe. The world beyond the solar system was a mystery to all.
The submicroscopic domain of atoms and molecules was completely unknown. Not even a single
law of nature was accurately formulated. The Copernican theory of the solar system (the theory in
which the sun occupies the central position) had been published but it had so many objections
against it. There was scarcely any activity that could be called as Science. Mathematics was just in
its infancy.
1. Four hundred years ago, the popular belief was that _______________
A) there was a world beyond the solar system
B) the law of nature was not accurate
C) the earth was fixed
D) there was no technology
4. Beyond means
A) on the farther side B) domain of atoms
C) at the centre D) a mystery
11
5. Infancy is used in the sense of
A) childhood B) adolescence
C) inactivity D) beginning to develop
MATHEMATICS
SYLLABUS
Matrices:
Inverse of a Matrix-Linear Dependence and Independence of Vectors-Consistency and inconsistency
of a system of linear equations-Rank of a matrix. Eigen Values and Eigen Vectors- Properties-
Caylay-Hamilton Theories-Diagonalisation-Quadratic forms -Reduction to Canonical forms.
Differential Calculus:
Successive Differentiation-Leibnitz Theorem-Indeterminate forms-L' Hospital's Rule-Radius of
curvature-centre of curvature-Evolutes Partial Differentiation-Homogeneous functions Euler's
Theorem-Maxima and minima of functions of two variables.
Infinite Series:
Notions of Convergence and Divergence-Comparison test-Ratio test-Raabe's test-Cauchy's Root
test-Test for alternating series-absolute convergence.
12
Fourier Series:
Even functions, odd functions, periodic functions-Dirichelet's condition-Euler’s formula. Functions
with period 2S and 2L. Half range sine and cosine series. Laplace transforms -Properties-Inverse
Transforms.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then (A+B)2 is
A) A2 – AB + BA + B2 B) A2 + AB + BA + B2
2 2
C) A – AB – BA + B D) A2 + AB – BA + B2
A) 2 –4 1 B) 2 –3 2
–3 1 1 –4 1 1
2 1 –4 1 1 –4
C) 2 1 D) 2 2 1
1 0 1 2 2
1 3 1
A) –2 3 B) 5 2
2 –5 3 2
C) 5 –3 D) 2 –3
–2 2 –2 5
A) 2 B) 0 C) 3 D) 1
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6. The equation AX = B is consistent if rank of the coefficient matrix and augmented matrix are
A) equal B) not equal
C) 1 D) none of these
A) O2 +7O + 6 = 0 B) O2 + 6O + 6 = 0
C) O2 – 7O + 6 = 0 D) O2 + 6O + 7 = 0
10. lim x2 – 3x is
xo3 x2–9
A) 3 B) 6 C) 1/3 D) 1/2
14
15. The series 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + ………. is
A) convergent B) divergent
C) oscillatory D) none of these
18. Cosx is
x2 – x
A) periodic function B) even function
C) odd function D) none of these
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
SYLLABUS
15
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. The force acting on a point on the surface of a rigid body may be considered to act
A) at the center of gravity of the body
B) on the periphery of the body
C) on any point on the line of action of the force
D) at any point on the surface normal to the line of action of the force
2. If the resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle T makes an angle D with P, then tan
D equals
A) (P sin T) / (P-Q cos T) B) (Q sin T) / (P + Q cos T)
C) (P sin T) / (P+Q tan T) D) (Q sin T) / (Q + P sin T)
4. The forces which meet at one point and have their lines of action in different planes are
called
A) coplanar non-concurrent force B) non-coplanar concurrent forces
C) non-coplanar non-current forces D) intersecting forces
5. The center of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius at a distance of
A) 0.2 R B) 0.3 R C) 0.4 R D) 0.6 R
6. The C.G. of a right circular cone ties on its axis of symmetry at a height of
A) h/2 B) h/3 C) h/4 D) h/6
8. Moment of inertia of a square of side b about an axis through its center of gravity, is
A) b3/4 B) b4 /12 C) b4/ 3 D) b4/8
16
11. The following is not a law of static friction:
A) The force of friction always acts in a direction opposite to that in which the body
tends to move
B) The force of friction is dependent upon the area of contact
C) The force of friction depends upon the roughness of the surface
D) The magnitude of the limiting friction bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction
between two surfaces
14. A particle move along a straight line such that distance x traversed in t seconds is given by x
= t 2(t + 1), the acceleration of the particle, will be
A) 3t3 – 2t B) 3t3 + 2t C) 6t – 2 D) 6t + 2
SYLLABUS
1. Computer organization:- Central processing unit, memory, input devices, output devices,
secondary storage devices, machine language, assembly language and high level language.
3. Computer programming (in C language):- Data types, type conversion, simple and
compound statements, usage of standard library, control structures, functions, arrays,
pointers, structure, file handling.
7. Internet:- Introduction to FTP, TELNET, Email, web browsers and Web servers.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
17
1. The larger the RAM of a computer, the faster is its speed, since it eliminates
A) need for ROM B) need for external memory
C) frequent disk I/Os D) need for a data-wide path
A) 0 B) 1 C) 500 D) 100
8. An indexing operation
A) sorts a file using a single key B) sorts a file using two keys
C) establishes an index for a file D) both B and C above
18
10. One of the following are not true for a sound card?
A) MIDI compatible B) Microphone input
C) Built in amplifier D) Built in power supply
14. What is the established standard for transferring mail over Internet?
A) SMTP B) TCP C) IP D) HTTP
SYLLABUS
19
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
2. The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and half the
length, is called
A) closer B) queen closer
C) king closer D) squint brick
4. Veneering means
A) carving out designs on timber planks
B) chemically treating timber planks
C) thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
D) thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
6. Dampness causes
A) efflorescence B) bleaching of paints
C) crumbling of plaster D) growth of termites
7. The brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face of a wall, is known as
A) header B) stretcher
C) closer D) none of these
8. The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is
called
A) Flemish bond B) English bond
C) Stretcher bond D) Header bond
9. The curvature of the earth’s surface, is taken into account only if the extent of survey is more
than
A) 100 sq km B) 160 sq km C) 200 sq km D) 260 sq km
20
10. The main principle of surveying is to work
A) from part to the whole
B) from whole to the part
C) from higher level to the lower level
D) from lower level to higher level
13. Determining the difference in elevation between two points on the surface of the earth, is
known as
A) leveling B) simple leveling
C) differential leveling D) longitudinal leveling
14. An imaginary line joining the points of equal elevation on the surface of the earth, represents
A) contour surface B) contour gradient
C) contour line D) level line
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
SYLLABUS
Thermodynamics :
Definitions and basic concepts- system, properties, state, process, cycle – heat and work –
thermodynamic equilibrium. Zeroth law of thermodynamics – concept of temperature – temperature
scales. First law of thermodynamics – concepts of internal energy and enthalpy. Second law of
thermodynamics- Clausius and Kelvin –Plank statements- concept reversibility, availability and
entropy. Thermodynamic processes-constant volume, constant pressure, isothermal, adiabatic,
polytropic processes, throttling and free expansion, p-v and T-s diagrams- work done, heat
exchanged, change in internal energy and change in entropy during the above processes. Air cycles
– Carnot, Otto and Diesel cycles- air standard efficiency.
IC engines:
21
Working and comparison of two stroke and four stroke petrol and diesel engines – various systems –
air system, fuel system, ignition system, governing system.
Pumps:
Types - centrifugal, reciprocating, gear and jet – applications – criteria for choice of pumps.
Manufacturing processes:
Primary, secondary and tertiary production processes - moulding, sand casting, die casting, forging,
punching, blanking, stamping, coining, rolling, extrusion, wire drawing, turning, boring, thread
cutting, tapping, shaping, drilling, milling, reaming, grinding, broaching, honing, lapping, welding,
soldering and brazing.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
2. The maximum possible thermal efficiency of a heat engine working between 27 oC and
627 oC is
A) 100 % B) 95.69 % C) 66.67 % D) 45 %
22
4. Work done during isothermal process is given by
A) W = P1V1 log (V2 / V1 ) B) W = P1V1 loge (V2 / V1 )
C) W=0 D) W = ( P1V1 - P2V2 )/ (J- 1)
6. In a petrol engine, the unit which mixes fuel with air is called
A) cylinder B) carburetor C) radiator D) crank shaft
8. 1.25 kg of wet steam contains 0.25 kg of water in suspension. Dryness fraction of the steam
is
A) 1.25 B) 0.80 C) 0.75 D) 0.25
9. The heat required to convert water at boiling point to dry steam at same temperature is
A) sensible heat B) latent heat of vapourisation
C) specific heat D) latent heat of fusion
12. The forging process used for increasing the diameter of a bar by reducing its length is termed
as
A) blanking B) bending
C) upsetting D) roll forging
14. When the axes of rotation of shafts intersect each other, the type of gears used are
A) Bevel B) Spur
C) Helical D) Worm and wheel
23
15. The cross section of V- belt is
A) triangular B) rectangular
C) trapezoidal D) circular
SYLLABUS
Methods of bulk generation of electric power, Block schematic layout of generating station-hydro
electric, thermal, nuclear stations-Non conventional energy sources-solar, tidal, wind-Economics of
generation-load factor-diversity factor-plant factor.
Bulk transmission of electric power-typical power transmission scheme-need for high transmission
voltage-substation-substation equipment, primary and secondary transmission and distribution
systems-effect of power factor, transmission voltages in Kerala.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
24
1. Highest Transmission Voltage in Kerala is
A) 66Kv B) 400Kv C) 220Kv D) 1000Kv
2. The light source with light quality nearest to natural sun light
A) Mercury vapour lamp B) Sodium vapour lamp
C) Fluorescent lamp D) Incandescent lamp
8. An induced emf is produced when a magret is plunged into a coil. The strength of the
induced emf is independent of
A) the strength of the magnet
B) number of turns of coil
C) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
D) the speed with which the magnet is moved
25
9. In a step up transformer the number of turns in
A) primary are less B) primary are more
C) primary and secondary are equal D) primary are infinite
SYLLABUS
1. Passive components: Resistors – types, color coding, power rating, Capacitors – types, color-
coding, voltage rating, Inductors and Transformers: types.
4. Transistors: NPN and PNP transistors, current flow in a transistor – transistor configurations,
FET, Zener diode, SCR, photodiode, phototransistor, LED.
5. Amplifiers: The CE, CB and CC amplifiers, Frequency response, and Power amplifier –
single ended power amplifier, Push pull amplifier.
26
7. Digital circuits: Logical states, Number codes, gates and truth tables. TTL and CMOS. Logic
identities, Function minimization, Multiplexer, Demultiplexer, Decoders, Flip-flops, RS, JK,
Master slave JK, D and T. Counters, shift registers, ADCs.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
27
7. What is true for LC oscillators?
A) LC Oscillators cannot be used for very high frequencies
B) Frequency stability of LC oscillators is poorer than RC Oscillators
C) Works based on principle of negative feedback
D) Supports miniaturization
8. A simple flipflop
A) is a 2 bit memory B) is a 1 bit memory
C) is a 4 state device D) has nothing to do with memory
12. In a CRO, a sinusoidal voltage is applied to vertical deflection plates only. What shall we get
in the screen?
A) A horizontal line B) A vertical line
C) A sinusoidal pattern D) A spot
13. The signals sent by the TV transmitter to ensure correct scanning in the receiver are called
A) sync B) chroma C) luminance D) video
14. The video voltage applied to the picture tube of a television receiver is fed in
A) between grid and ground B) to the yoke
C) to the anode D) between grid and cathode
15. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum
range will be increased by a factor of
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16
*****
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