AIIMS PATNA 2020

1) The apex of the heart is 8) W.hich of the following is an 16) Which of the following
formed mostly by the: example of ball-and-socket hormones is NOT secreted
1. left ventricle joints? from the anterior pituitary?
2. right atrium 1. Skull joint 1. Adrenocorticotropin
3. left atrium 2. Thumb joint 2. Prolactin
4. central ventricle 3. Hip joint 3. Human growth hormone
2) Which of the following is the 4. Elbow joint 4. Oxytocin
largest cranial nerve? 9) What is the synonym of 17) A ______ is a cell that
1. Cranial VI Clotting Factor II? manufactures and stores the
2. Cranial nerve X 1. Christmas factor protein keratin.
3. Cranial nerve VII 2. Fibrinogen 1. keraticellyte
4. Cranial nerve V
3. Calcium 2. keracyte
(trigeminal)
3) Tarsals of the ankles are 4. Prothrombin 3. keratinocyte
examples of which type of 10) Which of the following 4. keratinolyte
bone? quadriceps femoris muscles 18) Which of the following is an
1. Short bones help in flexion of the thigh? example of synarthrosis
2. Sesamoid bones 1. Rectus femoris joint?
3. Long bones 2. Vastus medialis 1. Fibrous joints of the skull
4. Pneumatic bones 3. Vastus intermedius sutures
4) How many bones are there in 4. Vastus lateralis 2. Wrist joints
the lower extremities in a 11) Which of the following parts 3. Hip joints
normal adult? of the brain controls body 4. Elbow joint
1. 58 temperature? 19) Which of the following
2. 62 1. Hypothalamus hormones inhibits release of
3. 64 2. Hippocampus growth hormone?
4. 60 3. Pons 1. Dopamine
5) What is the approximate 4. Amygdala 2. Somatotropin
maximum air volume in the 12) How many cervical nerves 3. Somatostatin
lung for normal healthy are there in the spinal cord? 4. Thyrotropin inhibiting
adult? 1. 5 hormone
2. 9 20) Oxytocin is mainly involved
1. 2400 mL 3. 8 in which of the following
2. 3000 mL 4. 12 functions?
3. 300 mL 13) The elbow is an example of a 1. Motor skills
4. 6000 mL ______ joint. 2. Childbirth and lactation
6) Carpometacarpal joint is an 1. hinge 3. Growth and mental ability
example of which of the 2. pivot 4. Regulation of blood
following types of joints? 3. condyloid pressure
1. Hinge 4. planar 21) Which of the following is
2. Ball and socket 14) The expanded ends of a long NOT related to MMR
3. Pivot bone are called: vaccine?
4. Saddle 1. Tubercle 1. Rubella
7) Which of the following layers 2. Epicondyle 2. Measles
of the adrenal gland secretes 3. Diaphysis 3. Rickets
glucocorticoids? 4. Epiphyses 4. Mumps
1. Adrenal medulla 15) The posterior pituitary 22) Who among the following
2. Zona glomerulosa consists mainly of ______. devised the autoclave used
3. Zona reticularis 1. Beta cells for sterilisation?
4. Zona fasciculata 2. C cells 1. Charles Chamberland
3. T cells 2. Robert Koch
4. Neuronal projections 3. Edward Jenner
 4. Anton van Leeuwenhoek 4. Spirochetes 4. Normalisation of criminals
23) Widal, a serological test, is 30) Which of the following is and anti-social elements
used to detect the presence of true about IgM? 37) Who said that man is a social
which of the following 1. It is not produced by animal?
pathogenic microorganisms? vertebrates. 1. Maclver
1. E. Coli 2. It forms the initial immune 2. Auguste Comte
2. Mycobacterium response. 3. Aristotle
tuberculosis 3. It is not an isotypes of 4. Ginseberg
3. Haemophilus influenza antibody. 38) Any small group marked by
4. Salmonella typhi 4. It is the smallest antibody. continuous close interaction
24) The causative agent of Lyme 31) As per 2011 census survey, of a highly personal and
disease is: ______ per cent of the emotionally supportive nature
1. Rickettsia prowazekii population of India suffer is called a/an ______ group.
2. Alphavirus from disability (in the 1. reference
3. Borrelia burgdorferi identified 8 categories). 2. secondary
4. Trypnosoma brucei 1. 2.21 3. primary
gamiense 2. 1.2 4. interest
25) Which of the following 3. 2.5 39) Polyandry means:
microorganisms causes 4. 3.1 1. a form of marriage that
gonorrhoea? 32) Who is considered as the joins one female with more
1. Stylus gonorrhoeae father of sociology? than one male
2. Streptococcus pneumoniae 1. Auguste Comte 2. a form of marriage that
3. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae 2. Maclver joins one male with more
4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 3. Emile Durkheim than one female
26) What is the optimum 4. Kingsley Davis 3. a form of marriage that
temperature in an autoclave 33) Which of the following is joins one female with one
to achieve sterility? NOT a stage of socialisation? male
1. 121 °C for 30 minutes 1. Oral stage 4. getting married in the same
2. 60 °C for 30 minutes 2. Despair stage blood group
3. 34 °C for 30 minutes 3. Oedipal stage 40) Providing education to the
4. 27 °C for 20 minutes 4. Latency stage school, college and street
27) Which of the following 34) Caste status is an example of children on prevention of
involves the introduction of which of the following drug addiction is an example
antibodies into the body from status? of ______ prevention.
an animal or person already 1. Monetary 1. primordial
immune to the disease? 2. Ascribed 2. tertiary
1. Active immunity 3. Achieved 3. primary
2. Artificially acquired 4. General 4. secondary
passive immunity 35) The general process of 41) Lack of oxygen in the blood
3. Naturally acquired passive acquiring culture is referred stream is called:
immunity to as: 1. Hypoxaemia
4. Innate immunity 1. Dispersion 2. Cyanosis
28) Type I hypersensitivity is 2. Diffusion 3. Hypoxia
mediated by: 3. Socialisation 4. Anoxaemia
1. IgG 4. Acculturation 42) Under normal circumstances,
2. IgE 36) Socialisation is a process concentration of oxygen in
3. IgM involving: inspired air is about _______
4. IgA 1. declaring everything as percent.
29) Rod-shaped bacteria are belonging to society 1. 100
called: 2. setting up the social norms 2. 6
1. Cocci 3. Inducting people to adapt 3. 29
2. Clusters in society 4. 21
3. Bacillus
43) As per Kubler-Ross' stages of 1. Stage III 1. 1.8 to 2.0
grieving, refusing to believe 2. Stage II 2. 1.5 to 1.8
that loss is happening/has 3. Stage I 3. 0.75 to 1.00
happened is called: 4. Stage IV 4. 1.01 to 1.025
1. Bargaining 58) Following death, the 65) Insertion of a tube inside the
2. Denial subjective response stomach through the nose is
3. Acceptance experienced by the surviving called nasogastric ______.
4. Depression loved ones is called: 1. Irrigation
44) Which of the following 1. bereavement 2. Intubation
organs is one of the primary 2. mourning 3. Extubation
regulator of body fluid and 3. compliance 4. Urigation
electrolyte balance? 4. grief 66) Intravenous solution of
1. Intestine 59) Which of the following 0.45% sodium chloride is
2. Kidney electrolytes does insulin help a/an ______ solution.
3. Stomach to move into the cells? 1. colloid
4. Lungs 1. Bicarbonates 2. hypertonic
45) What is the approximate 2. Chloride 3. hypotonic
normal level of 3. Carbonates 4. isotonic
haematocrit/packed cell 4. Potassium 67) ______ is the process of
volume in men? 60) Temperature of 98.7 degree introducing a disinfectant
1. 5 % to 15 % Fahrenheit is approximately solution to the internal
2. 60 % to 70 % equal to ______ degree environment of the body
3. 40 % to 50 % Celsius. when someone passes away.
4. 20 % to 35 % 1. 38.16 1. Embacterium
46) Which of the following tests 2. 37.56 2. Revaccination
need to be performed before 3. 37.06 3. Embalming
radial artery cannulation to 4. 36.52 4. Rinsing
evaluate radial and ulnar 61) Difference between systolic 68) ______ enema is also called
arterial patency? and diastolic blood pressure antispasmodic enema.
1. Coop's test is called: 1. Cold
2. Allen's test 1. pulse range 2. Carminative
3. Capillary refill test 2. pulse length 3. Antihelminthic
4. Buergeor's test 3. pulse deficit 4. Oil
47) A group of symptoms is 4. pulse pressure 69) HbA1c (glycated
known as: 62) Formula to calculate BMI is: haemoglobin) value reflects
48) Ans 1. Signs 1. weight in kg divided by the blood glucose levels in
49) 2. Syndrome square of height in metres the past ______ months.
50) 3. clinical manifestations 2. weight in kg divided by 1. 1
51) 4. group symptoms height in feet 2. 7
52) Q.8 Rhythmic waxing and 3. weight in kg divided by 3. 3
waning of respiration is square of height in feet 4. 9
called: 4. weight in kg divided by 70) The sudden fall of
53) Ans 1. Hypoventilation height in metres temperature from high to
54) 2. Orthopnoea 63) Which of the following normal within a few hours is
55) 3. Hyperventilation equipment is used for the called:
56) 4. Cheyne-Stokes respiration examination of the ear? 1. Hypothermia
57) Q.9 A bedridden patient is 1. Ophthalmoscope 2. Lysis
having intact skin at the 2. Laryngoscope 3. True crisis
sacral region, and the 3. Otoscope 4. False crisis
symptoms of 4. Proctoscope 71) In a healthy individual,
warmness, pain and firm skin 64) The specific gravity of the weighing 70 kg at rest, the
at the site. What is the stage urine normally ranges stroke volume is about:
of bedsore? approximately from: 1. 150 ml
 2. 100 ml 1. qod 105) 3. Ice cradle
3. 50 ml 2. qh 106) 4. Ice bag
4. 70 ml 3. qd 107) Q.38 The main
72) The fever in which 4. bid intracellular cation is:
temperature remains above 97) A patient is to receive 1000 108) Ans 1. Zinc
normal throughout the day mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. 109) 2. Chloride
and fluctuate more than 2 The drop factor is 15 drops 110) 3. Potassium
degree Fahrenheit is known per mL. At approximately 111) 4. Halide
as ______ fever. how many drops per minute 112) Q.39 Inflammation of the
1. iysis should the flow rate be set? oral mucosa is known as:
2. remittent 1. 42 drops/min 113) Ans 1. Gingivitis
3. inverted 2. 21 drops/min 114) 2. Glossitis
4. intermittent 3. 55 drops/min 115) 3. Parotitis
73) The site of pulse in the neck 4. 33 drops/min 116) 4. Stomatitis
is called: 98) In which of the following 117) Q.40 Which of the
74) Ans 1. Temporal positions is the patient at following medication orders
75) 2. Radial greatest risk of shearing is administered immediately
76) 3. Carotid force? and only once?
77) 4. Popliteal 1. Semi-Fowler's position 118) Ans 1. Single order
78) Q.26 The gradual decrease in 2. Lying supine in bed 119) 2. PRN order
body's temperature after 3. Trendelenburg position 120) 3. Stat order
death is called: 4. High-Fowler's position 121) 4. Standing order
79) Ans 1. stiff mortis 99) Movement of the joints away 122) Q.1 Koplik's spots are the
80) 2. algor mortis from the mid-line of the body clinical feature of:
81) 3. rigor mortis is called: 123) Ans 1. Cholera
82) 4. livor mortis 1. Addiction 124) 2. Chickenpox
83) Q.27 The discolouration that 2. Adhesion 125) 3. Measles
appears in the dependent 3. Adduction 126) 4. Pertussis
areas of the body after death 4. Abduction 127) Q.2 One CHC covers a
is called: 1) What does the term population of ______ in hilly
84) Ans 1. rigor mortis Cheilosis mean? areas.
85) 2. livor mortis 1. Cracking of lips 128) Ans 1. 80000
86) 3. algor mortis 2. Bad breath 129) 2. 10000
87) 4. stiff mortis 3. Inflammation of the gums 130) 3. 30000
88) Q.28 Kussmaul breathing is 4. Inflammation of the tongue 131) 4. 50000
associated with: 100) Breathing that is normal in 132) Q.3 The number of all
89) Ans 1. Heart failure rate and depth is called: current cases of a disease at
90) 2. Diabetic ketoacidosis 1. bradypnoea one point of time is called:
91) 3. Bronchial asthma 2. tachypnoea 133) Ans 1. period prevalence
92) 4. Atelectasis 3. apnoea 134) 2. point incidence
93) Q.29 Absorptive dressings 4. eupnoea 135) 3. point prevalence
are intended to: 101) Stiffness in the body that 136) 4. time prevalence
94) Ans 1. absorb nutrients for occurs after 2 to 4 hrs after 137) Q.4 In which year was
the wound death is called: the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima
95) 2. remove drainage from the 1. livor mortis Yojana (RSBY) introduced?
bed sore 2. algor mortis 138) Ans 1. 2006
3. gather moisture from the 3. stiff mortis 139) 2. 2008
atmosphere to keep the 4. rigor mortis 140) 3. 2007
wound cool 102) Which of the following is 141) 4. 2005
4. absorb blood from veins NOT an example of dry cold 142) Q.5 Hardness of water is
96) Which of the following application? expressed as:
medication orders are for 103) Ans 1. Cold compress 143) Ans 1. PPL
every other day? 104) 2. Ice pack 144) 2. mg/L
145) 3. mEq/ML
146) 4. mg%
147) Q.6 The route of
administration of hepatitis B
vaccine is:
148) Ans 1. Intramuscular
149) 2. Subcutaneous
150) 3. Intrathecal
151) 4. Intradermal
152) Q.7 The constant
presence of a disease or
infection within a given
geographic area is called:
153) Ans 1. Sporadic
154) 2. Endemic
155) 3. Pandemic
156) 4. Epidemic
157) Q.8 The denominator
used to calculate crude birth
rate is:
158) Ans 1. school-going
population
159) 2. live births in that year
160) 3. mid-year population in
that year
161) 4. population aged 18
years or above
162) Q.9 What was the theme
of World Health Day 2019?
163) Ans 1. Halt the rise: beat
diabetes
164) 2. Healthy heart beat:
healthy blood pressure
165) 3. Food safety
166) 4. Universal health
coverage: everyone,
everywhere
167) Q.10 What is the
minimum contact time
required for the chlorination
of water to take place?
168) Ans 1. 10 minutes
169) 2. 90 minutes
170) 3. 60 minutes
171) 4. 30 minutes
172) Q.1 Which of the
following digestive enzymes
present in gastric juice is
primarily responsible
173) for breaking down
proteins?
174) Ans 1. Trypsin
175) 2. Pepsin
176) 3. Peptidases
177) 4. Chymotrypsin
178) Q.2 Emulsification of
lipids in the small intestine
requires:
179) Ans 1. gastric lipase
180) 2. Pepsin
181) 3. pancreatic lipase
182) 4. bile salts
183) Q.3 Which of the
following nutrients provides
energy to the body?
184) Ans 1. Fat
185) 2. Zinc
186) 3. Vitamin A
187) 4. Vitamin D
188) Q.4 Which of the
following is precursor to
vitamin A?
189) Ans 1. Pyridoxine
190) 2. Beta-carotene
191) 3. Thiamine
192) 4. Retinol
193) Q.5 An average healthy
person with no diseases
should ideally get ______ of
his/her daily calorie
194) requirements from
healthy fats.
195) Ans 1. 50 % to 60 %
196) 2. 70 % to 80 %
197) 3. 20 % to 30 %
198) 4. 5 % to 10 %
199) Q.6 In which organ does
the absorption of iron takes
place?
200) Ans 1. Colon
201) 2. Duodenum in small
intestine
202) 3. Liver
203) 4. Stomach
204) Q.7 Vitamin B1 is also
known as:
205) Ans 1. Pyridoxine
206) 2. Thiamine
207) 3. Riboflavin
208) 4. Niacin
209) Q.8 Which of the
following trace elements is
essential for the synthesis of
insulin?
210) Ans 1. Cobalt
211) 2. Iron
212) 3. Zinc
213) 4. Sodium
214) Q.9 Which of the
following is an essential
amino acid?
215) Ans 1. Niacin
216) 2. Thiamine
217) 3. Pyridoxine
218) 4. Valine
219) Q.10 Calories generated
per gram of fat is
approximately:
220) Ans 1. 4 Kcals
221) 2. 15 Kcals
222) 3. 1 Kcals
223) 4. 9 Kcals
224) Q.1 Which of the
following drugs is a proton
pump inhibitor?
225) Ans 1. Ranitidine
226) 2. Famotidine
227) 3. Pantoprazole
228) 4. Sucralfate
229) Q.2 Diabetes insipidus is
caused by the deficiency of
which of the following
hormones?
230) Ans 1. Antidiuretic
231) 2. Glucagon
232) 3. Insulin
233) 4. Renin
234) Q.3 The name of the
surgery in which there is
removal of duodenum, head
of pancreas, gall
235) bladder and bile ducts is
called:
236) Ans 1. appendectomy
237) 2. lumpectomy
238) 3. discectomy
239) 4.
pancreatoduodenectomy
240) Q.4 Bell's Palsy is a
disorder of the ______ cranial
nerve.
241) Ans 1. 3rd
242) 2. 7th
243) 3. 9th
244) 4. 5th
245) Q.5 The most common
side effect of thrombolytic
therapy is:
246) Ans 1. metabolic
abnormalities
247) 2. internal bleeding
248) 3. compartment
syndrome
249) 4. acute renal failure
250) Q.6 Which type of
solution causes water to shift
from the cells into the
plasma?
251) Ans 1. Alkaline
252) 2. Hypotonic
253) 3. Acidic
254) 4. Hypertonic
255) Q.7 An individual with
which of the following blood
groups is a universal donor?
256) Ans 1. A -ve
257) 2. B +ve
258) 3. AB +ve
259) 4. O -ve
260) Q.8 The loss of urine
resulting from cognitive or
environmental factors is the
manifestation of:
261) Ans 1. overflow
incontinence
262) 2. functional incontinence
263) 3. urge incontinence
264) 4. reflex incontinence
265) Q.9 While assessing the
level of consciousness of a
patient using Glasgow Coma
Scale, which
266) of the following score
represents the best motor
response from the patient?
267) Ans 1. 3
268) 2. 4
269) 3. 5
270) 4. 6
271) Q.10 The loss of ability
to recognise objects is called:
272) Ans 1. Dysarthria
273) 2. Alexia
274) 3. Ataxia
275) 4. Agnosia
276) Q.11 Which of the
following is glandular tissue
cancer?
277) Ans 1. Liposarcoma
278) 2. Adenocarcinoma
279) 3. Neuroblastoma
280) 4. Osteogenic sarcoma
281) Q.12 The cell-mediated
immunity is carried out by:
282) Ans 1. Red blood cells
283) 2. T lymphocytes
284) 3. B lymphocytes
285) 4. CD4 cells
286) Q.13 The lateral S-
shaped curvature of the spine
is called:
287) Ans 1. Scoliosis
288) 2. Musculosis
289) 3. Kyphosis
290) 4. Lordosis
291) Q.14 ______ is a
radiological examination
using a minimal and safe
amount of radiation to allow
292) visualisation of breast
masses.
293) Ans 1. Computed
tomography scan
294) 2. Lymphangiogram
295) 3. Angiogram
296) 4. Mammogram
297) Q.15 Barium enema is
used mainly for radiological
examination of the:
298) Ans 1. brain
299) 2. colon
300) 3. heart
301) 4. oral cavity
302) Q.16 While doing
colostomy irrigation, the
height of the irrigation bag
should be around:
303) Ans 1. 18 inches
304) 2. 24 inches
305) 3. 12 inches
306) 4. 36 inches
307) Q.17 Which one of the
following procedures is used
to correct otosclerosis?
308) Ans 1. Myringoplasty
309) 2. Myringotomy
310) 3. Mastoidectomy
311) 4. Stapedectomy
312) Q.18 The term pyrosis is
related to:
313) Ans 1. Heartburn
314) 2. Pus formation
315) 3. Dysphagia
316) 4. Dyspepsia
317) Q.19 The drugs used to
constrict the pupils are:
318) Ans 1. mydriatics
319) 2. sulphonamides
320) 3. antibiotics
321) 4. miotics
322) Q.20 Which of the
following parts of an eye
alters the size of the pupil to
regulate the amount of
323) light entering the eye?
324) Ans 1. Lens
325) 2. Cornea
326) 3. Retina
327) 4. Iris
328) Q.21 The type of
incontinence in which there is
constant dribbling of urine
and is associated with
329) urinating frequently and
in small amount is called:
330) Ans 1. overflow
incontinence
331) 2. stress incontinence
332) 3. functional incontinence
333) 4. urge incontinence
334) Q.22 Using the ‘rule of
nine’, estimated burn size in
an adult having burn injury to
chest and
335) stomach is ______ per
cent.
336) Ans 1. 18
337) 2. 27
338) 3. 36
339) 4. 9
340) Q.23 Which among the
following is a colloid
solution?
341) Ans 1. 0.9 % normal
saline
342) 2. dextran
343) 3. 0.45 % normal saline
344) 4. 25 % dextrose
345) Q.24 Which of the
following results from severe
allergic reaction producing
overwhelming
346) systemic vasodilation and
relative hypovolaemia?
347) Ans 1. Hypovolaemic
shock
348) 2. Anaphylactic shock
349) 3. Neurogenic shock
350) 4. Septic shock
351) Q.25 Which of the
following enzymes converts
fats into fatty acids and
glycerol?
352) Ans 1. Bile
353) 2. Trypsinogen
354) 3. Salivary amylase
355) 4. Lipase
356) Q.26 The movement of
particles from region of
higher concentration to
region of lower
357) concentration is called:
358) Ans 1. Diffusion
359) 2. Filtration
360) 3. Osmosis
361) 4. Hydrolysis
362) Q.27 In acute
pancreatitis, the levels of
which of the following
enzymes remain elevated for
7-14
363) days?
364) Ans 1. Urine amylase
365) 2. Serum amylase
366) 3. Serum alkylane
phosphatase
367) 4. Serum lipase
368) Q.28 Which of the
following is NOT a
manifestation of interstitial
cystitis (IC)?
369) Ans 1. Frequency
370) 2. Incontinence
371) 3. Urgency
372) 4. Pelvis pain
373) Q.29 The disease that
occurs due to the defect in the
genes of one or other parent
and is
374) transmitted to the
offspring is known as ______
disease/disorder.
375) Ans 1. congenital
376) 2. organic
377) 3. hereditary
378) 4. allergic
379) Q.30 Tonometry is the
method of measuring the:
380) Ans 1. pressure inside the
lungs
381) 2. pressure inside the ear
382) 3. intraocular pressure
383) 4. blood pressure
384) Q.31 Haemophilia is
associated with:
385) Ans 1. Chromosome 11
386) 2. Y chromosome
387) 3. Chromosome 21
388) 4. X chromosome
389) Q.32 After a renal
transplant, the rejection that
occurs within minutes is
called:
390) Ans 1. hyper acute
rejection
391) 2. chronic rejection
392) 3. acute rejection
393) 4. sub-acute rejection
394) Q.33 Which of the
following drugs is used for
the dilation of pupil?
395) Ans 1. Tropicamide
396) 2. Betamethasone
397) 3. Levofloxacin
398) 4. Gentamicin
399) Q.34 What is the
minimum possible score of
Glasgow Coma Scale?
400) Ans 1. 3
401) 2. 1
402) 3. 2
403) 4. 0
404) Q.35 The voice box is
known as:
405) Ans 1. Larynx
406) 2. Diaphragm
407) 3. Bronchioles
408) 4. Pharynx
409) Q.36 The most serious
complication of deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) is a
blockage known as
410) ______.
411) Ans 1. formation of
venous ulcers
412) 2. chronic occlusion of
veins
413) 3. gangrenous
development of veins
414) 4. pulmonary embolism
415) Q.37 Painful swallowing
is known as:
416) Ans 1. dysphasia
417) 2. odynophagia
418) 3. ataxia
419) 4. dyspepsia
420) Q.38 The antidote of
warfarin is:
421) Ans 1. Protamine
sulphate
422) 2. Vitamin K
423) 3. Heparin
424) 4. Acetyl cysteine
425) Q.39 The most common
lung cancer seen in non-
smokers is:
426) Ans 1. small cell
carcinoma
427) 2. adenocarcinoma
428) 3. large cell carcinoma
429) 4. squamous cell
carcinoma
430) Q.40 The presence of
stones in the urinary tract is
called:
431) Ans 1. Kideneylithiasis
432) 2. Stonelithiasis
433) 3. Urolithiasis
434) 4. Cholelithiasis
435) Q.1 The act of purging or
purification of emotions is
called:
436) Ans 1. Compulsion
437) 2. Catharsis
438) 3. Cataplexy
439) 4. Confabulation
440) Q.2 Which of the
following is expected in a
patient who is diagnosed with
an organic mental
441) disorder?
442) Ans 1. Intact memory
443) 2. Appropriate behaviour
444) 3. Disorganisation of
thoughts
445) 4. Orientation to person,
place and time
446) Q.3 According to
Erikson's eight stages of
development, initiative vs.
guilt takes place at:
447) Ans 1. 20 – 25 years
448) 2. 10 – 15 years
449) 3. 13 – 19 years
450) 4. 3 – 5 years
451) Q.4 Which of the
following is NOT a
sign/symptom of the
obsessive-compulsive
disorder?
452) Ans 1. No fear of self-
harm
453) 2. Fear of germs or dirt
454) 3. Obsessive thoughts
455) 4. Compulsive acts
456) Q.5 Which one of the
following is derived from the
plant 'Cannabis Sativa'?
457) Ans 1. Cocaine
458) 2. Morphine
459) 3. Ganja
460) 4. Opium
461) Q.6 False sensory
perception without real
external stimulus is known
as:
462) Ans 1. Hallucination
463) 2. Illusions
464) 3. Delusions
465) 4. Thought insertion
466) Q.7 A patient admitted in
the psychiatric ward refused
to eat her lunch stating that
the food is
467) poisoned. This kind of
response is an example of:
468) Ans 1. Hallucination
469) 2. Sympathy
470) 3. Illusions
471) 4. Delusions
472) Q.8 The La Belle
indifference is related to:
473) Ans 1. Conversion
reaction
474) 2. Obsession compulsions
disorder
475) 3. Anxiety disorder
476) 4. Phobic anxiety
477) Q.9 The disulphiram
therapy is indicated in:
478) Ans 1. Acute intoxication
479) 2. Cannabis dependence
480) 3. Anxiety disorder
481) 4. Chronic alcoholism
482) Q.10 A person suffering
from ______, a severe
anxiety disorder, is able to
speak freely with certain
483) people only and is not
able to speak with others,
especially with certain social
groups such
484) as classmates at school.
485) Ans 1. Mutism
486) 2. Aphasia
487) 3. Selective mutism
488) 4. Epilepsy
489) Q.1 Ovulation in a female
with a 36 days cycle occurs
between:
490) Ans 1. 30th – 34th day
491) 2. 14th – 18th day
492) 3. 8th – 12th day
493) 4. 20th – 24th day
494) Q.2 The condition where
the uterus turns inside out is
called:
495) Ans 1. Uterine Inversion
496) 2. Prolapse
497) 3. Anteversion
498) 4. Retroversion
499) Q.3 The graphical record
of maternal and foetal data
against time during labour on
a single
500) sheet of paper is called:
501) Ans 1. Ultrasonogram
502) 2. Tocogram
503) 3. Cardiotocogram
504) 4. Partogram
505) Q.4 The most common
genital prolapse is:
506) Ans 1. Rectocoele
507) 2. Cystocoele
508) 3. Procidentia
509) 4. Enterocoele
510) Q.5 The first stage of
labour is characterised by:
511) Ans 1. crowning of the
head
512) 2. expulsion of the foetus
till the placenta
513) 3. dilatation of cervix
514) 4. delivery of the placenta
515) Q.6 The length of the
fallopian tube ranges from:
516) Ans 1. 22-27 cm
517) 2. 7-12 cm
518) 3. 28-31 cm
519) 4. 2-7 cm
520) Q.7 The shape of the
brim in anthropoid pelvis is:
521) Ans 1. triangular with
base towards sacrum
522) 2. square
523) 3. well-rounded
524) 4. oval
525) Q.8 The suture that
separates the parietal bone
from the tabular portion of
the occipital bone is
526) called:
527) Ans 1. Lambdoidal suture
528) 2. Frontal suture
529) 3. Sagittal suture
530) 4. Coronal suture
531) Q.9 Urine formation
usually begins towards the
end of the ______ and
continues throughout
532) foetal life.
533) Ans 1. 3-5 weeks
534) 2. 2-3 weeks
535) 3. 21-22 weeks
536) 4. 11-12 weeks
537) Q.10 The settling of
foetal head into the brim of
the pelvis is called:
538) Ans 1. Crowning of head
539) 2. Lightening
540) 3. Engagement
541) 4. Descent
542) Q.11 Which of the
following is the common site
of fertilization?
543) Ans 1. Interstitial
544) 2. Isthmic
545) 3. Ampulla
546) 4. Infundibulum
547) Q.12 At about ______ of
gestation, the height of the
uterus is at the level of
umbilicus.
548) Ans 1. 6 - 8 weeks
549) 2. 3 - 5 weeks
550) 3. 20 - 22 weeks
551) 4. 10 - 12 weeks
552) Q.13 The ovarian cycle is
initiated by:
553) Ans 1. Progesterone
554) 2. Follicle stimulating
hormone
555) 3. Endorphins
556) 4. OeEstrogen
557) Q.14 The most common
cause of non-engagement at
term in primigravida is:
558) Ans 1. Cephalopelvic
disproportion (CPD)
559) 2. Breech presentation
560) 3. Hydramnios
561) 4. Brow presentation
562) Q.15 What is the correct
sequence of mitosis?
563) Ans 1. Prophase,
Metaphase, Anaphase,
Telophase
564) 2. Anaphase, Prophase,
Metaphase, Telophase
565) 3. Telophase, Anaphase,
Prophase, Telophase
566) 4. Metaphase, Anaphase,
Prophase, Telophase
567) Q.16 The uterine fibroid
is associated with:
568) Ans 1. Endometriosis
569) 2. Amenorrhoea
570) 3. Ovarian cancer
571) 4. PID
572) Q.17 Inflammation of the
fallopian tube is called:
573) Ans 1. Endometritis
574) 2. Vaginitis
575) 3. Salpingitis
576) 4. Cervicitis
577) Q.18 The most common
site of ectopic pregnancy is:
578) Ans 1. ampullary region
in the fallopian tube
579) 2. Cervix
580) 3. Abdomen
581) 4. Ovary
582) Q.19 The darkening of
the skin over the forehead,
bridge of nose or cheekbones
during
583) pregnancy is called:
584) Ans 1. Chloasma
585) 2. Chadwick's sign
586) 3. Hegar's sign
587) 4. Linea nigrea
588) Q.20 The approximate
average weight of placenta at
birth is:
589) Ans 1. 300 g
590) 2. 400 g
591) 3. 508 g
592) 4. 600 g
593) Q.21 Which of the
following hormones is
increased in Polycystic
Ovarian Syndrome?
594) Ans 1. 17-OH
progesterone
595) 2. Luteinising Hormone
(LH)
596) 3. Follicle Stimulating
Hormone (FSH)
597) 4. Thyroid Stimulating
Hormone (TSH)
598) Q.22 The early
puerperium extends:
599) Ans 1. until twelve weeks
of postpartum
600) 2. up to first year of
delivery
601) 3. until the thirteen weeks
of postpartum
602) 4. until the first week of
postpartum
603) Q.23 Which one of the
following is seen in
preeclampsia?
604) Ans 1. Facial hair
605) 2. Hypotension
606) 3. Weight loss
607) 4. Proteinuria
608) Q.24 A normal umbilical
cord contains:
609) Ans 1. one artery and five
veins
610) 2. two arteries and one
vein
611) 3. five arteries and two
veins
612) 4. two arteries and ten
veins
613) Q.25 Oxygenated blood
from placenta returns to the
foetus via the ______.
614) Ans 1. Superior vena
cava
615) 2. Inferior vena cava
616) 3. Umbilical vein
617) 4. Ductus arteriosus
618) Q.26 Post-term
pregnancy is a pregnancy
which continues beyond:
619) Ans 1. 294 days
620) 2. 250 days
621) 3. 200 days
622) 4. 170 days
623) Q.27 What is the ideal
average newborn’s head
circumference at birth?
624) Ans 1. 75 cm
625) 2. 35 cm
626) 3. 55 cm
627) 4. 15 cm
628) Q.28 Which of the
following indicates
relationship of long axis of
the foetus to that of mother?
629) Ans 1. Foetal lie
630) 2. Foetal presentation
631) 3. Foetal attitude
632) 4. Foetal position
633) Q.29 The outer most
membrane of placenta is
called:
634) Ans 1. Yolk sac
635) 2. Chorion
636) 3. Amnion
637) 4. Meningitis
638) Q.30 Peg cells are seen in
the:
639) Ans 1. Intestine
640) 2. Fallopian tubes
641) 3. Stomach
642) 4. Vagina
643) Q.31 Which of the
following is the most
important tumour marker to
diagnose carcinoma of
644) ovary?
645) Ans 1. Serum human
chorionic gonadotropin
646) 2. CA 125
647) 3. Human placental
lactogen
648) 4. Serum alpha
fetoprotein
649) Q.32 The onset of
menstruation is called:
650) Ans 1. Menopause
651) 2. Menarche
652) 3. Andropause
653) 4. Ovarian cycle
654) Q.33 Of the 6-7 million
oocytes available, how many
are released during ovulation?
655) Ans 1. 3000 to 4000
656) 2. 400 to 500
657) 3. 2000 to 3000
658) 4. 100 to 200
659) Q.34 During the active
phase of labour, the cervical
dilatation per hour in
primigravidas is
660) approximately:
661) Ans 1. 1.2 cm
662) 2. 1.9 cm
663) 3. 2.3 cm
664) 4. 2.5 cm
665) Q.35 The correct
sequence of development of
puberty in girls is:
666) Ans 1. Menarche,
Pubarche, Thelarche
667) 2. Thelarche, Pubarche,
Menarche
668) 3. Thelarche, Menarche,
Pubarche
669) 4. Pubarche, Menarche,
Thelarche
670) Q.36 Postpartum
haemorrhage is the condition
in which there is loss of more
than ______ ml
671) vaginal blood.
672) Ans 1. 100
673) 2. 50
674) 3. 10
675) 4. 500
676) Q.37 The normal
APGAR score of a new born
is:
677) Ans 1. 7 and above
678) 2. 3 to 4
679) 3. 4 to 6
680) 4. below 3
681) Q.38 Which of the
following is NOT a feature of
HELLP syndrome?
682) Ans 1. Raised liver
enzymes
683) 2. Eosinophilia
684) 3. Thrombocytopenia
685) 4. Haemolytic anaemia
686) Q.39 The first perception
of active foetal movement felt
by the mother during
pregnancy is
687) known as:
688) Ans 1. Engagement
689) 2. Hastening
690) 3. Quickening
691) 4. Lightening
692) Q.40 The manoeuver
commonly used to manage
shoulder dystocia is:
693) Ans 1. Rossete
Manoeuver
694) 2. MacRobert's
Manoeuver
695) 3. Jeff Marshal
Manoeuver
696) 4. McMilan Manoeuver
697) Q.1 Which of the
following is the most
common cause of ophthalmic
neonatorum?
698) Ans 1. Candida albicans
699) 2. Staphylococcus aureus
700) 3. Neisseria gonorrhoea
701) 4. Streptococcus
702) Q.2 Which of the
following is NOT a part of
the Tetralogy of Fallot
(TOF)?
703) Ans 1. Patent Ductus
Arteriosus
704) 2. Right ventricular
hypertrophy
705) 3. Over-riding of Aorta
706) 4. Pulmonary stenosis
707) Q.3 An injury to the
upper brachial plexus results
in:
708) Ans 1. Facial palsy
709) 2. Phrenic nerve palsy
710) 3. Klimke's palsy
711) 4. Erb's palsy
712) Q.4 Which of the
following is the ideal age for
closure of the anterior
fontanel of a child?
713) Ans 1. 18 to 24 months
714) 2. 6 to 8 months
715) 3. 6 to 8 weeks
716) 4. 18 to 24 weeks
717) Q.5 Which of the
following is NOT a
complication of measles?
718) Ans 1. Laryngitis
719) 2. Conjunctivitis
720) 3. Atrial Septal Defect
721) 4. Encephalitis
722) Q.6 The most common
type of leukaemia seen in
children is:
723) Ans 1. Acute
Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
(ALL)
724) 2. Chronic Lymphoid
Leukaemia (CHL)
725) 3. Acute Myeloid
Leukaemia (AML)
726) 4. Chronic Myeloid
Leukaemia (CML)
727) Q.7 Which one of the
following is NOT a
characteristic of Attention
Deficit Hyperactivity
728) Disorder (ADHD)?
729) Ans 1. Inattention
730) 2. Impulsivity
731) 3. Difficulty in eating
732) 4. Overactivity
733) Q.8 Which of the
following is NOT a clinical
manifestations of Trisomy
21?
734) Ans 1. Flat nasal bridge
735) 2. Protruding tongue
736) 3. Long hands and fingers
737) 4. Small nose
738) Q.9 Which of the
following conditions can
result in a hairy patch on the
back of children?
739) Ans 1. Epilepsy
740) 2. Hydrocephalus
741) 3. Spina bifida occulta
742) 4. Ricket
743) Q.10 The Baby-friendly
Hospital Initiative (BFHI)
was launched jointly by:
744) Ans 1. WHO and Red
Cross
745) 2. WHO and FAO
746) 3. UNICEF and WHO
747) 4. UNICEF and FAO