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Program: BE Information Technology Engineering

Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016


Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
Question
Question Statement A: B: C: D:
No.
1 Which model combines linear and parallel flow. waterfall Incremental Spiral Prototying
2 Scrum meeting are done on ______ basis weekly monthly daily quarterly
Software User
3 A detailed software description which can serve as a basis for a design or implementation. Design Document System requirements
specification requirements
Name the Requirements Engineering task where in Software Engineers ask a set of context
4 Inception Elicitation Validation Elaboration
free questions to establish basic understanding of the problem
With reference to Software Design Classes: ________________ define abstractions User interface Business
5 Process classes System classes
necessary for HCI. classes domain classes
The activity of combining separately tested module and checking if they can work as per Integration
6 Unit testing System testing Performance testing
requirement is known as ______________ testing
Application of Tools and
7 Project Management is not a Skills Scheduling methods
knowledge techniques
Which one is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or
8 Project Product Operation Schedule
result?
Activity on
9 AON stands for Activity on node Action on node Arrow on node
network
_______refers to the duration by which an activity can be delayed without delaying the
10 Jira Agile Slack Scrum
project?
Analysis,
11 Agile modeling provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software tasks? Analysis, design Coding,testing design, testing
Coding
Independent of Predicts the number of
Depends on Proposed by
12 Find the incorrect statement about Function point estimation programming errors using historical
Technology Albrecht
Languages data
More
Separation of Monolithic
13 Modularity DOES NOT lead to intellectual Ease of understanding
concerns software
manageability
Software Software
The set of activities that have been developed to manage change throughout the life cycle Software Software life cycle
14 maintenance configuration
of computer software testing management
management management
Which feasibility focuses depending on the situation and the organization, a business case Economic Technical Organizational
15 Other feasibilities
may include other issues, such as legal and ethical feasibility. feasibility feasibility feasibility
16 Which one of these does not come under triple constraint of project? Budget Schedule Scope People
Only Both deliverables and
17 WBS includes Only deliverables Only milestones
executables milestone
Both Forward
18 Which technique is used by LS and LF? Forward Pass Backward Pass Pass and Depends on the project
Backward Pass
19 ________ can be defined at any level of abstraction Patterns Process Concept Refactoring
Calculate the function point (FP) for the given information domain. Number of External
Inputs (EI):15, Number of External Outputs (EO):12, Number of external inquiries (EQ):17,
20 399 199 299 200
Number of internal files (ILF):6, Number of external interfaces (EIF):3. Assume the weighting
factor to be average (4, 5, 4, 10, 7). The value adjustment factor is 46.
Separation of
concerns —any
Modularity Functional Refinement —a
complex problem
—compartment independence reorganization
21 Which fundamental design concept is NOT correctly elaborated can be more easily
alization of data —outgrowth of technique that simplifies
handled if it is
and function Modularity the design
subdivided into
pieces
With reference to data design at component level 1) Low-level data design decisions should
Both 1 and 2 Both 1 and 2 are
22 be deferred until late. 2) The representation of data structure should be known only to Only 1 is correct Only 2 is correct
are correct incorrect
those modules that must make direct use of the data contained within the structure.
The McCall's Quality Factor deals with the capabilities and efforts required to adapt to new
23 Maintainability Portability Reliability Flexibility
component or addition of new software system is identified as____________
Which feasibility focuses mainly on how people within the organization will adapt to this Economic Technical Organizational
24 Other feasibilities
planned organizational change. feasibility feasibility feasibility
Activities A and B are both 6 days long and the only immediate predecessors to activity C.
25 15 14 13 16
Activity A has ES=8 and LS=8 and activity B has ES=7 and LS=10. What is the ES of activity C?
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 2 (FRCRCE)

Program: BE Information Technology

Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016


Examination: Third Year Semester VI

Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management

Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50

==============================================================================
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a
function of LOC or FP?
Option A: FP-Based Estimation
Option B: Process-Based Estimation
Option C: COCOMO
Option D: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Q2. Which of the following is included in SRS?


Option A: Cost
Option B: Design Constraints
Option C: Staffing
Option D: Delivery Schedule

Q3. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement:


“Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
Option A: Correct
Option B: Complete
Option C: Consistent
Option D: Modifiable

Q4. In AON network diagrams, activities are shown on


Option A: Node
Option B: Arrow
Option C: Either node or arrow
Option D: Transition

Q5. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.


i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
Option A: iii, i, ii, iv
Option B: iii, iv, ii, i
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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 2 (FRCRCE)
Option C: iii, ii, iv, i
Option D: ii, iii, iv, i

Q6. In the context of object oriented software engineering, a component contains


___________
Option A: Attributes and operations
Option B: Set of collaborating classes
Option C: Instances of each class
Option D: Roles for each actor

Q7. _______________ implements the lower-level business abstractions that are


required to fully manage the business domain classes.
Option A: User interface classes
Option B: Process classes
Option C: System classes
Option D: Business domain classes

Q8. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to


benefits software modularity?
Option A: Modules are mostly dependent
Option B: Modules are robust
Option C: Module can use other modules
Option D: Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library

Q9. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
Option A: Flow Chart
Option B: Workflow Diagram
Option C: Control Specification
Option D: State Transition Diagram

Q10. Calculate activity estimate for PERT analysis if Optimistic Estimate (a) = 2 ,Most
likely Estimate (b) = 4 and Pessimistic Estimate (c) = 6
Option A: 2
Option B: 6
Option C: 4
Option D: 8

Q11. The Product of Risk Probability and Risk impact is known as


Option A: Risk Estimation
Option B: Risk Analysis
Option C: Risk Mitigation
Option D: Risk Exposure

Q12. Work Breakdown Structures (WBS) should be

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 2 (FRCRCE)
Option A: Task-oriented
Option B: Deliverable-oriented
Option C: Time-oriented
Option D: Process-oriented

Q13. In PERT, Activity Estimate does not depend upon


Option A: Optimistic Estimate
Option B: Most likely Estimate
Option C: Predecessor Estimate
Option D: Pessimistic Estimate

Q14. Total number of PMBOK Knowledge Areas are:


Option A: 8
Option B: 10
Option C: 9
Option D: 12

Q15. Which one is not the part of PMBOK Knowledge Area ?


Option A: Project Integration Management
Option B: Project Scope Management
Option C: Project Evaluation Management
Option D: Project Procurement Management

Q16. Which one is not generally a step in constructing a business case analysis?
Option A: Analyze Alternatives
Option B: Define Total Benefit of Ownership
Option C: Define MOV
Option D: Define Scope

Q17. MOV defines


Option A: The Project’s Goal
Option B: The Project’s Feasibility
Option C: The Project’s Scope
Option D: The Project’s Budget

Q18. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two


models?
Option A: Spiral & Waterfall Model
Option B: Linear Model & RAD Model
Option C: Waterfall Model & Prototyping Model
Option D: Waterfall Model & RAD Model

Q19. Agile Software Development is based on


Option A: Incremental Development
Option B: Iterative Development

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 2 (FRCRCE)
Option C: Linear Development
Option D: Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Q20. It is not the Agility principles


Option A: Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous
delivery of valuable software.
Option B: Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes
harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage.
Option C: Deliver working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of
months, with a preference to the shorter timescale.
Option D: Business people and developers must not work together daily throughout the
project.

Q21. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks


Option A: One
Option B: Two
Option C: Three
Option D: Four

Q22. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome
if user’s participation is not involved?
Option A: Waterfall & Spiral
Option B: RAD & Spiral
Option C: RAD & Waterfall
Option D: RAD & Prototyping

Q23. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
Option A: Analysis, Design, Coding, Testing
Option B: Planning, Analysis, Design, Coding
Option C: Planning, Design, Coding, Testing
Option D: Planning, Analysis, Coding, Testing

Q24. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.


Option A: implementation tasks
Option B: Functionalities
Option C: Scenarios- user stories
Option D: Milestones

Q25. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit
a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which
model would you select?
Option A: Waterfall
Option B: Spiral
Option C: RAD
Option D: Incremental

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Program: _Information Technology_ Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name:Software Engineering and Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
=====================================================================
For the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. What is considered as Bedrock that supports Software Engineering?
Option A: Tools
Option B: Methods
Option C: Process
Option D: Quality Focus

Q2. Which of the following is not a type of umbrella activity?


Option A: Risk Management
Option B: Reusability Management
Option C: Software Quality Assurance
Option D: Planning

Q3. A high speed adaptation of Linear Sequential Model


Option A: RAD Mode
Option B: Waterfall Model
Option C: Prototyping Model
Option D: Evolutionary Model

Q4. Keypad Control for Microwave Oven is an example of which type of Software ?
Option A: Embedded Software
Option B: Product Line Software
Option C: Web Application Software
Option D: Scientific Software

Q5. Component based development is a type of which Process Model ?


Option A: Incremental Process Model
Option B: Prescriptive Process Model
Option C: Evolutionary Process Model
Option D: Specialized Process Model

Q6. What is NOT an Agile methodology?


Option A: Extreme programming (XP)
Option B: Scrum
Option C: Crystal
Option D: PMBOK

Q7. Which of the following is responsible for sprint meeting


Option A: Scrum team

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Option B: Scrum master
Option C: Product Owner
Option D: Product team

Q8. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system
?
Option A: Context Model
Option B: Behavioral Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Object Model

Q9. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
Option A: Behavioral Model
Option B: Context Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Structural Model

Q10. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module


Option A: Can be written more compactly
Option B: Focuses on just one thing
Option C: Is able to complete its functions in timely manner
Option D: Is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q11. Which design model is used to depict the model of information represented from
users view
Option A: Architectural design
Option B: Component level design
Option C: Data design
Option D: Interface design

Q12. Which one is not part of the PMBOK Knowledge Area ?


Option A: Project Integration Management
Option B: Project Scope Management
Option C: Project Evaluation Management
Option D: Project Procurement Management

Q13. The best way to conduct a requirement validation review is to


Option A: Examine system model for errors
Option B: Have the customer look over the requirements
Option C: Send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns
Option D: Use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement

Q14. Which of the following is not a step of requirement engineering


Option A: Elicitation
Option B: Design
Option C: analysis
Option D: documentation

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Q15. White Box techniques are also known as
Option A: Design based testing
Option B: Structural Testing
Option C: Error guessing technique
Option D: Logical Testing

Q16. Alpha testing is done at


Option A: User’s end
Option B: Developers end
Option C: Both the ends
Option D: Third party

Q17. Bottom-up integration Testing has a major advantage that


Option A: Major decision points are tested early
Option B: No drivers need to be written
Option C: No stubs need to be written
Option D: Regression testing is not required

Q18. Which of the following is the advantage of using LOC (Line of Code) as size
oriented metrics
Option A: LOC is easily computed
Option B: LOC is language dependent measure
Option C: LOC is language independent measure
Option D: LOC can be computed before a design is completed

Q19. The intent of project metrics is:


Option A: minimization of development schedule
Option B: for strategic purposes
Option C: assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Option D: minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on
ongoing basis

Q20. Which one of the following is not the part of Project Integration management?

Option A: Project Plan Development

Option B: Project Plan Execution

Option C: Request for Proposal (RPF) Development

Option D: Project Change Control

Q21. What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?

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Option A: Risk monitoring
Option B: Risk planning
Option C: Risk analysis
Option D: Risk identification

Q22. A ____________ is the most effective filter from a quality assurance standpoint.

Option A: FTR
Option B: Brainstorming
Option C: Questionnaire
Option D: Interview

Q23. WBS should not be


Option A: Deliverables oriented
Option B: Support Project MOV
Option C: support Planning and Control
Option D: Test Oriented

Q24. Which of the following task is not a part of software configuration management
Option A: Change control
Option B: Reporting
Option C: Statistical quality control
Option D: Version Control

Q25. Scope Control is not concern with


Option A: Scope grope
Option B: scope creep
Option C: scope leap
Option D: scope definition

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Program: BE Information Technology


Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
Time: 1hour Max. Marks: 50
==============================================================================
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.


Option A: a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
Option B: b) High amount of risk analysis
Option C: c) Strong approval and documentation control
Option D: d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

Q2. If you were to create Small Project with clear requirments which model would
you go for?
Option A: a) WINWIN Spiral Model
Option B: b) Spiral Model
Option C: c) Waterfall Model
Option D: d) Incremental Model

Q3. Pick up the odd one out of the following process models
Option A: Component assembly model
Option B: Prototyping Model
Option C: Spiral model
Option D: Waterfall Model

Q4. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?


Option A: elicitation
Option B: design
Option C: analysis
Option D: documentation

Q5. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
Option A: SDD
Option B: SRS
Option C: DDD
Option D: SRD

Q6. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

under development called as


Option A: Developer
Option B: Manger
Option C: Client/Customer
Option D: Tester

Q7. Which is not the types of requirements ?


Option A: Availability
Option B: Reliability
Option C: Usability
Option D: Suitability

Q8. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
Option A: Behavioral Model
Option B: Context Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Structural Model

Q9. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.


Option A: Deployment
Option B: Collaboration
Option C: State chart
Option D: Class

Q10. In Design phase, which is not the primary area of concern ?


Option A: Architecture
Option B: Data
Option C: Interface
Option D: Programming Language

Q11. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________


Option A: Functions
Option B: Modules
Option C: Classes
Option D: Sub procedures

Q12. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?


Option A: Customer can respond to each increment
Option B: Easier to test and debug
Option C: It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
Option D: Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the
market early

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Q13. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR).
Option A: Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
Option B: Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design
process
Option C: Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
Option D: Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q14. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?


Option A: Collaboration
Option B: Sequence
Option C: Activity
Option D: Use Case

Q15. How is Agile planning different from the traditional approach to planning?
Option A: Agile planning is done only once
Option B: Agile planning is non iterative
Option C: Agile planning places emphasis on the plan
Option D: Agile planning places emphasis on planning and is iterative

Q16. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?


Option A: Identifying Stakeholder
Option B: Listing out Requirements
Option C: Requirements Gathering
Option D: Requirement Design

Q17. What is Cyclomatic complexity?


Option A: Black box testing
Option B: White box testing
Option C: Yellow box testing
Option D: Green box testing

Q18. In which level of testing entire system get tested?


Option A: Unit Testing
Option B: System Testing
Option C: Integration Testing
Option D: Smoke Testing

Q19. Which of the following is not project management goal?


Option A: Keeping overall costs within budget
Option B: Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
Option C: Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
Option D: Avoiding customer complaints

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Q20. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?


Option A: Configuration item identification
Option B: Risk management
Option C: Release management
Option D: Branch management

Q21. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?
Option A: Risk monitoring
Option B: Risk planning
Option C: Risk analysis
Option D: Risk identification

Q22. Which of the following risk is the fContinuous changing requirements?


Option A: Opertional risk
Option B: Schedule risk
Option C: Technical risk
Option D: Business risk

Q23. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be
reduced?
Option A: Avoidance strategies
Option B: Minimization strategies
Option C: Contingency plans
Option D: Identification strategies

Q24. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?


Option A: Specification delays
Option B: Minimization strategies
Option C: Contingency plans
Option D: Identification strategies

Q25. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for


Option A: team
Option B: project
Option C: customers
Option D: project manager

Principal

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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020

Program: Information Technology Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016


Examination: Third Year Semester: VI
Course Code: ITC601 Course Name: SEPM
=====================================================================
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
=====================================================================

For the students: All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q1. Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by
considering the size of the software that has been produced?
A: Size oriented
B: Function-Oriented
C: Object-Oriented
D: Use-case-Oriented

Q2. During the software development, which factor is most crucial


A: people
B: product
C: process
D: project

Q3. Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by
calculating number of function points in the software?
A: Time estimation
B: Effort estimation
C: Cost estimation
D: Software size estimation

Q4. The following is not a step of requirement engineering?


A: design
B: elicitation
C: documentation
D: analysis

Q5. What are the system requirement of the documents..?


A: SRD
B: SDD
C: SRS
D: DDD

Q6. The given statement describes which type of requirement? "A heat sensor detects an
intrusion and alerts the system.”
A: Known Requirement
B: Functional
C: Non-Functional
D: Unknown Requirement

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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020

Q7. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?


A: Collaboration
B: Sequence
C: Activity
D: Object Model

Q8. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with
its environment as it is used?
A: system context model
B: interaction model
C: environmental model
D: system context and interaction

Q9.
Individuals with the motivation, organization, and ideas or innovation necessary to
guide a team

A:
People

B:
Agile teams

C:
Stakeholders

D:
Team leaders

Q10.
To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed
system the requirement is used to uncover

A:
algorithmic complexity

B:
characteristics and constraints

C:
control and data

D:
design patterns

2 | Page
Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
Q11.
Planning, monitoring, and control of people, process, and events as software evolves

A:
Project

B:
Product

C:
Team leaders

D:
Project management

Q12.
In relation to SCM, which is an instance of a system which is functionally identical to
other instances, but designed for different hardware/software configurations?

A:
Variant

B:
Version

C:
Release

D:
Deployment

Q13.
Which testing method deals with equivalence partitioning and divides the input domain
of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived?

A:
White box

B:
Regression

C:
Black box

D:
Smoke

3 | Page
Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020

Q14.
An approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules,
responsibilities, management and technical approaches, and required resources

A:
People

B:
W5HH principle

C:
Project

D:
Software scope

Q15.
Large and complex projects may be divided in to

A:
distinct -phases

B:
Sub-modules

C:
components

D:
small projects

Q16.
Senior managers, Project/technical managers, Practitioners, Customers, End users

A:
Agile teams

B:
Stakeholders

C:
Technical people

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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
D:
Team leaders

Q17. Who provides the top management with all information need to select the project
A: Business case
B: Project framework
C: Project sponsor
D: Project manager

Q18. Effective methods for coordinating work and establishing mechanisms for
communication
A: Synchronous organization
B: Closed organization
C: Coordination and communication
D: Random organization

Q19. In a network, a critical path is---------


A: the time-wise shortest path.
B: the time-wise longest path.
C: the cost-wise shortest path.
D: the cost wise longest path

Q20. The waterfall model of software development is:


A: A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
B: A good approach when a working program is required quickly
C: A BEST approach to develop a project with large team.
D: An old fashioned model that is no longer used anymore.

Q21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence to analyse a project for
implementation?
A: Time-cost study, Network, WBS, Scheduling with resource allocation
B: Network, Time-cost study, Scheduling with resource allocation, WBS,
C: WBS, Time-cost study, Network, Scheduling with resource allocation
D: WBS, Network, Scheduling with resource allocation, Time-cost study

Q22. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
A: Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
B: High amount of risk analysis
C: Strong approval and documentation control
D: Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

Q23. During which phase of the project will risks be the highest?
A: Initiating
B: Planning
C: Execution
D: Closing

Q24. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
A: documentation
B: flowchart
C: program specification
D: design

Q25. What activities are a part of Product Backlog Refinement?


A: Do not Estimate the Product Backlog Items
B: The ordering of the Product Backlog Items
C: Creating the Definition of Done
D: Creation of tasks

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Program: BE Information Technology
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code:ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
=====================================================================
======================================================================
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. Infrastructure softwares are coverd under_____

Option A: Generic Product

Option B: Customized products

Option C: Generic and customized products

Option D: Business products

Q2. Milestones are used to ____

Option A: know the cost of project

Option B: know the status of project

Option C: know user expectations

Option D: Know users requirements

Q3. What is full form of SDLC?

Option A: System Design Life cycle

Option B: Software Design Life Cycle

Option C: System Development Life Cycle

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option D: Software Development Life Cycle

Q4. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

Option A: Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

Option B: Increases reusability of components

Option C: Encourages customer/client feedback

Option D: Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled


developers/designers are required

Q5. Who is responsible for sprint meeting?

Option A: Product owner

Option B: Scrum team

Option C: Scrum master

Option D: Scrum Manager

Q6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?

Option A: Cost

Option B: Design Constraints

Option C: Staffing

Option D: Delivery Schedule

Q7. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?

2|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)

Option A: Identifying Stakeholder

Option B: Listing out Requirements

Option C: Requirements Gathering

Option D: Use Case

Q8. LOC stand for.....

Option A: Line of Code

Option B: Length of code

Option C: Line of control

Option D: Length of Control

Q9. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in
the SDLC.

Option A: Maintenance and Evaluation

Option B: Design

Option C: Analysis

Option D: Development and Documentation

Q10. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a
modeled system at a specific time?

Option A: Sequence Diagram

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option B: Collaboration Diagram

Option C: Class Diagram

Option D: Object Diagram

Q11. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is
being exhibited?

Option A: Functional Cohesion

Option B: Temporal Cohesion

Option C: Functional Cohesion

Option D: Sequential Cohesion

Q12. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction


modeling.

Option A: Use Case, Sequence

Option B: Class, Object

Option C: Activity, State Chart

Option D: Collaboration

Q13. What is Testing of software with actual data and in


actual environment called?

Option A: Alpha testing

Option B: Beta testing

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)

Option C: Regression testing

Option D: System Testing

Q14. In which testing strategy requirements established during


requirements analysis are validated against developed
software?

Option A: Integration testing

Option B: Regression testing

Option C: System Testing

Option D: Validation testing

Q15. Programming groups that use 'test-driven development'


rely the most on which of the following ?

Option A: Grey Box Testing

Option B: Automated Testing

Option C: Unit Testing

Option D: Integration Testing

Q16. Discuss which two management should be properly aligne and connected with each
other processes to facilitate coordination in a project

Option A: Product and Process

Option B: Project and Product

5|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option C: Process and Knowledge

Option D: Process and Phases

Q17. The progress of a project is monitored and controlled in which direction of the
project

Option A: proposal

Option B: planning

Option C: MOV

Option D: Business case

Q18. Mention what is purpose,goal,time frame of a project

Option A: Attributes

Option B: Properties

Option C: Features

Option D: Goals

Q19. The tangibile and verifiable product of work that are produced at the end of each
phase is

Option A: Phase end

Option B: Product end

Option C: Milestone

Option D: Deliverable

6|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)

Q20. A generic and strategic level for controlling IT projects is provide by

Option A: IT Framework

Option B: IT Infrastructure

Option C: Planning Methodology

Option D: ITPM

Q21. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal
circumstances is known as ________

Option A: Pessimistic time estimate

Option B: Optimistic time estimate

Option C: Expected time estimate

Option D: The most likely time estimate

Q22. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest
finish times for the three activities are 10, 12, and 14, then the earliest start time
for Y will be

Option A: 10

Option B: 12

Option C: 14

Option D: Cannot be determined

7|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)

Q23. PERT analysis is based on

Option A: Optimistic time and Pessimistic time

Option B: Optimistic time

Option C: Most likely time

Option D: Optimistic time , Pessimistic time Most likely time

Q24. What is risk?

Option A: Negative consequence that could occur

Option B: Negative consequence that shall occur

Option C: Negative consequence that must occur

Option D: Negative consequence that will occur

Q25. What does AON stand for?

Option A: action-oriented-network

Option B: activity-on-network

Option C: activity-on-node

Option D: activity-oriented-network

8|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Program: BE Information Technology
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
==================================================================
==================================================================

Correct Option
Question (Enter either ‘A’ or ‘B’
or ‘C’ or ‘D’)

Q1. A

Q2. B

Q3. D

Q4 D

Q5 C

Q6 B

Q7 A

Q8. C

Q9. D

Q10. D

Q11. B

Q12. A

Q13. B

Q14. D

Q15. B

Q16. B

Q17. C

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University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Q18. A

Q19. D

Q20. D

Q21. B

Q22. C

Q23. D

Q24. A

Q25. C

10 | P a g e

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