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Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
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Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a
function of LOC or FP?
Option A: FP-Based Estimation
Option B: Process-Based Estimation
Option C: COCOMO
Option D: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
Q9. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
Option A: Flow Chart
Option B: Workflow Diagram
Option C: Control Specification
Option D: State Transition Diagram
Q10. Calculate activity estimate for PERT analysis if Optimistic Estimate (a) = 2 ,Most
likely Estimate (b) = 4 and Pessimistic Estimate (c) = 6
Option A: 2
Option B: 6
Option C: 4
Option D: 8
2|P age
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 2 (FRCRCE)
Option A: Task-oriented
Option B: Deliverable-oriented
Option C: Time-oriented
Option D: Process-oriented
Q16. Which one is not generally a step in constructing a business case analysis?
Option A: Analyze Alternatives
Option B: Define Total Benefit of Ownership
Option C: Define MOV
Option D: Define Scope
3|P age
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 2 (FRCRCE)
Option C: Linear Development
Option D: Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Q22. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome
if user’s participation is not involved?
Option A: Waterfall & Spiral
Option B: RAD & Spiral
Option C: RAD & Waterfall
Option D: RAD & Prototyping
Q23. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
Option A: Analysis, Design, Coding, Testing
Option B: Planning, Analysis, Design, Coding
Option C: Planning, Design, Coding, Testing
Option D: Planning, Analysis, Coding, Testing
Q25. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit
a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which
model would you select?
Option A: Waterfall
Option B: Spiral
Option C: RAD
Option D: Incremental
4|P age
Program: _Information Technology_ Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name:Software Engineering and Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
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For the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. What is considered as Bedrock that supports Software Engineering?
Option A: Tools
Option B: Methods
Option C: Process
Option D: Quality Focus
Q4. Keypad Control for Microwave Oven is an example of which type of Software ?
Option A: Embedded Software
Option B: Product Line Software
Option C: Web Application Software
Option D: Scientific Software
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Option B: Scrum master
Option C: Product Owner
Option D: Product team
Q8. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system
?
Option A: Context Model
Option B: Behavioral Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Object Model
Q9. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
Option A: Behavioral Model
Option B: Context Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Structural Model
Q11. Which design model is used to depict the model of information represented from
users view
Option A: Architectural design
Option B: Component level design
Option C: Data design
Option D: Interface design
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Q15. White Box techniques are also known as
Option A: Design based testing
Option B: Structural Testing
Option C: Error guessing technique
Option D: Logical Testing
Q18. Which of the following is the advantage of using LOC (Line of Code) as size
oriented metrics
Option A: LOC is easily computed
Option B: LOC is language dependent measure
Option C: LOC is language independent measure
Option D: LOC can be computed before a design is completed
Q20. Which one of the following is not the part of Project Integration management?
Q21. What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?
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Option A: Risk monitoring
Option B: Risk planning
Option C: Risk analysis
Option D: Risk identification
Q22. A ____________ is the most effective filter from a quality assurance standpoint.
Option A: FTR
Option B: Brainstorming
Option C: Questionnaire
Option D: Interview
Q24. Which of the following task is not a part of software configuration management
Option A: Change control
Option B: Reporting
Option C: Statistical quality control
Option D: Version Control
4 | Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)
Q2. If you were to create Small Project with clear requirments which model would
you go for?
Option A: a) WINWIN Spiral Model
Option B: b) Spiral Model
Option C: c) Waterfall Model
Option D: d) Incremental Model
Q3. Pick up the odd one out of the following process models
Option A: Component assembly model
Option B: Prototyping Model
Option C: Spiral model
Option D: Waterfall Model
Q5. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
Option A: SDD
Option B: SRS
Option C: DDD
Option D: SRD
Q6. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system
1 | Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)
Q8. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
Option A: Behavioral Model
Option B: Context Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Structural Model
2 | Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)
Q15. How is Agile planning different from the traditional approach to planning?
Option A: Agile planning is done only once
Option B: Agile planning is non iterative
Option C: Agile planning places emphasis on the plan
Option D: Agile planning places emphasis on planning and is iterative
3 | Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)
Q21. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?
Option A: Risk monitoring
Option B: Risk planning
Option C: Risk analysis
Option D: Risk identification
Q23. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be
reduced?
Option A: Avoidance strategies
Option B: Minimization strategies
Option C: Contingency plans
Option D: Identification strategies
Principal
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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
For the students: All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q1. Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by
considering the size of the software that has been produced?
A: Size oriented
B: Function-Oriented
C: Object-Oriented
D: Use-case-Oriented
Q3. Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by
calculating number of function points in the software?
A: Time estimation
B: Effort estimation
C: Cost estimation
D: Software size estimation
Q6. The given statement describes which type of requirement? "A heat sensor detects an
intrusion and alerts the system.”
A: Known Requirement
B: Functional
C: Non-Functional
D: Unknown Requirement
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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
Q8. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with
its environment as it is used?
A: system context model
B: interaction model
C: environmental model
D: system context and interaction
Q9.
Individuals with the motivation, organization, and ideas or innovation necessary to
guide a team
A:
People
B:
Agile teams
C:
Stakeholders
D:
Team leaders
Q10.
To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed
system the requirement is used to uncover
A:
algorithmic complexity
B:
characteristics and constraints
C:
control and data
D:
design patterns
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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
Q11.
Planning, monitoring, and control of people, process, and events as software evolves
A:
Project
B:
Product
C:
Team leaders
D:
Project management
Q12.
In relation to SCM, which is an instance of a system which is functionally identical to
other instances, but designed for different hardware/software configurations?
A:
Variant
B:
Version
C:
Release
D:
Deployment
Q13.
Which testing method deals with equivalence partitioning and divides the input domain
of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived?
A:
White box
B:
Regression
C:
Black box
D:
Smoke
3 | Page
Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
Q14.
An approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules,
responsibilities, management and technical approaches, and required resources
A:
People
B:
W5HH principle
C:
Project
D:
Software scope
Q15.
Large and complex projects may be divided in to
A:
distinct -phases
B:
Sub-modules
C:
components
D:
small projects
Q16.
Senior managers, Project/technical managers, Practitioners, Customers, End users
A:
Agile teams
B:
Stakeholders
C:
Technical people
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Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
D:
Team leaders
Q17. Who provides the top management with all information need to select the project
A: Business case
B: Project framework
C: Project sponsor
D: Project manager
Q18. Effective methods for coordinating work and establishing mechanisms for
communication
A: Synchronous organization
B: Closed organization
C: Coordination and communication
D: Random organization
Q21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence to analyse a project for
implementation?
A: Time-cost study, Network, WBS, Scheduling with resource allocation
B: Network, Time-cost study, Scheduling with resource allocation, WBS,
C: WBS, Time-cost study, Network, Scheduling with resource allocation
D: WBS, Network, Scheduling with resource allocation, Time-cost study
5 | Page
Sample Question Paper (25 MCQs)
Examination 2nd to 15th December 2020
A: Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
B: High amount of risk analysis
C: Strong approval and documentation control
D: Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
Q23. During which phase of the project will risks be the highest?
A: Initiating
B: Planning
C: Execution
D: Closing
Q24. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
A: documentation
B: flowchart
C: program specification
D: design
6 | Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Program: BE Information Technology
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code:ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
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Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. Infrastructure softwares are coverd under_____
1|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option D: Software Development Life Cycle
Option A: Cost
Option C: Staffing
2|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Q9. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in
the SDLC.
Option B: Design
Option C: Analysis
Q10. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a
modeled system at a specific time?
3|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option B: Collaboration Diagram
Q11. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is
being exhibited?
Option D: Collaboration
4|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Q16. Discuss which two management should be properly aligne and connected with each
other processes to facilitate coordination in a project
5|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option C: Process and Knowledge
Q17. The progress of a project is monitored and controlled in which direction of the
project
Option A: proposal
Option B: planning
Option C: MOV
Option A: Attributes
Option B: Properties
Option C: Features
Option D: Goals
Q19. The tangibile and verifiable product of work that are produced at the end of each
phase is
Option C: Milestone
Option D: Deliverable
6|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option A: IT Framework
Option B: IT Infrastructure
Option D: ITPM
Q21. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal
circumstances is known as ________
Q22. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest
finish times for the three activities are 10, 12, and 14, then the earliest start time
for Y will be
Option A: 10
Option B: 12
Option C: 14
7|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Option A: action-oriented-network
Option B: activity-on-network
Option C: activity-on-node
Option D: activity-oriented-network
8|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Program: BE Information Technology
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering with Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
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Correct Option
Question (Enter either ‘A’ or ‘B’
or ‘C’ or ‘D’)
Q1. A
Q2. B
Q3. D
Q4 D
Q5 C
Q6 B
Q7 A
Q8. C
Q9. D
Q10. D
Q11. B
Q12. A
Q13. B
Q14. D
Q15. B
Q16. B
Q17. C
9|Page
University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 4 (PCE)
Q18. A
Q19. D
Q20. D
Q21. B
Q22. C
Q23. D
Q24. A
Q25. C
10 | P a g e